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Question 1
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease is urgently admitted with a fever, worsening shortness of breath, and a note from her primary care physician confirming the presence of a new heart murmur. During the examination, a harsh pansystolic murmur and early diastolic murmur are detected, and she has a temperature of 38.5 °C with fine basal crepitations in both lungs. Which one of the following should take immediate priority?
Your Answer: Administration of intravenous (IV) antibiotics
Explanation:Prioritizing Interventions in Suspected Infective Endocarditis
When a patient presents with suspected infective endocarditis, prompt intervention is crucial to limit valve destruction and prevent potentially life-threatening complications. The following interventions should be considered, prioritized, and administered as soon as possible:
Administration of intravenous (IV) antibiotics: Empirical treatment with gentamicin and benzylpenicillin may be initiated until microbiological advice suggests an alternative. Antibiotic delivery should take priority over other interventions.
Administration of paracetamol: Fever is a common symptom of infective endocarditis, and paracetamol can provide symptomatic relief. However, it should not take priority over antibiotic delivery.
Echocardiogram (ECHO): An ECHO is an important diagnostic tool for identifying infective endocarditis and detecting complications such as cardiac abscess and pseudoaneurysms. While it should be performed in all suspected cases, it does not take priority over antibiotic administration.
Electrocardiogram (ECG): An ECG can provide additional diagnostic information, including signs of paravalvular extension of infection and emboli in the coronary circulation. It should be part of the initial workup but does not take priority over antibiotic administration.
Throat swab: While a throat swab may be useful in identifying the causative organism of infective endocarditis, it should not take precedence over commencing antibiotics. Careful examination of the patient’s dentition is also crucial to evaluate for a possible infectious source.
In summary, when managing suspected infective endocarditis, prompt administration of IV antibiotics should take priority over other interventions. Other diagnostic and therapeutic interventions should be considered and prioritized based on the individual patient’s clinical presentation and needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 2
Correct
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A 50-year-old businessman comes to the clinic complaining of watery, non-bloody diarrhea, anorexia, and abdominal bloating that has been going on for 10 days. He recently returned from a trip to India and his symptoms started 3 days after his return. Upon examination, he has dry mucous membranes but normal skin turgor and no fever. What is the probable organism responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Giardia lamblia
Explanation:The symptoms experienced by the patient, such as bloating and watery diarrhoea lasting for an extended period, suggest that the cause of their illness is Giardiasis rather than the more typical culprit, Escherichia coli, which is commonly associated with travellers’ diarrhoea.
Understanding Giardiasis
Giardiasis is a condition caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some individuals may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In severe cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may occur. Diagnosis can be made through stool microscopy, stool antigen detection assay, or PCR assays. Treatment typically involves the use of metronidazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A senior citizen asks you about St John's wort.
Which of the following statements about its action is true?
Your Answer: It is widely prescribed in the UK
Correct Answer: It can be at least as effective as placebo in depression
Explanation:St John’s Wort: A Natural Remedy for Depression with Limitations
St John’s wort is a herbal supplement that has been studied for its potential to treat depression. While some studies have shown it to be as effective as standard antidepressants and superior to placebo, its place in the treatment of depression is still uncertain due to limitations in the available evidence base. St John’s wort works by inhibiting the reuptake of certain neurotransmitters, but it can also upregulate liver enzymes and cause liver damage with high-level, long-term use. Despite its potential benefits, it should be avoided in women on contraceptive pills and can interact with other medications such as digoxin and warfarin. While it is widely prescribed in the UK, it is not available on prescription and should be used with caution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her heavy periods. She has been trying to conceive for the past 10 months without success. She has noticed that her periods have been getting progressively heavier over the past year, and she has experienced episodes of flooding. She initially attributed this to getting older, but now it has become unmanageable. During the examination, you palpate a supra-pubic mass. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fibroids
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of menorrhagia, subfertility, and an abdominal mass strongly suggest the presence of fibroids. While ectopic pregnancy should be ruled out, it is less likely due to the absence of severe pain. Endometriosis and endometrial cancer are also unlikely causes of an abdominal mass. Although ovarian cancer cannot be completely ruled out, it is not the most probable diagnosis. Fibroids are benign tumors that commonly occur in the myometrium. Symptoms include heavy menstrual bleeding, pain (if the fibroid twists), and subfertility. As fibroids grow larger, they can cause additional symptoms such as dysuria, hydronephrosis, constipation, and sciatica. Initial treatment typically involves medications such as tranexamic acid, NSAIDs, or progesterones to manage menorrhagia, but surgery is often necessary for persistent fibroids.
Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.
Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.
Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a productive cough of green sputum. He has a history of COPD and is an active smoker. Upon examination, he is wheezy bilaterally and saturating at 94% on room air. A chest X-ray shows no signs of consolidation. The following blood tests were obtained:
CRP 26 mg/L (< 5)
Na+ 133 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 34 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 100 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the most likely causative organism for this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Haemophilus infuenzae
Explanation:Haemophilus influenzae is the most frequent organism responsible for causing infective exacerbations of COPD, as evidenced by this man’s productive cough, increased shortness of breath, and wheezing.
Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.
NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.
For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner with a lump in her right breast. She has no significant medical or family history. During the examination, a small, firm, non-painful lump is found in the upper left quadrant of her right breast. The rest of the breast examination is normal. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to breast clinic
Explanation:An urgent referral to a breast clinic is necessary for women over the age of 30 who have an unexplained breast lump, using a suspected cancer pathway referral. This is in accordance with NICE guidelines, as the lump may represent cancerous pathology and should be investigated promptly. Conservative management or routine referral to breast clinic is not appropriate in this case, as the potential for cancerous pathology requires urgent attention.
In 2015, NICE released guidelines for referring individuals suspected of having breast cancer. If a person is 30 years or older and has an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, or if they are 50 years or older and have discharge, retraction, or other concerning changes in one nipple only, they should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. If a person has skin changes that suggest breast cancer or is 30 years or older with an unexplained lump in the axilla, a suspected cancer pathway referral should also be considered. For individuals under 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, non-urgent referral should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presented to his GP with two instances of painless visible haematuria. He was subsequently referred to urology for biopsy and flexible cystoscopy, which revealed a transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder. What is the most significant risk factor associated with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer
Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, and there are different types of bladder cancer. The most common type is urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, and the risk factors for this type of bladder cancer include smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide. Smoking is the most important risk factor in western countries, with a hazard ratio of around 4. Exposure to aniline dyes, such as working in the printing and textile industry, can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. Rubber manufacture and cyclophosphamide are also risk factors for urothelial carcinoma.
On the other hand, squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder has different risk factors. Schistosomiasis and smoking are the main risk factors for this type of bladder cancer. Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection that can cause inflammation and damage to the bladder, which can increase the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma. Smoking is also a risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma, as it can cause changes in the cells of the bladder lining that can lead to cancer.
In summary, the risk factors for bladder cancer depend on the type of cancer. Urothelial carcinoma is mainly associated with smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide, while squamous cell carcinoma is mainly associated with schistosomiasis and smoking. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce your risk of developing bladder cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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How frequently is the Depo Provera (medroxyprogesterone acetate) injectable birth control administered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Every 12 weeks
Explanation:Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucus thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with worsening pain on the left side of the floor of the mouth. He has been experiencing pain intermittently for the past three weeks, especially during meals. However, the pain has escalated significantly over the last 48 hours.
During examination, his temperature is 38.2°C. There is a smooth swelling along the floor of the mouth. Intra-oral examination reveals inadequate dental hygiene and pus seeping into the floor of the mouth anteriorly.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left submandibular gland infection
Explanation:Differentiating Left Submandibular Gland Infection from Other Conditions
Left submandibular gland infection is a condition that occurs when a submandibular gland calculus obstructs the submandibular duct, leading to stasis of duct contents and infection. It is important to differentiate this condition from other similar conditions to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.
Sialolithiasis, another condition that affects the submandibular gland, typically presents with dull pain around the gland that worsens during mealtimes or when lemon juice is squirted onto the tongue. Dental abscess, on the other hand, causes localized tooth pain without pus draining into the floor of the mouth.
Uncomplicated sialolithiasis does not present with fever and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth, which are common symptoms of left submandibular gland infection. Ludwig’s angina, a serious and potentially life-threatening infection of the soft tissues of the floor of the mouth, typically follows a dental infection and presents with marked oedema and tenderness of submandibular, sublingual, and submental spaces.
Mumps parotitis, which typically affects younger patients, presents with bilateral smooth, enlarged parotid glands and a viral-like illness. Unlike left submandibular gland infection, pus is not seen draining into the floor of the mouth.
In summary, differentiating left submandibular gland infection from other similar conditions is crucial in ensuring proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a rash that has spread across his trunk over the last 4 days. He is worried about the appearance of the rash. The patient has no significant medical history except for completing a course of phenoxymethylpenicillin for tonsillitis last week and takes no other regular medications. Upon examination, the doctor observes multiple scaly papules on the patient's trunk and upper limbs. The lesions are small and have a teardrop shape. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis
Explanation:The tear-drop scaly papules that have suddenly appeared on the patient’s trunk and limbs suggest guttate psoriasis. This type of psoriasis is commonly seen in children and young adults who have recently had a Streptococcus infection, such as the tonsillitis infection that this patient had. The rash is characterized by multiple small scaly and red patches that have a teardrop shape.
Disseminated varicella zoster, pityriasis rosea, and pityriasis versicolor are not likely diagnoses for this patient. Disseminated varicella zoster causes a different type of rash that includes macular, papular, and vesicular lesions that crust over time. Pityriasis rosea presents with a large round herald patch on the chest, abdomen, or back, and is thought to be triggered by viral or bacterial infections. Pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that causes patches that are paler than the surrounding skin, and is commonly found on the upper limbs and neck. However, exposure to heat and moisture can increase the risk of developing this rash.
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The name guttate comes from the Latin word for drop, as the lesions appear as small, tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs. These papules are pink and scaly, and the onset of the condition is usually acute, occurring over a few days.
In most cases, guttate psoriasis will resolve on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat the underlying streptococcal infection. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.
It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is often preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be preceded by a respiratory tract infection. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple oval lesions with a fine scale. While guttate psoriasis resolves within a few months, pityriasis rosea typically resolves after around 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman presents with a two day history of increasing dysuria. During examination, inflamed blisters are observed on the outer labia.
What is the most suitable treatment option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:Understanding Genital Herpes and Treatment Options
Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the herpes simplex viruses (HSV-1 or HSV-2). It presents as clusters of papules and vesicles on the outer genitals in both men and women, usually appearing 4-7 days after sexual exposure to HSV for the first time. Unfortunately, there is no cure for genital herpes, but treatment with aciclovir can reduce the duration of symptoms. Other treatment options include antibiotics like azithromycin and clindamycin for bacterial infections, antifungal agents like fluconazole for fungal infections, and metronidazole for anaerobic bacteria and protozoa. It is important to seek medical attention and start treatment as soon as possible to manage symptoms and prevent transmission to others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of a crooked smile. He reports experiencing some discomfort behind his ear but otherwise feels fine. Upon examination, a left-sided facial nerve palsy is observed, affecting the face from forehead to chin. Both tympanic membranes appear normal.
What is the probable cause of this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bell’s palsy
Explanation:Understanding Bell’s Palsy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Bell’s palsy is a temporary paralysis of the facial nerve that typically presents with facial weakness, pain behind the ear, earache, aural fullness, or facial palsy. It is caused by a unilateral, lower motor neuron lesion, affecting the muscles controlling facial expression on one side only. The forehead is involved in Bell’s palsy, unlike in upper motor neuron lesions such as a cerebrovascular accident.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include Ramsey Hunt syndrome, which is associated with severe pain and caused by herpes zoster virus, and transient ischaemic attack/stroke, which is the sudden onset of focal neurological signs that completely resolve within 24 hours.
Syphilis and vasculitis are not typically associated with Bell’s palsy. Syphilis has various stages, with primary syphilis presenting with a chancre and secondary syphilis characterized by multi-system involvement. Vasculitis has many different types, including Churg–Strauss syndrome, temporal arteritis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Henloch–Schönlein purpura, and polymyalgia rheumatica.
Management of Bell’s palsy includes reassurance and meticulous eye care to prevent complications such as corneal abrasions. Oral corticosteroids, such as prednisolone, are effective if given within 72 hours of onset. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and management of Bell’s palsy is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old teacher attends her first cervical smear appointment. She has never been pregnant before, but she had pelvic inflammatory disease that was treated 3 years ago. Currently, she has an intrauterine device in place. She has no other significant medical or social history. During the appointment, she asks what the test is for.
