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  • Question 1 - A mother brings her 10-month-old son to the Emergency Department (ED). She is...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 10-month-old son to the Emergency Department (ED). She is very concerned as she reports that he has been unsettled and crying all night, which is unusual for him. The patient was born at 40+1 weeks by normal vaginal delivery; the mother developed gestational diabetes, but there were no other complications during the pregnancy or birth. The child has had all his vaccinations. The mother reports that he has been crying non-stop since the early hours of this morning. She tried to feed him, but he vomited twice, minutes after the feed.
      On examination, he is crying, warm and well perfused, with a pulse of 150 beats per minute (bpm). His abdomen appears distended with tinkling bowel sounds. The mother mentions that she noticed a dark red jelly-like substance in his nappy when she changed it earlier.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Bowel Obstruction in Children

      Bowel obstruction in children can be caused by various conditions, each with its own distinct features. Here are some of the most common causes:

      1. Intussusception: This occurs when one segment of the bowel telescopes into another, leading to obstruction. It is most common in children aged 6-9 months and may be idiopathic or caused by a viral infection. Symptoms include bilious vomiting, distended abdomen, tinkling bowel sounds, and redcurrant jelly stools.

      2. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis: This is a gastric outlet obstruction that typically presents at around 3 weeks of life. It is caused by hypertrophy of the pylorus and leads to non-bilious projectile vomiting and a palpable olive mass in the epigastric region. Treatment involves surgical excision.

      3. Duodenal atresia: This is a type of bowel obstruction that only occurs in neonates. It results from failure of recanalization of the small bowel in early fetal life and presents with bilious vomiting, proximal stomach distension, and a double-bubble sign on X-ray. It is associated with Down’s syndrome.

      4. Ileus: This is a condition in which the bowel becomes aperistaltic, leading to obstruction. It is common after abdominal surgery, electrolyte disturbances, or infection.

      5. Meconium obstruction: This is a type of bowel obstruction that only occurs in newborns. It presents with failure to pass meconium, bilious vomiting, and abdominal distension. Diagnosis can be made prenatally or after birth with an abdominal X-ray showing dilated loops of the small intestine and a soap bubble appearance. Treatment involves radiographic contrast enema or surgery if enemas are unsuccessful.

      In conclusion, bowel obstruction in children can have various causes, and prompt diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Correct

    • A 55 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his wife after falling down a flight of 12 stairs at home and hitting his head. Despite his wife's concerns, the patient does not believe he needs medical attention. He denies experiencing any headache, nausea, vomiting, seizures, or loss of consciousness. He is not taking any regular medications, including anticoagulants, and can recall the entire incident except for a 30-second period after landing at the bottom of the stairs. Upon examination, there is no limb weakness or loss of sensation, and his pupils are equal and reactive bilaterally. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: CT head within 8 hours of injury

      Explanation:

      The patient experienced a fall caused by a mechanical issue, with a potentially harmful mechanism of injury.

      NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults

      Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.

      For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27-year-old female patient complains of a painful and red left eye that...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient complains of a painful and red left eye that has been bothering her for a day. She reports continuous tearing from the affected eye and experiences photophobia. Upon examination, fluorescein staining reveals a small, feathery area of abnormal uptake. However, her visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer immediately to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest the possibility of a corneal abrasion or dendritic corneal ulcer, with photophobia being a key indicator. However, the feathery pattern observed is more indicative of herpes simplex keratitis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and caution should be exercised in prescribing topical steroids as they may exacerbate the infection.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      89.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of ongoing fatigue and...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of ongoing fatigue and tiredness. She has a medical history of hypertension and eczema, and no significant family history. Upon conducting a blood test, the following results were obtained:
      - Hb: 141 g/l
      - Platelets: 222 * 109/l
      - WBC: 6.3 * 109/l
      - Neuts: 3.9 * 109/l
      - Lymphs: 1.2 * 109/l
      - Na+: 140 mmol/l
      - K+: 4.1 mmol/l
      - Urea: 4.9 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 83 µmol/l
      - CRP: 4.1 mg/l
      - TSH: 6.2 mu/l
      - Free T4: 6 pmol/l

      What is the most likely pathology causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, specifically Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is often associated with other autoimmune diseases. This is indicated by a presentation and blood test showing hypothyroidism with a raised TSH, suggesting a failure of the thyroid gland to respond to pituitary stimulation or a primary hypothyroidism. While iodine deficiency is the main cause of hypothyroidism worldwide, it is rare in the UK. Papillary thyroid cancer does not affect thyroid function, as the cancer cells do not secrete thyroxine. Although De Quervain’s can cause a primary hypothyroidism with similar symptoms, it is much less common than Hashimoto’s and therefore an incorrect answer.

      Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by features of hypothyroidism, such as a firm, non-tender goitre, and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.

      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions, including coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 63-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain and shortness...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain and shortness of breath. He reports that the pain started after he slipped and fell in his home. The pain is rated at 7/10 but increases to 9/10 when he takes a deep breath.
      The doctor suspects a possible pulmonary embolism (PE) based on the patient's medical history. The doctor calculates a 2-level PE Wells score of 1.0 (for recent surgery) and orders a D-dimer test. The patient is started on anticoagulation while waiting for the test results, which are expected to take over 4 hours to return.
      The patient's chest x-ray appears normal, and the D-dimer test comes back negative.
      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Stop the anticoagulation and consider an alternative diagnosis

      Explanation:

      When investigating a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), a low Wells score of ≤ 4 and a negative D-dimer result suggest that an alternative diagnosis should be considered and anticoagulation should be stopped. In this case, the patient’s symptoms and history of trauma suggest a musculoskeletal injury may be the cause of their chest pain and shortness of breath. An urgent CTPA would only be necessary if the Wells score was 4 or higher or if the D-dimer test was positive. As neither of these occurred, repeating the D-dimer test is unnecessary. Continuing anticoagulation without a confirmed PE would increase the risk of bleeding. If a PE is confirmed, anticoagulation with warfarin or a direct oral anticoagulant would be appropriate.

      Investigating Pulmonary Embolism: Key Features and Diagnostic Criteria

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) can be challenging to diagnose as it can present with a wide range of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were the most common clinical signs associated with PE. To aid in the diagnosis of PE, NICE updated their guidelines in 2020 to include the use of the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) and the 2-level PE Wells score. The PERC rule should be used when there is a low pre-test probability of PE, and a negative PERC result reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. The 2-level PE Wells score should be performed if a PE is suspected, with a score of more than 4 points indicating a likely PE and a score of 4 points or less indicating an unlikely PE.

      If a PE is likely, an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged, and interim therapeutic anticoagulation should be given if there is a delay in getting the CTPA. If a PE is unlikely, a D-dimer test should be arranged, and if positive, an immediate CTPA should be performed. The consensus view from the British Thoracic Society and NICE guidelines is that CTPA is the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. However, V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease.

      Other diagnostic tools include age-adjusted D-dimer levels, ECG, chest x-ray, V/Q scan, and CTPA. It is important to note that a chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. While investigating PE, it is crucial to consider other differential diagnoses and to tailor the diagnostic approach to the individual patient’s clinical presentation and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      10
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a brawl at a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a brawl at a local bar. He appears to be heavily intoxicated and is loudly claiming that he was bitten on the hand while attempting to throw a punch. Upon examination, there is evidence of a bite mark on his right hand that has broken the skin but has not caused any bleeding. The wound site shows no signs of redness, swelling, necrotic tissue, or discharge. Despite being disruptive and agitated, the man is otherwise stable and does not have a fever. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Co-amoxiclav is the appropriate antibiotic for treating human bites, as well as animal bites. If a human bite breaks the skin and draws blood, antibiotics should be administered. In the scenario provided, the man was bitten in a high-risk area, which includes the hands, feet, face, genitals, skin overlying cartilaginous structures, or an area of poor circulation. Even if the bite did not draw blood, antibiotics should still be considered if the person is at high risk or if the bite is in a high-risk area. Co-amoxiclav is the first choice antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment of human and animal bites. If the patient has a penicillin allergy or if co-amoxiclav is not suitable, doxycycline with metronidazole is the preferred alternative. Flucloxacillin is not effective in treating human and animal bites. If there is discharge present from the wound site, a swab should be taken for microbiological sampling, and antibiotic choice can be adjusted based on the results. Initial wound management should include removing foreign bodies, irrigating the site, and debridement, especially if the wound is dirty. Pain management should also be provided. However, due to the location of the bite in a high-risk area, antibiotics are necessary.

      Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management

      Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.

      To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.

      In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United...

    Correct

    • When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: Between fifth and ninth day of life

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Blood Spot Screening: Identifying Potential Health Risks in Newborns

      Neonatal blood spot screening, also known as the Guthrie test or heel-prick test, is a routine procedure performed on newborns between 5-9 days of life. The test involves collecting a small sample of blood from the baby’s heel and analyzing it for potential health risks. Currently, there are nine conditions that are screened for, including congenital hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, phenylketonuria, medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), isovaleric acidaemia (IVA), glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1), and homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus arrives at the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus arrives at the emergency department complaining of blurry vision in her left eye. She reports her vision in that eye as 'hazy and faded' which started a few hours ago. She also experiences pain that worsens with eye movement. There are no visible signs of trauma or infection on her eyes, and her recent HbA1c and capillary blood glucose levels are normal. What clinical manifestation is linked to the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD)

      Explanation:

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 15-year-old boy presents to his General Practitioner as he has been suffering...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to his General Practitioner as he has been suffering from recurrent infections for the last few months. He has also been losing weight. He has taken four courses of antibiotics in the last six months for various respiratory tract infections. He also experienced an episode of shingles that took a few years to clear after becoming secondarily infected.
      On examination, he is pale and underweight, with a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5 kg/m2. He has fine, downy hair on his back, abdomen and forearms. His temperature is 35.9 °C. His blood pressure is 90/45 mmHg while his pulse is 52 bpm.
      What is the most likely cause of this patient’s immunodeficiency?

      Your Answer: Malnutrition

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of immunodeficiency in an adolescent with weight loss and recurrent infection

      Malnutrition, primary immunodeficiency, cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, and diabetes mellitus are among the possible causes of immunodeficiency in an adolescent with weight loss and recurrent infection. Malnutrition can suppress the immune system and is often associated with anorexia nervosa, which can be characterized by a very low body mass index (BMI), lanugo hair growth, hypothermia, bradycardia, and hypotension. Primary immunodeficiency syndromes, which are usually inherited as single-gene disorders, tend to present in infancy or early childhood with poor growth and weight gain and recurrent, prolonged, severe, or atypical infections. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a herpes virus that can cause serious complications in immunocompromised individuals or congenital cases, but is usually asymptomatic in immunocompetent individuals. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection can result in immunodeficiency by infecting and destroying CD4 cells, and should be suspected in individuals with prolonged, severe, or recurrent infections, particularly if they are a member of a high-risk group. Diabetes mellitus, especially type I, can also cause dysfunction of the immune system and increase the risk of infection. However, in an adolescent with a low BMI, type II diabetes would be very unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced hearing. There is no significant past medical history, and she is systemically well. She never had any similar symptoms before.
      On examination, there is an inflamed auditory canal and a small amount of debris, the tympanic membrane appears to be normal.
      What is the best initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start topical antibiotic and steroid

      Explanation:

      Management of Otitis Externa: Recommended Actions and Guidelines

      Otitis externa is a common condition that affects the outer ear canal. The management of this condition depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Here are some recommended actions and guidelines for managing otitis externa:

      1. Start topical antibiotic and steroid: This is recommended for patients with acute otitis externa who present with more severe inflammation. The treatment should last for seven days.

      2. Start topical acetic acid 2% spray: This is recommended for patients with mild otitis externa who do not have hearing loss or discharge.

      3. Refer to ENT urgently: This is not part of initial management but should be considered for patients with chronic diffuse otitis externa when treatment is prolonged beyond two to three months.

      4. Start oral amoxicillin: Oral antibiotics are rarely indicated for otitis externa. They should only be considered for patients with severe infection or at high risk of severe infection.

      5. Take an ear swab and start topical antibiotic: Ear swab is not recommended as first-line management. It should only be done if there is no response to initial treatment or in recurrent infections.

      In summary, the management of otitis externa depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Following these recommended actions and guidelines can help improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to using combined oral contraceptive...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to using combined oral contraceptive pills?

      Your Answer: 36-year-old woman smoking 20 cigarettes/day

      Explanation:

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old woman presents after a fall. She reports pain and weakness in...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents after a fall. She reports pain and weakness in her hands for several months, stiff legs and swallowing difficulties, and has bilateral wasting of the small muscles of her hands. Reflexes in the upper limbs are absent. Tongue fasciculations are present, and both legs show increased tone, pyramidal weakness and hyperreflexia with extensor plantars. Pain and temperature sensation is impaired in the upper limbs.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Syringobulbia

      Explanation:

      Syringobulbia is a condition where a fluid-filled cyst/syrinx is present in the spinal cord, extending up to the medulla of the brainstem, causing cranial nerve palsies. It results in dissociated sensory loss and LMN signs at the level of the lesion, with UMN signs below the lesion. Cranial nerve involvement may include facial sensory loss, vertigo, nystagmus, facial, palatal, and laryngeal nerve palsy, and weakness, atrophy, and fasciculation of the tongue. This condition is different from cervical spondylosis, multiple sclerosis, and motor neuron disease, which have distinct clinical features. Syringomyelia is a similar condition, but it progresses slowly over years and affects the cervical area of the cord, leading to early loss of pain and temperature sensation, with preservation of light touch and proprioception. Syringobulbia is characterized by LMN lesions of cranial nerve XII, suggesting the lesion extends above the spinal cord and into the brainstem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hyperplasia presents to dermatology with multiple lesions on his shin. Upon examination, symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules are observed. The lesions are healing without scarring. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      The relevant diagnosis for this question relies solely on the description of the lesions, as the patient’s medical history is not a factor. Specifically, the tender shin lesions are indicative of erythema nodosum.

      Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features

      Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.

      Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.

      Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.

      Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.

      Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 7-month-old child has sensorineural deafness and a ventricular septal defect. Her mother...

    Correct

    • A 7-month-old child has sensorineural deafness and a ventricular septal defect. Her mother gives a history of medication for acne, which was stopped when she realised she was pregnant.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause these defects?

      Your Answer: Isotretinoin

      Explanation:

      Acne Medications: Risks and Benefits

      Acne is a common skin condition that affects many people, and there are several medications available to treat it. However, each medication has its own risks and benefits that should be carefully considered before use. Here are some important things to know about the most commonly used acne medications:

      Isotretinoin: This medication is highly effective against acne, but it is also highly teratogenic, meaning it can cause birth defects if taken by women during pregnancy or even a short time before conception. Women who take isotretinoin must use effective contraception before, during, and after treatment, and must be monitored closely for pregnancy. Each prescription is limited to a 30-day supply and must be dispensed within 7 days of the prescription date.

      Cyproterone acetate: This medication is an antiandrogen and progestogen used to treat androgen-related conditions such as acne. Its most serious side effect is direct hepatic toxicity, but it is not known to be teratogenic.

      Oxytetracycline and minocycline: These broad-spectrum tetracycline antibiotics are commonly used to treat acne, but they should be avoided during pregnancy due to potential effects on skeletal development. Minocycline has a broader spectrum than oxytetracycline, but both can cause gastrointestinal and photosensitive allergic reactions.

      Clindamycin: This antibiotic can also be used to treat acne, but it can cause diarrhea and rare but serious side effects such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, it is safe for use during pregnancy.

      In conclusion, while acne medications can be effective in treating the condition, it is important to carefully consider the risks and benefits of each medication before use, especially for women who are pregnant or may become pregnant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman has a Nexplanon implanted on day 20 of her 30...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman has a Nexplanon implanted on day 20 of her 30 day cycle. When can she trust the Nexplanon to prevent pregnancy?

      Your Answer: After 7 days

      Explanation:

      Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
      Immediate: IUD
      2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
      7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A woman who gave birth 4 weeks ago visits her nearby GP clinic...

    Correct

    • A woman who gave birth 4 weeks ago visits her nearby GP clinic with her partner. She reports feeling 'constantly tearful' and 'unable to connect' with her newborn. Which screening tool is best suited for identifying postpartum depression?

      Your Answer: Edinburgh Scale

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      8.7
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  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old hypertensive man with asthma, heart failure and peptic ulcer disease reports...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old hypertensive man with asthma, heart failure and peptic ulcer disease reports experiencing yellowish-green halos for the past week. He has also been feeling nauseous and has lost his appetite. Despite his conditions being well controlled, physical examination reveals no abnormalities. Which of the following medications that he is taking could potentially be responsible for his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects and Risks of Medications

      Digoxin Toxicity: Symptoms and Risk Factors
      Digoxin toxicity can cause vague symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, confusion, and fatigue, as well as dysrhythmias. Risk factors for toxicity include imbalances in potassium, magnesium, and calcium levels.

      Salbutamol: Common Side Effects and Hypokalaemia
      Salbutamol may cause fine tremors, anxiety, headaches, and muscle cramps. Prolonged use or high doses can lead to hypokalaemia, which is especially concerning in patients with renal failure.

      Enalapril: Common Side Effects and Serious Risks
      Enalapril therapy may cause raised serum creatinine, dizziness, hypotension, syncope, and dry cough. The most serious risk is angio-oedema, which can obstruct airways.

      Ranitidine: Common Side Effects
      H2-receptor antagonists like ranitidine may cause diarrhea, dizziness, and headaches.

      Aspirin: Contraindications
      Aspirin should be avoided in patients with a history of hypersensitivity to NSAIDs or gastritis/peptic ulcer disease due to the increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      10.6
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old patient visits their doctor with suspected tonsillitis recurrence. They report having...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient visits their doctor with suspected tonsillitis recurrence. They report having had tonsillitis three times in the past year and currently have a fever and cough. During the examination, the doctor notes tender cervical lymphadenopathy and exudative tonsils. The patient is prescribed phenoxymethylpenicillin. On day 5 of treatment, blood tests are taken and reveal the following results:

      Hb 150 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 390 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 10.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Neuts 0.8 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Lymphs 9.2 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)
      Mono 0.2 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)
      Eosin 0.0 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)

      What could be the possible reasons for the abnormalities in these blood results?

      Your Answer: Underlying diagnosis of glandular fever

      Explanation:

      The presence of lymphocytosis and neutropenia in a person who has been treated for recurrent tonsillitis may indicate an underlying condition. Glandular fever, caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, is a common cause of recurrent tonsillitis in young people and can result in an increase in activated T and B lymphocytes, leading to lymphocytosis. The virus may also cause neutropenia, although the exact cause is not fully understood. A peritonsillar abscess, tonsillitis unresponsive to treatment, and treatment with phenoxymethylpenicillin are unlikely to cause significant abnormalities in the full blood count. While lymphoma may explain the lymphocytosis, it would not account for the neutropenia and is less likely than an underlying glandular fever infection.

      Understanding Neutropaenia: Causes and Severity

      Neutropaenia is a medical condition characterized by low neutrophil counts, which is below 1.5 * 109. A normal neutrophil count ranges from 2.0 to 7.5 * 109. It is crucial to recognize this condition as it increases the risk of severe infections. Neutropaenia can be classified into three categories based on its severity: mild (1.0 – 1.5 * 109), moderate (0.5 – 1.0 * 109), and severe (< 0.5 * 109). There are several causes of neutropaenia, including viral infections such as HIV, Epstein-Barr virus, and hepatitis. Certain drugs like cytotoxics, carbimazole, and clozapine can also cause neutropaenia. Benign ethnic neutropaenia is common in people of black African and Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, but it requires no treatment. Haematological malignancies like myelodysplastic malignancies and aplastic anemia, as well as rheumatological conditions like systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis, can also cause neutropaenia. Severe sepsis and haemodialysis are other potential causes of neutropaenia. In summary, neutropaenia is a medical condition that can increase the risk of severe infections. It is important to recognize its severity and underlying causes to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      78.9
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  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old man has been taking medication for psoriasis with arthropathy for a...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has been taking medication for psoriasis with arthropathy for a prolonged period. He has recently experienced a dry cough and worsening shortness of breath with minimal activity.
      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
      Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Probable Cause of Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Methotrexate is the correct answer as it is a well-known drug-related cause of pulmonary fibrosis, which is the probable cause of the patient’s symptoms. Hydroxychloroquine, azathioprine, ciclosporin, and penicillamine are not known to cause pulmonary fibrosis, although some of them have the potential to cause pneumonitis. Ciclosporin has been studied as a treatment for the disease, but it is not recommended by NICE. Therefore, it is important to identify the probable cause of pulmonary fibrosis to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 21-year-old man is seeking advice as his girlfriend has been diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man is seeking advice as his girlfriend has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. He is concerned about the possibility of contracting the disease. What is the recommended antibiotic prophylaxis for individuals in close contact with someone who has meningococcal meningitis?

      Your Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis now favors the use of oral ciprofloxacin over rifampicin.

