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  • Question 1 - You have been asked to perform a pudendal nerve block on a patient...

    Correct

    • You have been asked to perform a pudendal nerve block on a patient by your consultant. The pudendal nerve is formed from which spinal segments?

      Your Answer: S2,S3 and S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve has its origins form S2, S3 and S4 spinal segments. It provides sensation to the clitoris and labia along with the ilioinguinal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The following is a gram positive obligate anaerobe: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following is a gram positive obligate anaerobe:

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus

      Correct Answer: Clostridia

      Explanation:

      Obligate anaerobes are a group of bacteria that cannot survive in an oxygen-rich environment. In the body, they are usually found on mucosal membranes such as that of the lower gastrointestinal system, or the vagina. Infection with these organisms is usually suprative and causes abscesses. Examples of gram-negative anaerobes include Bacteroides, Fusobacterium and Prevotella, while gram-positive anaerobes include Actinomyces and Clostridia. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are both gram-positive facultative anaerobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved...

    Correct

    • With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved into chromosomes and pulled apart?

      Your Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      Mitosis is the process during which cell division occurs. It is divided into 4 stages:
      – The first stage is the prophase during which the chromosomes condense, mitotic spindles form and the chromosomes pair which each other.
      – The second stage is the metaphase during which the chromatids align at the equatorial plane.
      – The third stage is the anaphase during which the chromatids are separated into 2 daughter chromosomes.
      – The fourth phase is the telophase during which the chromatids decondense and a new nuclear envelop forms around the each of the daughter chromosomes. Cytokinesis is the process during which the cell cytoplasm divides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation, is brought to the emergency department by her mother due to a seizure. Patient was sitting outside when she suddenly had a 2-minute seizure with loss of urinary continence and is still confused when she arrived at the emergency department.Her mother reports that the patient had severe anxiety and had been acting out for the past several days.Her only surgery was a splenectomy after a motor vehicle collision last year. On physical examination patient's temperature is 37.7 C (99.9 F), blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg, and pulse is 120/min.Patient seems agitated and diaphoretic with bilaterally dilated pupils. On systemic examination: Cranial nerves are intact, neck is supple and nontender. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The abdomen is gravid without any rebound or guarding and the uterus is nontender. There is 2+ pitting pedal edema bilaterally. Sensations and strength are normal in the bilateral upper and lower extremities. Laboratory results are as follows: a) Complete blood count shows - Hematocrit: 33%, - Platelets: 140,000/mm3, - Leukocytes: 13,000/mm3. b) Serum chemistry - Sodium: 124 mmol/L, - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L, - Chloride: 96 mmol/L, - Bicarbonate: 21 mmol/L, - Blood urea nitrogen: 6.43 umol/L, - Creatinine: 70.7 umol/L, - Glucose: 4.4 mmol/L. Urinalysis - Protein: none, - Ketones: present. CT scan of the head is normal. Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Eclampsia

      Correct Answer: Amphetamine intoxication

      Explanation:

      This patient at 36 weeks of gestation likely had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. A new-onset seizures in pregnancy can be due to either due to eclampsia which is pregnancy-specific or due to other non-obstetric causes like meningitis, intracranial bleeding etc.

      In pregnant and postpartum women eclampsia is the most common cause for seizures which is classically associated with preeclampsia, a new-onset hypertension at ≥20 weeks gestation, with proteinuria and/or signs of end-organ damage. Although this patient has hypertension, absence of proteinuria and the additional findings like agitation, dilated pupils, hyponatremia and normal head CT scan are suggestive of another etiology. Patients with eclampsia will show white matter edema in head CT scan.

      Amphetamine intoxication, which causes overstimulation of the alpha-adrenergic receptors resulting in tachycardia, hypertension and occasional hyperthermia, might be the cause for this patient’s seizures. Some patients will also have diaphoresis and minimally reactive, dilated pupils and severe intoxication can lead to electrolyte abnormalities, including significant hyponatremia (possibly serotonin-mediated) and resultant seizure activity.
      Confirmation of Amphetamine intoxication can be done by a urine drug testing. it is essential to distinguishing between eclampsia and other causes of seizure in this case, as it will help to determine whether or not there is need for an emergency delivery.

      Altered mental status and electrolyte abnormalities can be due to heat stroke, however, patients affected this way will have an elevated temperature of >40 C /104 F associated with hemodynamic instabilities like hypotension.

      Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy which can result in seizures (ie, eclampsia), but this patient’s hematocrit level is normal without any hemolysis, also patients with HELLP syndrome typically presents with a platelet count <100,000/mm3. Seizures and altered mental status in patients with prior splenectomy can be due to pneumococcal meningitis however, such patients will present with high fever and nuchal rigidity, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case. Amphetamine intoxication can present with hypertension, agitation, diaphoresis, dilated pupils, and a generalized tonic-clonic seizure due to hyponatremia, which is most likely to be the case here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      92.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?

      Your Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & increased Prostaglandin E2

      Correct Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2

      Explanation:

      Functional closure of the ductus arteriosus is neonates is completed within the first few days after birth. It normally occurs by the 12th postnatal week. It has been suggested that persistent patency of DA results from a failure of the TGF-B induction after birth. Due to increased arterial pO2, constriction of the DA occurs. In addition to this on inflation the bradykinin system is activated with cause the smooth muscles in the DA to constrict. A decrease in the E2 prostaglandin is also an important factor as raised levels have been indicated in keeping the patency of the DA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 29 year old women wants to speak to you regarding infections in...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old women wants to speak to you regarding infections in pregnancy. Her two year old son has sensorineural deafness as a result of infection in her previous pregnancy. She tells you he was born with a 'blueberry muffin' rash. What was the most likely infection?