How would you explain it to her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The sample is tested for high-risk HPV first
Explanation:The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a common sexually transmitted infection that can lead to cervical cancer. There are over 100 types of HPV, with types 16 and 18 being high-risk types that are responsible for the majority of cervical cancers. Types 6 and 11 are low-risk types that typically cause benign genital warts. Although not part of the screening process, the Gardasil vaccine can protect against both HPV types 6 and 11.
Contrary to popular belief, not all samples undergo both HPV testing and cytology. Only samples that test positive for high-risk HPV undergo cytology testing. Samples that test negative for high-risk HPV do not require further testing.
In the past, samples were first examined under a microscope (cytology) before HPV testing. However, research has shown that testing for high-risk HPV first is more effective. If a woman tests positive for HPV, she will receive a single letter informing her of her HPV status and whether any abnormal cells were detected.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female patient visits your clinic complaining of vaginal discharge. She reports a strong odour but no itching, dysuria, dyspareunia, or post-coital bleeding. During the examination, you observe a watery discharge with an odour, but no erythema on the labia. The cervix appears healthy, and there is no cervical excitation. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation:To determine the cause of the watery vaginal discharge in this patient, further information about her sexual history would be necessary. However, based on the appearance of her cervix, a diagnosis of Gonorrhoea is unlikely. Gonorrhoea typically presents with a green and purulent discharge, and is not often associated with an odour. Similarly, Chlamydia would likely cause more problems with the cervix and a more mucopurulent discharge. Herpes simplex does not typically cause vaginal discharge, but instead presents with ulcers or tingling sensations around the vulva. Thrush, or candidiasis, would likely cause more itching and have a thicker, cottage cheese-like consistency. Bacterial vaginosis is the most likely diagnosis, as it often presents with a fishy odour and a thin, watery discharge that may be green or white. It can be asymptomatic and does not typically cause irritation or soreness. Diagnosis can be confirmed with a vaginal pH > 4.5 and the presence of clue cells on microscopy. These findings are in line with BASHH guidelines.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The action of warfarin is characterized by which of the following statements?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It interacts with miconazole to increase anticoagulant effect
Explanation:Warfarin, a medication used to prevent blood clots, can interact with other drugs and have various effects on the body. For example, certain antimicrobial agents can increase the risk of bleeding in patients taking warfarin, including azole antifungals, macrolides, quinolones, co-trimoxazole, penicillins, and cephalosporins. Miconazole, in particular, can greatly enhance the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by blocking the action of vitamin K epoxide reductase, which reactivates vitamin K1. This decreases the clotting ability of certain factors in the blood. However, warfarin can also have negative effects, such as warfarin necrosis, a rare but serious complication that can lead to skin necrosis and limb gangrene. When taking warfarin, it is important to consider drug interactions, such as displacement from protein-binding sites or enzyme inhibition or induction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man complains of bilateral leg pain that occurs during walking. He has a history of peptic ulcer disease and osteoarthritis. The pain usually starts after walking for about 5 minutes and goes away when he sits down. He has noticed that leaning forward or crouching helps relieve the pain. There are no abnormalities found during musculoskeletal and vascular examination of his lower limbs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinal stenosis
Explanation:This presentation is typical of spinal stenosis. Although peripheral arterial disease is a possible alternative diagnosis, the pain relief factors and absence of abnormalities in the vascular examination suggest otherwise.
Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has been referred by her doctor for thyrotoxicosis treatment. After discussing the available options, she chooses to undergo radioiodine therapy. What is the most probable side effect of this treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Thyroid eye disease can be triggered by radioiodine therapy, as has been extensively recorded, but most patients will ultimately need to undergo thyroxine replacement.
Management of Graves’ Disease
Despite numerous attempts, there is no clear consensus on the best way to manage Graves’ disease. The available treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients who have significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those who are at a high risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.
To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If a patient’s symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.
ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, known as block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.
Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. However, it is contraindicated in pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and in patients under the age of 16. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a persistent chest infection visits the clinic for evaluation. Despite two rounds of antibiotics, there has been no significant improvement. The medical team decides to conduct a chest x-ray and screening blood tests. When analyzing the blood tests, which of the following markers is typically not elevated in response to an acute infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Albumin
Explanation:A decrease in albumin levels is frequently observed after an acute phase response.
Acute phase proteins are a group of proteins that are produced by the liver in response to inflammation or infection. These proteins are involved in various physiological processes such as immune response, blood clotting, and iron metabolism. Examples of acute phase proteins include CRP, procalcitonin, ferritin, fibrinogen, alpha-1 antitrypsin, caeruloplasmin, serum amyloid A, serum amyloid P component, haptoglobin, and complement.
During the acute phase response, the liver decreases the production of other proteins known as negative acute phase proteins. These proteins include albumin, transthyretin, transferrin, retinol binding protein, and cortisol binding protein. The levels of acute phase proteins, particularly CRP, are commonly measured in acutely unwell patients. Elevated levels of CRP are indicative of inflammation or infection, and levels greater than 150 at 48 hours post-surgery suggest the development of complications.
It is important to note that while acute phase proteins play a significant role in humans, some of these proteins, such as serum amyloid P component, have a more significant role in other mammals like mice. Overall, the production of acute phase proteins is a crucial part of the body’s response to inflammation or infection, and monitoring their levels can aid in the diagnosis and management of various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are performing the yearly evaluation of a 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Your objective is to screen for diabetic neuropathy that may affect her feet. What is the most suitable screening test to utilize?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Test sensation using a 10 g monofilament
Explanation:To evaluate diabetic neuropathy in the feet, it is recommended to utilize a monofilament weighing 10 grams.
Diabetic foot disease is a significant complication of diabetes mellitus that requires regular screening. In 2015, NICE published guidelines on diabetic foot disease. The disease is caused by two main factors: neuropathy, which results in a loss of protective sensation, and peripheral arterial disease, which increases the risk of macro and microvascular ischaemia. Symptoms of diabetic foot disease include loss of sensation, absent foot pulses, reduced ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI), intermittent claudication, calluses, ulceration, Charcot’s arthropathy, cellulitis, osteomyelitis, and gangrene. All patients with diabetes should be screened for diabetic foot disease at least once a year. Screening for ischaemia involves palpating for both the dorsalis pedis pulse and posterial tibial artery pulse, while screening for neuropathy involves using a 10 g monofilament on various parts of the sole of the foot. NICE recommends that patients be risk-stratified into low, moderate, and high-risk categories based on factors such as deformity, previous ulceration or amputation, renal replacement therapy, neuropathy, and non-critical limb ischaemia. Patients who are moderate or high-risk should be regularly followed up by their local diabetic foot centre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is struggling to manage his symptoms through dietary changes alone. He is primarily bothered by abdominal discomfort and bloating.
What is the most suitable next step in his treatment plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mebeverine hydrochloride
Explanation:Pharmacological Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects 10-20% of the population, with women being more susceptible than men. The condition is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits without any specific organic pathology. Management of IBS involves psychological support, dietary measures, and pharmacological treatment for symptom relief.
Antispasmodics, such as mebeverine hydrochloride, are commonly used to alleviate pain and bloating in IBS patients. Loperamide is the first choice of antimotility agent for diarrhea, while laxatives are recommended for constipation. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), such as amitriptyline, are considered a second-line treatment option for IBS patients who do not respond to other medications. However, the use of opioids, such as tramadol, is not recommended due to the risk of constipation, dependence, and tolerance.
In conclusion, pharmacological management of IBS should be tailored to the individual patient’s symptoms and needs, with a focus on providing relief from pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits. Regular review and adjustment of medication dosages are necessary to ensure optimal treatment outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman with sickle cell disease is admitted to the haematology unit after experiencing increasing fatigue and general malaise for the past week following a recent febrile illness. Upon examination, she appears pale and has multiple petechiae and bruises over her trunk and upper and lower limbs. Blood tests reveal a Hb of 82 g/L (135-180), platelets of 29 * 109/L (150 - 400), and WBC of 1.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0). What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19 infection
Explanation:Pancytopenia may occur in patients with underlying haematological conditions who are infected with Parvovirus B19, which can also cause fever and rash.
Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations
Parvovirus B19 is a DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to the rest of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but for some months afterwards, a warm bath, sunlight, heat, or fever may trigger a recurrence of the bright red cheeks and rash. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is not infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.
Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease, and hydrops fetalis. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which can lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities (e.g. ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions). This condition is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.
It is important to note that the virus can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy (before 20 weeks), she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, the child need not be excluded from school as they are no longer infectious by the time the rash occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The pain is commonly triggered by touching the skin
Explanation:Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia
Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.
Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.
The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with neck pain and swelling. She reports having symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection followed by neck pain and swelling for the past 2 weeks. During examination, she appears anxious, her heart rate is 98/min, and her thyroid gland is tender and diffusely swollen.
Her blood tests reveal the following results:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.4 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 42 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
ESR 65 mm/h (1-20)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's thyroiditis)
Explanation:Subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis is the likely diagnosis for this woman who presents with hyperthyroidism and a tender goitre following an upper respiratory tract infection. This condition is characterized by high ESR and painful thyroid gland. Graves’ disease, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, and thyroid cancer are less likely causes as they do not present with these specific symptoms.
Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases
Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.
To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.
It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true for prostate cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is currently no screening programme for prostate cancer in the UK.
Explanation:Prostate Cancer: Facts and Controversies
Prostate cancer is the second most common cancer in men in developed countries, with an estimated one in six men being diagnosed with it in their lifetime. However, there is currently no screening programme for prostate cancer in the UK due to the controversial nature of PSA testing. PSA tests can yield unreliable results and may lead to unnecessary treatment for slow-growing tumours that may never cause symptoms or shorten life. Although treating prostate cancer in its early stages can be beneficial, the potential side effects of treatment may cause men to delay treatment until it is absolutely necessary.
The 5-year relative survival rates for prostate cancer vary depending on the stage of the cancer at diagnosis, with local or regional prostate cancer having a survival rate of over 99%, while distant disease has a survival rate of 29%. The Gleason grade, tumour volume, and presence of capsular penetration or margin positivity are important indicators of prognosis for prostate cancer.
Prostate cancer is also the second most common cause of cancer death in men, accounting for 8% of cancer deaths. Advanced prostate cancer may not involve pain, but can result in a range of symptoms including weight loss, anorexia, bone pain, neurological deficits, and lower extremity pain and oedema.
Overall, prostate cancer remains a complex and controversial disease, with ongoing debates surrounding screening and treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman complains of long-standing issues with her hands, but lately, she has been experiencing pain in the joints of her fingers and difficulty opening jars. She has also observed a lump on the dorsal, distal part of her left index finger. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herberden's node
Explanation:Nodal osteoarthritis is the usual cause of osteoarthritis in the hands, resulting from genetic factors. This type of arthritis leads to the development of Heberden’s nodes, which is swelling in the distal interphalangeal joints, and Bouchard’s nodes, which is swelling in the proximal interphalangeal joints. These nodes do not require any treatment. Pyogenic granuloma is a lesion that appears as a bright red or blood-crusted area, often following trauma, and is more common in children. A ganglion is a cystic lesion that occurs in the joint or synovial sheath of a tendon, most commonly in the wrist. A sebaceous cyst is a mobile, round cyst with a central punctum.
Clinical Diagnosis of Osteoarthritis
Osteoarthritis can be diagnosed clinically without the need for investigations, according to NICE guidelines. This means that a doctor can diagnose the condition based on the patient’s symptoms and physical examination alone. The guidelines state that if a patient is over 45 years old and experiences pain during exercise, but does not have morning stiffness or morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes, they can be diagnosed with osteoarthritis.
This approach to diagnosis is based on the fact that osteoarthritis is a degenerative condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. The symptoms tend to develop gradually over time, and are often worse after periods of inactivity or overuse. By focusing on the patient’s symptoms and history, doctors can make an accurate diagnosis and start treatment as soon as possible.
Overall, the clinical diagnosis of osteoarthritis is a simple and effective way to identify the condition in patients who meet the criteria. It allows for prompt treatment and management of symptoms, which can improve the patient’s quality of life and prevent further joint damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blood in his stools that has been ongoing for three weeks. The stools are hard and contain a lot of mucus. The patient has no significant medical history. During a digital rectal examination, a suspicious mass is detected on the anal sphincter. What is the most suitable management plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominoperineal excision of rectum
Explanation:The appropriate surgical procedure for a patient with rectal cancer on the anal verge is abdominoperineal excision of the rectum. This procedure involves the removal of the anus, rectum, and a section of the sigmoid colon. Symptoms of rectal cancer include blood mixed with stools, changes in bowel habits, and copious mucus in stools. Haemorrhoidectomy is not the correct choice for this patient as the diagnosis is unlike. High anterior resection is used for upper rectal tumours, while low anterior resection is used for low rectal tumours, but not for anal verge tumours. Rubber band ligation is used to treat haemorrhoids in outpatient clinics, which is not the diagnosis for this patient.
Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.
For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.
Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdomino-perineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.
Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileo-colic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 7-week old male infant is presented to the GP clinic by his mother for a regular examination. During auscultation of the baby's heart, you detect a harsh ejection systolic murmur that is most audible at the second intercostal space on the right parasternal area and extends to the neck. Additionally, you observe that the baby has a small upturned nose, a long philtrum, a small chin, and swollen eyes. What is the probable syndrome that this baby is suffering from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: William's syndrome
Explanation:Aortic stenosis is commonly seen in individuals with William’s syndrome, which is characterized by distinct facial features such as a small upturned nose, long philtrum, wide mouth, full lips, small chin, and puffiness around the eyes. On the other hand, Down’s syndrome is typically associated with atrioventricular septal defects, while Klinefelter syndrome is linked to hypogonadism. Angelman syndrome, on the other hand, is not commonly associated with aortic stenosis.
Aortic Stenosis in Children: Causes and Management
Aortic stenosis is a type of congenital heart disease that affects 5% of children. It can be associated with other conditions such as William’s syndrome, coarctation of the aorta, and Turner’s syndrome. The aim of management is to delay or avoid valve replacement if possible. However, if the gradient across the valve is greater than 60 mmHg, balloon valvotomy may be necessary. It is important to monitor and manage aortic stenosis in children to prevent complications and ensure optimal health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male with metastatic prostate cancer is seen in clinic. His wife reports that he has been experiencing confusion and occasionally talks to people who are not present. Despite investigations for reversible causes, no underlying issues are found. If conservative measures prove ineffective and he continues to exhibit confusion and agitation, what is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral haloperidol
Explanation:Palliative Care Prescribing for Agitation and Confusion
When dealing with agitation and confusion in palliative care patients, it is important to identify and treat any underlying causes such as hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, or medication. If these specific treatments fail, medication can be used to manage symptoms. Haloperidol is the first choice for treating agitation and confusion, with chlorpromazine and levomepromazine as alternative options. In the terminal phase of the illness, midazolam is the preferred medication for managing agitation or restlessness. Proper management of these symptoms can greatly improve the quality of life for palliative care patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the Memory Clinic with a 9-month history of cognitive decline. Her daughter mentions that she has difficulty remembering basic tasks and is becoming more confused and forgetful than usual. Her daughter noticed a change in her personality and has caught her leaving the stove on and wandering outside alone on multiple occasions.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in this patient’s management?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop drugs that may be exacerbating memory problems or confusion (anticholinergics, central nervous system drugs)
Explanation:Managing Frontotemporal Dementia: Treatment Options and Referrals
Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects behavior, language, and executive function. While there is no cure for FTD, management strategies can help alleviate symptoms and provide support for patients and their families.
One important step in managing FTD is to stop any drugs that may be exacerbating memory problems or confusion, such as anticholinergics or central nervous system drugs. Multidisciplinary health and social care is also crucial, involving referrals to geriatric medicine, psychiatry, psychology, social work, occupational therapy, speech and language therapy, physiotherapy, and community nursing.
However, certain treatment options should be avoided or used with caution in FTD patients. Benzodiazepines, for example, are associated with cognitive worsening and fall-related injuries. Anticholinesterase inhibitors, typically used in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease, have shown disappointing results in FTD patients who do not have cholinergic loss. Memantine, used in moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease, has not been shown to be effective in FTD and may even have a detrimental effect on cognition in some individuals.
Antipsychotics should only be used cautiously and when other options have failed, as FTD patients are at higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Overall, a personalized and coordinated approach to FTD management is essential for optimizing patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman with chronic osteoarthritis to multiple joints has been managed on morphine modified-release for several months. She currently takes 30 mg morphine modified-release twice daily. She has also been using Oramorph 10 mg four times daily for the past week because the twice-daily, 30-mg morphine modified-release has not been helping. You decide to increase the total dose of modified-release morphine.
Which of the following is the most appropriate dose of morphine modified-release?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate dose from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Morphine modified-release 50 mg twice daily
Explanation:Understanding Opioid Conversion and Dosage Adjustments
When managing pain in patients with advanced and progressive disease, strong opioids such as morphine are often used. However, as the patient’s condition changes, adjustments to the dosage and type of opioid may be necessary.
For example, if a patient is using a total of 100 mg of morphine in 24 hours and requires increased use of Oramorph PRN, it may be appropriate to increase the total daily dose of morphine modified-release. To calculate the new dose, simply add the total amount of morphine used in 24 hours and divide by 2, which gives a twice-daily dose for morphine modified-release.
It is important to note that transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered to patients for whom oral opioids are suitable. If a patient requires additional pain relief, other options such as adding a fentanyl patch may be considered.
When converting between different opioids, it is important to consult the BNF or local guidance for equi-analgesic potencies. For example, 10 mg of oral morphine is equivalent to 100 mg of codeine phosphate or dihydrocodeine, 1.3 mg of hydromorphone, 5 mg of oxycodone, 25 mg of tapentadol, or 67 mg of tramadol.
Dosage adjustments should always be undertaken with specialist advice, especially when converting to or from methadone. Transdermal opioids also require careful consideration, with buprenorphine and fentanyl patches available in various strengths and corresponding oral morphine equivalents.
In summary, understanding opioid conversion and dosage adjustments is crucial for effective pain management in patients with advanced and progressive disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man is on a flupentixol depot for schizophrenia. The patient presents to his General Practitioner with severe restlessness.
Which of the following side-effects of antipsychotic medication is present?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Understanding Extrapyramidal Side-Effects of Antipsychotic Medications
One common extrapyramidal side-effect of antipsychotic medications is akathisia, which is characterized by a subjective feeling of restlessness and an inability to sit still. This is often seen in the legs and can be caused by first-generation typical antipsychotics like flupentixol. Treatment involves reducing or switching the medication dose.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is another potential side-effect that occurs within days of starting antipsychotic medication. It presents with symptoms such as pyrexia, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and confusion. Rapid diagnosis and treatment with fluids, cooling, benzodiazepines, and dantrolene are necessary.
Acute dystonic reactions, such as torticollis, oculogyric crises, and trismus, can occur within hours to days of taking antipsychotic medications. These extrapyramidal side-effects are more common in first-generation typical antipsychotics due to their increased anti-dopaminergic activity. Treatment may involve anticholinergic drugs like procyclidine.
Parkinsonism refers to features associated with antipsychotic medication that are essentially the same as iatrogenic Parkinsonism, including joint rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. These symptoms are more common in first-generation typical antipsychotics.
Finally, tardive dyskinesia is a late-onset movement disorder that can occur after long-term use of antipsychotics. It presents with involuntary movements such as lip-smacking and grimacing. While this patient may have been on flupentixol for a long time, they do not present with these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female patient complains of gradual tingling and numbness in her right hand's 4th and 5th fingers. The symptoms were occasional at first, but now they are persistent. She observes that the discomfort intensifies when she rests her right elbow on a surface. She remembers hitting her elbow against a door a while back. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed, resulting in tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers.
The correct answer is cubital tunnel syndrome. The ulnar nerve passes through the cubital tunnel, and when it is compressed, it can cause the symptoms described, such as tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers. Treatment for this condition may involve conservative measures, but surgery may be necessary in some cases.
Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve at the wrist, leading to pain and tingling in the hand and wrist, rather than specific fingers.
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis presents differently, with pain occurring during movement of the thumb and wrist, and the radial styloid may become thickened and hardened.
Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, causes pain in the medial elbow area, near the cubital tunnel, but it is a tendinopathy rather than nerve compression. The pain is localized to the affected area.
Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.
Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, although nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition typically involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In cases where these measures are not effective, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 33
Incorrect
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As a physician at a sexual health clinic, what would be the most suitable contraceptive to suggest to a young adult with a latex allergy who does not have a consistent partner?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polyurethane condom
Explanation:Barrier Methods of Contraception
Barrier methods of contraception are still commonly used as a means of preventing unintended pregnancies. In addition to preventing pregnancy, condoms also offer some protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The two most popular types of barrier methods used in the UK are condoms and diaphragms/cervical caps.
When used perfectly, male condoms have an efficacy rate of 98%, while female condoms have an efficacy rate of 95%. However, in typical use, the efficacy rates drop to 80% for both male and female condoms. Diaphragms and cervical caps, when used with spermicide, have an efficacy rate of 92-96%.
It is important to note that oil-based lubricants should not be used with latex condoms, as they can weaken the material and increase the risk of breakage. For individuals who are allergic to latex, polyurethane condoms should be used instead. Overall, barrier methods of contraception remain a popular choice for individuals looking to prevent pregnancy and protect against STIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Which one of the following features is not present in pre-proliferative retinopathy in elderly diabetic patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neovascularisation
Explanation:Proliferative retinopathy is characterized by the presence of retinal neovascularization.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with a family history of autosomal-dominant polycystic kidneys has been diagnosed with polycystic kidneys on ultrasound. He is currently asymptomatic and has no other past medical history. What is the most crucial factor to manage for improving his long-term prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Control blood pressure < 130/90
Explanation:Managing Polycystic Kidney Disease: Key Factors for Improving Long-Term Outcomes
Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a genetic disorder that affects the kidneys, causing the growth of multiple cysts that can lead to kidney failure. To improve the long-term outcomes of patients with PKD, it is crucial to control blood pressure, which is the single most important factor. PKD has two main types, PKD1 and PKD2, with PKD1 being more common. Complications of PKD include haematuria, nocturia, hypertension, and loin pain. Prognosis varies, with PKD1 patients requiring dialysis or transplantation by the age of 60, while PKD2 patients may not require it until the age of 75. While there is limited evidence that decreasing protein and caffeine intake, increasing exercise, and stopping alcohol consumption may improve long-term outcomes, controlling blood pressure remains the most critical factor in managing PKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father, who is concerned about a red rash on her arms and chest. She has been feeling sick, with cold-like symptoms preceding the rash. The rash is erythematous, macular and symmetrical to both arms and chest and is non-blanching. She is currently without fever and appears to be in good health.
What is the most probable cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Explanation:Distinguishing Between Different Skin Conditions: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals
Henoch–Schönlein purpura, eczema, intertrigo, meningococcal disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all skin conditions that can present with various rashes and symptoms. It is important for healthcare professionals to be able to distinguish between these conditions in order to provide appropriate treatment.
Henoch–Schönlein purpura is an autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that presents with a non-blanching rash, joint and abdominal pain, and nephritis. Eczema is characterized by areas of erythema that are blanching, dry skin with fine scales, and excoriations. Intertrigo primarily affects the flexures with erythematous patches that may progress to intense inflammation. Meningococcal disease presents with a non-blanching rash that rapidly progresses to purpura and requires immediate treatment. Systemic lupus erythematosus is rare in children and presents with a malar or butterfly rash on the face, joint pain, fever, or weight loss.
By understanding the unique features of each condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of decreased vision in his left eye. He reports that he first noticed it approximately 4 hours ago and is experiencing pain, particularly when he moves his eye. Additionally, he notes that everything appears to be a strange color.
During the examination, the swinging light test reveals normal constriction of both pupils when the light is directed into the right eye. However, when the light is directed into the left eye, there is a reduced constriction of both pupils.
What is the most common disease that could be causing this man's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest optic neuritis, which is commonly caused by multiple sclerosis. This condition involves inflammation of the optic nerve, resulting in pain on movement, reduced visual acuity, and an RAPD due to reduced response to light in the affected eye. Multiple sclerosis is a demyelinating disease that can cause various symptoms, including optic neuritis, by damaging the myelin sheaths of nerves.
Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune condition that primarily affects the joints but can also cause extra-articular manifestations throughout the body. In the eye, it tends to cause scleritis, episcleritis, and keratoconjunctivitis sicca, but not optic neuritis.
Behçet’s disease is another inflammatory disorder that affects multiple parts of the body, but its ocular manifestation is anterior uveitis, not optic neuritis.
Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease that involves inflammation of the lower GI tract. It can also cause extraintestinal manifestations, including scleritis and anterior uveitis in the eye.
Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man is seen in the Cardiology clinic after experiencing a heart attack a year ago. He was diagnosed with hypertension and diabetes during his hospitalization. The patient reports gaining 5kg in the last 6 months and wonders if any of his medications could be causing this weight gain. Which of his prescribed drugs may be contributing to his recent weight gain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gliclazide
Explanation:Weight gain is a common side effect of sulfonylureas.
Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but they are only effective if the pancreas is functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, which helps to increase insulin secretion. However, there are some potential side effects associated with these drugs.