      The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a gradual loss of night vision over the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a gradual loss of night vision over the past few months. On examination, she has also lost peripheral vision. She reports that her mother had a similar problem and became blind in her early 40s.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa

      Explanation:

      Retinitis pigmentosa (RP) is a group of inherited disorders that cause progressive peripheral vision loss and difficulty seeing in low light, which can eventually lead to central vision loss. RP is often diagnosed based on the hallmark symptom of night blindness, and can be inherited in different ways. While there is no cure for RP, patients can receive low-vision evaluations and medications such as vitamins and calcium-channel blockers to help manage their symptoms. Glaucoma is another eye disease that can cause vision loss, particularly in older adults, but the patient’s symptoms and age do not suggest a diagnosis of primary open-angle glaucoma. Leber’s congenital amaurosis is a rare eye disorder that affects infants and young children, and is characterized by severe visual impairment, photophobia, and nystagmus, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. Multiple sclerosis is an immune-mediated disease that can cause optic neuritis, but the patient’s symptoms do not match those typically associated with this condition. Vitreous hemorrhage is a condition where blood leaks into the vitreous body of the eye, causing visual disturbances such as floaters and cloudy vision, but the patient’s symptoms do not suggest this diagnosis either.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      3.4
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  • Question 22 - A 3-year-old child with a history of atopic eczema presents to the clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child with a history of atopic eczema presents to the clinic. The child's eczema is typically managed well with emollients, but the parents are worried as the facial eczema has worsened significantly overnight. The child now has painful blisters clustered on both cheeks, around the mouth, and on the neck. The child's temperature is 37.9ºC. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Add hydrocortisone 1%

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      IV antivirals are necessary for the treatment of eczema herpeticum, which is a severe condition.

      Understanding Eczema Herpeticum

      Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children with atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The infection can be life-threatening, which is why it is important to seek medical attention immediately.

      During examination, doctors typically observe monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions that are usually 1-3 mm in diameter. Due to the severity of the infection, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir treatment. It is important to understand the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly to prevent any complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.7
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  • Question 23 - An epidemic of diarrhoea and vomiting has broken out on one of the...

    Correct

    • An epidemic of diarrhoea and vomiting has broken out on one of the elderly care wards. The catering suppliers assure you that their food is unlikely to be responsible because they follow the strictest hygiene procedures. A total of 15 elderly patients on the ward have become unwell with a sudden onset of diarrhoea and vomiting. Those infected earlier have recovered with rehydration therapy after about 48 hours. Examination of faeces by electron microscopy has revealed circular virus particles with radiating spokes.
      Which virus is most likely to be responsible for this outbreak?

      Your Answer: Rotavirus

      Explanation:

      Common Viruses that Cause Gastroenteritis

      Gastroenteritis is a self-limiting illness caused by several viruses, including rotavirus, enteric adenovirus, small round-structured virus (SRSV), norovirus, and astrovirus. Among these, rotavirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 years of age, while norovirus affects people of all ages. Rotavirus causes infant deaths worldwide, but acquired immunity develops after one episode. Norovirus is usually transmitted through contaminated food or water, while adenovirus is endemic throughout the year and commonly affects children in daycare settings. SRSV is another name for norovirus, and astrovirus is associated with contaminated food and water. Symptoms of gastroenteritis include anorexia, low-grade fever, vomiting, and watery diarrhea, but most cases do not require medication and can be managed with supportive treatment. Death from dehydration remains common in developing countries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 62-year-old female presents with a red eye on one side that is...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old female presents with a red eye on one side that is watering but not causing any pain. She has a history of well-managed Crohn's disease and reports feeling generally healthy. Her vital signs are normal. Upon examination, a small area of redness is observed, but there is no vision impairment, and the patient does not display any sensitivity to light. Eye drops are given, resulting in a brief whitening of the blood vessels. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      Episcleritis is a condition that can cause redness in the eye, but it is typically not accompanied by pain.

      Both episcleritis and scleritis can cause unilateral redness in the eye, tearing, and no sensitivity to light. However, a key difference between the two is that the use of phenylephrine or neosynephrine eye drops will cause the blood vessels in episcleritis to become pale, while this will not occur in scleritis.

      In contrast, closed-angle glaucoma often presents with a painful, red eye that is unilateral. The cornea may appear hazy, and the pupil may be mid-dilated. Patients may also experience nausea, vomiting, and see halos around lights.

      A stye, or hordeolum, is a bacterial infection of one of the glands in the eyelid. This can cause a tender, red bump on the edge of the eyelid.

      Retrobulbar hemorrhage can occur due to various factors, such as AV malformation, trauma, or increased venous pressure. Symptoms include a painful, red eye that may protrude, particularly at night. Patients may also experience reduced vision, nausea, vomiting, and double vision.

      Understanding Episcleritis

      Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.

      One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.

      Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.8
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  • Question 25 - What is a risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants?...

    Correct

    • What is a risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants?

      Your Answer: Oligohydramnios

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of feeling generally unwell...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of feeling generally unwell and feverish for 3 days. During the examination, coarse crackles and dullness to percussion were detected in the right lung base.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lobar pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lobar Pneumonia from Other Respiratory Conditions

      Lobar pneumonia is the most common cause of focal crackles and dullness in the lower zone. However, it is important to differentiate it from other respiratory conditions with similar symptoms. Empyema, for example, is associated with high fevers, night sweats, chest pain, cough, breathlessness, and fatigue. Bronchiectasis, on the other hand, is characterized by a persistent dry cough with copious purulent sputum and occasional haemoptysis. Congestive cardiac failure usually causes bilateral crepitations and peripheral oedema, while pulmonary embolism may cause reduced breath sounds and acute breathlessness, pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, dizziness, or syncope. By carefully assessing the patient’s symptoms and conducting appropriate tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat respiratory conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old man presents with 'burning' chest pain, halitosis and frequent belching. An...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents with 'burning' chest pain, halitosis and frequent belching. An oesophagogastroduodenoscopy reveals a 3 cm sliding hiatus hernia. The patient has a BMI of 34 kg/m² and does not smoke or drink alcohol. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Lifestyle advice and omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Surgical repair is not necessary for the majority of patients with hiatus hernias. Instead, lifestyle advice and omeprazole are the recommended management options. In the case of a symptomatic hiatus hernia, such as acid reflux, ‘burning’ pain, halitosis, and frequent belching, pharmacological treatment is likely to be beneficial. While lifestyle advice is important, it should be combined with medication for symptom relief. Omeprazole alone is not sufficient, and patients should also be advised on the benefits of weight loss and dietary changes. Referral for laparoscopic fundoplication is not necessary for most patients with hiatus hernias, and initial management should focus on PPIs and lifestyle modifications.

      Understanding Hiatus Hernia

      Hiatus hernia is a medical condition that occurs when part of the stomach protrudes above the diaphragm. There are two types of hiatus hernia, namely sliding and rolling. The sliding type is the most common, accounting for 95% of cases, and occurs when the gastroesophageal junction moves above the diaphragm. On the other hand, the rolling type occurs when a separate part of the stomach herniates through the esophageal hiatus, while the gastroesophageal junction remains below the diaphragm.

      Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of developing hiatus hernia, including obesity and increased intraabdominal pressure. Common symptoms of hiatus hernia include heartburn, dysphagia, regurgitation, and chest pain. To diagnose the condition, a barium swallow is the most sensitive test, although many patients undergo an endoscopy as a first-line investigation, with the hernia being found incidentally.

      Conservative management, such as weight loss, is beneficial for all patients with hiatus hernia. Medical management involves proton pump inhibitor therapy, while surgical management is only necessary for symptomatic paraesophageal hernias. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options for hiatus hernia is crucial for effective treatment and improved quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of excessive thirst and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of excessive thirst and frequent urination. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant and this is her first pregnancy. Her BMI is 30 kg/m². The GP decides to conduct an oral glucose tolerance test to investigate the possibility of gestational diabetes.
      What finding would confirm the suspicion of gestational diabetes in this case?

      Your Answer: Fasting glucose 5.9 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, a fasting glucose level of >= 5.6 mmol/L or a 2-hour glucose level of >= 7.8 mmol/L can be used. A patient with a BMI of >30 kg/m² and symptoms of polydipsia and polyuria should undergo an oral glucose tolerance test during 24-28 weeks of pregnancy. In this test, the patient fasts for 8-10 hours, then drinks a glucose solution and has blood samples taken before and 2 hours after. A fasting glucose level of 5.9mmol/L or higher confirms the diagnosis of gestational diabetes.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      331.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following causes Scarlet fever? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following causes Scarlet fever?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus species (group A haemolytic)

      Explanation:

      Scarlet Fever: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Scarlet fever is a bacterial infection caused by toxin-producing strains of the group A streptococcal bacterium (Streptococcus pyogenes). It is a notifiable disease to Public Health England. The symptoms include a sore throat, fever, and a rash with a red strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, fine papular rash, tonsillitis, tiredness, headache, nausea, and vomiting.

      The condition is treated with fluids, an antipyretic, and phenoxymethylpenicillin. Other causes such as Influenza pneumoniae, Escherichia coli, Haemophilus influenzae, and Parvovirus B19 are not related to scarlet fever. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you or your child has scarlet fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (on echo) has a blood pressure (BP) of 160/95 mmHg. She is currently on lisinopril (maximum doses).
      Which of the following new agents would you add in?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Medications for Heart Failure: Benefits and Guidelines

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management through medications. Among the drugs commonly used are bisoprolol, bendroflumethiazide, clopidogrel, spironolactone, and diltiazem.

      Bisoprolol and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor are recommended for all heart failure patients as they have been shown to reduce mortality. Bendroflumethiazide and loop diuretics like furosemide can help alleviate symptoms but do not have a mortality benefit. Clopidogrel, on the other hand, is not indicated for heart failure but is used for vascular diseases like NSTEMI and stroke.

      Spironolactone is recommended for patients who remain symptomatic despite treatment with an ACE inhibitor and a b blocker. It is also beneficial for those with left ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD) after a myocardial infarction (MI). However, diltiazem should be avoided in heart failure patients.

      According to NICE guidelines, b blockers and ACE inhibitors should be given to all LVSD patients unless contraindicated. Spironolactone can be added if symptoms persist. Proper medication management is crucial in improving outcomes for heart failure patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      9.9
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  • Question 31 - A teenager returns from a backpacking holiday in South America, having developed abdominal...

    Correct

    • A teenager returns from a backpacking holiday in South America, having developed abdominal pain, diarrhoea and fevers one week before his return. On examination, he has a fever of 38.5 °C and diffuse abdominal pain. Stool microscopy shows pus and red blood cells; culture is awaited.
      Which of the following is the most likely organism?

      Your Answer: Salmonella species

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Gastroenteritis in Travellers

      Travellers are at risk of contracting various infections that can cause gastroenteritis. Salmonella species, transmitted through contaminated food or beverages, can cause non-typhoidal enterocolitis, non-typhoidal focal disease, or typhoid fever. Rotavirus, which causes self-limited gastroenteritis, typically presents with anorexia, low-grade fever, and watery, bloodless diarrhea. Plasmodium falciparum, a parasite that causes malaria, can be detected through blood films. Norovirus, the most common cause of epidemic non-bacterial gastroenteritis, presents with nausea, vomiting, watery non-bloody/non-purulent diarrhea, and low-grade fever. Vibrio cholerae, which causes cholera, is transmitted through contaminated water or food and can cause severe watery diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration. It is important to consider these potential causes when diagnosing gastroenteritis in returning travellers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      7.8
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  • Question 32 - A 41-year-old woman is worried that she may be experiencing premature ovarian failure...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old woman is worried that she may be experiencing premature ovarian failure as she has not had a period for the last six months. What is the definition of premature ovarian failure?

      Your Answer: The onset of menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels before the age of 40 years

      Explanation:

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.

      Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      3.8
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  • Question 33 - A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several areas of pale skin on her hands. Despite using an emollient and topical hydrocortisone, there has been no improvement. During the examination, you observe multiple depigmented patches on the back of both hands. The patient's medical history includes a previous diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, for which she is currently taking carbimazole and thyroxine. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Patients with autoimmune conditions like thyrotoxicosis are more likely to have vitiligo, but there are no other indications in the medical history that point towards Addison’s disease.

      Understanding Vitiligo

      Vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in the loss of melanocytes and causing depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing between the ages of 20-30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the peripheries being the most affected. Trauma can also trigger new lesions, known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. Management of the condition includes the use of sunblock for affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up, and topical corticosteroids, which may reverse the changes if applied early. There may also be a role for topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution needs to be exercised with light-skinned patients.

      In summary, vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that can be managed with various treatments, including sunblock, make-up, and topical corticosteroids. It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, and caution should be exercised when using certain treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      502.9
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  • Question 34 - A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of difficulty lifting heavy objects and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of difficulty lifting heavy objects and describes a feeling of weakness when climbing stairs. He has noticed occasional muscle twitches and spasms that seem to be increasing in frequency.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is polymyositis. This is a connective tissue disease that affects the striated muscles, causing symmetrical weakness in the proximal muscles. Patients may have difficulty rising from chairs and experience muscle tenderness. Creatine kinase levels are elevated, and a muscle biopsy can confirm the diagnosis. This presentation is not suggestive of Guillain-Barré syndrome, which typically presents with distal weakness that progresses proximally. Mononeuritis multiplex, which involves neuropathy of multiple peripheral and/or cranial nerves, is unlikely given the symmetrical distribution of symptoms affecting proximal muscles. Multiple sclerosis is also unlikely, as it tends to present with distal rather than proximal limb weakness or paraesthesia. Myasthenia gravis, which is associated with antibodies to acetylcholine receptors and causes fatigability, is not suggested by the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.8
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  • Question 35 - During a routine medication review, you observe your patient, a 50 year-old male,...

    Correct

    • During a routine medication review, you observe your patient, a 50 year-old male, displaying some skin changes. The knuckles of both hands have purplish plaques, and the patient's eyelids also appear purple. There is no history of skin problems in the patient's medical records. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is a connective tissue disease that presents with skin changes such as plaques on the knuckles and eyelids, scaling of the scalp, and changes to the nail beds and cuticles. It is often accompanied by inflammation of the proximal muscles causing weakness. It can be an autoimmune condition or a paraneoplastic syndrome and is treated with immunosuppressants.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilatation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      7.5
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  • Question 36 - Sarah is a 44-year-old hairdresser who contacts her GP due to a 2-day...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 44-year-old hairdresser who contacts her GP due to a 2-day history of cough and fever. Her Covid-19 test is negative and she does not sound breathless on the phone. Sarah has been taking paracetamol regularly but despite this, she is still feeling feverish; she has recorded her temperature as 37.8ºC. She has a past medical history of eczema, gilbert's syndrome and adrenal insufficiency. She takes hydrocortisone 15 mg in the morning and 10mg at lunchtime, and also takes fludrocortisone 200 micrograms once a day.
      What is the most appropriate management plan for Sarah?

      Your Answer: Double the dose of his hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      To manage an Addison’s patient with an intercurrent illness, it is recommended to double the dose of their glucocorticoids, specifically hydrocortisone, while keeping the fludrocortisone dose the same. This is because the patient’s fever >37.5 indicates a moderate intercurrent illness. Continuing paracetamol regularly is not the main priority in this situation. Advising the patient to call 999 for admission is unnecessary unless there are severe symptoms such as vomiting or persistent diarrhea. Doubling the dose of fludrocortisone is not recommended as it is a mineralocorticoid with weak glucocorticoid activity, and increasing the glucocorticoid is necessary to mimic a stress response.

      Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.

      During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      6.3
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  • Question 37 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of itching and watery discharge from both eyes.
      On examination, the vision is 6/9 in both eyes. Both pupils are equally reactive to light. The conjunctivae are both chemosed with mild diffuse injection. The eyelids are slightly oedematous.
      Her past medical history includes eczema. Her vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 65 bpm
      Respiratory rate 12
      Temperature 36.7 °C
      Oxygen saturation 99% on air
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Different Types of Eye Infections: A Case Study

      The presentation points towards the diagnosis of allergic conjunctivitis. This is due to the patient’s history of itchiness, watery discharge, slightly swollen eyelids, and atopy. It was ruled out that the patient had bacterial conjunctivitis, as it typically presents with more purulent discharges bilaterally. Orbital cellulitis was also ruled out, as the eyelids and orbit would be very swollen and red with restriction and pain in eye movements, and the vital observations were normal. Preseptal cellulitis can present with oedematous eyelids, but the eye itself should be quiet and white. While viral conjunctivitis can present with watery discharges, the patient’s history of atopy and itchiness made allergic conjunctivitis the more likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 67-year-old male presents to an urgent care centre with concerns about decreased...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male presents to an urgent care centre with concerns about decreased frequency of urination. He reports only urinating once in the past 12 hours and feels unable to urinate despite the urge to do so. The patient has a medical history of diabetes mellitus managed with metformin and chronic back pain managed with ibuprofen and PPI cover. He has no known allergies. Blood tests reveal the following results: Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L (22 - 29), Urea 7.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and Creatinine 200 µmol/L (55 - 120). The patient's previous creatinine level was 119 µmol/L. The general practitioner refers the patient to the emergency department for further investigation. What is the correct classification?

      Your Answer: Acute Kidney Injury stage 1

      Explanation:

      The patient in this vignette meets the criteria for AKI Stage 1, which is characterized by a moderate increase in serum creatinine (1.5-1.9 times the baseline) or reduced urine output (<0.5 mL/kg/hr) for at least 6 hours. The patient has risk factors such as age, diabetes mellitus, and NSAID use for back pain, which can contribute to AKI. It is important to note that AKI is a classification and not a diagnosis. AKI Stage 2 is characterized by a more significant increase in serum creatinine (2-2.9 times the baseline) or reduced urine output for at least 12 hours. The vignette does not show renal function that is severe enough to meet this classification. AKI Stage 3 is the most severe stage, with a serum creatinine increase of 3 times or more from baseline or reduced urine output for at least 24 hours. Again, the patient’s renal function is not severe enough to meet this classification. There is no AKI Stage 4 or 5. Chronic kidney disease is classified from stages 1-5 based on the patient’s estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). A patient with CKD Stage 4 would have an eGFR of 15-29 ml/min/1.73m², while a patient with CKD Stage 5 would have end-stage renal disease with an eGFR <15 ml/min/1.73m² or be receiving renal replacement therapy. The NICE guidelines for acute kidney injury (AKI) identify risk factors such as emergency surgery, CKD, diabetes, and use of nephrotoxic drugs. Diagnostic criteria include a rise in creatinine, fall in urine output, or fall in eGFR. The KDIGO criteria are used to stage AKI, with stage 3 indicating the most severe cases. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for certain cases, such as AKI with no known cause or inadequate response to treatment. Complications of AKI include CKD, hyperkalaemia, metabolic acidosis, and fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A mother brings in her 7-year-old girl who complains of 'an itchy bottom'...

    Correct

    • A mother brings in her 7-year-old girl who complains of 'an itchy bottom' at night. She is otherwise systemically well, developing normally and denies any change in her bowel habit. An external examination of the anus is unremarkable.
      What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Threadworms

      Explanation:

      Anal itching in children is frequently caused by threadworms, which can be easily detected by observing moving white threads in the anal area at nighttime. Although examination may not reveal any significant findings, it is important to note that human roundworms are uncommon in the UK and typically do not result in itching.

      Threadworm Infestation in Children

      Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      74
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  • Question 40 - An 80-year-old man is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. Along with...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. Along with consolidation, there seems to be a moderate-sized pleural effusion on the same side. A pleural fluid aspiration is performed under ultrasound guidance, and the fluid's appearance is clear, sent off for culture. While waiting for the culture results, what is the most crucial factor in deciding whether to place a chest tube?

      Your Answer: pH of the pleural fluid

      Explanation:

      According to the British Thoracic Society (BTS), chest tube placement in pleural infection is mainly indicated for patients with purulent or cloudy pleural fluid, positive Gram stain and/or culture results from non-purulent pleural fluid, and pleural fluid pH below 7.2. Among these indications, pleural fluid pH is considered the most valuable test.

      Investigating and Managing Pleural Effusion: BTS Guidelines

      Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate and manage this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided guidelines.

      Imaging is an essential part of the investigation process, and the BTS recommends performing posterioranterior (PA) chest x-rays in all patients. Ultrasound is also recommended as it increases the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and is sensitive for detecting pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is increasingly performed to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions.

      Pleural aspiration is another crucial step in the investigation process. The BTS recommends using ultrasound to reduce the complication rate. A 21G needle and 50ml syringe should be used, and fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can help distinguish between a transudate and an exudate. Other characteristic pleural fluid findings include low glucose in rheumatoid arthritis and tuberculosis, raised amylase in pancreatitis and oesophageal perforation, and heavy blood staining in mesothelioma, pulmonary embolism, and tuberculosis.

      In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should be placed.

