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  • Question 1 - In a diabetes specialist clinic you are about to review a 62-year-old patient...

    Correct

    • In a diabetes specialist clinic you are about to review a 62-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus, who is not responding to dietary advice and weight reduction. He therefore needs to commence taking an oral hypoglycaemic agent.
      Which of the following statements is true concerning the oral hypoglycaemic agents used in the management of diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: Acarbose inhibits α-glucosidase

      Explanation:

      Acarbose works by inhibiting the enzymes responsible for breaking down carbohydrates, specifically α-glucosidase enzymes found in the small intestine and pancreatic a-amylase. On the other hand, metformin reduces the production of glucose in the liver and increases insulin sensitivity, resulting in increased glucose uptake in peripheral tissues. Unlike sulfonylureas, metformin does not increase insulin secretion and has a lower risk of hypoglycemia. Sulfonylureas, on the other hand, increase insulin secretion by binding to ATP-sensitive K+ channels in pancreatic b-cells, but have no effect on peripheral insulin sensitivity. While the newer glitazones, rosiglitazone and pioglitazone, are not associated with hepatotoxicity, troglitazone, an older glitazone, was withdrawn due to drug-related hepatitis. Pioglitazone is associated with an increased risk of heart failure, bladder cancer, and bone fracture, and should be used with caution in high-risk individuals. Clinicians should regularly review the safety and efficacy of pioglitazone in patients to ensure that only those who benefit continue to receive treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      4863.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old woman comes in with recurring headaches. During the cranial nerve examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes in with recurring headaches. During the cranial nerve examination, it is observed that her right pupil is 3 mm while the left pupil is 5 mm. The right pupil reacts to light, but the left pupil is slow to respond. The peripheral neurological examination is normal except for challenging to elicit knee and ankle reflexes. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Holmes-Adie syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Holmes-Adie Pupil

      Holmes-Adie pupil is a condition that is more commonly observed in women and is considered a benign condition. It is one of the possible causes of a dilated pupil. In about 80% of cases, it affects only one eye. The main characteristic of this condition is a dilated pupil that remains small for an unusually long time after it has constricted. The pupil also reacts slowly to accommodation but poorly or not at all to light.

      Holmes-Adie syndrome is a condition that is associated with Holmes-Adie pupil. It is characterized by the absence of ankle and knee reflexes. This condition is not harmful and does not require any treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, fever, dry cough, headache, chest discomfort and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, fever, dry cough, headache, chest discomfort and worsening difficulty breathing. She works as a factory worker in a plant that produces air filters.
      Which of the following pathogens is the most probable cause of this illness?

      Your Answer: Legionella species

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Between Possible Causes of Pneumonia

      Pneumonia can be caused by a variety of pathogens, making it important to identify the specific cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. Legionella pneumophila is a common cause of community-acquired and nosocomial pneumonia in adults, often transmitted through contaminated water sources. Chlamydophila psittaci can cause pneumonia after exposure to infected birds, while Staphylococcus aureus can cause various infections when skin or mucosal barriers are breached. Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically causes mild respiratory tract infections, while different groups of Streptococci can cause a range of infections including pneumonia. In this clinical scenario, the patient’s occupation and symptoms suggest an atypical infection, making Legionella pneumophila the most probable cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old man presented to the eye clinic with double vision. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presented to the eye clinic with double vision. He has been experiencing this for the past few weeks. During examination, it was observed that he had horizontal diplopia and slight limitation of one of the extraocular muscles in his left eye. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and prostate cancer. Brain imaging revealed a metastatic lesion in the clivus that surrounds the cavernous sinus and carotid artery. Which cranial nerve palsy is responsible for the diplopia in this patient?

      Your Answer: Left fourth cranial nerve (CN4) palsy

      Correct Answer: Left sixth cranial nerve (CN6) palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the 12 Cranial Nerves and their Functions

      The human body has 12 pairs of cranial nerves that originate from the brainstem and control various functions such as movement, sensation, and reflexes. Each nerve has a specific function and pathway, and damage to any of these nerves can result in various clinical symptoms.

      Some of the important functions of these nerves include smell (olfactory nerve), sight (optic nerve), eye movement (oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), facial sensation and mastication (trigeminal nerve), facial movement and taste (facial nerve), hearing and balance (vestibulocochlear nerve), taste and swallowing (glossopharyngeal nerve), phonation and innervation of viscera (vagus nerve), head and shoulder movement (accessory nerve), and tongue movement (hypoglossal nerve).

      In addition to their primary functions, some of these nerves also play a role in various reflexes such as the corneal reflex, jaw jerk reflex, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and pathways of these cranial nerves is essential for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3700.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 72-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. During examination, her temperature is 37.8ºC, pulse 102 / min, and respiratory rate 30 / min. She has generalised guarding and tenderness in her abdomen. Blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 10.9 g/dl, MCV 76 fl, Plt 348 * 109/l, WBC 23.4 * 109/l, Na+ 141 mmol/l, K+ 5.0 mmol/l, Bicarbonate 14 mmol/l, Urea 8.0 mmol/l, and Creatinine 118 µmol/l. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mesenteric ischaemia

      Explanation:

      The presence of low bicarbonate levels indicates a metabolic acidosis, which strongly indicates the possibility of mesenteric ischemia.

      Bowel Ischaemia: Types, Features, and Management

      Bowel ischaemia is a condition that can affect the lower gastrointestinal tract and can result in various clinical conditions. Although there is no standard classification, it is helpful to categorize cases into three main conditions: acute mesenteric ischaemia, chronic mesenteric ischaemia, and ischaemic colitis. Common predisposing factors for bowel ischaemia include increasing age, atrial fibrillation (particularly for mesenteric ischaemia), other causes of emboli, cardiovascular disease risk factors, and cocaine use. Common features of bowel ischaemia include abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, diarrhea, fever, and elevated white blood cell count associated with lactic acidosis.

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia is typically caused by an embolism resulting in occlusion of an artery that supplies the small bowel, such as the superior mesenteric artery. Urgent surgery is usually required for management, and prognosis is poor, especially if surgery is delayed. Chronic mesenteric ischaemia is a relatively rare clinical diagnosis that may be thought of as intestinal angina, with intermittent abdominal pain occurring. Ischaemic colitis describes an acute but transient compromise in the blood flow to the large bowel, which may lead to inflammation, ulceration, and hemorrhage.

      Diagnosis of bowel ischaemia is typically done through CT scans. In acute mesenteric ischaemia, the abdominal pain is typically severe, of sudden onset, and out-of-keeping with physical exam findings. In chronic mesenteric ischaemia, the symptoms are non-specific. In ischaemic colitis, thumbprinting may be seen on abdominal x-ray due to mucosal edema/haemorrhage. Management of bowel ischaemia is usually supportive, but surgery may be required in a minority of cases if conservative measures fail. Indications for surgery would include generalized peritonitis, perforation, or ongoing hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following skin conditions is not linked to diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following skin conditions is not linked to diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: Lipoatrophy

      Correct Answer: Sweet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sweet’s syndrome is a condition associated with acute myeloid leukemia, also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis, but not with diabetes mellitus.

