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Question 1
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You are the paediatric SHO on call. You receive a call to attend the emergency department to assess a 3-year-old with stridor. Upon arrival, you find the patient sitting on their mother's lap, leaning forward and drooling. Audible stridor can be heard from the end of the bed. The patient's medical history reveals that they have not received any vaccinations.
What is the most suitable course of action in this scenario?Your Answer: Call the anaesthetist on call
Explanation:Do not perform oral or throat examination on a child with suspected acute epiglottitis as it may lead to further airway obstruction and distress. Basic observations can be done but call the senior paediatric team and an anaesthetist.
Stridor in Children: Causes and Symptoms
Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is commonly seen in children. There are several causes of stridor in children, including croup, acute epiglottitis, inhaled foreign body, and laryngomalacia. Croup is a viral infection that affects the upper respiratory tract and is characterized by stridor, barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms. Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, which can lead to airway obstruction. Inhaled foreign body can cause sudden onset of coughing, choking, vomiting, and stridor, depending on the site of impaction. Laryngomalacia is a congenital abnormality of the larynx that typically presents at 4 weeks of age with stridor.
It is important to recognize the symptoms of stridor in children and seek prompt medical attention, especially if the child appears unwell or toxic. Treatment may include medications, such as corticosteroids or nebulized epinephrine, or in severe cases, intubation or tracheostomy. Prevention measures, such as vaccination against Haemophilus influenzae type B, can also help reduce the incidence of acute epiglottitis. Overall, early recognition and management of stridor in children can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 9-year-old boy is presented to the GP by his mother due to the development of a limp. The mother noticed that his left hip was sore and stiff about a month ago. The pain has gradually worsened, making it difficult for the boy to walk and causing significant discomfort. The boy has a normal developmental history and is otherwise healthy. What is the probable underlying cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Avascular necrosis
Explanation:Perthes’ disease is characterized by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, leading to its necrosis and resulting in symptoms such as hip pain, stiffness, and limping. These symptoms are consistent with the presentation of a young boy experiencing progressive hip pain and reduced range of motion. The age of onset for Perthes’ disease typically falls within the range of 6-8 years old, further supporting this diagnosis.
While an epiphyseal plate fracture can also cause pain and limping, it is typically the result of a traumatic injury, which is not the case in this scenario. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) is another potential cause of hip pain and limping, but it typically affects older children and progresses more slowly over several months. Septic arthritis, on the other hand, is a medical emergency characterized by acute joint pain, swelling, and systemic symptoms, which are not present in this case.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A healthy toddler is 18 months old and was born in the breech position. The toddler's mother is concerned about developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), as she has heard that this can be associated with breech delivery.
Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation for this toddler?Your Answer: Ultrasound scan of the hips before six weeks of age
Explanation:An ultrasound scan of the hips is recommended for all babies born in the breech position after 36 weeks of pregnancy, even if they are not born in the breech position. It is also necessary for babies born before 36 weeks in the breech position or those with a family history of hip problems in early life. This is to detect developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) early, which can be treated with a Pavlik harness before six months of age. Surgery may be required if non-operative treatment is not successful. An ultrasound scan should be performed before six weeks of age to ensure early diagnosis and treatment. If a baby is found to have an unstable hip joint during their newborn examination, they should have an ultrasound of the hip before two weeks of age. X-rays are not recommended for detecting DDH in infants, and ultrasound is the preferred imaging modality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old boy is presented to the GP with a 4-week history of rash. He has no significant medical history and is meeting developmental milestones appropriately. He has received all of his scheduled immunizations, has no known allergies, and is feeding and urinating well. Upon examination, there is a symmetrical, poorly defined erythematous rash on his elbows and knees. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Eczema
Explanation:Atopic eczema commonly appears in children before the age of 2, with symptoms often affecting the face and extensor surfaces of the body. This patient’s visible dermatitis in the extensor aspects of her body suggests a diagnosis of atopic eczema based on clinical presentation. Impetigo, pemphigus vulgaris, and psoriasis are unlikely diagnoses given the patient’s symmetrical dry rash involving the extensor aspects of the limbs.
Eczema in Children: Symptoms and Management
Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The symptoms of eczema include an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, it typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, the rash is more commonly seen on the flexor surfaces and in the creases of the face and neck.
To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams are absorbed into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.