One of the most common side effects of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia, which can be more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Weight gain is another possible side effect. In rare cases, sulfonylureas can cause hyponatraemia, which is a condition where the body retains too much water and sodium levels become too low. Other rare side effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy. It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has an HbA1c of 54 mmol/mol after 3 months of lifestyle changes, following a previous reading of HbA1c of 52 mmol/mol. You suggest that he should begin taking metformin standard release in addition to lifestyle interventions. He has normal renal function and no other medical issues. You inform him of the possibility of gastrointestinal discomfort.
What is the typical duration before considering increasing the dosage to alleviate these symptoms for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:It is recommended to increase the dose of metformin gradually, with a minimum of one week between each increase.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.
There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.
When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 40
Incorrect
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An elderly man, aged 74, with metastatic small cell lung cancer has been admitted to the hospice for symptom management. He is currently experiencing persistent hiccups that are difficult to control. What is the best course of action for managing this symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine
Explanation:Palliative Care Prescribing for Hiccups
Hiccups can be a distressing symptom for patients receiving palliative care. To manage this symptom, healthcare professionals may prescribe medications such as chlorpromazine, which is licensed for the treatment of intractable hiccups. Other medications that may be used include haloperidol and gabapentin. In cases where there are hepatic lesions, dexamethasone may also be prescribed. It is important to note that the choice of medication will depend on the individual patient’s needs and medical history. Proper management of hiccups can improve the patient’s quality of life and provide relief from discomfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 32-week pregnant woman presents to the early pregnancy unit with a concern that her uterus is small for this stage of pregnancy. Upon ultrasound, she is diagnosed with oligohydramnios. What could be a potential cause of oligohydramnios?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal agenesis
Explanation:Oligohydramnios is a condition that occurs during pregnancy when there is a shortage of amniotic fluid. This can result in a smaller symphysiofundal height.
Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.
There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female student attends the blood transfusion service wishing to donate blood. She is currently well, has never had a serious illness and weighs 60 kg. About three months ago she spent the summer doing voluntary work in Nigeria. She also had her ears pierced three years ago and had a tattoo put on her left arm one year ago. She is not acceptable as a donor.
Which of the following is the reason for her rejection to donate blood in the UK?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recent travel to an endemic area
Explanation:Blood Donation Eligibility Criteria: Factors to Consider
When it comes to donating blood, there are several factors to consider to ensure the safety of both the donor and the recipient. Here are some examples:
Recent travel to an endemic area: If a person has recently traveled to a country with a high risk of infectious diseases, they may have to wait a certain period before donating blood. For instance, if someone has returned from Nigeria, they must wait at least six months before donating blood in the UK.
Underweight: A person must weigh at least 50 kg to donate blood. If they weigh less than that, they may not have enough blood volume to spare.
Body piercing: If someone has had a body piercing within the last 12 months, they should inform the staff before donating blood. They may have to wait for at least four months before donating.
Tattoo: Similarly, if someone has had a tattoo within the last 12 months, they should inform the staff before donating blood. They may have to wait for at least four months before donating.
Age: To donate blood, a person must be between 17 and 66 years old (or 70 if they have donated blood before). If they are over 70, they can still donate if they have donated blood in the last two years.
By considering these factors, blood donation centers can ensure that the blood they collect is safe and suitable for transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner for advice regarding optimisation of secondary prevention. He has a history of non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) two years ago. He is on a combination of clopidogrel, atenolol 50 mg once daily and atorvastatin 80 mg once daily. He also has diabetes for which he takes metformin 1 g twice daily. His pulse rate is 70 bpm, and blood pressure 144/86 mmHg. His past medical history includes an ischaemic stroke two years ago, from which he made a complete recovery.
What additional therapy would you consider?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perindopril
Explanation:The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Post-MI Patients with Vascular Disease and Diabetes
Following a myocardial infarction (MI), the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors for all patients, regardless of left ventricular function. This is based on evidence from trials such as PROGRESS and HOPE, which demonstrate the benefits of ACE inhibitors in patients with vascular disease. Additionally, for patients with diabetes, the use of ACE inhibitors is preferable. The benefits of ACE inhibition are not solely related to blood pressure reduction, but also include favorable local vascular and myocardial effects. Calcium channel blockers, such as amlodipine and diltiazem, are not recommended for post-MI patients with systolic dysfunction. Nicorandil should also be avoided. Clopidogrel is the preferred antiplatelet for patients with clinical vascular disease who have had an MI and a stroke. Blood pressure should be optimized in post-MI patients, and further antihypertensive therapy may be necessary, including the addition of an ACE inhibitor to achieve the desired level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 44
Incorrect
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You are on-call and reviewing a potassium result. The patient's details are as follows:
Na+ 141 mmol/l
K+ 6.4 mmol/l
Bicarbonate 16 mmol/l
Urea 13.1 mmol/l
Creatinine 195 µmol/l
You are uncertain about administering calcium gluconate and decide to seek advice from your senior. She advises you to only give calcium gluconate if there are ECG changes. What ECG changes are most indicative of hyperkalaemia in a patient who is 60 years old?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Widening of the QRS complex
Explanation:ECG characteristics of hypokalaemia include a prolonged QT interval, prolonged PR interval, and the presence of U waves.
Understanding Hyperkalaemia: Causes and Symptoms
Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. The regulation of plasma potassium levels is influenced by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When metabolic acidosis occurs, hyperkalaemia may develop as hydrogen and potassium ions compete for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. ECG changes that may be observed in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.
There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Certain drugs such as potassium-sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin can also cause hyperkalaemia. It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. On the other hand, beta-agonists like Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment.
Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes. It is essential to monitor potassium levels in the blood to prevent complications associated with hyperkalaemia. If left untreated, hyperkalaemia can lead to serious health problems such as cardiac arrhythmias and even death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Migraine can be a debilitating condition that affects many people, but there is no one-size-fits-all solution for managing it. Which of the following is the best statement about migraine.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Over half of all patients have their first attack before the age of 20
Explanation:Understanding Migraines: Facts and Diagnostic Criteria
Migraines are a common neurological disorder that affects people of all ages. Here are some important facts to know about migraines:
– The first attack of migraine often occurs in childhood or teenage years, with over half of all patients experiencing their first attack before the age of 20.
– Migraine attacks can last for a few hours to several days, with the International Headache Society diagnostic criteria requiring at least five episodes of headache lasting 4-72 hours.
– While aura is estimated to accompany headache in only a quarter to a third of patients, over half of all patients experience aura before the headache.
– Migraine is classically described as a unilateral, pulsating headache, but subsequent migraines can affect the same side or be bilateral.
– The release of vasogenic amines from blood vessel walls, accompanied by pulsatile distension, is believed to be responsible for migrainous attacks.
– A good history is important in diagnosing migraines, as patients may self-diagnose and overlook other factors such as combined oral contraception.In summary, migraines are a complex neurological disorder that can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life. Understanding the facts and diagnostic criteria can help with proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the Holmes-Adie pupil is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilateral in 80% of cases
Explanation:Understanding Holmes-Adie Pupil
Holmes-Adie pupil is a condition that is more commonly observed in women and is considered a benign condition. It is one of the possible causes of a dilated pupil. In about 80% of cases, it affects only one eye. The main characteristic of this condition is a dilated pupil that remains small for an unusually long time after it has constricted. The pupil also reacts slowly to accommodation but poorly or not at all to light.
Holmes-Adie syndrome is a condition that is associated with Holmes-Adie pupil. It is characterized by the absence of ankle and knee reflexes. This condition is not harmful and does not require any treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with central crushing chest pain. Upon arrival, an ECG reveals ST-elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient has a history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril, aspirin and simvastatin. What is the most effective course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin + clopidogrel + IV heparin + immediate percutaneous coronary intervention
Explanation:Immediate percutaneous coronary intervention with aspirin, clopidogrel, and IV heparin is recommended.
Myocardial infarction, specifically ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), can be managed using evidence-based approaches. Patients without contraindications should be given aspirin and a P2Y12-receptor antagonist, with ticagrelor being preferred over clopidogrel due to improved outcomes despite slightly higher bleeding rates. Unfractionated heparin is typically given to patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), but low-molecular weight heparin can also be used. Oxygen therapy should not be routinely administered, but supplemental oxygen can be given to patients with oxygen saturation levels below 94% or those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure.
Primary PCI is the preferred treatment for STEMI, but it may not be available in all centers. Thrombolysis can be performed in patients without access to primary PCI, with tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) offering clear mortality benefits over streptokinase. Tenecteplase is easier to administer and has non-inferior efficacy to alteplase with a similar adverse effect profile. An ECG should be performed 90 minutes following thrombolysis to assess whether there has been a greater than 50% resolution in the ST elevation. If there has not been adequate resolution, rescue PCI is superior to repeat thrombolysis. For patients successfully treated with thrombolysis, PCI has been shown to be beneficial, but the optimal timing is still being investigated.
For patients with diabetes mellitus, NICE recommends using a dose-adjusted insulin infusion with regular monitoring of blood glucose levels to keep glucose below 11.0 mmol/l. Intensive insulin therapy regimes are not recommended routinely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presented to the GP surgery multiple times with a persistent conjunctivitis in one eye. Despite being treated with chloramphenicol and steroid eye drops, the symptoms did not improve. After three weeks, he visited the eye casualty with a constantly teary, painless, and red right eye. Upon examination, it was found that he had decreased visual acuity and mild proptosis in the affected eye. What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Orbital lymphoma
Explanation:If a patient has chronic unilateral conjunctivitis that is not responding to treatment, it could be a sign of orbital lymphoma.
Orbital lymphoma typically has a slow onset of symptoms, which is why it is the most appropriate answer in this situation. If the red eye persists despite treatment, it is important to investigate further to rule out any serious underlying conditions. The other options listed are not applicable as they are associated with a painful red eye.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old female medical student, who is an insulin-dependent diabetic, went on a weekend trip to visit some friends at another university. She forgot to pack her insulin. When she returned, she went to visit her General Practitioner. Which of the following blood results would be expected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unchanged haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c)
Explanation:Insulin-dependent diabetes patients rely on insulin to regulate their blood glucose levels. Without insulin, several physiological changes occur. However, these changes do not happen immediately. Here are some effects of insulin absence in insulin-dependent diabetes patients:
Unchanged HbA1c levels – Correct: HbA1c levels do not change significantly over two to three days without insulin. Changes in HbA1c levels are observed over weeks and months.
Below normal fatty acid levels – Incorrect: In the absence of insulin, triglyceride hydrolysis and increased release from adipose tissue occur, giving raised fatty acid levels. Fatty acids are utilised to synthesise ketones.
Below normal glucagon levels – Incorrect: The body responds to the absence of insulin by increasing glucagon levels. In a healthy individual, this raised glucagon would raise glucose levels in the bloodstream, providing target organs with utilisable glucose. However, in a diabetic patient, the absence of insulin means target organs are still not able to utilise this resource.
Hypoglycaemia – Incorrect: In the absence of insulin, hyperglycaemia would be expected to develop. Ketones are generated by the body as an alternative energy source to glucose, since to utilise glucose, insulin is required.
Undetectable ketones – Incorrect: A diabetic patient who is normally dependent on insulin is at risk of developing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) even with only a weekend of missed insulin doses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female comes to your clinic after experiencing recurrent miscarriages and no successful pregnancies. She has been referred to you for further evaluation. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
- APTT: 42 (normal range: 27-35)
- Platelets: 95 (normal range: 150-400)
- PT: 12 seconds (normal range: 11-14)
What could be the possible reason for these abnormalities?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome
Explanation:Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by an elevated APTT and normal PT, and can lead to thrombocytopenia. AITP only causes a decrease in platelets, while vWD and hemophilia A only affect the APTT. Although unfractionated heparin can prolong the APTT, low platelets are a rare long-term side effect and are unlikely to be the cause of her repeated miscarriages.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening psoriasis. He reports feeling more stressed lately and suspects it may be contributing to his flare-up. Additionally, he has recently started taking a new medication. During the physical examination, scaly plaques on the extensor surfaces and trunk that are erythematous are observed. Which of the following medications could potentially trigger exacerbations in his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:The medication lithium has been known to worsen psoriasis in some patients and can even cause psoriasis in those who did not previously have it, even at normal therapeutic levels. It is important to inform both the patient and their psychiatrist of this potential effect. Furosemide, on the other hand, does not typically worsen or cause drug-induced psoriasis, but can lead to electrolyte imbalances. Amiodarone also does not worsen or cause drug-induced psoriasis, but can cause a bluish discoloration of the skin.
Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors. These include physical trauma, consumption of alcohol, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, stopping the use of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take necessary precautions to manage their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient visits her GP with complaints of heat intolerance, palpitations, anxiety, and weight loss that have been progressively worsening for the past three months. She has also noticed that her eyes feel dry and appear wider than they did in photographs taken a few years ago. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and suffered a heart attack six years ago. She is currently taking ramipril, simvastatin, aspirin, clopidogrel, and atenolol. What is the most appropriate management plan for her likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbimazole
Explanation:Carbimazole is the preferred initial treatment for Graves’ disease, especially in elderly patients or those with underlying cardiovascular disease and significant thyrotoxicosis, as evidenced by this patient’s symptoms and peripheral signs of Graves’ disease such as ophthalmopathy. Radioiodine treatment is not recommended as first-line therapy in these cases due to the increased risk of Graves’ ophthalmopathy. Adrenalectomy is the primary treatment for pheochromocytoma, while ketoconazole is used to manage excess cortisol production in conditions like Cushing’s. Hydrocortisone is part of the treatment plan for Addison’s Disease.
Management of Graves’ Disease
Despite numerous attempts, there is no clear consensus on the best way to manage Graves’ disease. The available treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients who have significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those who are at a high risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.
To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If a patient’s symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.
ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, known as block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.
Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. However, it is contraindicated in pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and in patients under the age of 16. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of a 3 kg weight gain, fatigue, dry hair and skin, and a small diffuse goitre. She always feels cold and has a family history of thyroid disease.
Investigation Result Normal value
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 18.0 mU/l 0.25–4.0 mU/l
Free T4 6 pmol/l 12–22 pmol/l
Thyroid peroxidase antibody Positive at high titres
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and blood test results suggest hypothyroidism, which is commonly caused by Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disorder affecting the thyroid gland. Risk factors for this condition include a family history of autoimmune disease, being female, and having another autoimmune disorder. Positive thyroid antibodies and a diffuse goitre may also be present. De Quervain’s thyroiditis, on the other hand, typically presents with hyperthyroidism after a viral infection and is associated with neck pain and fever. Follicular thyroid carcinoma is characterized by a painless thyroid nodule and possible hoarseness or stridor if the recurrent laryngeal nerve is affected. Graves’ disease, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism, presents with symptoms such as sweating, anxiety, and weight loss, as well as eye signs in some cases. Multinodular goitre, which involves multiple autonomously functioning thyroid nodules, typically presents as hyperthyroidism with a multinodular goitre, but the patient in this scenario is hypothyroid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes in for a check-up with her doctor. She has a history of hypothyroidism and is currently taking 100mcg of levothyroxine. She reports feeling well and has no notable symptoms. Her last TFTs were normal 6 months ago.
Free T4 18.5 pmol/l
TSH 0.1 mu/l
What should be done next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease dose to levothyroxine 75mcg od
Explanation:The latest TFTs reveal that the patient is experiencing over replacement, as evidenced by a suppressed TSH. Despite being asymptomatic, it is advisable to decrease the dosage to minimize the risk of osteoporosis and atrial fibrillation. According to the BNF, a 25mcg dose adjustment is recommended for individuals in this age bracket.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.
Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman who recently finished a round of chemotherapy reports experiencing tingling sensations and difficulty using her hands. Additionally, she has noticed hesitancy in her urinary function. Which specific cytotoxic medication is the likely culprit for these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vincristine
Explanation:Peripheral neuropathy is a known side effect of Vincristine. Additionally, bladder atony may cause urinary hesitancy.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin, degrade preformed DNA and can lead to lung fibrosis. Anthracyclines, such as doxorubicin, stabilize the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, but can also cause cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, like methotrexate, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, leading to myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, and lung fibrosis. Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase, but can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and dermatitis. Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist that interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase, but can also cause myelosuppression and ataxia. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and vinblastine, inhibit the formation of microtubules and can cause peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, and myelosuppression. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly, decreasing free tubulin, but can also cause neutropaenia. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA, but can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin, cause cross-linking in DNA and can lead to ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and hypomagnesaemia. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis, but can also cause myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old presents with a rash that developed after a camping trip. He mentions being bitten by a tick during the trip. He explains that the rash is red, not itchy, and began at the site of the bite before spreading outward. The center of the rash has now cleared, resulting in a bulls-eye appearance. What is the name of this rash?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema migrans
Explanation:Lyme Disease: Symptoms and Progression
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. The disease progresses in two stages, with early and later features. The early features of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, which is a small papule that often appears at the site of the tick bite. This papule develops into a larger annular lesion with central clearing, resembling a bulls-eye. This occurs in 70% of patients and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as malaise, fever, and arthralgia.
In the later stages of Lyme disease, patients may experience cardiovascular symptoms such as heart block and myocarditis. Neurological symptoms may also occur, including cranial nerve palsies and meningitis. Additionally, patients may develop polyarthritis, which is inflammation in multiple joints. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur after a tick bite, as early treatment can prevent the progression of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man complains of persistent ringing in his left ear for the past 4 months. He has also noticed a decline in hearing from his left ear over the past 2 weeks. During the examination, Rinne's test reveals that air conduction is louder than bone conduction in the left ear, and Weber's test shows lateralisation to the right ear. Which of the following conditions is likely to present with unilateral tinnitus and hearing loss?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma
Explanation:The traditional presentation of vestibular schwannoma involves a blend of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing impairment, tinnitus, and a missing corneal reflex.
An acoustic neuroma is typically linked to one-sided tinnitus and hearing loss.
Tinnitus and deafness are not commonly associated with multiple sclerosis (MS), which is a condition characterized by demyelination.
Chronic otitis media is a persistent inflammation of the middle ear and mastoid cavity, which is marked by recurring otorrhoea and conductive hearing loss.
Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)
Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.
Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.
The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes in with complaints of nocturia, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. During prostate examination, a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus is found. Blood tests reveal a PSA level of 1.3 ng/ml.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist
Explanation:First-line treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia involves the use of alpha-1 antagonists.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.
Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman from Nigeria complains of fatigue, back pain and excessive thirst. Her ESR is elevated and she has normocytic/normochromic anemia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Distinguishing Multiple Myeloma from Other Bone Diseases
Multiple Myeloma: A Malignant Disease of Plasma Cells
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is more common in black Africans and rare in Asians, with a median age of onset over 60. Patients may not show any symptoms and are often diagnosed through routine blood tests. However, they are more susceptible to infections and may have low white blood cell counts. Elevated levels of ESR and CRP are almost always present. Diagnosis is confirmed when two out of three of the following are present: paraproteinaemia or Bence Jones protein, radiological evidence of lytic bone lesions, and an increase in bone marrow plasma cells. Patients may experience bone pain, lethargy, thirst, and anaemia, which are all signs of multiple myeloma.
Calcium Pyrophosphate Arthropathy: Shedding of Crystals into Joints
Calcium pyrophosphate arthropathy, also known as pseudogout, is caused by the shedding of calcium pyrophosphate crystals into the joint. It typically presents as an acute-onset monoarticular arthritis, usually in the knee or wrist. The joint will be hot, red, tender, and swollen. Rhomboid-shaped crystals that are weakly positively birefringent under polarised light will be visible in synovial fluid.
Osteoporosis: Fragility Fractures
Osteoporosis is characterised by fragility fractures, such as vertebral crush fractures, Colles fractures, and fractures of the proximal femur. It is uncommon in men at this age, unless associated with hypogonadism. Anaemia and elevated ESR are not seen in osteoporosis.
Osteoarthritis: Joint Pain and Stiffness
Osteoarthritis presents with joint pain, stiffness, and reduced function. The weight-bearing joints, such as the hip and knee, and the small joints of the hand are commonly affected. Patients do not experience symptoms such as thirst and lethargy, which are due to hypercalcaemia. Blood biochemistry is normal in osteoarthritis.
Paget’s Disease of Bone: Bone Remodelling
Paget’s disease of the bone is rare in individuals under 40 years old. It is characterised by bone pain, deformity, fragility fractures, and complications from nerve compression
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with known gallstones awaiting elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy attends his general practice surgery, complaining of a fever. He also has flu-like symptoms and pain in his abdomen.
On examination, his temperature is 38.5 °C. His pulse is 120 bpm. He has yellow sclera and an abdomen which is soft but tender in the right upper quadrant.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:Distinguishing Causes of Obstructive Jaundice: A Medical Overview
Obstructive jaundice is a condition characterized by the yellowing of the skin and eyes due to the blockage of the bile ducts. Ascending cholangitis is a common cause of this condition, often associated with gallstone disease. Patients with this condition may experience fever, tachycardia, and abdominal pain. Influenza, on the other hand, rarely causes localized pain in the right upper quadrant and is unlikely to result in obstructive jaundice. Pancreatic cancer typically presents with painless jaundice, while acute hepatitis is often associated with a history of travel or high-risk behaviors. Biliary colic, which is caused by gallstones, can lead to colicky pain after eating. Understanding the different causes of obstructive jaundice is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with a blistering rash around her right eye that developed overnight. Upon examination, the eye appears to be unaffected. The GP promptly contacts the nearby hospital rapid access eye clinic for guidance.
What is the most suitable course of treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir
Explanation:Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, is a reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus that causes chickenpox. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) occurs when the virus affects the trigeminal nerve, resulting in eye involvement in about 50% of cases. Symptoms include patchy erythema and grouped herpetiform vesicles, which may extend to the tip of the nose. Other ophthalmic manifestations include conjunctivitis, scleritis, keratitis, and optic neuritis. Urgent referral to ophthalmology is necessary in the presence of eye involvement, as it poses a risk to vision. Treatment involves oral aciclovir and topical aciclovir for severe eye infection. There is no recommendation for the use of carbamazepine in the management of post-herpetic neuralgia. Topical steroids are not indicated for herpes zoster infection. Complications of HZO include post-herpetic neuralgia and scarring. Aggressive treatment and follow-up monitoring are required for HZO due to the possibility of eye involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presented to her GP with a grey, thin, creamy vaginal discharge.
Which of the following is the best verbal advice to give her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoid perfumed soaps
Explanation:Bacterial Vaginosis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Diagnosis
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by an overgrowth of bacteria. It is important for patients to understand the symptoms, risk factors, and diagnosis of BV in order to properly manage and treat the condition.
Symptoms of BV include vaginal odor, increased vaginal discharge, vulvar irritation, and rarely, dysuria or dyspareunia. Risk factors for BV include recent antibiotic use, decreased estrogen production, presence of an intrauterine device, douching, and sexual activity that could lead to transmission.
Physical findings of BV include grey, thin, and homogeneous vaginal discharge that adheres to the vaginal mucosa, increased light reflex of the vaginal walls, and typically little or no evidence of inflammation. Diagnosis of BV is made through microscopic examination of the discharge, with demonstration of three of the following four Amsel criteria: clue cells on a saline smear, a pH >4.5, characteristic discharge, and a positive whiff test.
Patients with BV should be advised to wash only with hypoallergenic bar soaps or no soap at all, avoid liquid soaps, body washes, and perfumed soaps, and not to douche or use over-the-counter vaginal hygiene products. While studies have shown inconsistent results, some patients may find relief from symptoms by using yogurt containing live bacteria.
It is important to properly manage and treat BV, as long-standing or untreated cases may lead to more serious complications such as endometritis, salpingitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, or pregnancy complications. However, with proper care and attention, the prognosis for uncomplicated cases of BV is generally excellent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes in with a tremor. What distinguishing characteristic would indicate a diagnosis of essential tremor instead of Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tremor is worse when the arms are outstretched
Explanation:Typical symptoms of Parkinson’s include bradykinesia, postural instability, and initially unilateral symptoms. On the other hand, alcohol can alleviate essential tremor symptoms.
Understanding Essential Tremor
Essential tremor, also known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. The most common symptom is a postural tremor, which worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the leading cause of head tremors, known as titubation.