      Skin Disorders Linked to Diabetes

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body, including the skin. Several skin disorders are associated with diabetes, including necrobiosis lipoidica, infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal, neuropathic ulcers, vitiligo, lipoatrophy, and granuloma annulare. Necrobiosis lipoidica is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow, red, or brown skin, typically on the shin, and is often associated with surrounding telangiectasia. Infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal can also occur in individuals with diabetes. Neuropathic ulcers are a common complication of diabetes, and vitiligo and lipoatrophy are also associated with the condition. Granuloma annulare is a papular lesion that is often slightly hyperpigmented and depressed centrally, but recent studies have not confirmed a significant association between diabetes mellitus and this skin disorder. It is important for individuals with diabetes to be aware of these potential skin complications and to seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8
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  • Question 7 - You are working in the sexual health clinic. A 26-year-old male presents with...

    Correct

    • You are working in the sexual health clinic. A 26-year-old male presents with dysuria and urethral discharge. He had unprotected sexual intercourse 3 weeks ago. You do a full sexual health screen. Three days later he returns to get his results; the initial test is positive for Neisseria gonorrhoea, sensitivities are not known.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.

      Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old woman complains of 'strange spots' affecting her eyesight. She has observed...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman complains of 'strange spots' affecting her eyesight. She has observed several flashes and floaters in the visual field of her left eye over the last few days. What could be the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Posterior vitreous detachment

      Explanation:

      Retinal tear is a common condition among individuals aged 65 years and above, and it is the most probable diagnosis in this case. Typically, an ophthalmologist will evaluate such patients to determine the likelihood of developing retinal detachment.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arteritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arteritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 4-year-old child is presented for surgery due to the mother's observation of...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child is presented for surgery due to the mother's observation of 'cross-eyed' appearance. The corneal light reflection test confirms the diagnosis. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to refer children who have a squint to ophthalmology for further evaluation.

      Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.

      To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.

      If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      3916.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man who takes omeprazole 20 mg for gastroesophageal reflux disease has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man who takes omeprazole 20 mg for gastroesophageal reflux disease has reported a recent worsening of his indigestion and an unintentional weight loss of 5kg over the past 2 months. He has been referred for a 2-week wait and scheduled for an endoscopy in 3 weeks. What guidance should he receive regarding his omeprazole usage?

      Your Answer: Continue taking omeprazole 20mg until day of gastroscopy

      Correct Answer: Stop taking omeprazole 2 weeks before endoscopy

      Explanation:

      To avoid the possibility of masking serious underlying pathology like gastric cancer, patients who are taking proton pump inhibitors or H2 receptor blockers should discontinue their use at least two weeks before undergoing an endoscopy.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.

      For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old primip has a stillborn baby at 34 weeks gestation. The infant...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primip has a stillborn baby at 34 weeks gestation. The infant presents with microcephaly, micrognathia, and club feet. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Klinefelters Syndrome

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 18

      Explanation:

      Edward’s syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. The baby affected by this syndrome will have experienced slow growth in the womb and will have a low birthweight. Unfortunately, around half of those who survive to birth will pass away within two weeks, and only one in every five will live for at least three months. The survival rate beyond one year is only one in every 12 babies born with Edwards’ syndrome. This information is according to NHS Choices.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 26-year-old male with no significant medical history is brought to the operating...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male with no significant medical history is brought to the operating room for an emergency appendectomy. He is induced with sevoflurane and maintained on sevoflurane and propofol. Suddenly, an alert on the anesthesia machine pops up, indicating elevated end-tidal CO2. The patient's condition appears to have worsened, with skin mottling and excessive sweating.

      What could be the probable cause of this sudden change in the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Endobronchial intubation

      Correct Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Explanation:

      Volatile liquid anaesthetics (isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane) can cause malignant hyperthermia, a rare genetic disorder that causes skeletal muscle to contract rapidly and can lead to acidosis, increased CO2, and elevated body temperature. This is the likely cause of the patient’s acute deterioration after receiving sevoflurane. Other potential causes, such as cardiac arrest, endobronchial intubation, normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and spontaneous appendix perforation, do not explain the specific symptoms observed.

      Overview of General Anaesthetics

      General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.

      Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.

      It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      40.1
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of worsening right knee pain and limited mobility. He reports falling off his bike a few days ago but did not experience any knee pain until yesterday. Upon examination, the right knee appears red and hot with only 20º of flexion and a small effusion. The patient has a history of a conservatively treated ACL rupture in the other knee.

      The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate 100 beats/min, respiratory rate 18/min, saturations 98% on room air, blood pressure 102/67 mmHg, and temperature 37.9ºC. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 145 g/L, platelets of 500 * 109/L, a white cell count of 13.6 * 109/L, a sodium level of 142 mmol/L, a potassium level of 5.0 mmol/L, a urea level of 4.0 mmol/L, a creatinine level of 110 µmol/L, and a CRP level of 130 mg/L. X-ray results show no obvious bony injury.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Urgent orthopaedic review

      Explanation:

      Septic arthritis is most commonly observed in adults’ knees, which presents as sudden joint pain and immobility, accompanied by fever and elevated inflammatory markers. Urgent orthopaedic evaluation is necessary for aspiration and potential washout, as untreated septic arthritis can lead to joint destruction within hours to days. Discharging the patient with oral antibiotics or physiotherapy is not recommended. Administering colchicine is not appropriate as there is no history of gout or pseudogout, and X-ray results do not indicate chondrocalcinosis. Ordering an MRI knee scan may delay appropriate treatment and will not impact management.

      Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.

      To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old female patient attends a routine appointment at the GP surgery to...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient attends a routine appointment at the GP surgery to discuss her use of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She informs you that she has recently started taking some medications and is concerned about their potential impact on the effectiveness of the contraceptive pill. Can you identify which medication may decrease the efficacy of the COCP?

      Your Answer: St John's wort

      Explanation:

      If enzyme-inducing drugs are taken at the same time as the combined oral contraceptive pill, its effectiveness is decreased. Out of the given choices, only St John’s wort is an enzyme inducer, while the rest are enzyme inhibitors.

      Counselling for Women Considering the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on the potential harms and benefits of the pill. The COC is highly effective if taken correctly, with a success rate of over 99%. However, there is a small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, and strokes, as well as an increased risk of breast and cervical cancer.

      In addition to discussing the potential risks and benefits, women should also receive advice on how to take the pill. If the COC is started within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle, there is no need for additional contraception. However, if it is started at any other point in the cycle, alternative contraception should be used for the first 7 days. Women should take the pill at the same time every day and should be aware that intercourse during the pill-free period is only safe if the next pack is started on time.

      There have been recent changes to the guidelines for taking the COC. While it was previously recommended to take the pill for 21 days and then stop for 7 days to mimic menstruation, it is now recommended to discuss tailored regimes with women. This is because there is no medical benefit to having a withdrawal bleed, and options include never having a pill-free interval or taking three 21-day packs back-to-back before having a 4 or 7 day break.

      Women should also be informed of situations where the efficacy of the pill may be reduced, such as vomiting within 2 hours of taking the pill, medication that induces diarrhoea or vomiting, or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. It is also important to discuss sexually transmitted infections and precautions that should be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.