      For managing recurrent pleural effusion, options include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as opioids to relieve dyspnoea. The BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to investigating and managing pleural effusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of heavy periods since menarche at...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of heavy periods since menarche at the age of 13. She has never sought medical attention for this issue but has now decided to address it. Her menstrual cycle is regular with a 28-day cycle, and she experiences heavy bleeding for 7 days, with 4 days of blood clots and flooding. The patient has never been pregnant and does not plan to have children. She is currently in a sexually active relationship and uses condoms for contraception. There is no significant medical or family history. Blood tests and a pelvic ultrasound scan are normal. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Insertion of intra-uterine system (IUS)

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for menorrhagia is the intra-uterine system (IUS), which has a high success rate in stopping bleeding and only requires one insertion procedure. Additionally, it provides reliable contraception. Conversely, the copper coil may exacerbate menorrhagia symptoms. While medication such as the progesterone-only pill or combined oral contraceptive pill can be used, they are not the first choice. It would be an extreme measure to refer a woman of child-bearing age for a hysterectomy, especially when there are less invasive and reversible options available to treat menorrhagia, even if the patient expresses no desire for children.

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.

      [Insert flowchart here]

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      222.1
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  • Question 42 - A 32-year-old man visits the clinic with a concern about experiencing frequent episodes...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man visits the clinic with a concern about experiencing frequent episodes of dizziness for the past four weeks, lasting about 1 hour each time. He has also noticed a ‘fullness sensation and ringing’ in his right ear.
      Select the SINGLE most probable diagnosis from the options below.

      Your Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Causes of Vertigo: Ménière’s Disease, BPPV, Acoustic Neuroma, Vestibular Neuritis, and Cholesteatoma

      Vertigo is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is Ménière’s disease, which is characterized by a triad of symptoms including fluctuant hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. Aural fullness may also be present. On the other hand, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is induced by specific movements and is accompanied by nausea, light-headedness, and imbalance. Acoustic neuroma, on the other hand, presents with progressive ipsilateral tinnitus, sensorineural hearing loss, facial numbness, and giddiness. Vestibular neuritis, which follows a febrile illness, is characterized by sudden vertigo, vomiting, and prostration, while cholesteatoma tends to be asymptomatic in the early stages and is characterized by a foul-smelling discharge and conductive hearing loss. Management of vertigo includes self-care advice, medication, and referral to an ENT specialist to confirm the condition and exclude sinister causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of low-grade fevers, a rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of low-grade fevers, a rash on his face resembling a butterfly, joint pain, and overall fatigue. Based on the probable diagnosis, which auto-antibody has the greatest sensitivity?

      Your Answer: Anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid (anti-dsDNA)

      Correct Answer: Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA)

      Explanation:

      Common Autoantibody Tests for Diagnosing Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues in the body. The diagnosis of SLE can be challenging due to its diverse clinical manifestations and the absence of a specific diagnostic test. However, several autoantibodies have been identified in patients with SLE, and their detection can aid in the diagnosis and management of the disease. Here are some common autoantibody tests used for diagnosing SLE:

      Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA): This is the most commonly used screening test for SLE. ANA is present in 98% of patients with SLE, but it can also be positive in other autoimmune and non-autoimmune conditions.

      Anti-citrulline antibodies (anti-CCP): This test has the highest specificity for rheumatoid arthritis and is not appropriate for diagnosing SLE.

      Anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid (anti-dsDNA): This test is positive in 70% of patients with SLE and is more specific for SLE than ANA. The presence of anti-dsDNA, anti-sm, and antiphospholipid antibodies is more specific for diagnosing SLE.

      Anti-smooth muscle autoantibodies (anti-sm): This test is positive in 25% of patients with SLE and is more specific for SLE than ANA. The presence of anti-dsDNA, anti-sm, and antiphospholipid antibodies is more specific for diagnosing SLE.

      Rheumatoid factor: This test is used for investigating rheumatoid arthritis and is not appropriate for diagnosing SLE.

      In summary, the detection of autoantibodies can be helpful in diagnosing SLE, but the interpretation of the results should be done in the context of the patient’s clinical presentation and other laboratory tests. ANA remains the best screening test for SLE due to its high sensitivity, but the presence of other autoantibodies can increase the specificity of the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      102.4
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  • Question 44 - As a junior doctor in psychiatry, you are evaluating a young man in...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor in psychiatry, you are evaluating a young man in the Emergency Department who was brought in by the police for carrying a knife. Your conversation with him goes as follows:

      Doctor: I see that the police have brought you in from the town centre today. Can you tell me why, as a young man, you felt the need to carry a knife?

      Your Answer: Word salad

      Correct Answer: Tangentiality

      Explanation:

      Tangentiality is when someone goes off on a tangent and does not return to the original topic. It is a type of formal thought disorder that is often seen in people with schizophrenia. The person may provide excessive and unnecessary details that are somewhat relevant to the question but never answer the central point. Circumstantiality is similar, but the person ultimately provides an answer. Clang associations involve using words that sound similar but have no logical connection, while perseveration is when someone continues to respond to a previous question even after a new one has been asked.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      43.5
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  • Question 45 - A 32-week pregnant woman presents to the early pregnancy unit with a concern...

    Correct

    • A 32-week pregnant woman presents to the early pregnancy unit with a concern that her uterus is small for this stage of pregnancy. Upon ultrasound, she is diagnosed with oligohydramnios. What could be a potential cause of oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer: Renal agenesis

      Explanation:

      Oligohydramnios is a condition that occurs during pregnancy when there is a shortage of amniotic fluid. This can result in a smaller symphysiofundal height.

      Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.

      There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 27-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m² presents to your GP...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m² presents to your GP clinic with a small lump in her right breast. She is worried about the possibility of breast cancer, although she has noticed that the lump has decreased in size over the past two weeks. She denies any direct injury but mentions playing rugby recently. There is no family history of breast or gynaecological cancer. On examination, a small, firm, poorly mobile lump is found in the lower quadrant of the right breast.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Traumatic breast fat necrosis

      Explanation:

      Traumatic breast fat necrosis may develop following a minor or unnoticed injury in women with a high body mass index, although it is crucial to investigate any lump to exclude breast cancer. Nipple discharge is a common symptom of mammary duct ectasia, while a tender lymph node in the axilla is likely to be palpable. Paget’s disease is characterized by an eczema-like appearance of the nipple, not a lump. Fibroadenoma, also known as a breast mouse, is not attached.

      Understanding Fat Necrosis of the Breast

      Fat necrosis of the breast is a condition that affects up to 40% of cases and is often caused by trauma. This condition can be mistaken for breast cancer due to its physical features, such as a mass that may initially increase in size. It is important to understand that fat necrosis is not cancerous and can be treated with proper care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      10.9
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  • Question 47 - A 30-year-old female patient visits the clinic as she has not had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits the clinic as she has not had a menstrual period for 5 months. She has had regular periods since she was 12 years old. After conducting a negative urinary pregnancy test, the doctor ordered some blood tests. The results are as follows:
      FSH 4.2 IU/L (4.5 - 22.5)
      LH 0.5 IU/L (0.5 - 50.0)
      Oestradiol 110 pmol/L (100 - 1000)
      Testosterone 1.2 nmol/L (0.8-3.1)
      Prolactin 280 IU/mL (60-600)
      T4 11.5 pmol/l (9-18)

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      If a woman experiences secondary amenorrhoea and has low levels of gonadotrophins, it suggests that the cause is related to the hypothalamus. High levels of gonadotrophins would indicate premature ovarian failure, while high levels of LH and androgens would suggest polycystic ovarian syndrome. Normal levels of prolactin and thyroxine have been observed in this woman.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 48 - An 80-year-old man visits a memory clinic accompanied by his daughter. He has...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits a memory clinic accompanied by his daughter. He has a medical history of hypertension and is a former smoker. The daughter reports that he had been stable for several months before experiencing sudden declines on multiple occasions. The physical examination is normal, and his MoCA score is 18 out of 30. He denies experiencing any visual or auditory hallucinations. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer's dementia

      Correct Answer: Vascular dementia

      Explanation:

      The gradual decline in cognitive function, along with hypertension and smoking as risk factors for cerebrovascular disease, suggest a diagnosis of vascular dementia. This type of dementia is caused by damage to the brain from reduced blood flow or bleeding due to cerebrovascular disease. In contrast, Alzheimer’s dementia progresses slowly over time, while frontotemporal dementia affects personality, behavior, language, and attention. Lewy body dementia is characterized by hallucinations and Parkinsonian symptoms, while Parkinson’s dementia occurs in patients with Parkinson’s disease and affects their mental function and memory, along with physical signs of PD.

      Understanding Vascular Dementia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Vascular dementia is a type of cognitive impairment that is caused by different mechanisms resulting from cerebrovascular disease. It is the second most common form of dementia after Alzheimer’s disease. Vascular dementia is often recognized as the most severe form of the spectrum of deficits encompassed by the term vascular cognitive impairment. Early detection and an accurate diagnosis are crucial in preventing vascular dementia.

      The prevalence of vascular dementia is estimated to be around 17% of dementia cases in the UK. The incidence of vascular dementia increases with age and is often associated with a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack, atrial fibrillation, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, smoking, obesity, coronary heart disease, and a family history of stroke or cardiovascular disease. Rarely, vascular dementia can be inherited as in the case of cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy.

      Patients with vascular dementia typically present with a sudden or stepwise deterioration of cognitive function, focal neurological abnormalities, difficulty with attention and concentration, seizures, memory disturbance, gait disturbance, speech disturbance, and emotional disturbance. Diagnosis is made based on a comprehensive history and physical examination, formal screening for cognitive impairment, medical review to exclude medication cause of cognitive decline, and MRI scan.

      Treatment for vascular dementia is mainly symptomatic with the aim to address individual problems and provide support to the patient and carers. It is important to detect and address cardiovascular risk factors to slow down the progression of the disease. Non-pharmacological management is tailored to the individual and may include cognitive stimulation programs, multisensory stimulation, music and art therapy, and animal-assisted therapy. Pharmacological management is limited, and there is no specific pharmacological treatment approved for cognitive symptoms. Only consider AChE inhibitors or memantine for people with vascular dementia if they have suspected comorbid Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease dementia, or dementia with Lewy bodies. There is no evidence that aspirin is effective in treating patients with a diagnosis of vascular dementia, and no randomized trials have evaluated statins for vascular dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 49 - A mother brings in her 3-month old male baby to the pediatrician's office....

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 3-month old male baby to the pediatrician's office. She reports that for the past two weeks, the baby has been experiencing poor feeding, with intermittent rapid breathing, wheezing, and sweating. Additionally, the baby's weight has dropped off the initial centile. During the examination, the pediatrician discovers hepatomegaly.
      What could be the probable reason for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Acute liver failure

      Correct Answer: Congestive heart failure

      Explanation:

      The neonate is displaying signs of heart failure, which may be caused by structural heart disease. Symptoms of heart failure in neonates include difficulty feeding, breathing problems, and an enlarged liver. Asthma is not typically diagnosed in this age group, and acute liver failure is rare and usually presents with growth issues and blood clotting problems. Viral wheezing is uncommon in neonates, and the poor feeding and weight loss suggest heart failure as the likely cause.

      How Congenital Heart Disease Presents

      Congenital heart disease can manifest in various ways. One of the earliest signs may be detected during the antenatal period when imaging of the heart is performed as part of the 18-20 week fetal anomaly scan. A murmur may also be detected during the routine newborn examination. Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes, may also be present. In some cases, heart failure may occur, which can be characterized by poor feeding, shortness of breath, sweating, and hepatomegaly. It is important to be aware of these presentations in order to promptly diagnose and manage congenital heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.9
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  • Question 50 - Which one of the following drugs is safe to use while breastfeeding? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following drugs is safe to use while breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      The use of cephalosporins during breastfeeding is deemed to be safe.

      Breastfeeding has some contraindications that are important to know, especially when it comes to drugs. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, and trimethoprim are safe for breastfeeding mothers, as are endocrine drugs like glucocorticoids (in low doses) and levothyroxine. Epilepsy drugs like sodium valproate and carbamazepine, asthma drugs like salbutamol and theophyllines, and hypertension drugs like beta-blockers and hydralazine are also safe. Anticoagulants like warfarin and heparin, as well as digoxin, are also safe. However, some drugs should be avoided, such as antibiotics like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and sulphonamides, psychiatric drugs like lithium and benzodiazepines, aspirin, carbimazole, methotrexate, sulfonylureas, cytotoxic drugs, and amiodarone. Other contraindications include galactosaemia and viral infections, although the latter is controversial in the developing world due to the increased risk of infant mortality and morbidity associated with bottle feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 6-month-old infant is brought to his General Practitioner by his concerned mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant is brought to his General Practitioner by his concerned mother. He has been crying after every feed for several weeks and regurgitating milk. He has also been failing to gain weight.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)

      Explanation:

      The child’s symptoms suggest that they may have gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which is characterized by regurgitation of milk after feeds and crying due to abdominal pain. This can lead to failure to gain weight or even weight loss. Infantile colic is less likely as it would not cause these symptoms. Intussusception, a condition where part of the bowel invaginates into another, causing colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, and passing of redcurrant stools, requires immediate hospitalization. Pyloric stenosis, which presents with projectile vomiting, dehydration, and faltering growth, is less likely as the child does not have projectile vomiting. Volvulus, a complete twisting of an intestinal loop, could present with bilious vomiting, signs of shock, peritonitis, and blood per rectum, and typically occurs in the first year of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 52 - A 65-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of feeling low and having...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of feeling low and having trouble sleeping. Upon further discussion and administering a validated symptom measure, you diagnose her with moderate depression. She has a medical history of ischemic heart disease and is currently on aspirin, ramipril, and simvastatin. What would be the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Start sertraline + lansoprazole

      Explanation:

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 53 - A 17-year-old female patient presents with concerns about her acne and its impact...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female patient presents with concerns about her acne and its impact on her self-esteem. She has been experiencing acne for a few years and is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, which has provided some relief. After a thorough discussion, you decide to initiate treatment with topical isotretinoin. What other side effect, in addition to its teratogenic effects, should you inform her about?

      Your Answer: Yellowing of skin

      Correct Answer: Erythema

      Explanation:

      The initial approach to treating acne involves the use of a topical retinoid (such as tretinoin, isotretinoin, or adapalene) or benzoyl peroxide, particularly if there are papules and pustules present. Patients should be informed of the potential side effects of topical retinoids, which may include burning, redness, and dryness of the skin, as well as eye irritation and swelling. However, topical retinoids are not associated with aggravating acne, causing headaches or nausea, or leading to yellowing of the skin.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.

      The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

      Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.4
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  • Question 54 - A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of diarrhoea and vomiting after spending...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of diarrhoea and vomiting after spending Christmas with her family. Her sister has just informed her that she too is experiencing the same symptoms. The doctor suspects norovirus. What is the best way to prevent the spread of this virus?

      Your Answer: Wash hands with soap and water

      Explanation:

      Handwashing is more effective than alcohol gels in preventing the spread of norovirus.

      Norovirus, also known as the winter vomiting bug, is a common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. It is a type of RNA virus that can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, as well as headaches, low-grade fevers, and myalgia. The virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through the fecal-oral route, as well as through aerosolized particles from vomit or contaminated bodily fluids. Good hand hygiene and isolation of infected individuals are important measures to limit transmission. Diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and stool culture viral PCR. While the infection is self-limiting in most cases, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can occur and require supportive management.

      Norovirus is a genus of non-encapsulated RNA virus species that can cause gastroenteritis. The CDC estimates that 1 in 5 cases of infectious gastroenteritis are caused by norovirus, with 685 million cases per year worldwide. Symptoms typically develop within 15-50 hours of infection and can include vomiting, diarrhea, headaches, low-grade fevers, and myalgia. The virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through direct physical contact, contact with contaminated food, or through aerosolized particles from vomit or contaminated bodily fluids. Good hand hygiene and isolation of infected individuals are important measures to limit transmission. Diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and stool culture viral PCR. While the infection is self-limiting in most cases, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can occur and require supportive management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 55 - A 62-year-old woman is brought to her GP by her daughter. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman is brought to her GP by her daughter. She reports that she has a 2-year history of progressive memory impairment (especially for recent events), worsening apathy and occasional disorientation in previously familiar environments. She scores 22/30 on the Mini-Mental State Examination. Her BP is 140/90, and pulse 70 and regular. She is a non-smoker. She takes medication for hypertension.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Dementia

      Dementia is a common condition that affects a significant portion of the elderly population. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common type of dementia, accounting for over 60% of cases. It typically starts with memory impairment, particularly affecting recent events, and gradually progresses to language and visuospatial dysfunction, apathy, and behavioural problems.

      Vascular dementia is the second most common type of dementia, and it is often associated with a history of cerebrovascular or cardiovascular disease. Depression can also cause memory impairment and apathy, but the characteristic pattern of memory disturbance seen in Alzheimer’s disease makes it a more likely diagnosis in this case.

      Mild cognitive impairment is a condition where memory impairment is present, but other cognitive domains and activities of daily living are preserved. It is estimated that between 5 and 20% of people over 65 have MCI, and about 30% of them will develop dementia within two years.

      Lewy-body dementia is another type of dementia that accounts for about 20% of cases. It typically presents with parkinsonism, fluctuating cognitive impairment, and visual hallucinations, which are not present in this vignette.

      Understanding the different types of dementia and their characteristic features is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 56 - A 7-year-old girl is referred to the Paediatric Emergency Department by her General...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is referred to the Paediatric Emergency Department by her General Practitioner with a 4-day history of fever.
      On examination, the patient has bilateral conjunctival injection, a maculopapular rash across her trunk, and erythematous extremities. Her chest is clear and heart sounds are normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Her lips look cracked, and her tongue looks erythematous. She has no palpable lymphadenopathy.
      Which of the following blood test results would support the likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Elevated ESR, normal CRP

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease: Diagnosis and Blood Test Results

      Kawasaki disease is a clinical diagnosis that presents with a persistent fever and at least four of the following five criteria: bilateral conjunctival injection, polymorphous rash, oral changes, oedema and erythema in hands/feet, and cervical lymphadenopathy. Thrombocytosis is a common non-specific change seen in Kawasaki disease, and blood tests such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function, lipid profile, C-reactive protein (CRP), and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) can support the diagnosis, assess severity, and monitor disease and treatment. Neutropenia is not usually associated with Kawasaki disease, and a raised white cell count with a relative neutrophilia is commonly seen. An elevated CRP with a normal ESR or an elevated ESR with a normal CRP would not be expected in Kawasaki disease, as both markers reflect acute inflammation. Kawasaki disease is associated with normocytic anaemia, but not macrocytic anaemia. It is important to arrange an echocardiogram as soon as possible to look for any initial evidence of coronary artery aneurysm, a common complication of Kawasaki disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      86.5
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  • Question 57 - A nurse updates you on a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant....

    Correct

    • A nurse updates you on a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant. The nurse reports that her blood pressure reading is 155/90 mmHg, which has increased from her previous reading of 152/85 mmHg taken 2 days ago. The woman had no health issues before her pregnancy. What is the initial course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Oral labetalol

      Explanation:

      Oral labetalol is the recommended initial treatment for this woman with moderate gestational hypertension, as per the current guidelines.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 58 - A 54-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a three-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a three-day history of blurring of vision. He has a past medical history of hypertension, managed with amlodipine, ramipril, and indapamide, and type II diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes with a reduction in colour vision. There is no relative afferent pupillary defect. On direct fundoscopy, the optic disc's margins are ill-defined and seem to be raised in both eyes. There are also some cotton-wool spots scattered around the retina in both eyes.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hypertensive Retinopathy from Other Eye Conditions

      Hypertensive retinopathy is a serious condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. A grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy, as classified by the Keith-Wagener-Barker system, is characterized by bilateral optic disc swelling and cotton-wool spots. This condition can cause a reduction in visual acuity and color vision due to optic neuropathy secondary to hypertension.

      It is important to differentiate hypertensive retinopathy from other eye conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy, for example, is unlikely if the patient’s type II diabetes is well-controlled. The presence of cotton-wool spots does not indicate diabetic retinopathy.

      An intracranial space-occupying lesion is also not indicated in the patient’s history. Optic neuritis, while it can present with loss of optic nerve function, is more likely to present unilaterally and without cotton-wool spots.

      Pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is also unlikely in this case, as the patient’s diabetes is well-controlled. In diabetic retinopathy, optic discs will not be raised.

      In summary, a thorough understanding of the patient’s medical history and symptoms is necessary to accurately diagnose hypertensive retinopathy and differentiate it from other eye conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 59 - A social worker in their 40s has been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection.
    Which...

    Correct

    • A social worker in their 40s has been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection.
      Which test will conclusively establish the presence of this infection?

      Your Answer: HCV RNA

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C Testing Methods

      Hepatitis C is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are several testing methods available to diagnose and monitor hepatitis C infection.

      Quantitative HCV RNA tests measure the amount of hepatitis C virus in the blood, which is also known as the viral load. This test is the most sensitive and accurate way to confirm a hepatitis C diagnosis, especially when viral loads are low.

      Screening tests for co-infection with other viruses, such as hepatitis B or HIV, may be done but do not assist in the diagnosis of hepatitis C infection itself.