When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a lifelong condition, but with proper management, individuals can lead a normal life. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options, those with essential tremor can take control of their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a 3-month history of a non-productive cough, dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain, especially when climbing stairs. She reports intermittent fevers of up to 39°C and a 3.5-kg weight loss. She complains of wrist and ankle pain that has interfered with her work. She smokes two packets of cigarettes per day. Her full blood count is normal and serum ANA is negative. On examination there are red nodules over her lower legs.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:Sarcoidosis is a condition where non-caseating granulomata develop in at least two organs, causing systemic inflammation. It is most common in African-Caribbean women and often affects the lungs, causing symptoms such as dry cough, dyspnea, and weight loss. Erythema nodosum is also frequently seen in patients with sarcoidosis. Histoplasmosis, Goodpasture’s syndrome, adenocarcinoma of the lung, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all possible differential diagnoses, but the absence of specific features makes sarcoidosis more likely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 65
Incorrect
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In a 40-year-old woman, what is the probability of having a child with Down syndrome? Please choose one option from the list provided.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 100
Explanation:The chance of Down syndrome increases with maternal age:
Age (years) Chance
20 1:1500
30 1:800
35 1:270
40 1:100
>45 >1:50Therefore, the correct answer is 1 in 100.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old para 2, gravida 3 is in labour in the delivery ward. The labour is progressing normally until the midwife calls the obstetrician to assess the patient. The cervix is dilated to 6 cm, and the baby's position is 2 cm above the ischial spine. The cardiotocography shows a slow but steady heartbeat. The obstetrician decides to perform an emergency category 2 caesarian section. What is the maximum time allowed between this decision and the delivery of the baby, given the indication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 75 minutes
Explanation:Category 2 caesarean sections should be performed within 75 minutes of the decision being made. This is because these cases involve maternal or fetal compromise that is not immediately life-threatening, allowing the medical team to manage the emergency and plan the surgery to minimize risks to both the mother and the baby. A timeframe of 2 hours is incorrect as it would delay the necessary intervention. On the other hand, a timeframe of 30 minutes is only applicable to category 1 caesarean sections, where there is an immediate threat to the life of the mother or baby. A timeframe of 5 minutes is too short and may increase the risk of errors during the procedure.
Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks
Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.
C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.
It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.
Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department after falling off a ladder and hitting their head. The ambulance crew suspects an intracranial haemorrhage. Upon examination, the patient responds to verbal instruction by opening their eyes, but only makes incomprehensible groans. Painful stimulation causes abnormal flexing on the left side, while the right side has no motor response. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman with a history of scleroderma presents with recurrent bouts of diarrhoea for the past few months. Her stools are pale, bulky, and offensive during these episodes. She consumes 12 units of alcohol per week. Laboratory tests reveal the following results:
- Hemoglobin: 10.8 g/dL
- Platelets: 231 * 10^9/L
- White blood cells: 5.4 * 10^9/L
- Ferritin: 14 ng/mL
- Vitamin B12: 170 ng/L
- Folate: 2.2 nmol/L
- Sodium: 142 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
- Urea: 4.5 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 77 µmol/L
- Bilirubin: 21 µmol/L
- Alkaline phosphatase: 88 U/L
- Alanine transaminase: 21 U/L
- Gamma-glutamyl transferase: 55 U/L
- Albumin: 36 g/L
What is the most likely complication that has occurred in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malabsorption syndrome
Explanation:Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) frequently leads to malabsorption syndrome, which is characterized by reduced absorption of certain vitamins (B12, folate), nutrients (iron), and protein (low albumin) as indicated by blood tests.
Understanding Malabsorption: Causes and Symptoms
Malabsorption is a condition that is characterized by diarrhea, steatorrhea, and weight loss. It occurs when the body is unable to absorb nutrients from the food that is consumed. The causes of malabsorption can be broadly divided into three categories: intestinal, pancreatic, and biliary. Intestinal causes include conditions such as coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease, tropical sprue, Whipple’s disease, Giardiasis, and brush border enzyme deficiencies. Pancreatic causes include chronic pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, and pancreatic cancer. Biliary causes include biliary obstruction and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other causes of malabsorption include bacterial overgrowth, short bowel syndrome, and lymphoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man was diagnosed with angina after experiencing chest pain during physical activity. He underwent an exercise test at the cardiology clinic and was prescribed aspirin, bisoprolol, atorvastatin, and a glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray.
After six months, he returned with an increase in the frequency of anginal episodes, which were relieved by GTN spray and did not occur at rest.
What medication would be the most suitable addition to his current treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:If a beta-blocker is not effective in controlling angina, it is recommended to add a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine. Diltiazem and verapamil should not be used in combination with a beta-blocker due to the risk of life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure. Ivabradine and nicorandil can be used as alternatives if a dihydropyridine CCB is not suitable, but should only be initiated under specialist advice.
Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 70
Incorrect
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Which one of the following can be utilized for monitoring patients with colorectal cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen
Explanation:Carcinoembryonic antigen can be utilized for post-operative recurrence monitoring in patients or evaluating the effectiveness of treatment in those with metastatic disease.
Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.
Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A middle-aged man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the Emergency Department. He appears disheveled, lethargic, and disoriented, and it is suspected that he has not had a meal in the past two days. The medical team decides to initiate chlordiazepoxide PRN and administer IV Pabrinex. Which specific vitamin, found in Pabrinex, can help halt the progression of symptoms leading to Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B1
Explanation:Understanding Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that affects the brain and is caused by a deficiency in thiamine. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who abuse alcohol, but it can also be caused by persistent vomiting, stomach cancer, or dietary deficiencies. The classic triad of symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy includes oculomotor dysfunction, gait ataxia, and encephalopathy. Other symptoms may include peripheral sensory neuropathy and confusion.
When left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to the development of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by antero- and retrograde amnesia and confabulation in addition to the symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
To diagnose Wernicke’s encephalopathy, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including a decreased red cell transketolase test and an MRI. Treatment for this condition involves urgent replacement of thiamine. With prompt treatment, individuals with Wernicke’s encephalopathy can recover fully.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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Helicobacter pylori infection is most commonly associated with which disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric lymphoma
Explanation:Understanding the Association between H. pylori Infection and Gastric Diseases
H. pylori infection is a common bacterial infection that affects approximately 50% of the global population. While it is primarily associated with peptic ulcer disease, it can also lead to other gastric diseases. Gastric malignancies, for instance, are often caused by chronic inflammation of MALT from H. pylori infection. MALTomas, which are extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphomas, are the most common type of gastric lymphoma and are associated with H. pylori infection in over 90% of cases.
However, not all gastric diseases are associated with H. pylori infection. Coeliac disease, for example, is an autoimmune disorder related to gluten sensitivity. Non-ulcer dyspepsia, a group of upper gastrointestinal symptoms, is not generally associated with H. pylori infection. Reflux oesophagitis, a condition caused by the failure of relaxation of the lower end of the oesophagus, is also not associated with H. pylori infection.
It is important to note that the development of gastric malignancies from H. pylori infection is a slow process that may stop at any step. The disease process starts with chronic gastritis, followed by atrophic gastritis, intestinal metaplasia, dysplasia, and eventually gastric malignancy (Correa’s cascade). However, other factors are also required for gastric cancers to develop, not just H. pylori infection.
In conclusion, understanding the association between H. pylori infection and gastric diseases is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of these conditions. While H. pylori infection is a common cause of gastric malignancies, it is not associated with all gastric diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m² presents to your GP clinic with a small lump in her right breast. She is worried about the possibility of breast cancer, although she has noticed that the lump has decreased in size over the past two weeks. She denies any direct injury but mentions playing rugby recently. There is no family history of breast or gynaecological cancer. On examination, a small, firm, poorly mobile lump is found in the lower quadrant of the right breast.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Traumatic breast fat necrosis
Explanation:Traumatic breast fat necrosis may develop following a minor or unnoticed injury in women with a high body mass index, although it is crucial to investigate any lump to exclude breast cancer. Nipple discharge is a common symptom of mammary duct ectasia, while a tender lymph node in the axilla is likely to be palpable. Paget’s disease is characterized by an eczema-like appearance of the nipple, not a lump. Fibroadenoma, also known as a breast mouse, is not attached.
Understanding Fat Necrosis of the Breast
Fat necrosis of the breast is a condition that affects up to 40% of cases and is often caused by trauma. This condition can be mistaken for breast cancer due to its physical features, such as a mass that may initially increase in size. It is important to understand that fat necrosis is not cancerous and can be treated with proper care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 6-week-old infant presents to the clinic with a red rash on their scalp accompanied by yellow flakes. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Children: Symptoms and Management
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition that affects children, typically appearing on the scalp, nappy area, face, and limb flexures. One of the earliest signs is cradle cap, which can develop in the first few weeks of life. This condition is characterized by a red rash with coarse yellow scales.
Fortunately, seborrhoeic dermatitis in children is not harmful and usually resolves within a few weeks. Parents can help manage the condition by massaging a topical emollient onto the scalp to loosen scales, brushing gently with a soft brush, and washing off with shampoo. If the condition is severe or persistent, a topical imidazole cream may be prescribed.
It’s important to note that seborrhoeic dermatitis in children tends to resolve spontaneously by around 8 months of age. Parents should not be overly concerned and can take comfort in knowing that this condition is common and easily managed. By following these simple steps, parents can help their child feel more comfortable and alleviate any discomfort associated with seborrhoeic dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old teacher is referred to the Respiratory Clinic with a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath and dry cough. She denies fever or weight loss and there is no past medical history of note. She reports smoking 5 cigarettes a day for 3 years whilst at college but has since stopped. There are no known allergies.
On examination, her respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute with an oxygen saturation of 94% on air. There are audible crackles at the lung bases with expiratory wheeze.
She is referred for spirometry testing:
Forced expiratory volume (FEV1): 60% predicted
Forced vital capacity (FVC): 80% predicted
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Obstructive Lung Disease: Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency
Alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is a genetic disorder that causes emphysematous changes in the lungs due to the loss of elasticity. This disease presents similarly to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with symptoms such as shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze. However, AAT deficiency typically affects young men between 30-40 years old and is exacerbated by smoking. Spirometry testing reveals an obstructive pattern of disease (FEV1/FVC < 0.7). Other potential diagnoses for obstructive lung disease include hypersensitivity pneumonitis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. However, these are less likely in this patient’s case. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is caused by allergen exposure and presents with acute symptoms such as fever and weight loss. Kartagener’s syndrome is a genetic disease that leads to recurrent respiratory infections and bronchiectasis. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is characterized by progressive fibrosis of the lung parenchyma and typically affects individuals between 50-70 years old. In contrast to AAT deficiency, spirometry testing in fibrotic disease would show a result greater than 0.7 (FEV1/FVC > 0.7).
In conclusion, AAT deficiency should be considered in the differential diagnosis for a patient presenting with obstructive lung disease, particularly in young men with a smoking history. Spirometry testing can help confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has presented to the emergency department with a 2-day history of bloody diarrhoea 10 times per day associated with colicky abdominal pain.
Observations are as follows: blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, pulse 90/min, respiratory rate 15/min, temperature 37.8ºC, oxygen saturation 97% on air. The examination is unremarkable apart from diffuse abdominal tenderness.
Stool analysis revealed Campylobacter jejuni.
What is the first-line treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:If a patient experiences severe symptoms of Campylobacter infection such as bloody diarrhea and more than eight stools per day, treatment with clarithromycin may be necessary. While Campylobacter infection is typically self-limiting, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends antibiotics for severe cases or for immunocompromised patients. NICE also advises antibiotic treatment for severe symptoms or if symptoms persist for more than one week. Supportive treatment may be sufficient for mild symptoms in immunocompetent patients. Ciprofloxacin is an alternative to clarithromycin, but strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated. Metronidazole and oral vancomycin are not recommended for Campylobacter treatment, but are first-line options for Clostridium difficile.
Campylobacter: The Most Common Bacterial Cause of Intestinal Disease in the UK
Campylobacter is a Gram-negative bacillus that is responsible for causing infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The bacteria is primarily spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, diarrhoea (often bloody), and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.
In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and does not require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the patient is immunocompromised or if symptoms are severe (high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day) and have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. It is important to note that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.
Complications of Campylobacter infection may include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or persist for an extended period of time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man, David, visits you after his 72-year-old father passed away due to a heart attack. David has a history of asthma, which he occasionally manages with his salbutamol inhaler, and was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes at the age of 20. His diabetes is well-controlled, and his last cholesterol test, conducted three months ago, was within the normal range. David has been reading about the connection between cholesterol and heart attacks in the news and is curious if he should take medication to lower his cholesterol levels.
Which of the following options is the most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start atorvastatin 20mg today
Explanation:For primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, individuals with type 1 diabetes who do not have established risk factors should be prescribed atorvastatin 20mg if they are over 40 years old, have had diabetes for more than 10 years, have established nephropathy, or have other risk factors such as obesity and hypertension. As this patient has had type 1 diabetes for over 10 years, they should be offered statins.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to the clinic in the morning with a deformity in his right hand. He denies any tingling or numbness but mentions experiencing slight difficulty in using his hand, particularly when writing. The little and ring fingers appear to be slightly flexed, with no observable weakness. What could be the probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dupuytren's contracture
Explanation:Dupuytren’s contracture is characterized by the thickening of the palmar aponeurosis, resulting in the inward bending of the medial digits. This can severely affect hand function, but does not involve any sensory issues, making nerve palsy unlikely. Ganglions typically appear as cystic swellings on the back of the hand, while trigger finger is associated with a digit catching or snapping during flexion.