      Your Answer: CMV

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      The ‘Blueberry muffin’ rash is a descriptor for the rash seen in Congenital Rubella Syndrome. A similar petechial rash may also occur in CMV infection but shouldn’t be termed ‘blueberry muffin’

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding ectopic pregnancy, where is the most common site of implantation? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding ectopic pregnancy, where is the most common site of implantation?

      Your Answer: Ampullary tubal

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancies can quickly become a gynaecological emergency if left untreated. The majority of ectopic pregnancies (95-97%) are tubal occurring in the fallopian tube as opposed to the abdomen, ovary or cervix. In tubal ectopics, the most common site of occurrence is in the ampulla (70%), followed by the isthmus, fimbria, and the cornua.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 33-year-old female patient walks into your office to speak with you about...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old female patient walks into your office to speak with you about her recent pap smear result. A low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion was discovered (LSIL). Her most recent pap smear, performed two years ago, came back normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Repeat the pap smear in one year

      Explanation:

      An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.

      As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age.

      For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:

      – Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
      – Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.

      Referring the patient to an oncologist is not acceptable since there is no established diagnosis of malignancy that has been made. All other options are unacceptable since Pap smear must be done in 12 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 36-year-old woman is being tested for a breast tumour she discovered last...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman is being tested for a breast tumour she discovered last week during a routine physical examination. Two years ago, the patient had bilateral reduction mammoplasty for breast hyperplasia. Her paternal grandmother died of breast cancer at the age of 65, thus she doesn't take any drugs or have any allergies. A fixed lump in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast is palpated during a breast examination. In the upper outer quadrant of the right breast, mammography reveals a 3 × 3-cm spiculated tumour with coarse calcifications. A hyperechoic mass can be seen on ultrasonography of the breast. The mass is removed with concordant pathologic findings, and a core biopsy reveals foamy macrophages and fat globules. Which of the following is the best plan of action for this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Reassurance and routine follow-up

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis is a benign (non-cancerous) breast condition that can develop when an area of fatty breast tissue is injured. It can also develop after breast surgery or radiation treatment.

      There are different stages of fat necrosis. As the fat cells die, they release their contents, forming a sac-like collection of greasy fluid called an oil cyst. Over time, calcifications (small deposits of calcium) can form around the walls of the cyst, which can often be seen on mammograms. As the body continues to repair the damaged breast tissue, it’s usually replaced by denser scar tissue. Oil cysts and areas of fat necrosis can form a lump that can be felt, but it usually doesn’t hurt. The skin around the lump might look thicker, red, or bruised. Sometimes these changes can be hard to tell apart from cancers on a breast exam or even a mammogram. If this is the case, a breast biopsy (removing all or part of the lump to look at the tissue under the microscope) might be needed to find out if the lump contains cancer cells. These breast changes do not affect your risk for breast cancer.

      Mastectomy, axillary node dissection and radiation therapy are all management options for malignancy which this patient doesn’t have.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road traffic accident at 90 km/hour, is taken to the emergency department. On examination, she is found to be pale, with a heart rate of 112 bpm, blood pressure of 95/55 mm of Hg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute and her oxygen saturation in room air is 95%. Fetal heart rate is audible at 102 bpm and her uterus is tense and tender, she denied having any direct trauma to the abdomen. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this given case?

      Your Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with signs and symptoms similar to clinical features of placental abruption.

      Any trauma during the last trimester of pregnancy could be dangerous to both mother and fetus. By force of deceleration, motor vehicle accidents can result in placental separation. Also when subjected to strong acceleration-deceleration forces such as those during a motor vehicle crash uterus is thought to slightly change its shape. Since the placenta is not elastic and amniotic fluid is not compressible, such uterine distortion caused due to acceleration-deceleration or direct trauma will result in abruptio placentae due to shear stress at the utero-placental interface.

      A painful, tender uterus which is often contracting is characteristic of placental abruption and the condition will lead to maternal hypovolemic hypotension and consequent fetal distress which is presented as fetal bradycardia and repetitive late decelerations. Vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, contractions, uterine rigidity with tenderness, and a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing are the clinical features diagnostic of abruption. However, a significant abruption can occasionally be asymptomatic or associated with minimal maternal symptoms in the absence of vaginal bleeding. Therefore the amount of vaginal bleeding is not always an appropriate indicator to the severity of placental abruption, this is because, in cases bleeding could be very severe or it may be concealed in the form of a hematoma in between the uterine wall and the placenta.

      Sharp or blunt abdominal trauma can lead to uterine rupture or penetrating injury, since there is no reported abdominal trauma to the patient, uterine rupture is less likely to happen in this case. Severe abdominal pain with tenderness, cessation of contractions and loss of uterine tone are the most common symptoms characteristic of Uterine rupture. It will also be associated with mild to moderate vaginal bleeding along with fetal bradycardia or loss of heart sound. In this case uterus will be less tense and tender in comparison to placental abruption

      Symptoms like low blood pressure, tachycardia and fetal bradycardia can be justified by ruptured spleen and liver laceration, but not the tense, tender and contracting uterus.

      The diagnosis of placenta previa cannot be considered with the given clinical picture as it presents with sudden, painless bleeding of bright red blood and there will not be any uterine tenderness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      338.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (0/2) 0%
Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Epidemiology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (2/2) 100%
Passmed