      Anti-hepatitis C virus (HCV) serologic screening involves an enzyme immunoassay (EIA) that can detect antibodies to the virus. However, this test cannot distinguish between acute and chronic infection and may yield false-positive results.

      HCV genotyping is a helpful tool for predicting the likelihood of response and duration of treatment. It is used in adult, non-immunocompromised patients with known chronic HCV infection.

      Immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-HAV screening tests for co-infection with hepatitis A virus may be done but do not assist in the diagnosis of hepatitis C infection itself.

      Hepatitis C Testing Methods

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      11.1
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  • Question 60 - A 68-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary frequency and dysuria that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary frequency and dysuria that has been present for 2 days. Upon urine dip, she tests positive for blood, leucocytes, nitrites, and protein. Her medical history includes rheumatoid arthritis treated with methotrexate and hypertension treated with ramipril. She has no known allergies. The patient is worried because she has been cautioned about an antibiotic that she should avoid due to her current medications.
      What medication has she been warned about from the list provided?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Understanding Trimethoprim: Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Use in Pregnancy

      Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Its mechanism of action involves interfering with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. This can potentially interact with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. However, the use of trimethoprim can also lead to adverse effects such as myelosuppression and a transient rise in creatinine. The drug can competitively inhibit the tubular secretion of creatinine, resulting in a temporary increase that reverses upon stopping the drug. Additionally, trimethoprim can block the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It can also inhibit creatinine secretion, often leading to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points, but not necessarily causing AKI.

      When it comes to the use of trimethoprim in pregnancy, caution is advised. The British National Formulary (BNF) warns of a teratogenic risk in the first trimester due to its folate antagonist properties. As such, manufacturers advise avoiding the use of trimethoprim during pregnancy. It is important to understand the potential risks and benefits of using this antibiotic and to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 61 - You perform an annual medication review of a 68-year-old man with chronic kidney...

    Correct

    • You perform an annual medication review of a 68-year-old man with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 5 (GFR <15 ml/min/1.73 m2) on dialysis.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of death in this group of patients?

      Your Answer: Cardiovascular disease

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Mortality in Dialysis Patients

      Cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of death in the dialysis population, with mortality rates 10-20 times higher than the general population. Hyperkalaemia, often resulting from missed dialysis or dietary indiscretion, is the most common cause of sudden death in end-stage renal disease patients. Hypocalcaemia is a common manifestation of CKD and should be treated with calcium supplements. While there is no known association between reduced renal function and overall cancer risk, some studies suggest an increased risk of urinary, endocrine, and digestive tract cancers among dialysis patients. Sepsis related to dialysis is rare with modern techniques, but minimizing the use of temporary catheters can further reduce the risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 62 - A 28-year-old primip nurse has presented to you 5 days after being in...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old primip nurse has presented to you 5 days after being in contact with a child who had a vesicular rash on their face and chest. She is currently 14 weeks pregnant and has been experiencing some morning sickness, but otherwise feels fine. Her blood tests show that she is not immune to varicella zoster virus. What should be the next course of action in your management plan?

      Your Answer: A single dose of varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZI)

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman is not immune to the varicella zoster virus and has been in close contact with someone who has the virus, it is recommended that she receive varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible. VZIG can be effective up to 10 days after contact, or 10 days after the appearance of the rash in the person with the virus if there are continuous exposures.
      For pregnant women who are not immune and have been exposed to chickenpox, they should be considered potentially infectious from 8-28 days after exposure if they receive VZIG, and from 8-21 days after exposure if they do not receive VZIG.
      Source: RCOG

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      101.3
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  • Question 63 - A 6-year-old boy has been treated for a first urinary tract infection. There...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy has been treated for a first urinary tract infection. There was no evidence of pyelonephritis. Urine culture demonstrated growth of Escherichia coli. He was given a course of trimethoprim and recovered well.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate next step from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: No imaging required

      Explanation:

      Imaging Guidelines for Urinary Tract Infections in Children

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in children and can be divided into upper and lower UTIs. Current guidelines recommend different imaging investigations based on the type of UTI and the child’s age. For infants and children aged ≥6 months with a first-time UTI that responds to treatment, routine ultrasonography is not recommended unless the child has an atypical UTI. Micturating cystourethrography (MCUG) is indicated if renal and bladder ultrasonography reveals hydronephrosis, scarring, or other findings that suggest high-grade vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) or obstructive uropathy. Ultrasonography of the urinary tract is the imaging study of choice in children with a UTI, and it is useful in excluding obstructive uropathy and identifying renal damage caused by pyelonephritis. Technectium-99m-labelled dimercaptosuccinic acid (99mTc-DMSA) is a scintigraphic agent that can be used to assess acute pyelonephritis, renal cortical scarring, and the identification of a malpositioned kidney. However, no imaging is required for a typical, non-recurrent UTI in a child aged ≥3 years. Atypical UTI features include being seriously ill, having poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to treatment with suitable antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 64 - A 60-year-old African American male presents with widespread bone pain and muscle weakness....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old African American male presents with widespread bone pain and muscle weakness. Upon investigation, the following results were obtained:
      Calcium 2.05 mmol/l
      Phosphate 0.68 mmol/l
      ALP 340 U/l
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget's disease

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia may be indicated by bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy (resulting in a waddling gait), as well as low levels of calcium and phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphatase.

      Understanding Osteomalacia

      Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.

      The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.

      The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 65 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents to the clinic with advanced cirrhosis and ascites. A recent ascitic tap revealed a protein concentration of 12 g/L and no evidence of organisms. What is the best course of action to manage the risk of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

      Your Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      To prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, it is recommended to administer oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin as prophylaxis to patients with ascites and protein concentration of 15 g/L or less.

      Understanding Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a type of peritonitis that typically affects individuals with ascites caused by liver cirrhosis. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and ascites. Diagnosis is usually made through paracentesis, which involves analyzing the ascitic fluid for a neutrophil count of over 250 cells/ul. The most common organism found on ascitic fluid culture is E. coli.

      Management of SBP typically involves the administration of intravenous cefotaxime. Antibiotic prophylaxis is also recommended for patients with ascites who have previously experienced an episode of SBP or have a fluid protein level of less than 15 g/l and a Child-Pugh score of at least 9 or hepatorenal syndrome. NICE recommends prophylactic oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin until the ascites has resolved.

      Alcoholic liver disease is a significant predictor of poor prognosis in SBP. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and management of SBP is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      669
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  • Question 66 - A 61-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hypertrophy experiences urinary retention and an acute kidney injury. Which medication should be discontinued?

      Your Answer: Paroxetine

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Due to the risk of lactic acidosis, metformin should be discontinued as the patient has developed an acute kidney injury. Additionally, in the future, it may be necessary to discontinue paroxetine as SSRIs can exacerbate urinary retention.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.

      While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.

      There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.

      When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 67 - A 9-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father who...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father who is worried about a non-blanching petechial rash on her arms and legs. The child had a cold recently but currently has normal observations and seems to be in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)

      Correct Answer: Immune thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)

      Explanation:

      ITP is a possible diagnosis for a child who presents with petechiae and no fever, while HUS and meningitis are unlikely. HSP may also be considered, but the child in the question has not experienced other symptoms of HSP. Non-accidental injury should also be considered as a differential for any petechial rash. However, ITP is more likely as it is often preceded by a viral illness and presents with isolated thrombocytopenia, causing the classic petechial rash. Blood results are needed to confirm the diagnosis.

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children

      Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.

      The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.

      In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      60
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  • Question 68 - A 65-year-old man who works as a pipe lagger is referred to you...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man who works as a pipe lagger is referred to you with a 6-month history of increasing shortness of breath and weight loss. He is a lifelong non-smoker and has always led a fit, healthy life. Clinical examination indicates a left pleural effusion, which is confirmed on the chest radiograph. Which of the following malignant causes is most likely? Select the SINGLE malignant cause from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Mesothelioma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mesothelioma and Other Possible Malignancies

      Mesothelioma is a rare and aggressive form of cancer that is often linked to asbestos exposure. Those who worked as pipe laggers in the past were frequently exposed to asbestos, which can lead to mesothelioma. Symptoms of mesothelioma include cough, shortness of breath, chest pain, and weight loss. While the prognosis for mesothelioma remains poor, some cases can be surgically resected and chemotherapy can provide palliative care.

      However, other malignancies can also present with similar symptoms, such as non-small-cell cancer, small-cell lung cancer, squamous-cell lung cancer, and bronchial carcinoid tumors. It is important to exclude these possibilities and properly diagnose the specific type of cancer in order to provide the most effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 69 - A 67-year-old man presents for a review of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents for a review of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He reports experiencing constant shortness of breath during physical activity, which has remained stable over the past year. He has a history of asbestos exposure and is currently under the care of a respiratory physician. During the examination, no abnormalities are detected, but a chest X-ray reveals the presence of pleural plaques. The patient expresses concern that these plaques may develop into cancer. What advice do you offer this patient regarding his test results?

      Your Answer: Premalignant and require yearly monitoring

      Correct Answer: Benign and do not require follow-up

      Explanation:

      Pleural plaques are benign and do not develop into cancerous growths, so there is no need for any follow-up. These plaques are the most common form of lung disease caused by asbestos exposure, but they do not increase the risk of lung cancer or mesothelioma. While ongoing monitoring of the patient’s lung disease is recommended, there is no need to specifically monitor the pleural plaques. It is important to note that pleural plaques are a sign of past asbestos exposure, which could increase the risk of mesothelioma, but the plaques themselves are not a cause for concern. Therefore, the patient does not require a specialist referral for the pleural plaques alone. However, if the patient experiences worsening shortness of breath or frequent exacerbations, a specialist referral may be necessary to assess for disease progression or malignancy.

      Asbestos-Related Lung Diseases

      Asbestos exposure can lead to various lung diseases, ranging from benign pleural plaques to malignant mesothelioma. Pleural plaques are non-cancerous and do not require any follow-up, but they are the most common form of asbestos-related lung disease and typically appear after a latent period of 20-40 years. Asbestos exposure may also cause diffuse pleural thickening, which is similar to the pattern seen after an empyema or haemothorax, but the underlying pathophysiology is not fully understood.

      Asbestosis is a lung disease that is related to the length of exposure to asbestos. It causes lower lobe fibrosis and is typically characterized by dyspnea, reduced exercise tolerance, clubbing, bilateral end-inspiratory crackles, and a restrictive pattern with reduced gas transfer on lung function tests. Asbestosis is treated conservatively, as no interventions offer significant benefits. The latent period for asbestosis is typically 15-30 years.

      Mesothelioma is a malignant disease of the pleura that is caused by asbestos exposure, with crocidolite (blue) asbestos being the most dangerous form. Possible features of mesothelioma include progressive shortness-of-breath, chest pain, and pleural effusion. Patients are usually offered palliative chemotherapy, and there is a limited role for surgery and radiotherapy. Unfortunately, the prognosis for mesothelioma is very poor, with a median survival from diagnosis of 8-14 months.

      Although mesothelioma is often associated with asbestos exposure, lung cancer is actually the most common form of cancer related to asbestos exposure. It has a synergistic effect with cigarette smoke, which increases the risk of developing lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 70 - A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of vomiting. She is unable to take any fluids orally and complains of feeling dizzy and lethargic. There is no past medical history of note and she takes no regular medications. She is 12 weeks pregnant.

      On examination, she has a temperature of 36.5ºC with a heart rate of 110 beats/min and a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. She has dry mucous membranes. Her abdomen is soft and nontender.

      What is the most appropriate initial anti-emetic for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ondansetron

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine

      Explanation:

      Antihistamines, specifically cyclizine, are the recommended first-line treatment for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, including hyperemesis gravidarum. Dexamethasone is not typically used for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it is more commonly used for post-operative and chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Domperidone is not commonly used for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it is primarily used to treat nausea in patients with Parkinson’s disease. Metoclopramide is a second-line treatment option for hyperemesis gravidarum, but is not the first-line choice.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 71 - A 28-year-old woman who is 16 weeks' pregnant complains of frequent urination. Urinalysis...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 16 weeks' pregnant complains of frequent urination. Urinalysis confirms the presence of nitrites and leukocytes.
      What is the most appropriate antibiotic to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      Management of Urinary Tract Infections in Pregnancy: Antibiotic Options and Guidelines

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common during pregnancy and require prompt treatment to prevent complications. The current UK antimicrobial guidelines recommend nitrofurantoin as the first-line treatment for UTIs in pregnancy, with amoxicillin as an alternative if the microorganism is susceptible to it. Trimethoprim should be avoided due to its teratogenicity risk, while ciprofloxacin is only used for specific cases. Vancomycin is reserved for severe cases of Clostridium difficile infection. Symptomatic relief with paracetamol can also be offered. Urine cultures should be sent before starting empirical antibiotic treatment and as a test of cure after treatment completion. Follow-up is necessary to check treatment response and culture results. This article provides a comprehensive overview of the antibiotic options and guidelines for managing UTIs in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 72 - A 35-year-old woman with a 4-month-old baby expresses concern that her friend's baby...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a 4-month-old baby expresses concern that her friend's baby had a hip ultrasound but her own child has not. You inform her that hip ultrasounds are only offered to babies with certain risk factors for hip dysplasia.

      What is one of the risk factors for hip dysplasia?

      Your Answer: Breech presentation

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is more likely to occur in newborns who were in a breech presentation during pregnancy, as well as those with a family history of hip problems in early life. To screen for DDH, ultrasound is performed at 6 weeks of age for infants with these risk factors. Additionally, infants who test positive for the Barlow or Ortolani test are also sent for a hip ultrasound to check for DDH.

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      13.5
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  • Question 73 - A 24-year-old teacher attends her first cervical smear appointment. She has never been...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old teacher attends her first cervical smear appointment. She has never been pregnant before, but she had pelvic inflammatory disease that was treated 3 years ago. Currently, she has an intrauterine device in place. She has no other significant medical or social history. During the appointment, she asks what the test is for.
      How would you explain it to her?

      Your Answer: The sample will be tested for cervical cancer cells

      Correct Answer: The sample is tested for high-risk HPV first

      Explanation:

      The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a common sexually transmitted infection that can lead to cervical cancer. There are over 100 types of HPV, with types 16 and 18 being high-risk types that are responsible for the majority of cervical cancers. Types 6 and 11 are low-risk types that typically cause benign genital warts. Although not part of the screening process, the Gardasil vaccine can protect against both HPV types 6 and 11.

      Contrary to popular belief, not all samples undergo both HPV testing and cytology. Only samples that test positive for high-risk HPV undergo cytology testing. Samples that test negative for high-risk HPV do not require further testing.

      In the past, samples were first examined under a microscope (cytology) before HPV testing. However, research has shown that testing for high-risk HPV first is more effective. If a woman tests positive for HPV, she will receive a single letter informing her of her HPV status and whether any abnormal cells were detected.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 74 - A 12-year-old girl has excessive bleeding after an adenotonsillectomy for recurrent tonsillitis. Physical...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl has excessive bleeding after an adenotonsillectomy for recurrent tonsillitis. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. The girl's grandmother died of a postoperative bleeding complication at a young age.
      Which of the following is the most important investigation to establish a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Factor VIII assay

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Haemophilia: Factor VIII Assay, Prothrombin Time/INR, Platelet Count, Bone Marrow Examination, and Blood Film

      Haemophilia is an X-linked bleeding disorder caused by deficiency of clotting factor VIII (haemophilia A) or factor IX (haemophilia B). Patients may present with bruising, inadequate clotting with mild injury, or spontaneous haemorrhage. To diagnose haemophilia A, a factor VIII assay is necessary. Other diagnostic tests include prothrombin time/INR, platelet count, bone marrow examination, and blood film. The prothrombin time and platelet count are normal in haemophilia, while bone marrow sampling carries a risk of significant bleeding. A blood film is not useful in the diagnosis as red blood cells and platelet count are normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      11.2
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  • Question 75 - A 62-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department complaining of central chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department complaining of central chest pain that has been radiating to her left arm for the past 30 minutes. Upon examination, an ECG reveals ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is the most probable culprit?

      Your Answer: Left anterior descending

      Correct Answer: Right coronary

      Explanation:

      Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery.
      Inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected.
      Anterolateral changes in V1-6, I, and aVL indicate the proximal left anterior descending artery is involved.
      Lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected.
      Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9). This type of infarction is usually caused by the left circumflex artery, but can also be caused by the right coronary artery.
      Reciprocal changes of STEMI are typically seen as horizontal ST depression, tall and broad R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may indicate acute coronary syndrome.

      Overall, understanding the correlation between ECG changes and coronary artery territories is crucial in diagnosing acute coronary syndrome. By identifying the specific changes in the ECG, medical professionals can determine which artery is affected and provide appropriate treatment. Additionally, recognizing the reciprocal changes of STEMI and the significance of a new LBBB can aid in making an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      18
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  • Question 76 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain that radiates to his left arm, accompanied by nausea and sweating. His ECG reveals widespread ST depression with T wave inversion, and his blood tests show a haemoglobin level of 75g/L. What is the appropriate treatment for his anaemia?

      Your Answer: Transfusion of packed red cells

      Explanation:

      For patients with ACS, the recommended transfusion threshold is a haemoglobin level of 80 g/L. In this case, the patient is presenting with symptoms of ACS and his ECG confirms this. However, his haemoglobin level is below the threshold, indicating severe anaemia. Therefore, an immediate transfusion is necessary to alleviate the anaemia. Anaemia can exacerbate ischaemia in ACS, leading to increased strain on the heart and reduced oxygen supply. The guidelines suggest aiming for a haemoglobin concentration of 80-100 g/L after transfusion. Oral or IV iron would not provide immediate relief, and IV Hartmann’s solution is not a suitable treatment for anaemia and would not address the underlying issue. This highlights the importance of prompt and appropriate treatment for patients with ACS. This information is based on the NICE guideline [NG24].

      Guidelines for Red Blood Cell Transfusion

      In 2015, NICE released guidelines for the use of blood products, specifically red blood cells. These guidelines recommend different transfusion thresholds for patients with and without acute coronary syndrome (ACS). For patients without ACS, the transfusion threshold is 70 g/L, while for those with ACS, it is 80 g/L. The target hemoglobin level after transfusion is 70-90 g/L for patients without ACS and 80-100 g/L for those with ACS. It is important to note that these thresholds should not be used for patients with ongoing major hemorrhage or those who require regular blood transfusions for chronic anemia.

      When administering red blood cells, it is crucial to store them at 4°C prior to infusion. In non-urgent scenarios, a unit of RBC is typically transfused over a period of 90-120 minutes. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that red blood cell transfusions are administered safely and effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 77 - A 50-year-old woman is undergoing evaluation for hypertension that is not responding to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is undergoing evaluation for hypertension that is not responding to treatment. She has a medical history of medullary thyroid carcinoma. Her physical examination is unremarkable. During her work-up, she is found to have hypercalcemia with a level of 2.8 mmol/l. Her parathyroid hormone (PTH) is slightly elevated above the normal range. What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1

      Correct Answer: Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Hypercalcaemia with Elevated PTH Levels

      Hypercalcaemia with elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels can be indicative of several conditions. Here are some possible differential diagnoses:

      Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2A (MEN 2A)
      MEN 2A is caused by a gain in function mutation in the RET proto-oncogene. The classic triad of MEN 2A is medullary thyroid carcinoma, primary hyperparathyroidism, and phaeochromocytoma. Patients with MEN 2A may also have treatment-resistant hypertension.

      Marfan Syndrome
      Marfan syndrome is a hereditary disorder of connective tissue. Patients with Marfan syndrome are typically tall and thin with hyperlax joints, recurrent dislocation of the lens of the eye, and cardiovascular anomalies (particularly aortic regurgitation). However, dysfunction of the parathyroid hormone axis is not usually associated with this condition.

      Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 1 (MEN 1)
      MEN 1 also occurs due to a mutation in the RET gene. However, patients with MEN 1 classically suffer from hyperparathyroidism, pituitary adenomas (typically prolactinomas), and pancreatic islet cell tumors, and not the features described in the case.

      Multiple Myeloma
      Multiple myeloma is also associated with hypercalcaemia, but PTH levels would be appropriately low.

      Neurofibromatosis
      Neurofibromatosis is a disorder caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17. It is associated with multiple neural tumors together with a variety of skin, musculoskeletal, and ocular manifestations, but disruption of the parathyroid hormone axis is not a feature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 78 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She speaks very little English and is 20 weeks' pregnant in her first pregnancy. No medical history of note can be obtained.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 101 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Haematocrit 38% 40–54%
      Red blood cell count (RBC) 5.24 × 1012/l 4.0–5.0 × 1012/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 63 fl 80–100 fl
      Mean corpuscular Hb (McHb) 20 pg 27–32 pg
      Mean corpuscular Hb concentration 32 g/dl 32–36 g/dl
      White cell count (WCC) 6.9 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 241 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Foetal Hb (HbF) 0.6% < 1%
      Haemoglobin A2 (HbA2) 4.5% 1.5–3.5%
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her anaemia?