In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. Overall, managing eczema in children involves a combination of avoiding irritants, using emollients, and potentially using topical steroids or other medications in severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A four-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a new rash on his abdomen. The parents deny any recent infections or injuries. Upon examination, you observe a widespread petechial rash on the anterior abdomen and right forearm. The child appears pale and uninterested in the toys provided. Additionally, you note hepatosplenomegaly and cervical lymphadenopathy. While waiting for blood test results, you perform a urinalysis, which is unremarkable, and record a tympanic temperature of 36.6º. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:DIC can cause haemorrhagic or thrombotic complications in cases of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.
While a petechial rash can be a result of trauma, it is unlikely to be the case with this child given the other significant symptoms present. The non-blanching rash may initially suggest meningococcal disease, but the absence of fever and a clear source of infection makes this less likely. Additionally, the lesions associated with Henoch-Schonlein purpura typically appear on specific areas of the body and are accompanied by other symptoms such as haematuria or joint pain, which are not present in this case.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.
There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl is brought in for evaluation. Her medical records indicate that she has previously received treatment for constipation, but is generally healthy. The mother reports that the child is currently passing only one hard stool every 3-4 days, which resembles 'rabbit droppings'. There is no history of overflow soiling or diarrhea. The abdominal examination is normal. What is the most suitable initial intervention?
Your Answer: Advice on diet/fluid intake + Movicol Paediatric Plain
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.
If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.
In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl was discovered to have increasing trouble getting up from the ground and climbing stairs.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)
Explanation:Understanding Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy: A Brief Overview
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 3500 males. It is caused by the absence of the dystrophin gene, which leads to progressive muscle weakness and wasting.
Symptoms of DMD typically appear in early childhood and include delayed motor milestones, difficulty running, hypertrophy of calf muscles, and weakness in the lower extremities. One classic sign of DMD is a positive Gowers’ sign, where a child uses their upper extremities to help themselves stand up from the floor by first rising to stand on their arms and knees, then walking their hands up their legs to stand upright.
It is important to note that DMD is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning that it primarily affects males. Females can be carriers of the gene mutation but are typically asymptomatic.
While there is currently no cure for DMD, there are treatments available to manage symptoms and improve quality of life. Early diagnosis and intervention are crucial for maximizing outcomes and improving long-term prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father who is worried about a non-blanching petechial rash on her arms and legs. The child had a cold recently but currently has normal observations and seems to be in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)
Correct Answer: Immune thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)
Explanation:ITP is a possible diagnosis for a child who presents with petechiae and no fever, while HUS and meningitis are unlikely. HSP may also be considered, but the child in the question has not experienced other symptoms of HSP. Non-accidental injury should also be considered as a differential for any petechial rash. However, ITP is more likely as it is often preceded by a viral illness and presents with isolated thrombocytopenia, causing the classic petechial rash. Blood results are needed to confirm the diagnosis.
Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.
The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.
In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Correct
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You are an F2 treating an 8 year-old patient with acute epiglottitis in the emergency department. Which is the most appropriate initial management?
Your Answer: Call for an anaesthetist
Explanation:Acute epiglottitis is a medical emergency that requires prompt management to prevent airway obstruction. It is caused by inflammation of the epiglottis and is most common in children. Symptoms include fever, sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and respiratory distress. The most severe cases can lead to complete airway obstruction, which can be fatal.
The most important initial step in management is to call for an anaesthetist to intubate the child. Attempting to administer treatment via a facemask or examining the child’s throat can cause distress and increase the risk of complete airway obstruction. The anaesthetist should be present during any examination or treatment to ensure the safety of the child.
In summary, acute epiglottitis is a medical emergency that requires prompt management to prevent airway obstruction. Calling for an anaesthetist to intubate the child is the most important initial step in management. Any examination or treatment should be done with the anaesthetist present to ensure the safety of the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A father is worried about a swelling he has noticed on his two-day-old baby's head. The baby was delivered using forceps due to a prolonged second stage of labor. Upon examination, there is a swelling in the parietal region that does not cross the suture lines. The doctor informs him that it may take several weeks to resolve. What type of head injury is most likely responsible for this?
Your Answer: Cephalohaematoma
Explanation:A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.
In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 6-week-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father with symptoms of vomiting and diarrhea for the past 5 days. She has also developed a new rash that is bothering her and has a runny nose. The father denies any weight loss, fever, or other family members being sick.