      Overall, counselling for women considering the COC should cover a range of topics to ensure that they are fully informed and able to make an informed decision about their contraceptive options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      15.5
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman with mild learning disability lives with her sister who has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with mild learning disability lives with her sister who has recently undergone surgery. Her sister reports that, since her surgery, the woman has stopped attending her weekly art class, has lost weight and has become withdrawn, refusing to engage in conversation.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anxiety

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Mental Health Disorders in Patients with Learning Disabilities

      When diagnosing mental health disorders in patients with learning disabilities, it can be challenging to differentiate between different conditions. In cases of major depression, patients may present with loss of interests, social withdrawal, and biological symptoms such as loss of appetite and weight. However, individuals with learning disabilities may be less likely to express depressive ideas, making diagnosis more reliant on changes in behavior and physical symptoms. Treatment for depression in patients with learning disabilities is similar to that of the general population, but special care must be taken in selecting antidepressants due to the higher incidence of physical health problems.

      In cases of dementia, cognitive decline is typically present, whereas the patient in this scenario is experiencing depression following a traumatic event. Anxiety can also accompany depression, but the presence of biological symptoms and loss of interests suggest major depression. Social withdrawal in this scenario is more likely caused by depression rather than psychosis, and symptoms of mania would be the opposite of those listed. Overall, careful observation and consideration of individual patient history and symptoms are necessary for accurate diagnosis and treatment of mental health disorders in patients with learning disabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      33.9
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  • Question 16 - A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath....

    Correct

    • A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath. He has been experiencing a dry cough for the past two weeks. He works as a full-time accountant, does not smoke, and drinks approximately 15 units of alcohol per week. He recently went on a trip to Amsterdam with some friends. He has also noticed a widespread skin rash with pink rings and pale centers. Upon admission, his blood work shows low sodium levels, normal potassium levels, elevated urea levels, and high creatinine levels. His chest x-ray reveals diffuse reticular infiltrates and a small pleural effusion on the right side. What is the most likely organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Typical presentation of mycoplasma pneumonia includes flu-like symptoms that progressively worsen and a dry cough. During examination, the patient may exhibit erythema multiforme, indicating the presence of the infection. This type of pneumonia is commonly acquired within the community. Although Streptococcus pneumoniae is also a possible cause, it is not the focus of this particular case.

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A Cause of Atypical Pneumonia

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia, which is more common in younger patients. This disease is associated with various complications such as erythema multiforme and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Epidemics of Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically occur every four years. It is important to recognize atypical pneumonia because it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to the bacteria lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      The disease usually has a gradual onset and is preceded by flu-like symptoms, followed by a dry cough. X-rays may show bilateral consolidation. Complications may include cold agglutinins, erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum, meningoencephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, bullous myringitis, pericarditis/myocarditis, and gastrointestinal and renal problems.

      Diagnosis is generally made through Mycoplasma serology and a positive cold agglutination test. Management involves the use of doxycycline or a macrolide such as erythromycin or clarithromycin.

      In comparison to Legionella pneumonia, which is caused by a different type of bacteria, Mycoplasma pneumoniae has a more gradual onset and is associated with different complications. It is important to differentiate between the two types of pneumonia to ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      53.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 6-year-old girl is presenting with swelling of her hands and feet and...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is presenting with swelling of her hands and feet and an abnormally wide neck. Upon karyotyping, it is discovered that she has monosomy X and 45X. During physical examination, mild aortic stenosis is observed. What congenital condition is most likely linked to this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Coarctation of the Aorta from Other Congenital Heart Diseases

      Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart disease that can present in different forms and be associated with various genetic abnormalities. Preductal coarctation of the aorta, which is more common in Turner syndrome, is characterized by aortic stenosis proximal to the insertion of the ductus arteriosus. On the other hand, post-ductal coarctation is the adult type of the disease and is not associated with any genetic abnormalities. Patent ductus arteriosus, another congenital heart disease, is not associated with any genetic abnormalities. Tetralogy of Fallot, which is associated with di George syndrome, and transposition of the great vessels are also congenital heart diseases that can be differentiated from coarctation of the aorta. Understanding the different clinical features and associations of these diseases is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      31.3
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman attends her first antenatal appointment at 10 weeks’ gestation. This...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman attends her first antenatal appointment at 10 weeks’ gestation. This is her second pregnancy. She has a history of hypertension and is taking medication for it. She is offered antenatal screening for chromosomal abnormalities, including Down syndrome.
      Which of the following tests is used in antenatal screening for Down syndrome?

      Your Answer: Nuchal thickness

      Explanation:

      Prenatal Screening Tests for Fetal Abnormalities

      During pregnancy, various screening tests are conducted to detect any fetal abnormalities. One such test is the measurement of nuchal thickness, which is the fluid-filled sac between the back of the neck and the skin. An increase in thickness is associated with a decreased chance of normal birth and can detect 60-70% of Down syndrome cases. Other screening tests include measuring pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A (PAPP-A), b-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG), E3, and α-fetoprotein (AFP). Low PAPP-A, in combination with free β-hCG, is 65% accurate in diagnosing Down syndrome. The biparietal diameter (BPD) is the diameter across the skull and is associated with neurodevelopmental outcomes. Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate is an adrenal androgen that is not influenced by pregnancy. Ultrasound assessment for herniation of the dural sac is used to screen for spina bifida. Utero-placental Doppler is used to identify at-risk women for pre-eclampsia and intrauterine growth restriction but is not useful in detecting Down syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner complaining of pallor, fatigue, weakness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner complaining of pallor, fatigue, weakness, palpitations and dyspnoea on exertion. Her symptoms have developed rapidly over the past two weeks. A blood test and bone marrow biopsy reveal a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).
      What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Iron transfusion

      Correct Answer: Chemotherapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia

      Acute leukaemia, specifically acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), is characterized by an increase in undifferentiated blast cells in the bone marrow and blood, leading to marrow failure. The traditional treatment approach for AML involves three components: induction, consolidation, and maintenance chemotherapy. Combination chemotherapy is used to eradicate blast cells, with maintenance chemotherapy given to eliminate any remaining disease.

      Iron transfusions may be necessary to treat anaemia or platelet deficiency, but they are not a direct treatment for acute leukaemia. Patients with leukaemia are at risk of graft-versus-host disease, so they are given irradiated blood components.

      Intravenous immunoglobulins are not a treatment for acute leukaemia but may be used to prevent infection in patients with hypogammaglobulinaemia resulting from cancer treatment.

      Radiotherapy is not a first-line treatment for acute leukaemia, but it may be used to treat disease that has spread to the brain or spinal cord. Total body radiotherapy can also be used before a stem-cell transplant to reduce the risk of transplant rejection.

      Stem-cell transplants can be allogeneic (from a matched or partially matched donor) or autologous (from the patient’s own stem cells) and are used after remission induction with chemotherapy. The goal is to restore the body’s ability to produce normal blood cells and can be curative, but it is not a first-line treatment.

      Understanding Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A pregnant woman presents at 24 weeks pregnant. What would be the expected...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman presents at 24 weeks pregnant. What would be the expected symphysis-fundal height?

      Your Answer: 15 - 17 cm

      Correct Answer: 22 - 26 cm

      Explanation:

      The symphysis-fundal height in centimeters after 20 weeks of gestation is equal to the number of weeks of gestation.