      Your Answer: Sickle-cell anaemia

      Correct Answer: β-Thalassaemia trait

      Explanation:

      Understanding β-Thalassaemia Trait: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Implications for Pregnancy

      β-Thalassaemia trait is a genetic condition that can cause microcytic/hypochromic anaemia with a raised RBC and normal MCHC. This condition is often asymptomatic and can be diagnosed through a blood test that shows raised HbA2 levels. It is important to distinguish β-thalassaemia trait from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms, such as folic acid deficiency, sickle-cell anaemia, α-thalassaemia trait, and iron deficiency.

      If both parents have β-thalassaemia trait, there is a 25% chance of producing a child with β-thalassaemia major, a more severe form of the condition that can cause serious health problems. Therefore, it is important to screen both partners for β-thalassaemia trait before planning a pregnancy.

      In summary, understanding β-thalassaemia trait and its implications for pregnancy can help individuals make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 79 - A 55-year-old man is hospitalized for a chest infection and undergoes a standard...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is hospitalized for a chest infection and undergoes a standard blood test in the emergency room. The results show his HbA1c level as follows:
      HbA1c 48 mmol/mol (27-48 mmol/mol)
      What medical condition could cause this reading to inaccurately reflect his blood sugar levels?

      Your Answer: Sickle-cell anaemia

      Correct Answer: Splenectomy

      Explanation:

      If a person has undergone a splenectomy, their HbA1c level may be falsely elevated due to the longer lifespan of their red blood cells. HbA1c testing is commonly used to determine diabetes, as it provides an average blood glucose level over a three-month period, which is the lifespan of a typical red blood cell. A higher HbA1c reading can be caused by either a higher average blood glucose concentration or a longer red cell lifespan. Therefore, only a splenectomy would result in an overestimation of blood sugar levels, as it increases the lifespan of red blood cells, while all other conditions would decrease their lifespan and lower the HbA1c reading.

      Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus

      Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in the blood at a rate proportional to the glucose concentration. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.

      HbA1c is believed to reflect the blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous 3 months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose. The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached.

      Understanding HbA1c is crucial in managing diabetes mellitus and achieving optimal blood sugar control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 80 - A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a two-week...

    Correct

    • A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a two-week history of vomiting after every feed and then appearing very hungry afterwards. His weight has remained at 4 kg for the past two weeks, and for the past two days, the vomiting has become projectile. His birthweight was 3.6 kg. He is exclusively breastfed. A small mass can be palpated in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of vomiting and poor weight gain in infants

      Vomiting and poor weight gain are common symptoms in infants, but they can be caused by different conditions that require specific management. One possible cause is pyloric stenosis, which results from an enlarged muscle at the outlet of the stomach, leading to projectile vomiting, dehydration, and failure to thrive. Another possible cause is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which may also involve vomiting, but not projectile, and may respond to conservative measures such as frequent feeds and upright positioning, or medication such as Gaviscon® or proton pump inhibitors. Cow’s milk protein allergy is another potential cause, which may present with a range of symptoms, including vomiting, but not projectile, and may require an exclusion diet for the mother if breastfeeding. Gastroenteritis is a common cause of vomiting and diarrhoea in infants, but it usually resolves within a few days and does not cause an abdominal mass. Finally, volvulus is a rare but serious condition that involves a twisted bowel, leading to acute obstruction and ischaemia, which requires urgent surgical intervention. Therefore, a careful history, examination, and investigations, such as ultrasound or blood tests, may help to differentiate these conditions and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 81 - A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema. He...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema. He reports that she has developed itchy blisters all over her body, including her face, torso, arms, and legs. Additionally, she is not behaving normally, eating and drinking less than usual, and not engaging with her favorite toys. She also has a fever of 39ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to hospital

      Explanation:

      Immediate hospitalization and administration of IV antivirals are necessary for the treatment of eczema herpeticum, a severe condition. The child in question is exhibiting symptoms such as painful blisters, fever, and swollen lymph nodes, which require urgent medical attention. Any delay in seeking medical help could worsen the condition. Therefore, all other options are incorrect and should be avoided.

      Understanding Eczema Herpeticum

      Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children with atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The infection can be life-threatening, which is why it is important to seek medical attention immediately.

      During examination, doctors typically observe monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions that are usually 1-3 mm in diameter. Due to the severity of the infection, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir treatment. It is important to understand the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly to prevent any complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 82 - The mother of a 3-month-old boy presents to the clinic with concerns about...

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 3-month-old boy presents to the clinic with concerns about a soft lump in his right groin area. The baby has been breastfeeding well and having regular bowel movements. There is no significant medical history. Upon examination, a 1 cm swelling is noted in the right inguinal region, which is reducible and disappears when the baby is laid flat. Scrotal examination reveals no abnormalities. What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Reassure mother + ask her to return if not resolved by 12 months

      Correct Answer: Refer to paediatric surgery

      Explanation:

      Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 83 - A 15-year-old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of a maculopapular rash...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of a maculopapular rash that has been present for 1 day. She had visited her family doctor 2 days ago with symptoms of a cold and a sore throat and was given a course of oral antibiotics. Upon examination, she has a mild fever of 37.8ºC and a widespread maculopapular rash on her face and torso. Her tonsils are enlarged and erythematous, and she has palpable tender posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to identify the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Monospot test

      Explanation:

      The patient in question is likely suffering from glandular fever, a viral illness caused by the Ebstein-Barr virus. Symptoms include a sore throat, fever, and general malaise, as well as palpable cervical lymphadenopathy and an erythematous throat. The illness is more common in teenagers and is often spread through respiratory droplets, earning it the nickname kissing disease. The patient was prescribed amoxicillin by their GP, which can cause a non-specific maculopapular rash in patients with glandular fever. The diagnosis is typically confirmed through a Monospot blood test, which detects the presence of heterophil antibodies produced in response to the virus.

      An anti-streptolysin O titre test can detect streptococcal infections, but it does not explain the patient’s rash following antibiotic use. A full blood count can be helpful in diagnosing glandular fever, as it often shows a lymphocytosis, but the Monospot test is more definitive. A nasopharyngeal aspirate for viral PCR can diagnose viral infections like measles, but this is less likely in a teenager in the UK due to vaccination. A sputum culture is not useful in diagnosing glandular fever, as the patient does not have a cough or sputum production.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 84 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He is...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He is worried that his daughter has been refusing to eat for 3 days and has been more irritable than usual. When asked, the girl points to her neck and complains of soreness. She has no significant medical history and is up to date with her vaccinations.

      During the examination, the girl has a temperature of 38.7ºC. Her tonsils are enlarged and inflamed, and her throat is red. There are palpable lymph nodes in the anterior cervical chain that are tender to the touch. The rest of her examination is normal, and Kernig's sign is negative.

      What is the most appropriate treatment to prescribe for this 6-year-old girl?

      Your Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic treatment should be given to individuals who are likely to have Streptococcus species isolated. However, Amoxicillin is not the most appropriate antibiotic for tonsillitis. Chlorhexidine mouthwash is not indicated for the treatment of tonsillitis. Dexamethasone is primarily used for the management of croup, which is characterized by a barking cough and is more common in the winter months.

      Sore throat is a term used to describe various conditions such as pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, throat swabs and rapid antigen tests should not be routinely carried out for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be managed with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not typically necessary. However, in cases where there is marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when three or more Centor criteria are present, antibiotics may be indicated. The Centor and FeverPAIN scoring systems can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin (for penicillin-allergic patients) can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. It is worth noting that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, although this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      20.3
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  • Question 85 - A 27-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about his increased risk of...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about his increased risk of breast cancer due to his sister's recent diagnosis at the age of 30 years with a BRCA2 mutation. He is considering getting tested for the mutation. If he were to test positive for BRCA2, what other type of cancer would he be at a higher risk for?

      Your Answer: Prostate

      Explanation:

      Men with BRCA2 mutation are at a higher risk of developing prostate cancer, while both men and women with this mutation have a significantly increased risk of developing breast cancer. Additionally, women with BRCA2 mutation are more likely to develop ovarian cancer. Although young-onset colorectal cancer is linked to BRCA1 mutation, there is no such association observed in individuals with BRCA2 mutation.

      Li-Fraumeni Syndrome is caused by mutations in the p53 gene and increases the risk of developing sarcomas and leukemias. BRCA 1 and 2 mutations increase the risk of breast and ovarian cancer, and BRCA 2 is also associated with prostate cancer in men. Lynch Syndrome increases the risk of colon and endometrial cancer, and can be identified using the Amsterdam criteria. Gardner’s Syndrome is a familial colorectal polyposis that can lead to colectomy to reduce the risk of colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      12.3
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  • Question 86 - A 32-year-old woman with a past medical history of kidney stones awaiting elective...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with a past medical history of kidney stones awaiting elective lithotripsy attends the general practice surgery complaining of fever, fatigue and acute abdominal pain. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.5 °C, a heart rate 118 bpm, yellow sclera and her abdomen is soft but tender on palpation of the right upper quadrant.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Acute cholangitis is a serious infection of the biliary tract that can lead to significant health complications. Symptoms typically include fever, abdominal pain (specifically in the upper right quadrant), and jaundice, which is known as Charcot’s triad. This patient is displaying all of these symptoms and has a history of gallstones, making acute cholangitis the most likely diagnosis. Treatment for acute cholangitis depends on the severity of the infection, as determined by the TG13 guideline. Patients will require intravenous fluids and antibiotics, and may need biliary drainage or intensive care support if the disease is severe. Influenza, acute cholecystitis, acute viral hepatitis, and biliary colic are all potential differential diagnoses, but do not match this patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      78.1
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  • Question 87 - The mother of a 8-year-old boy contacts the out-of-hours General Practitioner due to...

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 8-year-old boy contacts the out-of-hours General Practitioner due to her concern about an itchy rash that has appeared on her child's body within the last hour. The boy had been diagnosed with bacterial tonsilitis earlier in the day. During examination, the doctor observes multiple raised red lesions on the boy's face and trunk with a central pallor. The boy does not have any breathing difficulties, lip or tongue swelling. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythema multiforme (EM)

      Correct Answer: Acute urticaria

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Reactions: Causes and Characteristics

      Acute urticaria: This is a superficial swelling of the skin that results in a raised, red, itchy rash. Wheals are also often observed. It can appear anywhere on the body and develop quickly, usually following exposure to an allergen. Common triggers include viral infections, insect bites and stings, certain foods, and medications.

      Erythema multiforme (EM): This is a hypersensitivity reaction that is usually triggered by a viral infection, with herpes simplex being the most common agent. The skin eruption associated with EM is typical of multiple ‘target lesions’ that comprise three concentric color zones and a dark/dusky center.

      Acute angioedema: This is a skin reaction similar to urticaria, but it affects the deeper layers of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. The mucous membranes are often affected, with the eyes or lips being the most common sites of swelling. Allergy is the most common cause of angioedema.

      Erythema migrans: This is the most common skin manifestation of Lyme disease, which is a borrelia infection caused by infected ticks. Typically, the rash appears 7–14 days after the tick bite as a red papule or macule at the bite site. This then increases in size and is often described as a ‘bullseye’ lesion.

      Stevens–Johnson syndrome: This is a rare, acute, severe, and potentially fatal skin reaction. It is the result of an unpredictable reaction to various medications, with antibiotics being the most common trigger. A flu-like prodromal illness is typically followed by the abrupt onset of a red rash. This rash spreads quickly all over the body and affects the mucous membranes before sheet-like skin and mucosal loss develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 88 - A 75 year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a 1.5cm ulcerated lesion...

    Correct

    • A 75 year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a 1.5cm ulcerated lesion on her left labium majus. She has been experiencing vulval itching and soreness for the past three years, despite using topical steroid treatment. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vulval carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vulval Carcinoma

      Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and around 80% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.

      There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papilloma virus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.

      It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of vulval carcinoma, and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and increase the chances of a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      49.9
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  • Question 89 - Legionnaires' disease has several statements associated with it, but which one is true?...

    Incorrect

    • Legionnaires' disease has several statements associated with it, but which one is true?

      Your Answer: The urinary antigen test for Legionella species has low sensitivity and is not particularly specific

      Correct Answer: Hyponatremia occurs significantly more often in Legionnaires’ disease than in other pneumonias

      Explanation:

      Understanding Legionnaires’ Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Legionnaires’ disease is a type of pneumonia that is caused by the Legionella bacteria. This disease is often overlooked as a possible cause of community-acquired pneumonia, but it is consistently ranked among the top three or four most common causes. The bacteria are found in water sources, and most patients contract the disease through aspiration.

      One of the key symptoms of Legionnaires’ disease is hyponatremia, which is a low level of sodium in the blood. This symptom is more commonly associated with Legionnaires’ disease than with other types of pneumonia. The disease is also more likely to occur in patients who are immunocompromised, as cell-mediated immunity appears to be the primary host defense mechanism against Legionella infection.

      The urinary antigen test is the preferred initial test for Legionnaires’ disease, but it has low sensitivity and is not particularly specific. The test detects only L. pneumophila serogroup 1, which causes most cases of the disease. Specific therapy includes antibiotics that can achieve high intracellular concentrations, such as macrolides, quinolones, or ketolides.

      Predisposing factors for Legionnaires’ disease include age over 50, cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol intake, chronic lung disease, and immunosuppression. High fever and gastrointestinal symptoms are clinical clues to this disease. It is important for healthcare providers to consider Legionnaires’ disease as a possible cause of pneumonia, especially in patients with these risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 90 - A 57-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a sudden onset of vision loss in her left eye. She reports no pain associated with the loss of vision. The patient explains that the loss of vision began as a dense shadow that started at the edges of her vision and moved towards the centre. She has a history of myopia and wears corrective glasses but has no other significant medical history. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      The sudden painless loss of vision described in the history is most likely caused by retinal detachment. The classic symptom of a dense shadow starting from the periphery and progressing towards the center, along with the patient’s history of myopia, are highly suggestive of this condition. Urgent corrective surgery is necessary to address this issue.

      Central retinal artery occlusion is less likely to be the diagnosis as there are no risk factors mentioned for thromboembolism or arteritis. Similarly, central retinal vein occlusion is a possibility but given the lack of risk factors and the patient’s history, retinal detachment is still the more likely cause.

      It is important to note that vitreous detachment is not a direct cause of vision loss, although it may precede retinal detachment. Its symptoms typically involve floaters or flashes of light that do not usually interfere with daily activities.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arteritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arteritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      112.3
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  • Question 91 - A 35-year-old woman in her third trimester of pregnancy reports an itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman in her third trimester of pregnancy reports an itchy rash around her belly button during an antenatal check-up. She had no such issues during her previous pregnancy. Upon examination, blistering lesions are observed in the peri-umbilical area and on her arms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Pemphigoid gestationis

      Explanation:

      Blistering is not a characteristic of polymorphic eruption of pregnancy.

      Skin Disorders Associated with Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, women may experience various skin disorders. The most common one is atopic eruption of pregnancy, which is characterized by an itchy red rash. This condition does not require any specific treatment. Another skin disorder is polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, which is a pruritic condition that usually appears during the last trimester. The lesions often first appear in abdominal striae, and management depends on the severity of the condition. Emollients, mild potency topical steroids, and oral steroids may be used. Pemphigoid gestationis is another skin disorder that causes pruritic blistering lesions. It usually develops in the peri-umbilical region and later spreads to the trunk, back, buttocks, and arms. This condition is rarely seen in the first pregnancy and usually presents in the second or third trimester. Oral corticosteroids are usually required for treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      475.2
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  • Question 92 - A 26 year-old woman, who is 36 weeks pregnant, presents to her GP...

    Correct

    • A 26 year-old woman, who is 36 weeks pregnant, presents to her GP with a blood pressure reading of 170/110 mmHg. She is feeling well otherwise and is currently taking 250 mg labetalol. Urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. Fetal monitoring is normal. Her blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 135 g/l, platelet count of 280 * 109/l, white blood cell count of 6.0 * 109/l, sodium level of 142 mmol/l, potassium level of 4.0 mmol/l, urea level of 2.8 mmol/l, and creatinine level of 24 µmol/l. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Admit the patient to hospital as an emergency

      Explanation:

      Despite the absence of symptoms, the patient’s blood pressure remains elevated at a level exceeding 160/100 mmHg, and there is also significant proteinuria, despite receiving labetalol treatment. As a result, emergency admission is necessary to monitor and manage the hypertension in a controlled setting. If there is no improvement, delivery may be considered as an option.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      47.6
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  • Question 93 - A 21-year-old woman presents with a rash on her trunk that developed a...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with a rash on her trunk that developed a few weeks after a sore throat. On examination, small, drop-shaped, salmon-pink plaques are observed. What is the most probable cause of this rash?

      Your Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Skin Conditions: Guttate Psoriasis, Dermatitis, Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease, Pityriasis Rosea, and Pustular Psoriasis

      Skin conditions can be uncomfortable and sometimes even painful. Here are some common skin conditions and their characteristics:

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes small, drop-shaped plaques on the chest, arms, legs, and scalp. It is usually caused by a streptococcal infection and can last for up to three months. Topical agents, such as steroids or calcipotriol, can be used to treat it.

      Dermatitis, also known as eczema, results in rough patches of skin that are dry and itchy, particularly with exposure to irritants. In children and adults with long-standing disease, eczema is often localised to the flexure of the limbs.

      Hand, foot and mouth disease (HFMD) is an acute viral illness characterised by vesicular eruptions in the mouth and papulovesicular lesions of the distal limbs. It should not be confused with foot and mouth disease of animals, which is caused by a different virus.

      Pityriasis rosea is a skin rash that is characterised by distinctive, scaly, erythematous lesions. It is thought to be a reaction to exposure to infection.

      Pustular psoriasis is a rarer type of psoriasis that causes pus-filled blisters (pustules) to appear on your skin. Different types of pustular psoriasis affect different parts of the body.

      It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of any skin condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 94 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of wrist pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of wrist pain and reduced grip strength for the past 3 weeks. She denies any history of trauma. During the examination, the patient experiences tenderness over the radial styloid and painful resisted abduction of the thumb.
      Which of the following examination findings would most strongly suggest a diagnosis of de Quervain's tenosynovitis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Positive Tinel’s sign

      Correct Answer: Positive Finkelstein’s test

      Explanation:

      Common Orthopedic Tests and Their Relevance to De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that affects the first extensor compartment of the wrist, causing inflammation of the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons. Several orthopedic tests can help diagnose this condition, including Finkelstein’s test, Tinel’s sign, Froment’s sign, and Phalen’s test. However, the squeeze test is not relevant to the diagnosis of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis.

      Finkelstein’s test involves flexing the thumb across the palm of the hand and moving the wrist into flexion and ulnar deviation. This action stresses the affected tendons and reproduces pain in a positive test. Tinel’s sign is used to diagnose compressive neuropathy, such as carpal tunnel syndrome, by tapping the site of the nerve and causing paraesthesia in the distribution of the nerve in a positive test. Froment’s sign tests for ulnar nerve palsy by assessing the action of the adductor pollicis, while Phalen’s test diagnoses carpal tunnel syndrome by flexing both wrists fully and pushing the dorsal surfaces of both hands together for 60 seconds.

      Understanding the relevance of these orthopedic tests can aid in the diagnosis of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis and other related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 95 - A 45-year-old woman develops significantly increasing pain in her leg one day postoperatively...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman develops significantly increasing pain in her leg one day postoperatively following surgery for a tibial shaft fracture. The plaster cast is removed and examination reveals tender swelling of her lower leg. All distal pulses are present and the foot and leg are warm. Pain is significantly worse with passive extension of the toes.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute compartment syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Swollen Calf: Understanding Acute Compartment Syndrome and Other Potential Causes

      A swollen calf can be a concerning symptom, especially following trauma or surgery on the lower limb. One potential cause is acute compartment syndrome, which is a surgical emergency that can lead to limb-threatening complications. This condition occurs when pressure within a closed fascial compartment increases and compromises the neurovascular supply to the muscles within that compartment. Other potential causes of a swollen calf include a ruptured Baker’s cyst, acute limb ischaemia, cellulitis, and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Understanding the clinical features and differential diagnosis of these conditions is crucial for prompt and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      7.9
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  • Question 96 - A mother is referred to a paediatric gynaecologist with her 12-year-old daughter. Her...

    Correct

    • A mother is referred to a paediatric gynaecologist with her 12-year-old daughter. Her daughter is extremely short for her age, is deaf in both ears and has shown no signs of pubertal development. On examination, the clinician notes neck webbing, a high arched palate and low-set ears. He suspects that the child may have Turner syndrome.
      Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities best describes Turner syndrome?

      Your Answer: 45,XO

      Explanation:

      Understanding Turner Syndrome: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Turner Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females and is caused by the absence of an entire sex chromosome or a partial deletion of the X chromosome. The normal female karyotype is 46XX, but in Turner Syndrome, it is 45X or 46XdelXp. This condition affects 1 in 2500 female births and is associated with various clinical features such as dwarfism, sexual infantilism, neck webbing, and streak gonads. Other associated stigmata include shield chest, high arched palate, low-set ears, lymphoedema, deafness, coarctation of the aorta, and pigmented moles.