Understanding Dupuytren’s Contracture
Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects about 5% of the population. It is more common in older men and those with a family history of the condition. The causes of Dupuytren’s contracture include manual labor, phenytoin treatment, alcoholic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, and trauma to the hand.
The condition typically affects the ring finger and little finger, causing them to become bent and difficult to straighten. In severe cases, the hand may not be able to be placed flat on a table.
Surgical treatment may be necessary when the metacarpophalangeal joints cannot be straightened.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old teacher who was previously healthy was discovered unconscious on the ground. Upon admission, assessment showed weakness on the right side of their body, with their leg more affected than their arm and face, and significant difficulty with speech. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery (MCA)
Explanation:A blockage in the left middle cerebral artery (MCA) is a common cause of cerebral infarction. The symptoms experienced will depend on the extent of the infarct and which hemisphere of the brain is dominant. In right-handed individuals, over 95% have left-sided dominance. Symptoms may include weakness on the opposite side of the body, particularly in the face and arm, as well as sensory loss and homonymous hemianopia. If the left MCA is affected, the patient may experience expressive dysphasia in the anterior MCA territory (Broca’s area) if it is their dominant side, or neglect if it is their non-dominant side. A tumour in the left cerebral hemisphere or thalamus would have a more gradual onset of symptoms, while an occlusion of the right anterior cerebral artery would produce left-sided weakness. The region affected and presentation of each type of artery involvement is summarized in a table.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old school teacher presents with abdominal fullness and weight loss over the last six months. On examination, he is pale.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal range
Haemoglobin (Hb) 102 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 68.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Neutrophil count 39.1 × 109/l 2.2–8.6 ×109/l
Lymphocyte count 4.8 × 109/l 0.8–3.5 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 505 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 56 mm/hour 1–20 mm/hour
His peripheral blood picture is shown here:
Picture courtesy: Dr R Paul, MCH, Kolkata
What is the next most definitive step in diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Genotype study
Explanation:Diagnostic Approaches for Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia
Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of blood cancer that can be diagnosed through various diagnostic approaches. A patient with elevated total leukocyte and neutrophil counts, mild anaemia, and an elevated platelet count, along with numerous myeloid line cells in different stages of differentiation, is likely to have CML. However, to confirm the diagnosis, a genotype study is necessary to demonstrate the cytogenetic hallmark of t(9:22). This can be done through molecular methods like fluorescence in situ hybridisation or cytogenetic analysis.
A bone marrow study can also be performed, which will show a greatly increased myeloid: erythroid ratio, but it will not help in confirming the diagnosis. Similarly, a low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score can differentiate from a leukemoid reaction but cannot confirm the diagnosis. Immunophenotyping can show cells of myeloid lineage but cannot provide a definitive diagnosis.
Iron kinetics studies are not necessary in this case as the increased total leukocyte count and peripheral smear picture suggest a chronic myeloproliferative state rather than iron deficiency. In conclusion, a genotype study is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis of CML.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman is diagnosed with a DVT 2 weeks after undergoing a hip replacement surgery, despite being on prophylactic dose LMWH. She has a history of osteoarthritis but no other significant medical history. The treatment for her DVT is started with LMWH. What is the best anticoagulation plan for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to direct oral anticoagulant for 3 months
Explanation:For cases of venous thromboembolism that are provoked, such as those resulting from recent surgery, a standard length of warfarin treatment is 3 months. However, for unprovoked cases, the recommended length of treatment is 6 months.
NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents with a history of weight loss and diarrhoea. To investigate her symptoms, she undergoes a colonoscopy and a biopsy is taken. The biopsy report indicates the presence of pigment-laden macrophages suggestive of melanosis coli. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laxative abuse
Explanation:Understanding Melanosis Coli
Melanosis coli is a condition that affects the pigmentation of the bowel wall. This disorder is characterized by the presence of pigment-laden macrophages, which can be observed through histology. The primary cause of melanosis coli is laxative abuse, particularly the use of anthraquinone compounds like senna.
In simpler terms, melanosis coli is a condition that causes changes in the color of the bowel wall due to the accumulation of pigments. This condition is often associated with the excessive use of laxatives, which can lead to the accumulation of pigment-laden macrophages in the bowel wall. These macrophages are responsible for the discoloration of the bowel wall, which can be observed through histology. It is important to note that melanosis coli is not a life-threatening condition, but it can be a sign of underlying health issues that need to be addressed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 83
Incorrect
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Which of the following medications for treating diabetes is most likely to result in cholestasis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gliclazide
Explanation:Cholestasis can be caused by sulphonylureas.
Understanding Drug-Induced Liver Disease
Drug-induced liver disease is a condition that occurs when certain medications or drugs cause damage to the liver. This condition is generally divided into three categories: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there is often overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of changes to the liver.
Hepatocellular drug-induced liver disease is characterized by damage to the liver cells. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include paracetamol, sodium valproate, phenytoin, MAOIs, halothane, anti-tuberculosis medications, statins, alcohol, amiodarone, methyldopa, and nitrofurantoin.
Cholestatic drug-induced liver disease, on the other hand, is characterized by a reduction in bile flow from the liver. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include the combined oral contraceptive pill, antibiotics such as flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, and erythromycin, anabolic steroids, testosterones, phenothiazines such as chlorpromazine and prochlorperazine, sulphonylureas, fibrates, and rare reported causes such as nifedipine. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone can cause both hepatocellular and cholestatic damage.
It is important to note that drug-induced liver disease can be a serious condition and can lead to liver cirrhosis if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with certain medications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of liver damage occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of progressive difficulty in swallowing over the past 4 months. Upon further inquiry, he reports a weight loss of approximately 2.5 kilograms, which he attributes to a decreased appetite. He denies any pain with swallowing or regurgitation of food. During the interview, you observe a change in his voice quality. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal carcinoma
Explanation:When a patient experiences progressive dysphagia along with weight loss, it is important to investigate for possible oesophageal carcinoma as this is a common characteristic. Laryngeal nerve damage can also cause hoarseness in patients with this type of cancer. Although achalasia may present with similar symptoms, patients typically have difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids equally and may experience intermittent regurgitation of food. On the other hand, patients with oesophageal spasm usually experience pain when swallowing.
Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.
Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.
The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.
Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.
Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.
Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema. He reports that she has developed itchy blisters all over her body, including her face, torso, arms, and legs. Additionally, she is not behaving normally, eating and drinking less than usual, and not engaging with her favorite toys. She also has a fever of 39ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to hospital
Explanation:Immediate hospitalization and administration of IV antivirals are necessary for the treatment of eczema herpeticum, a severe condition. The child in question is exhibiting symptoms such as painful blisters, fever, and swollen lymph nodes, which require urgent medical attention. Any delay in seeking medical help could worsen the condition. Therefore, all other options are incorrect and should be avoided.
Understanding Eczema Herpeticum
Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children with atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The infection can be life-threatening, which is why it is important to seek medical attention immediately.
During examination, doctors typically observe monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions that are usually 1-3 mm in diameter. Due to the severity of the infection, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir treatment. It is important to understand the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly to prevent any complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after developing a severe cutaneous hypersensitivity reaction. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he was taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Still, his symptoms did not improve, and his rheumatologist prescribed him methotrexate a few days ago.
On examination, Nikolsky’s sign is present and affects 45% of his body’s surface area.
What is the underlying condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis
Explanation:Common Skin Hypersensitivity Reactions and their Causes
Skin hypersensitivity reactions can range from mild to life-threatening. Here are some common types and their causes:
Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis: This is the most serious skin hypersensitivity reaction, with a high mortality rate. It is usually caused by drugs such as NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate, allopurinol and penicillins.
Erythema Multiforme: This is a target-like lesion that commonly occurs on the palms and soles. It is usually caused by drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin, NSAIDs and sulfa drugs. Mycoplasma and herpes simplex infections can also cause erythema multiforme.
Erythema Nodosum: This is an inflammatory condition of subcutaneous tissue. The most common causes are recent streptococcal infection, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis and inflammatory bowel disease.
Fixed Drug Reaction: This is a localised allergic drug reaction that recurs at the same anatomic site of the skin with repeated drug exposure. It is most commonly caused by aspirin, NSAIDs, tetracycline and barbiturate.
Morbilliform Rash: This is a mild hypersensitivity skin reaction that manifests as a generalised maculopapular eruption that blanches with pressure. The rash can be caused by penicillin, sulfa drugs, allopurinol and phenytoin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A young lady requests for the 'morning after pill'. Within what timeframe after sexual intercourse is levonorgestrel approved for use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 72 hours
Explanation:Levonorgestrel should be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). Administration of a single dose of levonorgestrel after this time is not licensed but may be considered.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 88
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman is diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease and the next appropriate step is likely starting her on donepezil. She has a past medical history of ischaemic heart diseases, pacemaker insertion for bradyarrhythmias, diabetes mellitus type II, hypercholesterolaemia and general anxiety disorder (GAD).
Which one of the following could be a contraindication to the prescription of donepezil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Contraindications and Considerations for the Use of Donepezil
Donepezil is a medication used to treat Alzheimer’s disease. However, there are certain contraindications and considerations that healthcare professionals should keep in mind when prescribing this medication.
Bradycardia, a condition where the heart beats too slowly, is a relative contraindication for the use of donepezil. This medication may cause bradycardia and atrioventricular node block, so caution should be taken in patients with other cardiac abnormalities. Additionally, patients with asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, supraventricular conduction abnormalities, susceptibility to peptic ulcers, and sick-sinus syndrome should also be closely monitored when taking donepezil.
Concurrent use of simvastatin, a medication used to lower cholesterol levels, is not a concern when taking donepezil. General anxiety disorder (GAD) and diabetes mellitus type II are also not contraindications for the use of donepezil.
However, elderly patients with a known history of persistent bradycardia, heart block, recurrent unexplained syncope, or concurrent treatment with drugs that reduce heart rate should avoid donepezil. A history of ischaemic heart diseases alone is not a contraindication for donepezil.
In summary, healthcare professionals should carefully consider a patient’s medical history and current medications before prescribing donepezil. Close monitoring is necessary in patients with certain cardiac abnormalities and caution should be taken in elderly patients with a history of bradycardia or heart block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman is enjoying a shrimp stir-fry at a restaurant when she suddenly experiences tongue swelling and tightness in her chest. Her partner notices her wheezing and calls for an ambulance. The woman is admitted to the hospital and undergoes necessary tests. She receives treatment for anaphylaxis, and her symptoms improve. After being monitored overnight on the ward, what crucial factor must be taken into account when determining if it is safe to discharge her the following morning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient's remaining symptoms and his response to adrenaline
Explanation:When discharging patients who have experienced anaphylaxis, a risk-stratified approach should be taken. The patient’s response to adrenaline and their symptoms are important factors to consider. The UK Resuscitation Council guidelines suggest that patients may be considered for fast-track discharge if they have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline within 30 minutes of the reaction, their symptoms have completely resolved, they have been trained on how to use adrenaline auto-injectors, and there is adequate supervision following discharge. While the patient’s peak expiratory flow rate and serum tryptase levels should be measured, they are not specifically advised for risk-stratifying patients for discharge post-anaphylaxis according to the UKRC guidelines. Spirometry is also not specifically recommended for this purpose. However, patients with severe asthma or those who experienced severe respiratory compromise during the anaphylactic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours after symptom resolution.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.
The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.
Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the Ophthalmology department with a 3-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen left eye. She complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements.
On examination, visual acuity is 6/24 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The periorbital area of the left eye is very swollen and erythematous. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the left eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the left. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the left eye. Vital observations are as follows:
Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
Heart rate 80 bpm
Respiratory rate 20 per minute
Oxygen saturation 97% on air
Temperature 38.2 °C
Computed tomography (CT) scan shows some opacities in the ethmoid sinuses.
What is the definitive treatment for this eye problem?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drainage of the ethmoid sinuses
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ethmoidal Sinusitis and Orbital Cellulitis
Ethmoidal sinusitis is a common cause of orbital cellulitis, which requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis is surgical drainage of the sinuses to remove the pus and debris. Antibiotics are also necessary to aid recovery, but they should be administered after the drainage procedure.
While there are several antibiotics that can be used to treat orbital cellulitis, such as cefuroxime, metronidazole, co-amoxiclav, and Tazocin®, they are not sufficient to address the underlying cause of the condition. Therefore, drainage of the ethmoid sinuses is the definitive treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis.