      The symphysis-fundal height (SFH) is a measurement taken from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus in centimetres. It is used to determine the gestational age of a fetus and should match within 2 cm after 20 weeks. For example, if a woman is 24 weeks pregnant, a normal SFH would be between 22 and 26 cm. Proper measurement of SFH is important for monitoring fetal growth and development during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 21-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with a lump on his...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with a lump on his eyelid that he has noticed for two days. The GP diagnoses it as a chalazion. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Apply heat and massage daily

      Explanation:

      Managing Chalazion: Options and Recommendations

      Chalazion, also known as meibomian cyst, is a painless inflammatory lesion of the eyelid that contains meibomian secretions. While it is a self-limiting condition, it may become infected and require medical attention. Here are some management options and recommendations for chalazion:

      Apply Heat and Massage Daily: The best way to manage chalazion is to apply heat and massage daily to release the oil. This treatment option is effective and usually improves the condition without the need for antibiotics.

      Refer to Ophthalmology Urgently: While GPs can manage chalazion, referrals to ophthalmology should be made if the lesion does not improve with treatment or if the GP feels the lesion might be suspicious.

      Surgical Incision: If medical management has been unsuccessful, chalazions can be removed surgically by incision and curettage.

      Topical Antibiotics: There is no indication for the use of antibiotics in the treatment of chalazion.

      Watch and Wait: While chalazions can sometimes resolve with time without treatment, they usually require medical attention. As such, watch and wait is not an appropriate management option.

      In summary, applying heat and massage daily is the best way to manage chalazion. Referrals to ophthalmology should be made if necessary, and surgical incision may be required if medical management is unsuccessful. Topical antibiotics are not recommended, and watch and wait is not an appropriate management option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old woman presents after an episode of confusion. She had just finished...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents after an episode of confusion. She had just finished cooking dinner when she started to behave in a manner that worried her husband. When he questioned her about what was the matter, she appeared not to know where she was, what day it was or indeed who her husband was. She did, however, have knowledge of her own identity. Her husband mentioned that she also complained of feeling tired, so went to sleep and woke the next day feeling well and having returned to normal, but she was unable to recall exactly what had happened the previous day. She is a non-smoker. On examination there are no abnormalities.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient global amnesia (TGA)

      Explanation:

      Transient Global Amnesia: A Temporary Disorder of Memory

      Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a temporary and isolated disorder of memory that typically affects patients aged over 50. It is characterized by a sudden onset of anterograde amnesia, which can last for several hours. The patient retains remote memories and immediate recall, but has no memory of the event after recovery. TGA can be triggered by various factors, such as sexual intercourse, heavy exercise, and exposure to hot or cold water.

      To diagnose TGA, all of the following criteria must be met: the attack was witnessed and reported, there was obvious anterograde amnesia during the attack, there was no clouding of consciousness, there were no focal neurological signs or deficits during or after the attack, there were no features of epilepsy, the attack resolved within 24 hours, and the patient did not have any recent head injury or active epilepsy.

      Although there is a correlation between TGA and migraine, it is not associated with cerebrovascular disease. The condition usually resolves spontaneously, and there is a small risk of recurrence.

      Other conditions that can cause memory loss or confusion include subarachnoid hemorrhage, right caudate hemorrhage, cerebral venous thrombosis, and right hemisphere TIA. However, these conditions have different clinical presentations and require different diagnostic criteria.

      In conclusion, TGA is a benign condition that can cause temporary memory loss and confusion. It is important to recognize the characteristic features of TGA and differentiate it from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      53.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You assess a patient's eye and discovered that both pupils constrict when focusing...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient's eye and discovered that both pupils constrict when focusing on a nearby object but fail to narrow when exposed to bright light. What is the most frequent reason for this pupillary response in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: Optic neuritis

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      In the UK, diabetes mellitus is now the most frequent cause of Argyll-Robertson pupil, as neurosyphilis is no longer commonly observed due to effective antibiotic treatment. This condition is not caused by sexually transmitted diseases such as chlamydia or gonorrhoea, nor is it associated with optic neuritis, which instead causes a Marcus Gunn pupil or Relative afferent pupillary defect.

      Argyll-Robertson Pupil: A Classic Pupillary Syndrome

      The Argyll-Robertson Pupil (ARP) is a classic pupillary syndrome that is sometimes observed in neurosyphilis. It is characterized by small, irregular pupils that do not respond to light but do respond to accommodation. A useful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA).

      The ARP can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis. It is important to note that the presence of an ARP may indicate underlying neurological or systemic disease and should prompt further evaluation and management. Proper diagnosis and treatment of the underlying condition can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old female patient comes in for her initial cervical screening. What is...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female patient comes in for her initial cervical screening. What is the primary causative factor responsible for cervical cancer?

      Your Answer: Human papilloma virus 16 & 18

      Explanation:

      The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with human papillomavirus, specifically types 16, 18, and 33, among others.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV

      Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.

      The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.

      The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is not a known side effect of the combined...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a known side effect of the combined oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of cervical cancer

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of ovarian cancer

      Explanation:

      While the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of breast and cervical cancer, it has been found to provide protection against ovarian and endometrial cancer. In fact, studies have shown that the pill can actually decrease the risk of ovarian cancer.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than 1 per 100 woman years. It does not interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to the combined oral contraceptive pill. One of the main issues is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side-effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      It is important to weigh the pros and cons of the combined oral contraceptive pill before deciding if it is the right method of birth control for you. While some users report weight gain while taking the pill, a Cochrane review did not support a causal relationship. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be an effective and convenient method of birth control, but it is important to discuss any concerns or potential risks with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 5-year-old boy presents to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy presents to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever and a rash. He has been feeling sick for 5 days with persistent high temperatures. During the examination, he displays cracked lips, a bright red tongue, a widespread erythematous maculopapular rash, and peeling of the skin on his hands and feet. Additionally, he has bilateral conjunctivitis. What is the necessary investigation to screen for a potential complication, given the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chest x-ray

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease can lead to coronary artery aneurysms, which can be detected through an echocardiogram. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, the patient must have a fever for more than 5 days and at least 4 of the following symptoms: bilateral conjunctivitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, polymorphic rash, cracked lips/strawberry tongue, and oedema/desquamation of the hands/feet. This patient has a rash, conjunctivitis, mucosal involvement, and desquamation of the hands and feet, indicating Kawasaki disease. While cardiac magnetic resonance angiography is a non-invasive alternative to coronary angiography, it is not first-line due to its cost and limited availability. A chest x-ray may be considered to check for cardiomegaly, but it is not necessary as echocardiography can diagnose pericarditis or myocarditis without radiation. Coronary angiography is invasive and carries risks, so it is not first-line unless large coronary artery aneurysms are seen on echocardiography. A lumbar puncture is not necessary at this stage unless the patient displays symptoms of meningitis.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old patient visits their doctor with suspected tonsillitis recurrence. They report having...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient visits their doctor with suspected tonsillitis recurrence. They report having had tonsillitis three times in the past year and currently have a fever and cough. During the examination, the doctor notes tender cervical lymphadenopathy and exudative tonsils. The patient is prescribed phenoxymethylpenicillin. On day 5 of treatment, blood tests are taken and reveal the following results:

      Hb 150 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 390 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 10.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Neuts 0.8 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Lymphs 9.2 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)
      Mono 0.2 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)
      Eosin 0.0 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)

      What could be the possible reasons for the abnormalities in these blood results?