Upon further questioning, the father reveals that he has recently introduced formula milk as he is planning to return to work soon and wants the baby to get used to it. The pediatrician suspects that the infant may have an intolerance to cow's milk protein.
What would be the most appropriate alternative feed to try for this baby?Your Answer: Extensively hydrolysed formula
Explanation:Formula options for infants with different types of intolerance vary. For infants with cow’s milk protein intolerance, a partially hydrolysed formula is recommended as it contains proteins that are less allergenic. Amino acid-based formula is suitable for infants with severe intolerance, although it may not be as palatable. High protein formula is used for pre-term infants, but recent studies suggest that it may increase the risk of obesity in the long-term. Lactose-free formula is appropriate for infants with lactose intolerance, which is characterized by gastrointestinal symptoms rather than rash and runny nose.
Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.
Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.
The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of right knee pain. She is an avid hockey player but has not experienced any recent injuries. During the examination, a painful swelling is observed over the tibial tubercle. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease
Explanation:Common Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults
Knee problems are common in children and young adults, especially those who are active in sports.
Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that is more common in teenage girls. It is characterized by the softening of the cartilage of the patella, which can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. This condition usually responds well to physiotherapy.Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle.
Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking of the knee.
Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella. The knee may also give way.
Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys. It causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. On examination, the area below the patella is tender. It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of fever and lethargy. She has no significant medical history and is up to date with her childhood vaccinations.
During the examination, the girl appears drowsy and has a temperature of 39.2ºC. Her heart rate is 155 beats/min and respiratory rate is 46 breaths/min. She has a maculopapular rash on her torso and upper limbs, and her lips are cracked and erythematous. Additionally, her conjunctivae are inflamed. Kernig's sign is negative.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:High-dose aspirin therapy is the recommended treatment for Kawasaki disease, despite it typically being contraindicated in children.
Aspirin is the appropriate treatment for this patient’s diagnosis of Kawasaki disease, as evidenced by their persistent fever, conjunctivitis, maculopapular rash, and cracked and erythematous lips. This disease is vasculitic in nature, and current guidelines advise the use of high-dose aspirin therapy as the initial treatment.
Intravenous aciclovir is not indicated for Kawasaki disease, as it is used to treat viral conditions such as viral meningitis or encephalitis.
Intravenous ceftriaxone is not appropriate for the treatment of Kawasaki disease, as it is reserved for significant bacterial infections like Neisseria meningitidis. Additionally, the negative Kernig’s sign makes meningitis less likely.
Oral phenoxymethylpenicillin is not the recommended treatment for Kawasaki disease, as the mucosal changes and conjunctivitis are more indicative of this disease rather than scarlet fever, which is treated with oral phenoxymethylpenicillin.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 9-year-old boy is being evaluated at the Enuresis clinic. Despite using an enuresis alarm for the past three months, he continues to wet the bed at night. He has no issues with urination during the day and has a daily bowel movement. What treatment option is most probable to be suggested?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Explanation:Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl comes in for a check-up. She was diagnosed with asthma two years ago by her pediatrician. She is currently taking a salbutamol inhaler, using 2 puffs 3 times a day, and a low-dose beclomethasone inhaler. She also takes oral montelukast. However, she still experiences a night time cough and has to use her blue inhaler most days. Unfortunately, the addition of montelukast has not provided much relief. On examination today, her chest is clear with no wheeze and a near-normal peak flow. What should be the next step in her management?
Your Answer: Stop montelukast and add salmeterol
Explanation:For children between the ages of 5 and 16 with asthma that is not being effectively managed with a combination of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA), low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS), and a leukotriene receptor antagonist, it is recommended to add a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) to the treatment plan and discontinue the use of the leukotriene receptor antagonist.
Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is presented with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. Upon examination, she exhibits bilateral expiratory wheezing, but there are no indications of respiratory distress. Her respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and her PEF is approximately 50% of normal. What is the best course of action regarding steroid treatment?
Your Answer: Oral prednisolone for 3 days
Explanation:According to the 2016 guidelines of the British Thoracic Society, children should be given a specific dose of steroids based on their age. For children under 2 years, the dose should be 10 mg of prednisolone, for those aged 2-5 years, it should be 20 mg, and for those over 5 years, it should be 30-40 mg. Children who are already taking maintenance steroid tablets should receive a maximum dose of 60 mg or 2 mg/kg of prednisolone. If a child vomits after taking the medication, the dose should be repeated, and if they are unable to retain the medication orally, intravenous steroids should be considered. The duration of treatment should be tailored to the number of days required for recovery, and a course of steroids exceeding 14 days does not require tapering.
Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children
When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A neonate is diagnosed with a cardiac congenital abnormality where the foetal aorta and pulmonary trunk are parallel with an absence of crossing. What medication should be initiated urgently before corrective surgery can be performed?
Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1
Explanation:The initial management for duct dependent congenital heart disease involves maintaining the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. In neonates with transposition of the great arteries (TGA), prostaglandin E1 is given intravenously to ensure the ductus arteriosus remains open, as its closure can lead to circulatory failure and profound cyanosis. Prostaglandins work by dilating vascular smooth muscle, which maintains the patency of the ductus arteriosus. Administering prostaglandins after delivery is necessary as the prostaglandin-rich placenta is no longer present to keep the ductus arteriosus open. Adenosine is not indicated in this case, as the newborn’s issue is circulatory rather than related to cardiac electrical activity. If heart failure occurs, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors may be used, but prostaglandins should be the first-line treatment to prevent heart failure. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided as they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, leading to closure of the ductus arteriosus and likely death of the newborn. Prostaglandin E is the most potent type of prostaglandin responsible for maintaining ductus arteriosus patency, not prostaglandin F2.
Understanding Transposition of the Great Arteries
Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a type of congenital heart disease that results in a lack of oxygenated blood flow to the body. This condition occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during septation, causing the aorta to leave the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk to leave the left ventricle. Children born to diabetic mothers are at a higher risk of developing TGA.
The clinical features of TGA include cyanosis, tachypnea, a loud single S2 heart sound, and a prominent right ventricular impulse. Chest x-rays may show an egg-on-side appearance.
To manage TGA, it is important to maintain the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. Surgical correction is the definitive treatment for this condition. Understanding the basic anatomical changes and clinical features of TGA can help with early diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Correct
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As a second-year foundation doctor in the emergency department, you come across a thirteen-year-old patient complaining of right hip pain and a limp. The patient has a mild fever, but all other observations and blood tests are normal. An X-ray also shows no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common childhood condition that presents with sudden onset pain and limping. It is diagnosed by ruling out other possible causes and typically resolves on its own within 1-2 weeks. While trauma or non-accidental injury may be a factor, this would likely be revealed in the patient’s medical history. However, doctors should remain vigilant for signs of non-accidental injury. Although septic arthritis is a possibility, it is unlikely in cases where blood tests are normal. Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis (SUFE), which causes groin pain and a waddling gait, can be ruled out based on its characteristic x-ray findings.
Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 4-month-old girl presents with vomiting, yellowing of the skin and dehydration. Tests show low potassium levels and metabolic alkalosis.
What is the best initial course of action?Your Answer: Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy
Correct Answer: Correction of metabolic derangements
Explanation:Management of Infantile Pyloric Stenosis: Correction of Metabolic Derangements
Infantile pyloric stenosis is a common condition in newborns, characterized by a hypertrophied pylorus that causes projectile vomiting and hungry feeding. The electrolyte abnormality associated with this condition is hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis. Before undergoing surgery, it is crucial to correct these metabolic abnormalities in consultation with a pediatrician and anesthetist. Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy is the definitive surgical treatment for infantile pyloric stenosis. Upper GI endoscopy is not necessary for diagnosis if the clinical presentation is clear. Feeding jejunostomy and total parenteral nutrition are not appropriate initial management options. During surgery, the umbilicus should be excluded from the operative field to prevent staphylococcus aureus infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 9-year-old boy with asthma comes to the clinic with his mother, who is worried about his breathing problems. He has an oxygen saturation of 90%, his chest is slightly wheezy, but there is weak inspiratory effort, and his lips are pale.
What is the probable classification of the acute asthma exacerbation?Your Answer: Life-threatening acute asthma
Explanation:The child is experiencing life-threatening acute asthma, which is a medical emergency. This is defined as having any of the following features: SpO2 below 92%, peak expiratory flow below 33% of the best or predicted, silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, hypotension, exhaustion, or confusion. Therefore, 999 should be called immediately. This is not moderate or mild acute asthma, nor is it acute severe asthma, as the child is showing signs of cyanosis. Acute severe asthma is defined as having any of the following: SpO2 between 33-50% of the best or predicted, inability to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed, heart rate above 125 beats/min (for ages over 5) or above 140 beats/min (for ages 1-5), or respiratory rate above 30 breaths/min (for ages over 5) or above 40 breaths/min (for ages 1-5).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Correct
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What is the most effective examination to detect the potential complications of Kawasaki disease in children?