      Mosaicism is common in Turner Syndrome, which means that the severity of the condition can vary from person to person. Girls with Turner Syndrome are infertile and require hormone replacement therapy until menopause. Treatment aims to achieve normal pubertal progression through estradiol replacement therapy.

      In conclusion, understanding Turner Syndrome is crucial for early diagnosis and management of the condition. With proper treatment and support, individuals with Turner Syndrome can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 97 - As a foundation year two doctor in the emergency department, you are tasked...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation year two doctor in the emergency department, you are tasked to assess a twenty-six-year-old man who fell on his right ankle while intoxicated last night. According to the patient, he was able to bear weight after the incident and continued his night out. However, he woke up the next day with ankle swelling and pain. Upon examination, you observed minimal swelling and bruising, but there is general tenderness and good mobility. What imaging modality would you recommend for this case?

      Your Answer: X-ray ankle in department

      Correct Answer: No imaging

      Explanation:

      The Ottowa ankle rules specify that imaging is necessary after trauma if there is point tenderness over the distal 6 cm of the lateral or medial malleolus, or an inability to bear weight by at least four steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department. X-ray is the recommended first-line imaging. As this patient does not exhibit any of these indications, an x-ray is not needed.

      Ottawa Rules for Ankle Injuries

      The Ottawa Rules provide a guideline for determining whether an ankle x-ray is necessary after an injury. These rules have a sensitivity approaching 100%, meaning they are highly accurate. An ankle x-ray is only required if there is pain in the malleolar zone and one of the following findings: bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone or medial malleolar zone, or inability to walk four weight-bearing steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department.

      The lateral malleolar zone is from the tip of the lateral malleolus to include the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the fibular, while the medial malleolar zone is from the tip of the medial malleolus to the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the tibia. These rules help healthcare professionals determine whether an ankle x-ray is necessary, which can save time and resources. It is important to note that there are also Ottawa rules available for foot and knee injuries. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide efficient and effective care for ankle injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 98 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to surgery by her father. For the past...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to surgery by her father. For the past 3 months she has been complaining of pain in her shins and ankles at night-time. Her symptoms are bilateral and she is otherwise healthy. There is no significant family history. Upon clinical examination, no abnormalities are found. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Growing pains

      Explanation:

      Understanding Growing Pains in Children

      Growing pains are a common complaint among children aged 3-12 years. These pains are often attributed to ‘benign idiopathic nocturnal limb pains of childhood’ in rheumatology, as they are not necessarily related to growth. Boys and girls are equally affected by growing pains, which are characterized by intermittent pain in the legs with no obvious cause.

      One of the key features of growing pains is that they are never present at the start of the day after the child has woken up. Additionally, there is no limp or limitation of physical activity, and the child is systemically well with normal physical examination and motor milestones. Symptoms may worsen after a day of vigorous activity.

      Overall, growing pains are a benign condition that can be managed with reassurance and simple measures such as massage or heat application. However, it is important to rule out other potential causes of leg pain in children, especially if there are any worrying features present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 99 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe loin to groin...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe loin to groin pain that had been intermittent throughout the day. She tells the doctor that she has a previous history of gout.
      What is the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Abdomino-pelvic/KUB CT (non-contrast)

      Explanation:

      A non-contrast abdomino-pelvic/KUB CT scan is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosing nephrolithiasis in patients with a history of gout. This test has a high sensitivity and specificity and can also detect other pathologies.
      Intravenous urography is less sensitive and requires IV contrast material, which can cause allergic reactions or renal failure.
      Renal ultrasonography is useful in pregnancy or in combination with a KUB radiograph but is less accurate for diagnosing ureteral stones.
      Retrograde ureterography is rarely performed for diagnostic purposes but is essential when surgery is necessary.
      Uric acid stones are associated with low urine pH, high purine intake, or malignancy, and can be treated with allopurinol or alkali therapy depending on the patient’s uric acid levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited illnesses. Her grandmother experienced vision loss at the age of 70, while her mother began to have similar symptoms at the age of 50. What is the genetic mechanism responsible for the earlier age of onset in each generation?

      Your Answer: Anticipation

      Explanation:

      Genetic Phenomena: Anticipation, Incomplete Penetrance, Genetic Imprinting, Mosaicism, and Translocation of a Chromosome

      Genetics is a complex field that involves the study of inherited traits and conditions. There are several genetic phenomena that can occur, each with its own unique characteristics and implications.

      Anticipation is a term used to describe inherited conditions that become more severe and have an earlier onset in subsequent generations. This is often associated with trinucleotide repeats of DNA bases, which can lead to an expansion of the repeat and an increase in severity.

      Incomplete penetrance refers to the likelihood of a condition being present in individuals with a certain trait. In some cases, only some people who inherit a certain trait will develop the associated condition, while others will not.

      Genetic imprinting involves the silencing of one copy of an allele, which can lead to conditions such as Angelman and Prader-Willi syndromes.

      Mosaicism is the presence of two cell lines with different genetic compositions within the same individual. This can occur in conditions such as mosaic trisomy 21.

      Translocation of a chromosome involves the exchange of genetic material between non-homologous chromosomes. This can lead to conditions such as chronic myeloid leukemia, which is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome resulting from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22.

      Understanding these genetic phenomena is important for diagnosing and treating inherited conditions, as well as for predicting the likelihood of certain conditions in future generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 101 - A 68-year-old man visits his GP after being urged by his son. He...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man visits his GP after being urged by his son. He reports experiencing left-sided facial drooping four days ago, which he observed in the mirror. He did not seek medical attention at the time and was relieved to see that it disappeared on its own after approximately 40 minutes. He has not had any additional symptoms since then. Besides an immediate referral to specialist services, what should be done about drug treatment?

      Your Answer: Aspirin 300mg

      Explanation:

      If a patient is suspected of having a TIA and visits their GP within 7 days, they should receive immediate treatment with 300 mg aspirin and be referred to a specialist for review within 24 hours. NICE guidelines also suggest considering gastric protection with a PPI if necessary.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, and sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax).

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy with aspirin 300 mg unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis, specialist review is necessary. Urgent assessment is required within 24 hours for patients who have had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment is necessary as soon as possible within 7 days for patients who have had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. Neuroimaging and carotid imaging are recommended, and antithrombotic therapy is necessary. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 102 - A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of worsening painless muscle weakness of six months’ duration. She reports difficulty rising from a chair, climbing stairs, and combing her hair. On examination, mild tenderness is noted in her upper arms and thighs. Her thyroid function tests, full blood count, and glycosylated haemoglobin are normal. Serum antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) and rheumatoid factor (RF) are positive, and her creatine kinase (CK) is markedly raised. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Conditions: Differentiating Polymyositis from Other Disorders

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory myopathy that causes gradual, symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, which is rarely painful. However, other autoimmune conditions can present with similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate between them. Here are some key differences:

      Systemic sclerosis: This condition causes abnormal growth of connective tissue, leading to vascular damage and fibrosis. Proximal muscle weakness is not a feature of systemic sclerosis, but patients may experience calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia.

      Polymyalgia rheumatica: This inflammatory condition causes bilateral pain and stiffness of proximal muscles, particularly the shoulders and pelvic girdle. However, painless proximal muscle weakness is not typical of polymyalgia rheumatica, and positive RF or ANA are not seen in this condition.

      Sjögren syndrome: This autoimmune condition is characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of exocrine glands, leading to dry eyes and dry mouth. While ANAs and RF may be positive in this condition, proximal myopathy is not a feature.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE): This multi-system autoimmune condition usually presents in women of childbearing age with remitting and relapsing symptoms. While ANA antibodies are often positive in SLE, CK is not usually raised, and painless proximal muscle weakness is not typical. The presence of anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid antibodies or low complement levels are more specific markers of SLE.

      In summary, while these autoimmune conditions may share some symptoms, careful evaluation can help differentiate between them and lead to appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 103 - Which of the following causes of diarrhea has the briefest incubation period? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes of diarrhea has the briefest incubation period?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus

      Explanation:

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.

      There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 104 - A 12-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner with complaints of a sore throat,...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner with complaints of a sore throat, fever and cervical lymphadenopathy. The doctor prescribes amoxicillin. After four days of taking the antibiotics, the boy develops a highly itchy, maculopapular rash. His blood tests from four days ago reveal a lymphocytosis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glandular fever

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Glandular Fever: Understanding Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis, is a viral illness that can cause a range of symptoms, including fever, sore throat, fatigue, and swollen lymph nodes. One common symptom is the development of a maculopapular rash, which can be triggered by taking penicillin. However, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses and rule out conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis, allergy to penicillin, herpes zoster, and streptococcal throat infection.

      To confirm a diagnosis of glandular fever, healthcare providers may perform a full blood count to check for lymphocytosis and atypical lymphocytes. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) serology may also be tested in certain cases. Treatment for glandular fever is primarily supportive, and patients are advised to avoid contact sports to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      By understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of glandular fever, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and manage this viral illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 105 - A 68-year-old female with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate. What is...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old female with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate. What is the most crucial side-effect to caution her about?

      Your Answer: Heartburn

      Explanation:

      Patients starting bisphosphonates should be warned about potential oesophageal problems, particularly with alendronate. Any new symptoms following the introduction of this drug should be reviewed by a medical professional.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      5.6
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  • Question 106 - A 72-year-old male presents to his primary care clinic with a 3-day history...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male presents to his primary care clinic with a 3-day history of burning pain and rash on the right side of his chest. He also complains of feeling generally unwell. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.

      During the physical examination, an erythematous rash with multiple clear vesicles is observed on the right side of the torso. The remainder of the clinical examination, including an ophthalmic examination, is unremarkable.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prescribe oral famciclovir

      Explanation:

      Patients suspected of having shingles should receive antiviral treatment within 72 hours of symptom onset, according to NICE guidelines. Shingles is diagnosed based on the presence of dermatomal pain and a papular rash, with pain often persisting after the rash has resolved. The recommended first-line oral antivirals are famciclovir or valacyclovir, to be taken for 7 days. Aciclovir is a second-line option, as studies have shown that famciclovir and valacyclovir are more effective in reducing the risk of postherpetic pain. Prescribing calamine lotion and analgesia, as well as monitoring the patient, is not sufficient and does not replace antiviral treatment. Intravenous antivirals are only necessary if the patient cannot tolerate oral medication, and famciclovir cannot be administered intravenously.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 107 - You are counseling a patient regarding malaria chemoprophylaxis for their upcoming trip to...

    Correct

    • You are counseling a patient regarding malaria chemoprophylaxis for their upcoming trip to the coast of Kenya. The patient is a 60-year-old with fair skin and a history of psychiatric illness. The area is known for malaria with widespread chloroquine resistance, and the species of malaria found in the area include P. falciparum, P. Vivix, and P. Ovale. Based on this information, which anti-malarial medication would you suggest for this patient?

      Your Answer: Atovaquone/Proguanil

      Explanation:

      Malaria Chemoprophylaxis: Choosing the Right Medication

      Malaria is a potentially fatal disease that requires chemoprophylaxis for individuals entering known malaria areas. Atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone) is a well-tolerated, once-daily medication that is effective in both preventing and treating malaria. It should be taken 24 hours before entering a malaria zone and continued for seven days after leaving. However, advice on bite avoidance is also crucial in preventing malaria.

      Doxycycline is a cheaper alternative to atovaquone/proguanil, but it may cause nausea and photosensitivity, which can be problematic for fair-skinned individuals. Chloroquine is an inferior choice due to widespread resistance, while mefloquine (Larium) may cause psychosis, making it unsuitable for patients with a psychiatric history.

      It is important to note that advising against chemoprophylaxis is not appropriate, as malaria poses a serious risk to all individuals, regardless of their previous exposure to malaria areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 108 - A 47-year-old man is hospitalized for pneumonia and has a medical history of...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man is hospitalized for pneumonia and has a medical history of Addison's disease, taking hydrocortisone (20 mg in the mornings and 10mg in the afternoon). What is the best course of action regarding his steroid dosage?

      Your Answer: Double hydrocortisone to 40mg mornings and 20mg afternoon

      Explanation:

      Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.

      Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.

      On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      13.6
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  • Question 109 - A patient in her 40s comes in with concerns about her family history...

    Correct

    • A patient in her 40s comes in with concerns about her family history of cancer. Which type of cancer is the least likely to be passed down through genetics?

      Your Answer: Gastric cancer

      Explanation:

      Familial adenomatous polyposis is responsible for the majority of cases of colon cancer, while HNPCC is responsible for a smaller percentage. Women with HNPCC have a significantly higher risk of developing endometrial cancer, approximately 5 times higher than the general population.

      Cancer is a prevalent disease in the UK, with breast cancer being the most common type. Lung, colorectal, prostate, and bladder cancers also rank high on the list of common cancers. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, melanoma, stomach, oesophagus, and pancreas cancers complete the top ten. However, when it comes to cancer-related deaths, lung cancer takes the lead, followed by colorectal, breast, prostate, and pancreatic cancers. Oesophagus, stomach, bladder, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and ovarian cancers also contribute to cancer-related deaths in the UK. It is important to note that non-melanoma skin cancer is not included in these statistics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      28.4
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  • Question 110 - A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of breast tissue enlargement. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of breast tissue enlargement. He is feeling very self-conscious and anxious about his upcoming summer vacation. Which medication is the most probable cause of his condition?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers

      Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.

      There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.

      It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      167
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - A 68-year-old man comes to your clinic accompanied by his daughter. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man comes to your clinic accompanied by his daughter. He reports having painless swelling in his fingers that has been persistent. When inquiring about his medical history, he denies any issues except for a nagging cough. During the examination of his hands, you observe an increased curvature of the nails and a loss of the angle between the nail and nail bed. Considering the potential diagnoses, what would be the most crucial step to take?

      Your Answer: Urgent chest X-ray

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines for suspected lung cancers, individuals over the age of 40 with finger clubbing should undergo a chest X-ray. Given that this patient is 70 years old and has a persistent cough and finger clubbing, an urgent chest X-ray is necessary to investigate the possibility of lung cancer or mesothelioma. Pain relief medication such as oral analgesia or ibuprofen gel is not necessary as the patient is not experiencing any pain, which would be indicative of osteoarthritis. Reassurance is not appropriate in this case as finger clubbing in individuals over the age of 40 requires immediate investigation.

      Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for further assessment. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or if they are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.

      For patients aged 40 and over who have two or more unexplained symptoms, or who have ever smoked and have one or more unexplained symptoms, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within two weeks to assess for lung cancer. These symptoms include cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, and appetite loss.

      In addition, an urgent chest x-ray should be considered within two weeks for patients aged 40 and over who have persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis.

      Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific criteria for when to refer patients for further assessment for lung cancer. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive timely and appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      44.9
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  • Question 112 - Which of the following treatments has not been demonstrated to enhance survival in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following treatments has not been demonstrated to enhance survival in individuals with persistent heart failure?

      Your Answer: Nitrates and hydralazine

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Although furosemide is effective in treating the symptoms of both acute and chronic heart failure, it does not provide any predictive advantages.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 113 - As a junior doctor in an inpatient psychiatric unit, you have assessed a...

    Correct

    • As a junior doctor in an inpatient psychiatric unit, you have assessed a 25-year-old patient who has recently been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. Your consultant has initiated treatment with olanzapine and baseline blood tests have been conducted. According to NICE guidelines, what further investigation is recommended for this patient?

      Your Answer: ECG

      Explanation:

      Patients starting antipsychotic medications should have a baseline ECG, along with weight, waist circumference, pulse and BP measurements, blood tests (including fasting glucose, HbA1c, lipids and prolactin), assessment of movement disorders and nutritional status. An ECG may also be necessary if the medication’s summary of product characteristics recommends it, if the patient has a high risk of cardiovascular disease, has a personal history of cardiovascular disease, or is being admitted as an inpatient. As olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic that can cause QT prolongation, an ECG is particularly important for this patient because she is currently hospitalized.

      Monitoring patients who are taking antipsychotic medication is a crucial aspect of their treatment. In addition to regular clinical follow-ups, extensive monitoring is required to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends a range of tests and assessments to be carried out at various intervals. At the start of therapy, a full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) should be conducted. Clozapine, in particular, requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially on a weekly basis. Lipids and weight should be measured at the start of therapy, after three months, and annually thereafter. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin levels should be checked at the start of therapy, after six months, and annually thereafter. Blood pressure should be measured at baseline and frequently during dose titration. An electrocardiogram should be conducted at baseline, and cardiovascular risk assessment should be carried out annually. For more detailed information, please refer to the BNF, which also provides specific recommendations for individual drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 114 - A 32-year-old man who has recently returned from Nigeria complains of a painful...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man who has recently returned from Nigeria complains of a painful ulcer on his genitals. Upon examination, you observe a lesion that is 1cm x 1cm in size and has a ragged border. Additionally, you notice tender lymphadenopathy in the groin area. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus ducreyi

      Explanation:

      Chancroid is the culprit behind painful genital ulcers that have a ragged border and are accompanied by tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. Haemophilus ducreyi is the organism responsible for causing chancroid. While herpes simplex virus can also cause painful genital ulcers, they tend to be smaller and multiple, and primary attacks are often accompanied by fever. On the other hand, lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by C. trachomatis, syphilis by T. pallidum, and granuloma inguinale by K. granulomatis, all of which result in painless genital ulcers.

      Understanding Chancroid: A Painful Tropical Disease

      Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful genital ulcers that are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area. The ulcers themselves are typically easy to identify, as they have a distinct border that is ragged and undermined.

      Chancroid is a disease that can be quite painful and uncomfortable for those who are affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.4
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  • Question 115 - As the on-call FY2 covering the wards, you are asked to assess a...

    Incorrect

    • As the on-call FY2 covering the wards, you are asked to assess a 55-year-old woman who was admitted yesterday with community-acquired left basal pneumonia. Over the past 12 hours, she has deteriorated significantly with a temperature of 40.5ºC, blood pressure 160/95 mmHg, and heart rate of 130 bpm. On examination, she appears jaundiced, agitated, and confused. Her medical history includes hayfever and Graves' disease, but she has been generally healthy otherwise. What is the most important initial treatment to start for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IV atenolol

      Correct Answer: IV propranolol

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm is a medical emergency that can occur in patients with hyperthyroidism, such as those with Graves’ disease. It is characterized by symptoms such as high fever, rapid heartbeat, jaundice, and altered mental status. In such cases, IV beta-blockers, such as propranolol, are the first-line treatment to inhibit the peripheral adrenergic effects of excess thyroid hormone. However, propranolol should not be used in patients with asthma or reversible COPD, and caution should be exercised in patients with heart failure. Lugol’s solution can also be used to inhibit the release of stored thyroid hormone, but it is usually delayed until after antithyroid therapy has been initiated. Therapeutic plasma exchange may be considered for patients who do not respond to medical therapy. In this case, the patient’s jaundice is likely due to her hyperthyroid crisis, and there is no evidence of biliary disease or cholecystitis. Therefore, IV co-amoxiclav, which is the first-line antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia, would be appropriate for this patient. If propranolol is contraindicated, a cardiac-specific beta-blocker or calcium-channel blocker may be used instead. However, in this patient, IV propranolol should be used as the first-line treatment.

      Understanding Thyroid Storm

      Thyroid storm is a rare but serious complication of thyrotoxicosis, which is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. It is usually seen in patients who already have thyrotoxicosis and is not typically the first symptom. It is important to note that an excess of thyroxine caused by medication does not usually lead to thyroid storm.

      There are several events that can trigger thyroid storm, including surgery, trauma, infection, and exposure to iodine, such as through CT contrast media. The clinical features of thyroid storm include fever, tachycardia, confusion, nausea, vomiting, hypertension, heart failure, and abnormal liver function tests.

      The management of thyroid storm involves treating the underlying cause and providing symptomatic relief. This may include medications such as beta-blockers, anti-thyroid drugs, Lugol’s iodine, and dexamethasone. Paracetamol may also be used to manage fever.

      In summary, thyroid storm is a serious complication of thyrotoxicosis that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the triggers and clinical features of thyroid storm can help with early diagnosis and effective management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 116 - As a foundation doctor on the postnatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor on the postnatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination (NIPE) on a twenty-five hour old baby girl delivered via forceps. During the examination, you observe that the anterior fontanelle is soft but small, and the bones overlap at the sutures. The mother inquires about what she should do in this situation.

      Your Answer: No intervention required but document clearly

      Explanation:

      It is common for newborns to have positional head molding, which is considered a normal occurrence. However, it is important to document this for review by the general practitioner during the six to eight week baby check. In cases where there is persistent head shape deformity, cranial orthosis (head helmets) may be used, but it is unlikely to be necessary. Physiotherapy can be considered if there is also torticollis. It is important to note that surgical intervention is not appropriate as this is a normal finding.