      Your Answer: Underlying diagnosis of lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Underlying diagnosis of glandular fever

      Explanation:

      The presence of lymphocytosis and neutropenia in a person who has been treated for recurrent tonsillitis may indicate an underlying condition. Glandular fever, caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, is a common cause of recurrent tonsillitis in young people and can result in an increase in activated T and B lymphocytes, leading to lymphocytosis. The virus may also cause neutropenia, although the exact cause is not fully understood. A peritonsillar abscess, tonsillitis unresponsive to treatment, and treatment with phenoxymethylpenicillin are unlikely to cause significant abnormalities in the full blood count. While lymphoma may explain the lymphocytosis, it would not account for the neutropenia and is less likely than an underlying glandular fever infection.

      Understanding Neutropaenia: Causes and Severity

      Neutropaenia is a medical condition characterized by low neutrophil counts, which is below 1.5 * 109. A normal neutrophil count ranges from 2.0 to 7.5 * 109. It is crucial to recognize this condition as it increases the risk of severe infections. Neutropaenia can be classified into three categories based on its severity: mild (1.0 – 1.5 * 109), moderate (0.5 – 1.0 * 109), and severe (< 0.5 * 109). There are several causes of neutropaenia, including viral infections such as HIV, Epstein-Barr virus, and hepatitis. Certain drugs like cytotoxics, carbimazole, and clozapine can also cause neutropaenia. Benign ethnic neutropaenia is common in people of black African and Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, but it requires no treatment. Haematological malignancies like myelodysplastic malignancies and aplastic anemia, as well as rheumatological conditions like systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis, can also cause neutropaenia. Severe sepsis and haemodialysis are other potential causes of neutropaenia. In summary, neutropaenia is a medical condition that can increase the risk of severe infections. It is important to recognize its severity and underlying causes to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      55.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of diplopia that...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of diplopia that has been ongoing for 2 months. She reports feeling more fatigued and weak towards the end of the day. Upon examination, anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies are detected in her blood. A CT scan of her chest is ordered and reveals the presence of an anterior mediastinal mass. What is the most probable diagnosis for this mass?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Correct Answer: Thymoma

      Explanation:

      The most common causes of a mass in the anterior mediastinum are referred to as the 4 T’s: teratoma, terrible lymphadenopathy, thymic mass, and thyroid mass. The woman’s symptoms and positive anti-AChR suggest that she may have myasthenia gravis, which requires a CT chest to check for a thymoma. Other conditions that may show up on a CT chest, such as benign lung nodules, lung tumors, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis, are unlikely given her presentation. It is important to note that the mediastinum is not the same as the lungs, and therefore, all other answer options are incorrect as the question specifically asks for an anterior mediastinal mass.

      The Mediastinum and its Regions

      The mediastinum is the area located between the two pulmonary cavities and is covered by the mediastinal pleura. It extends from the thoracic inlet at the top to the diaphragm at the bottom. The mediastinum is divided into four regions: the superior mediastinum, middle mediastinum, posterior mediastinum, and anterior mediastinum.

      The superior mediastinum is located between the manubriosternal angle and T4/5 and contains important structures such as the superior vena cava, brachiocephalic veins, arch of aorta, thoracic duct, trachea, oesophagus, thymus, vagus nerve, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and phrenic nerve.

      The anterior mediastinum contains thymic remnants, lymph nodes, and fat. The middle mediastinum contains the pericardium, heart, aortic root, arch of azygos vein, and main bronchi. The posterior mediastinum contains the oesophagus, thoracic aorta, azygos vein, thoracic duct, vagus nerve, sympathetic nerve trunks, and splanchnic nerves.

      In summary, the mediastinum is a crucial area of the chest that contains many important structures and is divided into four distinct regions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      82.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old man presents to the GP with a swelling in his scrotum....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the GP with a swelling in his scrotum. He is feeling well otherwise. Upon examination, there is a soft swelling on the right side of the scrotum that is painless and illuminates brightly with a pen torch. The swelling is localized to the scrotum, and the rest of the scrotum can be palpated above the mass. The testicle is palpable with no apparent mass. The patient is particularly concerned about the possibility of having testicular cancer.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hydrocele

      Explanation:

      Scrotal swelling caused by an accumulation of fluid in the tunica vaginalis is known as a hydrocele. This condition can be identified by its ability to transilluminate brightly with a pen torch and is confined to the scrotum. While epididymo-orchitis can also cause unilateral swelling, it is typically tender and accompanied by systemic symptoms. Testicular cancer may lead to a hydrocele, but if the testis is palpable and normal, it is less likely to be the cause of the swelling. In cases where the testis is not palpable, patients should be referred for a testicular ultrasound.

      Common Scrotal Problems and Their Features

      Epididymal cysts, hydroceles, and varicoceles are the most common scrotal problems seen in primary care. Epididymal cysts are usually found posterior to the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They may be associated with conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound, and management is usually supportive, although surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.

      Hydroceles, on the other hand, describe the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They may be communicating or non-communicating, and may develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Hydroceles are usually soft, non-tender swellings of the hemi-scrotum that transilluminate with a pen torch. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, with infantile hydroceles generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years.

      Varicoceles, on the other hand, are abnormal enlargements of the testicular veins that are usually asymptomatic but may be associated with subfertility. They are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound with Doppler studies, and management is usually conservative, although surgery may be required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP for a check-up of her diabetes medication....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP for a check-up of her diabetes medication. During the examination, the GP observes that the patient has unusually large hands and feet and prominent supraorbital ridges. After obtaining consent for a more detailed examination, the GP discovers acanthosis nigricans in the patient's neck, enlargement of her thyroid gland, and hepatomegaly. Besides diabetes, what other condition is frequently linked to acromegaly?

      Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Acromegaly is a medical condition caused by hypersecretion of growth hormone, which can lead to various health problems. One of the associated conditions is diabetes mellitus, as acromegaly is often linked with insulin resistance. Another condition is acanthosis nigricans, which involves hyperpigmentation of the skin. However, there is no general pigmentation associated with acromegaly.

      Cardiovascular disease is also a common association, which can increase the risk of atrial fibrillation. Left ventricular hypertrophy is another condition that can occur with acromegaly.

      Finally, ulnar nerve entrapment is not directly associated with acromegaly, but carpal tunnel syndrome affecting the median nerve is a common association.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 32-year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of a crooked smile. He...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of a crooked smile. He reports experiencing some discomfort behind his ear but otherwise feels fine. Upon examination, a left-sided facial nerve palsy is observed, affecting the face from forehead to chin. Both tympanic membranes appear normal.
      What is the probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Bell’s palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Bell’s palsy is a temporary paralysis of the facial nerve that typically presents with facial weakness, pain behind the ear, earache, aural fullness, or facial palsy. It is caused by a unilateral, lower motor neuron lesion, affecting the muscles controlling facial expression on one side only. The forehead is involved in Bell’s palsy, unlike in upper motor neuron lesions such as a cerebrovascular accident.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include Ramsey Hunt syndrome, which is associated with severe pain and caused by herpes zoster virus, and transient ischaemic attack/stroke, which is the sudden onset of focal neurological signs that completely resolve within 24 hours.