Your Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:An echocardiogram should be performed to screen for coronary artery aneurysms, which can be a complication of Kawasaki disease.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Correct
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As a foundation doctor on the postnatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination (NIPE) on a twenty-five hour old baby girl delivered via forceps. During the examination, you observe that the anterior fontanelle is soft but small, and the bones overlap at the sutures. The mother inquires about what she should do in this situation.
Your Answer: No intervention required but document clearly
Explanation:It is common for newborns to have positional head molding, which is considered a normal occurrence. However, it is important to document this for review by the general practitioner during the six to eight week baby check. In cases where there is persistent head shape deformity, cranial orthosis (head helmets) may be used, but it is unlikely to be necessary. Physiotherapy can be considered if there is also torticollis. It is important to note that surgical intervention is not appropriate as this is a normal finding.
Common Skull Problems in Children
Two common skull problems in children are plagiocephaly and craniosynostosis. Plagiocephaly is when a child’s head becomes parallelogram-shaped due to flattening on one side. The incidence of plagiocephaly has increased over the past decade, which may be due to the success of the ‘Back to Sleep’ campaign that encourages parents to put their babies to sleep on their backs to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Craniosynostosis, on the other hand, is the premature fusion of skull bones. This can lead to abnormal head shape and potentially affect brain development. Both plagiocephaly and craniosynostosis require medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 3 day old infant who was delivered via ventouse presents with a swelling on the left parietal region of the head. The swelling was not present immediately after birth and the baby is otherwise healthy. Upon examination, the swelling does not cross suture lines and the fontanelles and sutures appear normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cephalohaematoma
Explanation:A cephalohaematoma is a swelling caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, typically seen in the parietal region of newborns delivered with instruments. It usually appears 2-3 days after birth and does not cross suture lines, resolving over several weeks.
Caput succadeneum is a common condition in newborns immediately after birth, caused by generalised scalp oedema that crosses suture lines. It is associated with prolonged labour and resolves quickly within a few days.
Subaponeurotic haematoma is a rare and potentially life-threatening condition where bleeding occurs outside the periosteum, causing a fluctuant scalp swelling that is not limited by suture lines.
Craniosynostosis is a rare condition where cranial sutures close prematurely, leading to skull deformities that may be evident at birth and associated with genetic syndromes. The shape of the skull depends on which sutures are involved, and other clinical features include early closure of the anterior fontanelle and a raised ridge along the fused suture.
A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.
In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Correct
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A newborn girl born 4 hours ago has an APGAR score of 10. She is not cyanosed, has a pulse of 150, cries on stimulation, her arms and legs resist extension and she has a good cry. However, she appears jaundiced. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer: Measure and record the serum bilirubin level urgently.
Explanation:Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.
If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A mother of a 5-year-old child with cystic fibrosis (CF) visits the clinic to inquire about the likelihood of having another child with CF. She is still with the same partner as before. What is the probability of them having another child with CF?
Your Answer: 25%
Explanation:Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance
Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.
When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.
Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and can be life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. Understanding the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive disorders is crucial in genetic counseling and family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old primip has a stillborn baby at 34 weeks gestation. The infant presents with microcephaly, micrognathia, and club feet. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Trisomy 13
Correct Answer: Trisomy 18
Explanation:Edward’s syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. The baby affected by this syndrome will have experienced slow growth in the womb and will have a low birthweight. Unfortunately, around half of those who survive to birth will pass away within two weeks, and only one in every five will live for at least three months. The survival rate beyond one year is only one in every 12 babies born with Edwards’ syndrome. This information is according to NHS Choices.
Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Correct
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A mother brings in her 2-day-old baby girl to the GP surgery. She expresses concern about some white discharge from the baby's vagina. Upon examination, a small amount of mucoid white discharge is observed at the entrance of the vagina. The external appearance of the genitalia is otherwise normal. What is the recommended next step in management?
Your Answer: Reassure the mother that it is normal at this age
Explanation:It is common for newborn girls to experience a mucoid white vaginal discharge, which typically resolves by the age of 3 months. Reassurance is the most suitable course of action, and there is no need to refer to paediatrics or suspect sexual abuse. Arranging a transvaginal ultrasound for these symptoms is not necessary.