In summary, the treatment options for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis include surgical drainage of the sinuses followed by antibiotics. Antibiotics alone are not enough to treat the condition, and the choice of antibiotic may vary depending on the patient’s age and other factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of feeling generally unwell and feverish for 3 days. During the examination, coarse crackles and dullness to percussion were detected in the right lung base.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lobar pneumonia
Explanation:Differentiating Lobar Pneumonia from Other Respiratory Conditions
Lobar pneumonia is the most common cause of focal crackles and dullness in the lower zone. However, it is important to differentiate it from other respiratory conditions with similar symptoms. Empyema, for example, is associated with high fevers, night sweats, chest pain, cough, breathlessness, and fatigue. Bronchiectasis, on the other hand, is characterized by a persistent dry cough with copious purulent sputum and occasional haemoptysis. Congestive cardiac failure usually causes bilateral crepitations and peripheral oedema, while pulmonary embolism may cause reduced breath sounds and acute breathlessness, pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, dizziness, or syncope. By carefully assessing the patient’s symptoms and conducting appropriate tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat respiratory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female, who is 28 weeks pregnant with her first child, arrives at the emergency department. She attended a friend's gathering yesterday. Her friend's child, who was also present at the gathering, has been diagnosed with chickenpox this morning. The patient is uncertain if she has ever had chickenpox before, but reports feeling well at present.
Upon examination, the patient's vital signs and physical exam are unremarkable, and there is no evidence of chickenpox rash. The patient had a routine appointment with her midwife the day before the gathering, and there were no concerns regarding her pregnancy.
What is the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check varicella zoster immunoglobulin G levels
Explanation:When a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, the first step is to check for antibodies. Chickenpox is caused by a virus called varicella-zoster and can cause a range of symptoms including myalgia and headache, followed by a rash of small macules, clear vesicles, and pustules. The disease can be more severe in adults and can lead to complications such as pneumonia and secondary bacterial infections. In pregnant women, there is a risk of complications for the fetus, particularly after 36 weeks gestation. If a child is born within 7 days of the mother developing the rash, they are at increased risk of severe chickenpox and may require treatment. Significant exposure to chickenpox is defined as being in the same room for 15 minutes or more with someone who has the disease. If a pregnant woman is unsure of their chickenpox exposure, they should be tested for varicella-zoster IgG levels. If positive, they are immune, but if negative, further advice should be sought from obstetrics and gynecology. It is important to act promptly and seek medical advice if a pregnant woman displays any symptoms of chickenpox.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old factory worker undergoes a routine hearing assessment as part of his annual work-based medical. He is noted to have a positive Rinne’s test (normal) and Weber’s test localising to the left ear.
What is the most likely defect in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right sensorineural hearing loss
Explanation:For a man with a positive Rinne’s test and sound localization to the left ear on Weber’s testing, the diagnosis is likely to be right-sided sensorineural hearing loss. If the Rinne’s test had been negative, it would have indicated left-sided conductive hearing loss. Similarly, if the sound had been localized to the right ear, it would have suggested left-sided sensorineural hearing loss. In the case of bilateral hearing loss, the Rinne’s test would be negative on both sides, and the Weber test would not localize to either ear. Finally, if the man had right-sided conductive hearing loss, the Rinne’s test would be negative on the right side, and the Weber test would localize to the right side.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A woman in her early fifties presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain, ten days post-hysterectomy. The medical team suspects pulmonary embolism. What is the typical chest x-ray finding in patients with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal
Explanation:In most cases of pulmonary embolism, the chest x-ray appears normal.
Investigating Pulmonary Embolism: Key Features and Diagnostic Criteria
Pulmonary embolism (PE) can be challenging to diagnose as it can present with a wide range of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were the most common clinical signs associated with PE. To aid in the diagnosis of PE, NICE updated their guidelines in 2020 to include the use of the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) and the 2-level PE Wells score. The PERC rule should be used when there is a low pre-test probability of PE, and a negative PERC result reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. The 2-level PE Wells score should be performed if a PE is suspected, with a score of more than 4 points indicating a likely PE and a score of 4 points or less indicating an unlikely PE.
If a PE is likely, an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged, and interim therapeutic anticoagulation should be given if there is a delay in getting the CTPA. If a PE is unlikely, a D-dimer test should be arranged, and if positive, an immediate CTPA should be performed. The consensus view from the British Thoracic Society and NICE guidelines is that CTPA is the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. However, V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease.
Other diagnostic tools include age-adjusted D-dimer levels, ECG, chest x-ray, V/Q scan, and CTPA. It is important to note that a chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. While investigating PE, it is crucial to consider other differential diagnoses and to tailor the diagnostic approach to the individual patient’s clinical presentation and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman who has undergone a total hip replacement (THR) comes for evaluation because of discomfort on the side of her prosthesis. What is the primary cause for a revision surgery in a patient who has had a THR?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aseptic loosening of the implant
Explanation:The primary cause for the revision of total hip replacements is aseptic loosening, followed by pain and dislocation.
Osteoarthritis (OA) of the hip is a prevalent condition, with the knee being the only joint more commonly affected. It is particularly prevalent in older individuals, and women are twice as likely to develop it. Obesity and developmental dysplasia of the hip are also risk factors. The condition is characterized by chronic groin pain that is exacerbated by exercise and relieved by rest. However, if the pain is present at rest, at night, or in the morning for more than two hours, it may indicate an alternative cause. The Oxford Hip Score is a widely used tool to assess the severity of the condition.
If the symptoms are typical, a clinical diagnosis can be made. Otherwise, plain x-rays are the first-line investigation. Management of OA of the hip includes oral analgesia and intra-articular injections, which provide short-term relief. However, total hip replacement is the definitive treatment.
Total hip replacement is a common operation in the developed world, but it is not without risks. Perioperative complications include venous thromboembolism, intraoperative fracture, nerve injury, surgical site infection, and leg length discrepancy. Postoperatively, posterior dislocation may occur during extremes of hip flexion, presenting with a clunk, pain, and inability to weight bear. Aseptic loosening is the most common reason for revision, and prosthetic joint infection is also a potential complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 96
Incorrect
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You are conducting a medication review on an 80-year-old man who is taking aspirin, verapamil, allopurinol, and co-codamol. Which medication should be avoided if prescribed concurrently with the current medications?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:The combination of beta-blockers and verapamil has the potential to cause severe bradycardia and asystole.
Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence. Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed and is lipid soluble, allowing it to cross the blood-brain barrier.
Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects, including bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. They are contraindicated in uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which may precipitate severe bradycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a two-day history of fever, headache, vomiting, and seizures. She has no significant medical history or allergies. Upon CT head examination, hypodensity of the left temporal lobe is identified, while a lumbar puncture reveals lymphocytes at 57 cells/µL (0-5 cells/µL), protein at 92 mg/100 mL (15-60 mg/100 mL), and glucose at 66 mg/100 mL (50-80 mg/100 mL). Serum blood glucose is normal. A brain MRI is subsequently performed, revealing prominent swelling and increased signal of the left temporal lobe and insular cortex. What is the urgent medication that must be initiated in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:In cases of encephalitis caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV), urgent administration of IV aciclovir (which is effective against HSV) is necessary. Amantadine, which is used to manage influenza, is not appropriate. Cefotaxime, which is often used for suspected meningococcal disease, is also not appropriate. Fluconazole, an anti-fungal medication, is not appropriate as encephalitis is unlikely to be caused by a fungal infection.
Encephalitis: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Encephalitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the brain. It presents with symptoms such as fever, headache, psychiatric symptoms, seizures, and vomiting. Focal features such as aphasia may also be present. Peripheral lesions like cold sores are not related to the presence of HSV encephalitis. HSV-1 is responsible for 95% of cases in adults, and it typically affects the temporal and inferior frontal lobes.
To diagnose encephalitis, cerebrospinal fluid analysis is done, which shows lymphocytosis and elevated protein. PCR for HSV, VZV, and enteroviruses is also performed. Neuroimaging may reveal medial temporal and inferior frontal changes, such as petechial hemorrhages, but it is normal in one-third of patients. MRI is a better diagnostic tool. EEG may show lateralized periodic discharges at 2 Hz.
The treatment for encephalitis involves intravenous aciclovir, which should be started in all cases of suspected encephalitis. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing complications and improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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As a junior doctor on a night shift in the emergency department of a district general hospital, you receive a 59-year-old man via ambulance who is complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. After performing an A-E assessment, you find that his airway is patent, he is tachypnoeic with equal chest expansion, he is tachycardic with a blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg, he is alert with normal blood glucose and apyrexial. An ECG reveals ST-segment elevation in the anterior chest leads. Due to the nearest PCI center being over 3 hours away, it is decided that he will receive fibrinolysis.
What is the medication that should be administered before this treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fondaparinux
Explanation:When treating ST-elevation myocardial infarctions with fibrinolysis, it is recommended to also administer an antithrombin drug. This is especially important when percutaneous coronary intervention cannot be performed within 120 minutes, which is often the case in district general hospitals. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is not used in the acute management of acute coronary syndrome, but rather for hypertension, heart failure, and secondary prevention following a myocardial infarction. Low-dose aspirin (75mg) is not indicated for acute myocardial infarction, but rather for primary and secondary prevention. The recommended dose for STEMI management is 300 mg. Fondaparinux, an antithrombin medication, is used to prevent the clot from getting bigger by activating antithrombin 3, which causes the inactivation of factor Xa. It should be administered before fibrinolysis. Morphine, historically used for pain control in ACS, has been found to increase mortality and should only be used for severe pain control.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the GP clinic for preconception counseling. She plans to conceive within the next 6 months. She has never been pregnant before and has a medical history of Type 1 diabetes mellitus and irritable bowel syndrome. She is currently taking insulin and has no known drug allergies. Her BMI is 22 kg/m2, and she does not smoke or drink alcohol. There is no family history of neural tube defects, and her partner has no history of neural tube defects. What is the recommended folic acid dosage for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 mg once a day from now to 12 weeks of pregnancy
Explanation:If a woman has Type 1 diabetes mellitus, she is at a high risk of having a baby with neural tube defects. To prevent this, she should take 5mg of folic acid daily for three months before getting pregnant until the first 12 weeks of pregnancy. Any other dosage or duration of the regime would be incorrect for her.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A typically healthy 44-year-old man is hospitalized with T11/12 discitis that is complicated by a T4 to L1 epidural abscess and a left psoas abscess. Following surgery to drain the abscesses, laboratory cultures reveal the presence of Staphylococcus aureus. Furthermore, blood cultures taken upon admission grow Staphylococcus aureus after 72 hours. What is the most suitable initial investigation to identify the source of the infection, given the pathogenic organism detected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:In cases of discitis caused by Staphylococcus, an echocardiogram is necessary to check for endocarditis. Staphylococcus aureus is a highly aggressive pathogen that can spread throughout the body when it enters the bloodstream. In cases of deep abscesses caused by Staphylococcus aureus, a haematogenous source of spread should be investigated, with septic emboli from endocarditis being the most common cause. An echocardiogram is necessary to check for valvular injury or vegetations in all cases of Staphylococcus aureus-positive cultures. CT imaging is useful in identifying other abscesses and foci of infection, but is unlikely to identify a primary source of haematogenous spread. HIV testing is recommended for patients with Staphylococcus aureus sepsis, but it would not identify the primary source of bacteraemia. Midstream urine is not a reliable test for identifying a primary source of Staphylococcus aureus infection. The Duke’s Criteria for Endocarditis can be used to diagnose bacterial endocarditis, with a positive blood culture for a typical organism being one major criterion. Treatment for complicated discitis typically lasts for 6-12 weeks, with the first two weeks requiring intravenous treatment. If endocarditis is diagnosed, the length of intravenous therapy and overall treatment time may be altered.
Understanding Discitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Discitis is a condition characterized by an infection in the intervertebral disc space, which can lead to serious complications such as sepsis or an epidural abscess. The most common cause of discitis is bacterial, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most frequent culprit. However, it can also be caused by viral or aseptic factors. The symptoms of discitis include back pain, pyrexia, rigors, and sepsis. In some cases, neurological features such as changing lower limb neurology may occur if an epidural abscess develops.
To diagnose discitis, imaging tests such as MRI are used due to their high sensitivity. A CT-guided biopsy may also be required to guide antimicrobial treatment. The standard therapy for discitis involves six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The choice of antibiotic depends on various factors, with the most important being the identification of the organism through a positive culture, such as a blood culture or CT-guided biopsy.
Complications of discitis include sepsis and epidural abscess. Therefore, it is essential to assess the patient for endocarditis, which can be done through transthoracic echo or transesophageal echo. Discitis is usually due to haematogenous seeding of the vertebrae, which implies that the patient has had a bacteraemia, and seeding could have occurred elsewhere. Understanding the causes, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of discitis is crucial in managing this condition and preventing its complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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