      Syphilis and vasculitis are not typically associated with Bell’s palsy. Syphilis has various stages, with primary syphilis presenting with a chancre and secondary syphilis characterized by multi-system involvement. Vasculitis has many different types, including Churg–Strauss syndrome, temporal arteritis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Henloch–Schönlein purpura, and polymyalgia rheumatica.

      Management of Bell’s palsy includes reassurance and meticulous eye care to prevent complications such as corneal abrasions. Oral corticosteroids, such as prednisolone, are effective if given within 72 hours of onset. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and management of Bell’s palsy is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 63-year-old male with a recent myocardial infarction experiences ventricular fibrillation while in...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male with a recent myocardial infarction experiences ventricular fibrillation while in the coronary care unit. The heart monitor records this event. An emergency call is made and a defibrillator is quickly brought to the scene. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Administer a praecordial thump, then adrenaline

      Correct Answer: Administer three successive shocks, then commence CPR

      Explanation:

      In a witnessed cardiac arrest with VF/VT rhythm, up to three quick successive shocks should be given before starting chest compressions. This is regarded as the first shock in the ALS algorithm. Adrenaline should be given every 3-5 minutes and a praecordial thump should only be used if a defibrillator is not available. Commencing CPR after just one shock would miss the opportunity to deliver three rapid shocks.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of myalgia in the shoulder...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of myalgia in the shoulder girdle and low-grade fevers that have persisted for three weeks. He also mentions experiencing a brief loss of vision in his left eye. Based on the probable diagnosis, what laboratory test would be the most effective for diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica primarily relies on the detection of elevated inflammatory markers.

      Among the laboratory tests, the most valuable in diagnosing PMR is the measurement of ESR levels.
      Although CK and electromyography are commonly used in diagnosing muscle disorders, they may not be helpful in detecting PMR.
      While CPR and white cell count may show increased levels in PMR, they are not specific enough to confirm the diagnosis.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 34 - A 3-day-old infant delivered via caesarean section at 38 weeks gestation presents with...

    Correct

    • A 3-day-old infant delivered via caesarean section at 38 weeks gestation presents with limb hypoplasia, rudimentary digits, and microcephaly. What is the probable prenatal infection that the baby was exposed to?

      Your Answer: Varicella zoster virus

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, if a woman shows signs of primary infection with varicella zoster, it is considered a classical indication. The risk to the fetus is highest before 20 weeks of gestation and can lead to skin scarring, limb underdevelopment, microcephaly, and eye defects. If there is any uncertainty about a pregnant woman’s history of chickenpox, she should be tested for varicella antibodies and given varicella zoster immunoglobulins if she is not immune. Cytomegalovirus infection during pregnancy can result in cerebral calcification, microcephaly, and sensorineural deafness. HIV does not pose any physical risk to the developing fetus, but there is a risk of perinatal transmission. Rubella infections during pregnancy are linked to deafness, congenital cataracts, and cardiac complications.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      18.9
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  • Question 35 - A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. Her mother was recently released...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. Her mother was recently released from the hospital after fracturing her hip. The patient is worried that she may have inherited osteoporosis and wants to know what steps she should take. She has no significant medical history, does not take any regular medications, and has never experienced any fractures. She is a smoker, consuming approximately 20 cigarettes per day, and drinks 3-4 units of alcohol daily.

      What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Use the FRAX tool

      Explanation:

      Due to her positive family history, smoking, and excess alcohol intake, this woman is at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis. Therefore, it is recommended that she undergo a FRAX assessment without delay, rather than waiting until the age of 65 as typically recommended for women without such risk factors.

      Assessing the Risk of Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012 for assessing the risk of fragility fracture. Women aged 65 years and older and men aged 75 years and older should be assessed, while younger patients should be assessed in the presence of risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, history of falls, and low body mass index.

      NICE recommends using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors.

      If the FRAX assessment was done without a bone mineral density (BMD) measurement, the results will be categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the FRAX assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorised into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. Patients assessed using QFracture are not automatically categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 20-year-old girl presented at the age of 5 years with progressive ataxia....

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old girl presented at the age of 5 years with progressive ataxia. She is now wheelchair-bound. On examination, she is now dysarthric, with bilateral optic atrophy. There is ataxia in both upper limbs. Reflexes in her lower limbs are absent, with bilateral extensor plantar response. She has absent vibration and impaired joint position in both feet. Bilateral pes cavus is apparent. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows inverted T waves. Echocardiogram reveals left ventricular hypertrophy.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Friedreich’s ataxia

      Explanation:

      Friedreich’s ataxia is a common inherited progressive ataxia in the UK that typically presents in childhood or adolescence. The earliest symptom is gait ataxia, followed by limb ataxia, absent lower limb reflexes, and later weakness and wasting of the limbs. Other common features include reduced or absent vibration sense and proprioception, spasticity, dysarthria, dysphagia, cardiac abnormalities, scoliosis, pes cavus, equinovarus, sleep apnea, and urinary frequency/urgency. The history is classic for this condition, and the ECG may show left ventricular hypertrophy. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, Huntington’s disease, and multiple sclerosis are not consistent with this history, while vitamin B12 deficiency may cause similar symptoms but is generally a condition of adults and does not fit the clinical picture as well as Friedreich’s ataxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      155.3
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  • Question 37 - As a junior doctor in the Emergency Department, you encounter a 40-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • As a junior doctor in the Emergency Department, you encounter a 40-year-old woman who has been brought in by the police under a section 135. The police had to obtain a warrant as part of the process. The patient is currently agitated and speaking incoherently about religious phrases. She has a documented history of severe depression.

      What powers does section 135 grant to the police in this situation?

      Your Answer: To bring a person with suspected mental health issues in from their property

      Explanation:

      If the police believe that someone requires a mental health assessment or treatment, they can request a section 135 to remove the individual from their property. The procedure involves an Approved Mental Health Practitioner (AMHP) presenting evidence at a Magistrate’s Court to obtain a warrant. This warrant permits the Police, an AMHP, and a registered medical practitioner to enter the premises and conduct an assessment or take the person to a safe location for evaluation.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 38 - A 25-year-old woman who uses the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) contacted the...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who uses the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) contacted the clinic after missing one dose. She typically takes one tablet at 9 pm every day, but she forgot and remembered the next morning. Her last period was 12 days ago.

      What guidance should be provided to this patient?