Gynaecological Problems in Children
In children, gynaecological problems are not uncommon. However, it is important to note that vaginal examinations and vaginal swabs should not be performed. Instead, referral to a paediatric gynaecologist is appropriate for persistent problems. One of the most common gynaecological disorders in girls is vulvovaginitis. This condition can be caused by bacterial or fungal organisms and is often associated with poor hygiene, tight clothing, lack of labial fat pads protecting the vaginal orifice, and lack of protective acid secretion found in the reproductive years. In some cases, vulvovaginitis may be a result of sexual abuse, which can present as bloody discharge.
It is important to manage vulvovaginitis appropriately. Advising children about hygiene is crucial, and soothing creams may be useful. Topical antibiotics or antifungals may also be prescribed. In resistant cases, oestrogen cream may be recommended. It is important to note that most newborn girls have some mucoid white vaginal discharge, which usually disappears by three months of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Correct
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A 9-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a one-month history of unusual facial movements noticed by her father. Her father reports that he first noticed her having twitching of left eye and face as well as drooling of saliva. This happens about twice a week, always at night. Each episode lasts for 1-2 minutes and after each episode, the girl is unable to speak properly for around 5 minutes. The girl is aware of these occurrences but reports unable to control them. The father reports that his daughter is otherwise normal with normal development.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Benign rolandic epilepsy
Explanation:Benign rolandic epilepsy is identified by the occurrence of partial seizures during the night.
The child displays typical indications of benign rolandic epilepsy, which is distinguished by partial seizures that occur during the night. Reflex anoxic seizures are caused by anoxia and typically manifest as syncope and subsequent convulsions in very young children. Panayiotopoulos syndrome is characterised by seizures, often prolonged, with predominantly autonomic symptoms such as nausea and retching. Idiopathic childhood occipital epilepsy of Gastaut is mainly characterised by visual hallucinations. Night terrors are a sleep disorder that causes feelings of dread or terror, typically during REM sleep.
Benign rolandic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy that usually affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. This condition is characterized by seizures that typically occur at night and are often partial, causing sensations in the face. However, these seizures may also progress to involve the entire body. Despite these symptoms, children with benign rolandic epilepsy are otherwise healthy and normal.
Diagnosis of benign rolandic epilepsy is typically confirmed through an electroencephalogram (EEG), which shows characteristic centrotemporal spikes. Fortunately, the prognosis for this condition is excellent, with seizures typically ceasing by adolescence. While the symptoms of benign rolandic epilepsy can be concerning for parents and caregivers, it is important to remember that this condition is generally not associated with any long-term complications or developmental delays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Correct
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Sarah, a 5-year-old child visits the allergy clinic with her parents. She has a confirmed milk protein allergy and her parents are interested in using the milk ladder to manage it. Which food item would be suitable to gradually introduce?
Your Answer: Malted milk biscuits
Explanation:Children with cows milk protein allergy can use the milk ladder to reintroduce milk protein after they turn 6 months old.
To gradually introduce milk, the milk ladder starts with cooked or baked milk. The process begins with malted milk biscuits and then progresses in a step-by-step manner towards pasteurised milk.
Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.
Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.
The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department after suffering a head injury falling from a tree. She has remained conscious and her Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) has been 15 since the accident. She is not vomiting.
On examination, there is no focal neurological deficit. An area of bruising is seen behind her left ear and she has a headache. No other injuries are observed.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?Your Answer: No further investigation
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) head
Explanation:The patient requires a CT head scan within an hour of the accident, as per NICE guidelines. A basal skull fracture, which can be fatal, may be caused by high-impact mechanisms and can present with symptoms such as bruising behind the ear, bruising around the eyes, blood behind the eardrum, or cerebral spinal fluid rhinorrhoea. Optic-nerve entrapment may also occur if the fracture is displaced, leading to changes in vision. Patients are at an increased risk of developing meningitis. An MRI head is not the primary investigation of choice for acute clinically important brain injuries due to safety, logistic, and resource reasons. A lateral cervical spine X-ray may be required for a thorough assessment of the C-spine, but a CT head and neck would be easier to perform if imaging of the neck is necessary. A plain skull X-ray may be used for non-accidental brain injury in children to avoid high-dose radiation from a CT scan, but it should not be used to diagnose brain trauma without consulting a neuroscience unit. If red flags are present, a CT head is necessary to exclude severe intracranial pathology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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