      Common Skull Problems in Children

      Two common skull problems in children are plagiocephaly and craniosynostosis. Plagiocephaly is when a child’s head becomes parallelogram-shaped due to flattening on one side. The incidence of plagiocephaly has increased over the past decade, which may be due to the success of the ‘Back to Sleep’ campaign that encourages parents to put their babies to sleep on their backs to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Craniosynostosis, on the other hand, is the premature fusion of skull bones. This can lead to abnormal head shape and potentially affect brain development. Both plagiocephaly and craniosynostosis require medical attention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      46
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  • Question 117 - A 47-year-old woman from Nigeria complains of fatigue, back pain and excessive thirst....

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman from Nigeria complains of fatigue, back pain and excessive thirst. Her ESR is elevated and she has normocytic/normochromic anemia.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Multiple Myeloma from Other Bone Diseases

      Multiple Myeloma: A Malignant Disease of Plasma Cells

      Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is more common in black Africans and rare in Asians, with a median age of onset over 60. Patients may not show any symptoms and are often diagnosed through routine blood tests. However, they are more susceptible to infections and may have low white blood cell counts. Elevated levels of ESR and CRP are almost always present. Diagnosis is confirmed when two out of three of the following are present: paraproteinaemia or Bence Jones protein, radiological evidence of lytic bone lesions, and an increase in bone marrow plasma cells. Patients may experience bone pain, lethargy, thirst, and anaemia, which are all signs of multiple myeloma.

      Calcium Pyrophosphate Arthropathy: Shedding of Crystals into Joints

      Calcium pyrophosphate arthropathy, also known as pseudogout, is caused by the shedding of calcium pyrophosphate crystals into the joint. It typically presents as an acute-onset monoarticular arthritis, usually in the knee or wrist. The joint will be hot, red, tender, and swollen. Rhomboid-shaped crystals that are weakly positively birefringent under polarised light will be visible in synovial fluid.

      Osteoporosis: Fragility Fractures

      Osteoporosis is characterised by fragility fractures, such as vertebral crush fractures, Colles fractures, and fractures of the proximal femur. It is uncommon in men at this age, unless associated with hypogonadism. Anaemia and elevated ESR are not seen in osteoporosis.

      Osteoarthritis: Joint Pain and Stiffness

      Osteoarthritis presents with joint pain, stiffness, and reduced function. The weight-bearing joints, such as the hip and knee, and the small joints of the hand are commonly affected. Patients do not experience symptoms such as thirst and lethargy, which are due to hypercalcaemia. Blood biochemistry is normal in osteoarthritis.

      Paget’s Disease of Bone: Bone Remodelling

      Paget’s disease of the bone is rare in individuals under 40 years old. It is characterised by bone pain, deformity, fragility fractures, and complications from nerve compression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 118 - A 35-year-old woman who was diagnosed with HIV-1 three years ago is being...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman who was diagnosed with HIV-1 three years ago is being seen in clinic. She is currently in good health and has not reported any symptoms. She only takes paracetamol occasionally for headaches. Her recent blood tests show:
      CD4 325 * 106/l

      What is the recommended course of action for antiretroviral therapy?

      Your Answer: Start antiretroviral therapy now

      Explanation:

      Antiretroviral therapy (ART) for HIV involves a combination of at least three drugs, typically two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). Entry inhibitors, NRTIs, NNRTIs, PIs, and integrase inhibitors are all used to manage HIV. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend starting ART as soon as a patient is diagnosed with HIV. Each drug has its own side effects, and some of the common ones include peripheral neuropathy, renal impairment, osteoporosis, diabetes, hyperlipidemia, and P450 enzyme interaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 119 - A 61-year-old man presents to his GP with increasing mild confusion over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man presents to his GP with increasing mild confusion over the past 2 weeks. His husband has also noticed a decline in his mental state. The patient's medical history includes a road traffic accident 8 weeks ago, where he sustained a head injury but was discharged from the emergency department with no significant injuries. He denies any current symptoms of headache, nausea, or changes in vision. On examination, there are no focal neurological deficits, and both ocular and mental state exams are unremarkable. What is the most likely cause of this man's presentation?

      Your Answer: Diffuse axonal injury

      Correct Answer: Subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Subdural Haemorrhage

      A subdural haemorrhage is a condition where blood collects deep to the dural layer of the meninges. This collection of blood is not within the brain substance and is referred to as an ‘extra-axial’ or ‘extrinsic’ lesion. Subdural haematomas can be classified based on their age, which includes acute, subacute, and chronic. Although they occur within the same anatomical compartment, acute and chronic subdurals have significant differences in terms of their mechanisms, associated clinical features, and management.

      An acute subdural haematoma is a collection of fresh blood within the subdural space and is commonly caused by high-impact trauma. This type of haematoma is associated with high-impact injuries, and there is often other underlying brain injuries. Symptoms and presentation vary depending on the size of the compressive acute subdural haematoma and the associated injuries. CT imaging is the first-line investigation, and surgical options include monitoring of intracranial pressure and decompressive craniectomy.

      On the other hand, a chronic subdural haematoma is a collection of blood within the subdural space that has been present for weeks to months. Elderly and alcoholic patients are particularly at risk of subdural haematomas since they have brain atrophy and therefore fragile or taut bridging veins. Infants also have fragile bridging veins and can rupture in shaken baby syndrome. If the chronic subdural is an incidental finding or if it is small in size with no associated neurological deficit, it can be managed conservatively. However, if the patient is confused, has an associated neurological deficit, or has severe imaging findings, surgical decompression with burr holes is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 120 - A 50-year-old man presents to you with recent blood test results showing a...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to you with recent blood test results showing a total cholesterol of 6.2 mmol/L. You schedule an appointment to discuss this further and calculate his Qrisk score to be 23%. He has a 20-year history of smoking 10 cigarettes a day and his father died of a heart attack at age 50. He also has a past medical history of asthma. Which medication would you recommend he start taking?

      Your Answer: Atorvastatin 20mg

      Explanation:

      To prevent cardiovascular disease, it is recommended to start taking Atorvastatin 20mg, which is a high-intensity statin. Atorvastatin 80 mg is used for secondary prevention. Simvastatin 10mg and 20mg are considered low-intensity statins. It is important to combine statin treatment with lifestyle changes such as increasing physical activity, reducing alcohol consumption, and adopting a heart-healthy diet.

      The 2014 NICE guidelines recommend using the QRISK2 tool to identify patients over 40 years old who are at high risk of CVD, with a 10-year risk of 10% or greater. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and atorvastatin 20mg should be offered first-line. Lifestyle modifications include a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, limiting alcohol intake, and smoking cessation. Follow-up should occur at 3 months, with consideration of increasing the dose of atorvastatin up to 80 mg if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12.5
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  • Question 121 - Which one of the following statements regarding croup is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding croup is true?

      Your Answer: Most commonly caused by parainfluenza viruses

      Explanation:

      The majority of croup cases are caused by parainfluenza virus, and it is recommended to avoid throat examination as it may lead to airway obstruction.

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 122 - A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a swollen left upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a swollen left upper eyelid that has been bothering him for the past 3 months. He recalls noticing a bump on the eyelid that was uncomfortable at first, but it gradually grew into a hard lump. He denies any pain at present and has not experienced any vision problems. Upon examination, the eye appears to be in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hordeolum externa

      Correct Answer: Chalazion

      Explanation:

      A painless, firm lump in the eyelid is indicative of a chalazion or Meibomian cyst. This occurs when the Meibomian gland becomes blocked, resulting in the formation of a cyst. It is often a consequence of an internal stye (hordeolum internum). Although cysts may resolve on their own, they may require topical antibiotics if they become infected. The absence of pain and the prolonged history suggest that it is not an internal or external stye. Blepharitis and ectropion are unlikely to cause a lump in the eyelid.

      Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues. One such issue is blepharitis, which is inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Another problem is a stye, which is an infection of the glands in the eyelids. Chalazion, also known as Meibomian cyst, is another eyelid problem that can occur. Entropion is when the eyelids turn inward, while ectropion is when they turn outward.

      Styes can come in different forms, such as external or internal. An external stye is an infection of the glands that produce sebum or sweat, while an internal stye is an infection of the Meibomian glands. Treatment for styes typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only being recommended if there is also conjunctivitis present. A chalazion, on the other hand, is a painless lump that can form in the eyelid due to a retention cyst of the Meibomian gland. While most cases will resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      151.2
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  • Question 123 - You are examining test results. The midstream urine specimen (MSU) of a 26-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining test results. The midstream urine specimen (MSU) of a 26-year-old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant indicates a urinary tract infection. During the discussion of the outcome with the patient, she reports experiencing dysuria and having 'foul-smelling urine.' What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Repeat MSU

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin for 7 days

      Explanation:

      As the woman is experiencing symptoms, she requires treatment with a pregnancy-safe antibiotic. Trimethoprim is not recommended for use during the first trimester of pregnancy, making nitrofurantoin the appropriate choice. According to NICE CKS, amoxicillin should not be used due to its high resistance levels.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      50.1
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  • Question 124 - A 45-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology Outpatients by her General Practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology Outpatients by her General Practitioner with a history of symptoms that highly resemble rheumatoid arthritis.
      Which one of the following X-ray findings would indicate a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Osteophytes

      Correct Answer: Juxta-articular osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Common X-Ray Findings in Arthritis

      Arthritis is a condition that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and inflammation. X-rays are often used to diagnose and monitor arthritis, as they can reveal changes in the bones and joints. Here are some common X-ray findings in arthritis:

      Juxta-articular osteoporosis/osteopenia: This is an early X-ray feature of rheumatoid arthritis, characterized by a loss of bone density around the joints.

      Loss of joint space: Both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis can cause joint space narrowing, which occurs when the cartilage no longer keeps the bones a normal distance apart. This can be painful, as the bones rub or put too much pressure on each other.

      Osteophytes: These are bony lumps (bone spurs) that grow on the bones of the spine or around the joints. They often form next to joints affected by osteoarthritis.

      Subchondral cysts: This is a feature of a degenerative process (osteoarthritis). A subchondral cyst is a fluid-filled space inside a joint that extends from one of the bones that form the joint.

      Subchondral sclerosis: This is a thickening of bone that happens in joints affected by osteoarthritis.

      Overall, X-rays can provide valuable information about the progression of arthritis and help guide treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 125 - A 38-year-old man presents to you with complaints of a persistent sensation of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to you with complaints of a persistent sensation of mucus in the back of his throat. He also reports a chronic cough for the past 6 months and frequently experiences bad breath, particularly in the mornings. He admits to smoking 10 cigarettes daily but otherwise feels fine. On examination, his ears appear normal, and his throat shows slight redness with no swelling of the tonsils. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nasal foreign body

      Correct Answer: Postnasal drip

      Explanation:

      Nasal tumors can cause symptoms such as nosebleeds, a persistent blocked nose, blood-stained mucus draining from the nose, and a decreased sense of smell. A chronic cough in smokers, known as a smoker’s cough, is caused by damage and destruction of the protective cilia in the respiratory tract. Nasal polyps can result in symptoms such as nasal obstruction, sneezing, rhinorrhea, and a poor sense of taste and smell. If symptoms are unilateral or accompanied by bleeding, it may be a sign of a more serious condition. Nasal foreign bodies, which are commonly found in children, can include items such as peas, beads, buttons, seeds, and sweets.

      Understanding Post-Nasal Drip

      Post-nasal drip is a condition that arises when the nasal mucosa produces an excessive amount of mucus. This excess mucus then accumulates in the back of the nose or throat, leading to a chronic cough and unpleasant breath. Essentially, post-nasal drip occurs when the body produces more mucus than it can handle, resulting in a buildup that can cause discomfort and irritation. This condition can be caused by a variety of factors, including allergies, sinus infections, and even certain medications. Understanding the causes and symptoms of post-nasal drip can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and alleviate their discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 126 - A 57-year-old male presents to eye casualty with a one-day history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male presents to eye casualty with a one-day history of a painful red eye. He has a past medical history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus. He wears glasses for his hypermetropia.

      Upon examination of the right eye, a ciliary injection accompanies a fixed mid-dilated pupil. The pain is exacerbated when assessing pupillary reaction, which is non-reactive. His visual acuity is markedly reduced in his right eye compared to his left.

      Gonioscopy was performed, and the trabecular meshwork was not visualised. What is the first-line management for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urgent laser peripheral iridotomy

      Correct Answer: Administer pilocarpine, timolol, and brimonidine eye drops

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for a patient with acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is to administer pilocarpine, timolol, and brimonidine eye drops. This condition is characterized by ocular pain, decreased visual acuity, worsened symptoms with mydriasis, and haloes around lights. AACG is more common in individuals with hypermetropia. The presence of a fixed mid-dilated pupil and inability to visualize the trabecular meshwork are consistent with AACG. Pilocarpine, timolol, and brimonidine are all used to reduce intra-ocular pressure (IOP) and protect the optic nerve.

      Administering gentamicin eye drops is not appropriate for this patient as it is an antibiotic used to treat eye infections such as microbial keratitis. The patient does not have risk factors for an eye infection and the examination findings are more consistent with AACG.

      Prescribing prednisolone eye drops is also not appropriate as it is a steroid used to manage inflammatory eye diseases such as anterior uveitis. While anterior uveitis may present with a painful red eye, the examination findings for this patient are more suggestive of angle closure.

      Similarly, prescribing cyclopentolate eye drops is not appropriate as it is a mydriatic eye drop that may worsen the patient’s symptoms by reducing the angle. Mydriatic eye drops may be used in the management of anterior uveitis, but the examination findings for this patient are more consistent with AACG.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 127 - A 25-year-old female presents with a history of weight loss and diarrhoea. To...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with a history of weight loss and diarrhoea. To investigate her symptoms, she undergoes a colonoscopy and a biopsy is taken. The biopsy report indicates the presence of pigment-laden macrophages suggestive of melanosis coli. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Correct Answer: Laxative abuse

      Explanation:

      Understanding Melanosis Coli

      Melanosis coli is a condition that affects the pigmentation of the bowel wall. This disorder is characterized by the presence of pigment-laden macrophages, which can be observed through histology. The primary cause of melanosis coli is laxative abuse, particularly the use of anthraquinone compounds like senna.

      In simpler terms, melanosis coli is a condition that causes changes in the color of the bowel wall due to the accumulation of pigments. This condition is often associated with the excessive use of laxatives, which can lead to the accumulation of pigment-laden macrophages in the bowel wall. These macrophages are responsible for the discoloration of the bowel wall, which can be observed through histology. It is important to note that melanosis coli is not a life-threatening condition, but it can be a sign of underlying health issues that need to be addressed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      45.1
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  • Question 128 - What is the most frequent cause of nephrotic syndrome in pediatric patients? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent cause of nephrotic syndrome in pediatric patients?

      Your Answer: Infantile microcystic disease

      Correct Answer: Minimal change disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome in Children

      Nephrotic syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by three main symptoms: proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and oedema. This condition is most commonly seen in children between the ages of 2 and 5 years old. In fact, around 80% of cases in children are caused by a condition called minimal change glomerulonephritis. Fortunately, this condition has a good prognosis, with approximately 90% of cases responding well to high-dose oral steroids.

      Aside from the main symptoms, children with nephrotic syndrome may also experience hyperlipidaemia, a hypercoagulable state, and a higher risk of infection. These additional features are caused by the loss of antithrombin III and immunoglobulins in the body.

      Overall, understanding nephrotic syndrome in children is important for parents and healthcare professionals alike. With proper treatment and management, most children with this condition can recover and lead healthy lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 129 - A 63-year-old librarian complains of a persistent cough and difficulty breathing during physical...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old librarian complains of a persistent cough and difficulty breathing during physical activity. A chest CT scan reveals a ground-glass appearance. What is the most frequently linked mechanism responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer: Type I hypersensitivity reaction

      Correct Answer: Type III hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      Hypersensitivity Reactions: Types and Examples

      Hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses that can cause tissue damage and inflammation. There are four types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with different mechanisms and clinical presentations.

      Type I hypersensitivity reaction is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE in response to an innocuous environmental antigen. Examples of such reactions are allergic rhinitis and systemic urticaria.

      Type II hypersensitivity reaction is an antibody-mediated reaction. Cellular injury may result from complement activation, antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity or phagocytosis. Examples include incompatible blood transfusions, haemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune haemolytic anaemias.

      Type III hypersensitivity reaction is an immune complex-mediated reaction. Immune complexes are lattices of antibody and antigen. When these are not cleared from the circulation, they may trigger an inflammatory response. An example of this type of reaction is extrinsic allergic alveolitis, otherwise known as ‘bird fancier’s lung’, a hypersensitivity pneumonitis caused by exposure to bird droppings.

      Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction involving T helper cells that become activated upon contact with an antigen, which results in a clonal expansion over 1–2 weeks. Repeated exposure to the antigen results in cytokine release from sensitised T-cells, leading to macrophage-induced phagocytosis.

      Anaphylaxis is a type I-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, involving the release of inflammatory mediators (such as histamine), which precipitate vasodilatation and oedema. Anaphylaxis is characterised by the rapid onset of respiratory and circulatory compromise.

      Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important for diagnosis and treatment. Treatment may involve removal of the source of hypersensitivity, immunosuppressive therapy, or administration of epinephrine in the case of anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 130 - A 27-year-old female patient visits the genitourinary medicine clinic seeking treatment for recurring...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient visits the genitourinary medicine clinic seeking treatment for recurring genital warts. Which virus is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Human papilloma virus 6 & 11

      Explanation:

      Understanding Genital Warts

      Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common culprits. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.

      The warts themselves are small, fleshy protrusions that are typically 2-5mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can cause discomfort, itching, and even bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is often used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 131 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of a headache....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of a headache. She has been experiencing flu-like symptoms for the past three days and the headache started gradually yesterday. The headache is described as being all over and worsens when looking at bright light or bending her neck. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.2º, pulse is 96/min, and blood pressure is 116/78 mmHg. There is neck stiffness present, but no focal neurological signs are observed. During a closer inspection, several petechiae are noticed on her torso. The patient has been cannulated and bloods, including cultures, have been taken. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular benzypenicillin

      Correct Answer: IV cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Immediate administration of appropriate intravenous antibiotics is crucial for this patient diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. In light of modern PCR diagnostic techniques, there is no need to delay potentially life-saving treatment by conducting a lumbar puncture in suspected cases of meningococcal meningitis.

      The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 132 - A 28-year-old female patient visits your clinic with a complaint of fishy-smelling vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient visits your clinic with a complaint of fishy-smelling vaginal discharge. You suspect bacterial vaginosis and decide to prescribe metronidazole. The patient has no known drug allergies and is generally healthy, except for taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). What is the most crucial advice you should provide her regarding the potential side effects of metronidazole?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole could cause liver problems

      Correct Answer: She should abstain from alcohol whilst taking metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Taking metronidazole and alcohol together can result in a disulfiram-like reaction, so patients should be cautioned against consuming alcohol while on the medication. Metronidazole is not associated with cholestasis, hepatotoxicity, or QT prolongation. As an enzyme inhibitor, metronidazole enhances the efficacy of the COCP. While Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare side effect of metronidazole, a photosensitive rash is not typically observed.

      Metronidazole is an antibiotic that functions by producing reactive cytotoxic metabolites within bacteria. This medication can cause adverse effects such as a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol and an increased anticoagulant effect when taken with warfarin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 133 - A 76-year-old male with a history of COPD and metastatic lung cancer is...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old male with a history of COPD and metastatic lung cancer is admitted with worsening shortness of breath. After consulting with family, it is determined that active treatment, including fluids and antibiotics, will be withdrawn as this admission is likely a terminal event. However, two days later, the patient becomes restless and agitated. What is the best course of action in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Oral haloperidol

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous midazolam

      Explanation:

      Palliative Care Prescribing for Agitation and Confusion

      When dealing with agitation and confusion in palliative care patients, it is important to identify and treat any underlying causes such as hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, or medication. If these specific treatments fail, medication can be used to manage symptoms. Haloperidol is the first choice for treating agitation and confusion, with chlorpromazine and levomepromazine as alternative options. In the terminal phase of the illness, midazolam is the preferred medication for managing agitation or restlessness. Proper management of these symptoms can greatly improve the quality of life for palliative care patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      22
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  • Question 134 - A 55-year-old woman has been prescribed simvastatin for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has been prescribed simvastatin for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease (CVD).
      Which of the following should be the NEXT step?

      Your Answer: Check LFTs and lipid profiles at 12 months

      Correct Answer: Check LFTs and lipid profiles at 3 months

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Statin Therapy: Recommended Blood Tests and Timing

      Statin therapy is a common treatment for patients with high cholesterol levels, both for primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. However, regular monitoring is necessary to ensure the treatment is effective and safe. Here are some recommended blood tests and their timing for monitoring statin therapy:

      Recommended Blood Tests and Timing for Monitoring Statin Therapy

      Check LFTs and lipid profiles at 3 months

      Within three months of starting high-intensity statin treatment, it is recommended to measure total cholesterol, HDL-cholesterol, and non-HDL cholesterol. The aim is to achieve a >40% reduction in non-HDL-cholesterol. LFTs should also be checked at this time and again at 12 months, unless clinically indicated.