      Your Answer: Take the missed dose immediately and then take the next pill at 10pm

      Explanation:

      If a woman on COCP misses one pill, she should take the missed pill immediately and then take the next pill at the usual time. There is no need for any further action or emergency contraception such as a copper IUD. She can continue with the 7-day pill-free break as normal. Discarding the missed pill is not recommended as it could increase the risk of an unwanted pregnancy. Starting the next pack without the 7-day break is also not necessary in this case. However, if she misses two pills and there are fewer than seven pills left in the pack, she would need to start the next pack without a break.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      38
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  • Question 39 - A middle-aged patient presents with lethargy, weight loss and fainting episodes. In the...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged patient presents with lethargy, weight loss and fainting episodes. In the Emergency Department, a postural drop in blood pressure is noted of > 20 mmHg systolic from the supine to the standing position. Blood glucose is 2.9 mmol/l, and Na+ is 122 mmol/l.
      What is the cause of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Increased cortisol; decreased aldosterone

      Correct Answer: Decreased cortisol; decreased aldosterone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Addison’s Disease: Hormonal Imbalances and Clinical Presentation

      Addison’s disease, or primary adrenal failure, is a condition characterized by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, resulting in reduced levels of cortisol and aldosterone. This hormonal imbalance leads to a range of clinical symptoms, including hypotension, hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, acidosis, and skin and mucosal hyperpigmentation.

      While other hormonal imbalances may occur in the adrenal glands, such as increased cortisol or aldosterone, they are less likely to result in the clinical presentation of Addison’s disease. For example, increased cortisol is unlikely due to autoimmune destruction of the zona fasciculata, while increased aldosterone is rare and typically caused by an adrenal adenoma. Similarly, decreased cortisol with normal aldosterone is more commonly associated with secondary adrenal failure caused by pituitary disease, but does not fit with the hyponatraemia seen in Addison’s disease.

      Overall, understanding the hormonal imbalances and clinical presentation of Addison’s disease is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 40 - A diabetic woman in her 50s presents with painful diabetic neuropathy in her...

    Incorrect

    • A diabetic woman in her 50s presents with painful diabetic neuropathy in her feet. She has no other significant medical history. What is the recommended initial treatment to alleviate her pain?

      Your Answer: Referral to pain management clinic

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This often affects the lower legs first due to the length of the sensory neurons supplying this area, resulting in a glove and stocking distribution. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with drugs such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy, and topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may also be helpful for patients with resistant problems.

      Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy can cause gastroparesis, which can lead to erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with prokinetic agents such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin. Chronic diarrhea, which often occurs at night, is another potential complication of diabetic neuropathy. Gastroesophageal reflux disease can also occur due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      61.7
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  • Question 41 - A 25-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a rash that has spread...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a rash that has spread across his trunk over the last 4 days. He is worried about the appearance of the rash. The patient has no significant medical history except for completing a course of phenoxymethylpenicillin for tonsillitis last week and takes no other regular medications. Upon examination, the doctor observes multiple scaly papules on the patient's trunk and upper limbs. The lesions are small and have a teardrop shape. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Disseminated varicella zoster

      Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      The tear-drop scaly papules that have suddenly appeared on the patient’s trunk and limbs suggest guttate psoriasis. This type of psoriasis is commonly seen in children and young adults who have recently had a Streptococcus infection, such as the tonsillitis infection that this patient had. The rash is characterized by multiple small scaly and red patches that have a teardrop shape.

      Disseminated varicella zoster, pityriasis rosea, and pityriasis versicolor are not likely diagnoses for this patient. Disseminated varicella zoster causes a different type of rash that includes macular, papular, and vesicular lesions that crust over time. Pityriasis rosea presents with a large round herald patch on the chest, abdomen, or back, and is thought to be triggered by viral or bacterial infections. Pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that causes patches that are paler than the surrounding skin, and is commonly found on the upper limbs and neck. However, exposure to heat and moisture can increase the risk of developing this rash.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The name guttate comes from the Latin word for drop, as the lesions appear as small, tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs. These papules are pink and scaly, and the onset of the condition is usually acute, occurring over a few days.

      In most cases, guttate psoriasis will resolve on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat the underlying streptococcal infection. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.

      It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is often preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be preceded by a respiratory tract infection. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple oval lesions with a fine scale. While guttate psoriasis resolves within a few months, pityriasis rosea typically resolves after around 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      66.3
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  • Question 42 - A 24-year-old teacher attends her first cervical smear appointment. She has never been...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old teacher attends her first cervical smear appointment. She has never been pregnant before, but she had pelvic inflammatory disease that was treated 3 years ago. Currently, she has an intrauterine device in place. She has no other significant medical or social history. During the appointment, she asks what the test is for.
      How would you explain it to her?

      Your Answer: The sample will be looked at under a microscope first (cytology)

      Correct Answer: The sample is tested for high-risk HPV first

      Explanation:

      The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a common sexually transmitted infection that can lead to cervical cancer. There are over 100 types of HPV, with types 16 and 18 being high-risk types that are responsible for the majority of cervical cancers. Types 6 and 11 are low-risk types that typically cause benign genital warts. Although not part of the screening process, the Gardasil vaccine can protect against both HPV types 6 and 11.

      Contrary to popular belief, not all samples undergo both HPV testing and cytology. Only samples that test positive for high-risk HPV undergo cytology testing. Samples that test negative for high-risk HPV do not require further testing.

      In the past, samples were first examined under a microscope (cytology) before HPV testing. However, research has shown that testing for high-risk HPV first is more effective. If a woman tests positive for HPV, she will receive a single letter informing her of her HPV status and whether any abnormal cells were detected.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      79.8
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  • Question 43 - In the UK, which malignancy is most frequently diagnosed in women? ...

    Correct

    • In the UK, which malignancy is most frequently diagnosed in women?

      Your Answer: Breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Most Common Cancers in Women in the UK

      Breast cancer is the most frequently diagnosed cancer in women in the UK, with approximately 54,800 cases in 2014. Lung cancer follows as the second most common cancer in women, with around 21,600 cases diagnosed in the same year. Bowel cancer ranks third, with approximately 18,400 cases diagnosed in 2014. Uterine cancer is the fourth most common cancer in women, with around 9,300 cases diagnosed. Leukaemia is the eleventh most common cancer in women, with approximately 3,800 cases diagnosed in 2014. These statistics are according to Cancer Research UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 44 - Which of the following is not typically associated with hirsutism in individuals? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not typically associated with hirsutism in individuals?

      Your Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Hypertrichosis is the result of Porphyria cutanea tarda, not hirsutism.

      Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis

      Hirsutism and hypertrichosis are two conditions that involve excessive hair growth in women. Hirsutism is typically caused by androgen-dependent hair growth, while hypertrichosis is caused by androgen-independent hair growth. The most common cause of hirsutism is polycystic ovarian syndrome, but it can also be caused by other conditions such as Cushing’s syndrome, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and obesity. Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by drugs like minoxidil and ciclosporin, as well as congenital conditions like hypertrichosis lanuginosa and terminalis.

      To assess hirsutism, doctors use the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. A score of over 15 is considered to indicate moderate or severe hirsutism. Management of hirsutism typically involves weight loss if the patient is overweight, as well as cosmetic techniques like waxing and bleaching. Combined oral contraceptive pills like co-cyprindiol and ethinylestradiol and drospirenone may also be used, but co-cyprindiol should not be used long-term due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. For facial hirsutism, topical eflornithine may be used, but it is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Overall, understanding the causes and management of hirsutism and hypertrichosis is important for women who experience excessive hair growth. By working with their doctors, they can find the best treatment options to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 45 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with right lower-limb pain. This...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with right lower-limb pain. This is mainly localised over a red patch that has recently developed on the inner part of her thigh.
      On examination, there is a well-demarcated area of erythematous skin on the patient’s thigh, which is warm and tender to touch. There are no other rashes or skin changes present in the rest of her body. Her temperature is 37.5°C and the rest of her parameters are within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Contact dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Cellulitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Lower Limb Rash: Cellulitis, Atopic Dermatitis, Contact Dermatitis, Necrobiosis Lipoidica, and Pretibial Myxedema

      The patient in question is most likely suffering from cellulitis, as evidenced by the presence of erythema, warmth, tenderness, and swelling in the affected area. Cellulitis typically presents as a unilateral rash in the lower limbs, with a well-defined margin and potential skin breakdown or ulceration in severe cases. Localized lymph node swelling may also occur, and systemic symptoms such as tachycardia, fever, confusion, or respiratory distress may be present in more severe cases. It is important to examine the skin carefully for potential points of entry for pathogens, such as wounds, local skin infections, or recent injection sites.

      Atopic dermatitis, on the other hand, typically presents as an itchy rash in a flexural distribution, with a history of atopy and episodic flares starting from a young age. Contact dermatitis, which can be either irritant or allergic, is characterized by erythema and may present with crusting or vesicles in rare cases. Necrobiosis lipoidica is a condition that typically occurs in diabetic patients, presenting as shiny, painless areas of yellow or red skin on the shins, often with telangiectasia. Pretibial myxedema, which occurs in patients with Graves’ disease, presents as a shiny, waxy, orange-peel texture on the shins.

      In summary, a lower limb rash can have various causes, and a careful examination of the skin and consideration of the patient’s medical history can help narrow down the differential diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 46 - A 63-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of congestive cardiac failure and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of congestive cardiac failure and a history of psoriasis visits his GP complaining of a deterioration in his psoriatic plaques. He has been prescribed multiple medications by his cardiologist to alleviate his cardiac symptoms.
      Which of the following newly prescribed medications is the probable cause of this man's psoriasis exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Clopidogrel

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic plaques can be worsened by beta-blockers like bisoprolol, but not by calcium channel blockers like amlodipine or antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel. However, NSAIDs like aspirin can exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, has no impact on psoriasis.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors. These include physical trauma, consumption of alcohol, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, stopping the use of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take necessary precautions to manage their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      32.3
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  • Question 47 - A 45-year-old woman presents with macroscopic haematuria, proteinuria of 2.0 g/24 h (reference...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with macroscopic haematuria, proteinuria of 2.0 g/24 h (reference range <0.2 g/24 h) and a serum creatinine level of 167 µmol/l (reference range 50–110 µmol/l). What potential diagnosis should be considered?

      Your Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Glomerular Disease: Clinical Features and Characteristics

      Glomerular diseases are a group of conditions that affect the tiny filters in the kidneys responsible for removing waste and excess fluids from the blood. Here are some of the most common causes of glomerular disease, along with their clinical features and characteristics:

      1. IgA Nephropathy: This is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by IgA deposition in the glomerular mesangium and can range from asymptomatic haematuria to rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. It is often associated with persistent microscopic haematuria or recurrent macroscopic haematuria.

      2. Henoch-Schönlein Purpura: This is an acute IgA-mediated disorder that involves generalised vasculitis. It affects the small vessels of the skin, gastrointestinal tract, kidneys, joints, and rarely lungs and central nervous system. Haematuria, when present, is usually microscopic.

      3. Diabetic Nephropathy: This is a clinical syndrome characterized by persistent albuminuria, progressive decline in the glomerular filtration rate, and elevated arterial blood pressure. Macroscopic haematuria is uncommon and more suggestive of an alternative aetiology.

      4. Membranous Glomerulonephritis: This is one of the more common forms of nephrotic syndrome in adults. It causes asymptomatic proteinuria, but the major presenting complaint is oedema. Macroscopic haematuria is uncommon and more suggestive of an alternative aetiology.

      5. Focal Glomerulosclerosis: This is one of the most common causes of primary glomerular disease in adults. It causes asymptomatic proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome with or without renal insufficiency. The most common clinical presenting feature is nephrotic syndrome, characterized by generalised oedema, massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and hyperlipidaemia.

      In summary, glomerular diseases can present with a range of clinical features and characteristics. Understanding these features can help clinicians diagnose and manage these conditions effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      37
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  • Question 48 - A 72-year-old man undergoing evaluation in the Medical Outpatient Department for complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man undergoing evaluation in the Medical Outpatient Department for complaints of joint pain is found to have weakly positive serum antinuclear antibodies (ANAs). All his other blood tests are within normal limits.
      What is the most probable cause of this patient's ANA positivity?

      Your Answer: Age related

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Relationship Between ANAs and Various Medical Conditions

      As individuals age, the level of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANAs) in their blood tends to increase, particularly in those over 65 years old. Therefore, a weakly positive ANA sample in an older patient with normal blood results is likely due to age-related factors.

      Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is not associated with ANA positivity. This diagnosis is made only after ruling out all other possibilities and finding no biochemical evidence to support it.

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is not linked to any known antibodies. While patients with AS may have elevated levels of non-specific inflammatory markers, such as C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate, genetic testing for human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B27 may aid in diagnosis.

      Primary antiphospholipid (APL) antibody syndrome does not typically involve ANA positivity. If ANAs are present in a patient with APL syndrome, it suggests a secondary form of the condition associated with a connective tissue disorder. APL syndrome is usually characterized by anti-cardiolipin antibodies and abnormal clotting studies.

      Myasthenia gravis, a condition characterized by fatiguability and weakness induced by repeated actions, is not related to ANAs. Instead, it is caused by antibodies targeting the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 49 - Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to using combined oral contraceptive...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to using combined oral contraceptive pills?

      Your Answer: 36-year-old woman smoking 20 cigarettes/day

      Explanation:

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      8.4
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  • Question 50 - A young man with a 5-year history of alcoholism successfully completes an inpatient...

    Correct

    • A young man with a 5-year history of alcoholism successfully completes an inpatient drug rehabilitation programme. What advice will you give him to maintain sobriety?

      Your Answer: Join a local Alcoholics Anonymous group

      Explanation:

      Strategies for Preventing Alcohol Relapse

      For individuals with alcohol-use disorders, preventing relapse is crucial for maintaining sobriety. Here are some strategies that can help:

      1. Join a local Alcoholics Anonymous group or other self-help groups that require total abstinence. Active participation in these groups can offer the best chance of preventing relapses.

      2. Limit consumption to socially appropriate amounts. Even small amounts of alcohol can trigger a relapse, so individuals who have completed a detoxification program are encouraged not to drink at all.

      3. Take disulfiram as prescribed. This medication can cause unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed, making it a deterrent for those who struggle with alcohol use. However, it should only be taken in the context of an appropriate alcohol detoxification program.

      4. Take naltrexone as prescribed. This medication can help reduce cravings for alcohol, but it should not be taken as a deterrent before attending a party.

      5. Plan a definite number of drinks before attending a party. However, individuals who have completed a detoxification program are still encouraged not to drink at all to prevent relapse.

      By implementing these strategies, individuals with alcohol-use disorders can increase their chances of maintaining sobriety and preventing relapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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