      Check LFTs and lipid profiles at 12 months

      Both LFTs and the lipid profile should be checked at 12 months, but it is important to assess whether a suitable cholesterol level reduction has been achieved earlier in the process. This allows for discussion of adherence to medication, diet, and lifestyle measures, and consideration of increasing the dose.

      Check LFTs at 1 week

      Checking LFTs within a week of starting treatment is not necessary, as any liver abnormalities would be unlikely to develop so soon without the patient experiencing symptoms of acute liver disease.

      Check the lipid profiles at 1 month

      It takes approximately 6-8 weeks for a stable result in lipid reduction to be seen after starting a statin, so checking the lipid profile at 1 month is not appropriate.

      Check TFTs at 3 months

      There is no need to check thyroid function tests during statin therapy for monitoring purposes. However, patients with other conditions that justify TFTs should have them done as clinically appropriate.

      Regular monitoring of statin therapy through blood tests is crucial for ensuring the treatment is effective and safe for patients with high cholesterol levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      27.4
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  • Question 135 - You are assessing a 55-year-old man who has been admitted with pneumonia. His...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 55-year-old man who has been admitted with pneumonia. His medical history indicates that he consumes approximately 70-80 units of alcohol per week. Which medication would be the most suitable to administer to prevent the onset of alcohol withdrawal symptoms?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.

      Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      29.5
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  • Question 136 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with blood-stained urine and coughing...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with blood-stained urine and coughing up blood.

      On examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C. Her blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, while her pulse is 92 beats per minute. Her respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute. Urine testing is positive for protein and red cell casts. Antibodies to the glomerular basement membrane are found on serum testing. A renal biopsy is performed.

      What is likely to be seen on the renal biopsy?

      Your Answer: ‘Wire looping’ of capillaries

      Correct Answer: Linear immunofluorescence

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Glomerular Diseases: Characteristics and Immunofluorescence Findings

      Nephritic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, haematuria, and hypertension. The presence of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies suggests hypersensitivity angiitis or Goodpasture’s syndrome as the underlying cause. In this disease, crescent-shaped glomeruli are observed in renal biopsy specimens. Linear immunofluorescence reveals the deposition of immunoglobulin G (IgG) along the basement membrane.

      Other glomerular diseases have distinct characteristics and immunofluorescence findings. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, commonly seen in children, presents with a lumpy bumpy appearance of the glomeruli. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy is characterized by immune complex deposition in the basement membrane. Hereditary nephritis or Alport syndrome, which is associated with deafness, shows splitting of the basement membrane. Finally, diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis presents with wire looping of capillaries.

      In summary, recognizing the distinct characteristics and immunofluorescence findings of glomerular diseases is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      21.3
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  • Question 137 - A 50-year-old alcoholic patient begins to have a seizure in the waiting area....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old alcoholic patient begins to have a seizure in the waiting area. You quickly position him in the recovery stance and provide oxygen. However, after 5 minutes, the seizure persists. What is the best medication to give in this situation?

      Your Answer: Rectal diazepam 10 mg

      Explanation:

      Managing Seizures: Basic Steps and Medication Dosages

      Seizures can be a frightening experience for both the patient and those around them. While most seizures will stop on their own, prolonged seizures can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is important to know how to manage seizures in case of an emergency.

      The first step in managing a seizure is to check the patient’s airway and provide oxygen if necessary. It is also important to place the patient in the recovery position to prevent choking or aspiration. If the seizure is prolonged, benzodiazepines may be necessary. The recommended dose for rectal diazepam varies depending on the patient’s age and condition. For neonates, the dose is 1.25-2.5 mg, while for adults, it is 10-20 mg (max. 30 mg). The dose may be repeated once after 10-15 minutes if necessary.

      Another medication that may be used is midazolam oromucosal solution. However, it is important to note that this medication is unlicensed for use in neonates and children under 2 months old. The recommended dose for midazolam oromucosal solution also varies depending on the patient’s age and condition. For example, the dose for a child aged 1-4 years is 5 mg, while for an adult, it is 10 mg.

      In summary, managing seizures involves basic steps such as checking the airway and placing the patient in the recovery position. If the seizure is prolonged, benzodiazepines such as rectal diazepam or midazolam oromucosal solution may be necessary. It is important to follow the recommended dosage based on the patient’s age and condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      978.2
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a three-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a three-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen left eye. She complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements, which are quite restricted.
      On examination, the visual acuity is 6/12 in the left eye and 6/6 in the right. The periorbital area of the left eye is very swollen and erythematous. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva was chemosed. Eye movements in the left eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the left.
      Her temperature is 38.2 °C. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, and her pulse is 80 beats per minute. Her respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute. Her oxygen saturations are 97% on air.
      What is the most important step in your management plan to determine the cause of this patient’s eye problem?

      Your Answer: Blood culture

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan of the orbit, sinuses, and brain

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Steps for Orbital Cellulitis: CT Scan of the Orbit, Sinuses, and Brain

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that can lead to vision loss and even death if left untreated. The most common cause of orbital cellulitis is ethmoidal sinusitis. To diagnose and manage this condition, a series of diagnostic steps must be taken.

      The first and most important step is a CT scan of the orbit, sinuses, and brain. This imaging test can show diffuse orbital infiltrate, proptosis, sinus opacity, or even orbital abscesses. It is essential in determining the extent of the infection and guiding treatment decisions.

      While blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and clotting profile can be helpful, they do not determine the cause of the orbital cellulitis. Blood culture can be useful but is very low yield according to recent studies. It is not the most important step in determining the cause.

      Intravenous (IV) cefuroxime as well as metronidazole are necessary to control the infection but do not help to determine the cause.

      Performing fundoscopy is not necessary in this case as the patient is suffering from orbital cellulitis, which is primarily a clinical diagnosis. The main purpose of fundoscopy in clinical examination is to examine the back of the eye and the optic disc. Since the back of the eye is not involved in the pathology of orbital cellulitis, performing fundoscopy would not add anything here.

      In summary, a CT scan of the orbit, sinuses, and brain is the most important diagnostic step in determining the extent of orbital cellulitis and guiding treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - A 42-year-old man is being evaluated for possible diabetes mellitus and undergoes an...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is being evaluated for possible diabetes mellitus and undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test using the standard WHO protocol. The results are as follows:

      Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
      0 5.9
      2 8.2

      What is the interpretation of these findings?

      Your Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance

      Correct Answer: Normal

      Explanation:

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

      In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.

      There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).

      Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with right flank pain radiating...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with right flank pain radiating to her groin. A urine dipstick reveals the presence of blood. You suspect a possible ureteric stone.
      What is the most suitable imaging modality to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Seriated X-rays

      Correct Answer: Non contrast abdominopelvic/kidney, ureters and bladder (KUB) computed tomography (CT)

      Explanation:

      Imaging Modalities for Nephrolithiasis Diagnosis

      Nephrolithiasis, or kidney stones, can be diagnosed through various imaging modalities. Non-contrast abdominopelvic computed tomography (CT) scans are the preferred imaging modality due to their high sensitivity and specificity. Contrast scans are not recommended for initial assessment as they can obscure calcific densities. CT scans can also reveal other pathologies. Seriated X-rays, specifically KUB X-rays, can be used in conjunction with CT scans for follow-up of stone patients. Intravenous urography, while widely available and inexpensive, is less sensitive than CT scans and requires IV contrast material and multiple delayed films. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is not recommended for acute renal colic evaluation as it is more expensive and less effective in stone detection. Renal ultrasonography is mainly used in pregnancy or in combination with a KUB X-ray for determining hydronephrosis or ureteral dilatation associated with a urinary tract calculus, but is less accurate in diagnosing ureteral stones and not reliable for stones smaller than 5 mm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      289.3
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - A 56-year-old male with no previous medical history presents with a sprained ankle...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old male with no previous medical history presents with a sprained ankle and is incidentally found to be in atrial fibrillation. He denies any symptoms of palpitations or shortness of breath. Despite discussing treatment options, he declines cardioversion. Cardiovascular examination is otherwise normal, with a blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg. As per the most recent NICE guidelines, what is the recommended treatment for this patient if he remains in chronic atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer: No treatment

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - As you review the blood results of a 65-year-old man who has been...

    Incorrect

    • As you review the blood results of a 65-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension, you notice that a HbA1c level was requested as part of the routine work-up. What HbA1c range would be indicative of prediabetes?

      Your Answer: 53-58 mmol/mol (7.0-7.5%)

      Correct Answer: 42-47 mmol/mol (6.0-6.4%)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prediabetes and Impaired Glucose Regulation

      Prediabetes is a term used to describe impaired glucose levels that are higher than normal but not yet high enough to be diagnosed as diabetes mellitus. This includes individuals with impaired fasting glucose (IFG) or impaired glucose tolerance (IGT). Diabetes UK estimates that around 1 in 7 adults in the UK have prediabetes, and many of them will eventually develop type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), putting them at risk of microvascular and macrovascular complications.

      To identify patients with prediabetes, NICE recommends using a validated computer-based risk assessment tool for adults aged 40 and over, people of South Asian and Chinese descent aged 25-39, and adults with conditions that increase the risk of T2DM. Patients identified as high risk should have a blood sample taken, and a fasting plasma glucose of 6.1-6.9 mmol/l or an HbA1c level of 42-47 mmol/mol (6.0-6.4%) indicates high risk.

      Lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, increased exercise, and changes in diet are recommended for managing prediabetes. NICE also recommends metformin for adults at high risk who are still progressing towards T2DM despite lifestyle changes.

      There are two main types of impaired glucose regulation: impaired fasting glucose (IFG) and impaired glucose tolerance (IGT). IFG is due to hepatic insulin resistance, while IGT is due to muscle insulin resistance. Patients with IGT are more likely to develop T2DM and cardiovascular disease than those with IFG.

      To rule out a diagnosis of diabetes, people with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person doesn’t have diabetes but does have IGT. It is important to understand prediabetes and impaired glucose regulation to prevent the progression to T2DM and its associated complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      30468
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - An older patient with Bell's palsy presented to the emergency department with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • An older patient with Bell's palsy presented to the emergency department with complaints of a sore and gritty right eye. Despite occasional blurring of vision, the patient's visual acuity remained unaffected. The patient was unable to close their right eye and had not been compliant with taping the eyelid at night or using the lubricating ointment provided by their GP a week prior. An ophthalmologist performed a slit lamp examination, which revealed a normal-appearing cornea and anterior chamber. The examination was then continued with the addition of fluorescein dye on the eye. What findings would the doctor anticipate during this examination?

      Your Answer: Keratic precipitates

      Correct Answer: Punctate fluorescein staining of cornea

      Explanation:

      Patients with dry eyes often exhibit punctate fluorescein staining of the cornea, which is a common occurrence in those with Bell’s palsy. This condition impairs the ability to blink or close the eye, leading to a lack of moisture on the cornea and subsequent dryness. It is important to note that keratic precipitates and foreign bodies can be observed without the use of fluorescein dye, and keratic precipitates are typically associated with anterior uveitis rather than the dry eye syndrome seen in Bell’s palsy. Additionally, corneal abrasions typically result in decreased visual acuity, which is not a symptom of dry eyes in this context.

      Understanding Dry Eye Syndrome

      Dry eye syndrome is a condition that causes discomfort in both eyes, with symptoms such as dryness, grittiness, and soreness that worsen throughout the day. Exposure to wind can also cause watering of the eyes. People with Meibomian gland dysfunction may experience symptoms that are worse upon waking, with eyelids sticking together and redness of the eyelids. In some cases, dry eye syndrome can lead to complications such as conjunctivitis or corneal ulceration, which can cause severe pain, photophobia, redness, and loss of visual acuity.

      Although there may be no abnormalities on examination, eyelid hygiene is the most appropriate management step for dry eye syndrome. This can help control blepharitis, which is a common condition associated with dry eye syndrome. By understanding the symptoms and appropriate management steps, individuals with dry eye syndrome can find relief and improve their overall eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of an increase in the frequency...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of an increase in the frequency of her migraine attacks. She experiences episodes every 3 weeks, lasting approximately 24 hours, and finds that zolmitriptan only partially relieves her symptoms. As a result, she is taking time off from her job as a teacher and is worried about losing her employment. Her medical history includes asthma, and she is currently taking zolmitriptan and salbutamol. Additionally, she takes evening primrose oil over-the-counter to alleviate her menopause symptoms, which began 16 months ago. What medication would be the most appropriate for the GP to prescribe to decrease the frequency of her migraine attacks?

      Your Answer: Diclofenac

      Correct Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      For the prophylactic management of migraines in a patient with a history of asthma, the recommended medication is topiramate. Propranolol is an alternative first-line option, but should be avoided in patients with asthma. Amitriptyline is a second-line drug for those who are not responsive to initial prophylactic treatment. Diclofenac is an NSAID used for acute management of migraines, while triptans like sumatriptan are used for acute treatment but not prophylaxis. It should be noted that topiramate is teratogenic and should be avoided in women of childbearing age.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      72.5
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - A 54-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension had a heart attack...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension had a heart attack and received coronary stenting. He was prescribed multiple medications and his blood test results showed:
      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 6.2 mmol/l
      Which of the following antihypertensive drugs could be causing this result?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia is caused by ACE inhibitor.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - Which of the following types of anti-anginal medication do patients frequently develop tolerance...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of anti-anginal medication do patients frequently develop tolerance to?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Correct Answer: Standard release isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      208.1
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - A 45-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis comes in for evaluation. She reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis comes in for evaluation. She reports experiencing worsening issues with painful spasms in her leg muscles. What is the initial treatment option that should be considered?

      Your Answer: Dantrolene

      Correct Answer: Baclofen

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatments for spasticity in multiple sclerosis are baclofen and gabapentin.

      Multiple sclerosis is a condition that cannot be cured, but its treatment aims to reduce the frequency and duration of relapses. In the case of an acute relapse, high-dose steroids may be administered for five days to shorten its length. However, it is important to note that steroids do not affect the degree of recovery. Disease-modifying drugs are used to reduce the risk of relapse in patients with MS. These drugs are typically indicated for patients with relapsing-remitting disease or secondary progressive disease who have had two relapses in the past two years and are able to walk a certain distance unaided. Natalizumab, ocrelizumab, fingolimod, beta-interferon, and glatiramer acetate are some of the drugs used to reduce the risk of relapse in MS.

      Fatigue is a common problem in MS patients, and amantadine is recommended by NICE after excluding other potential causes such as anaemia, thyroid problems, or depression. Mindfulness training and CBT are other options for managing fatigue. Spasticity is another issue that can be addressed with first-line drugs such as baclofen and gabapentin, as well as physiotherapy. Cannabis and botox are currently being evaluated for their effectiveness in managing spasticity. Bladder dysfunction is also a common problem in MS patients, and anticholinergics may worsen symptoms in some patients. Ultrasound is recommended to assess bladder emptying, and intermittent self-catheterisation may be necessary if there is significant residual volume. Gabapentin is the first-line treatment for oscillopsia, which is a condition where visual fields appear to oscillate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12454.4
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - A 32-year-old female with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents with frank...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents with frank haematemesis. She had been discharged just two months ago after receiving treatment for bleeding oesophageal varices. What is the most suitable course of action to take while waiting for endoscopy after resuscitation?

      Your Answer: Octreotide

      Correct Answer: Terlipressin

      Explanation:

      Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient before endoscopy. Correcting clotting with FFP and vitamin K is important, as is the use of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method of treatment, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. Propranolol and EVL are effective in preventing rebleeding and mortality, and are recommended by NICE guidelines. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      66.6
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - A 54-year-old woman with isolated systolic hypertension, who also has urinary tract infections,...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman with isolated systolic hypertension, who also has urinary tract infections, osteoporosis and diabetes, attends outpatient clinic with a blood pressure reading of 192/88 mmHg. Which of the following medications would you prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Valsartan

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating hypertension, there are several medications to choose from. NICE recommends an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) as first-line treatment for those under 55, while calcium channel blockers (CCBs) are preferred for patients over 55 and those of Afro-Caribbean origin. Beta blockers, once a common choice, are no longer recommended as first-line treatment.

      If initial treatment is not effective, a thiazide diuretic can be added to an ACE inhibitor or ARB and CCB. Alpha blockers, such as doxazosin, are no longer commonly used for hypertension and are contraindicated in patients with urinary incontinence. Valsartan, an ARB, is an alternative for patients who cannot tolerate an ACE inhibitor.

      For elderly patients with isolated systolic hypertension, a dihydropyridine CCB like amlodipine is the drug of choice, especially if thiazides are not an option. Beta blockers should be used with caution in patients with asthma and are not indicated in this case. By carefully considering the patient’s age, ethnicity, and medical history, healthcare providers can choose the most appropriate medication for treating hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      154
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - A 28-year-old law student visits his primary care physician complaining of ear pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old law student visits his primary care physician complaining of ear pain. He suspects that this is related to the same issue causing dryness in his scalp and beard, as well as eczema-like patches in his nasolabial folds. He has been using non-prescription topical treatments to manage these symptoms but seeks guidance for his earache. What is the probable diagnosis that connects all of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Eczema herpeticum

      Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis can lead to common complications such as otitis externa and blepharitis. The patient is experiencing eczema-like plaques and dry skin in areas rich in sebum, which he has been treating with over-the-counter antifungal shampoos. However, his complaint of earache may be due to otitis externa, which is associated with seborrhoeic dermatitis. A full ear examination should be performed to rule out other diagnoses. Contact dermatitis is unlikely to present in this distribution and would not cause otalgia. Eczema herpeticum is a severe primary infection by herpes-simplex-virus 1 or 2, commonly seen in children with atopic eczema. Guttate psoriasis commonly affects children after Streptococcal upper respiratory tract infection and will clear over the course of ,3 months without treatment. Irritant dermatitis is unlikely to cause such focal areas of irritation.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 151 - You are evaluating a young patient in primary care who has a significant...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a young patient in primary care who has a significant family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1. Although genetic testing has confirmed an abnormal genetic profile, the patient has not yet presented with any clinical manifestations of the condition. What is the genetic term used to describe conditions where the genotype is abnormal, but the phenotype remains normal?

      Your Answer: High penetrance

      Correct Answer: Low penetrance

      Explanation:

      When a condition has low genetic penetrance, it may not show many clinical signs or symptoms, and the patient may appear normal, despite having an abnormal genetic profile. This is because the severity of the phenotype is determined by the penetrance of the genotype. If the condition has high penetrance, the phenotype is more likely to be expressed, resulting in more signs and symptoms.

      Autosomal Dominant Diseases: Characteristics and Complicating Factors

      Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited from one parent who carries the abnormal gene. In these diseases, both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and both males and females can be affected. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.

      However, there are complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Non-penetrance is a phenomenon where an individual carries the abnormal gene but does not show any clinical signs or symptoms of the disease. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis do not show any symptoms despite carrying the abnormal gene. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, where a new mutation occurs in one of the gametes. This can result in the disease appearing in a child even if both parents do not carry the abnormal gene. For instance, 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.

      In summary, autosomal dominant diseases have distinct characteristics such as their inheritance pattern and the fact that affected individuals can pass on the disease. However, complicating factors such as non-penetrance and spontaneous mutation can affect the expression of the disease and make it more difficult to predict its occurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - A 16-year-old female comes in for a follow-up. Three days ago she visited...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female comes in for a follow-up. Three days ago she visited her physician with complaints of a severe sore throat, fatigue, and headache. The doctor prescribed amoxicillin to treat an upper respiratory tract infection. However, two days ago she developed a pruritic maculopapular rash that has spread throughout her body. Additionally, her initial symptoms have not improved. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kawasaki disease

      Correct Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Patients with infectious mononucleosis should not be prescribed amoxicillin. Instead, supportive treatment is recommended for their care.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 153 - A 58-year-old man undergoes routine screening tests as part of his NHS health...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man undergoes routine screening tests as part of his NHS health check. His results show an HbA1C level of 52 mmol/mol (<42), eGFR of >90 ml/min (>90), blood pressure of 130/84 mmHg, and a QRISK-3 score of 24.3%. After a repeat measurement, he is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and decides to make lifestyle changes and take medication. However, he experiences significant gastrointestinal side effects with metformin, even after switching to a modified-release preparation.

      What would be the most appropriate class of drug to switch to?

      Your Answer: SGLT-2 inhibitor

      Explanation:

      A suitable medication would have been a DDP-4 inhibitor, glitazone, or sulfonylurea. The use of GLP-1 receptor agonists is not appropriate, as it is only recommended when triple therapy with metformin and two other oral drugs has failed.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - A 44 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and...

    Incorrect

    • A 44 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrazinamide) for a confirmed diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis. During a respiratory follow up, the patient reports a decline in vision, particularly a decrease in the vibrancy of colors. What modification would you suggest for the medication?

      Your Answer: Do not make any medication changes

      Correct Answer: Stop ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The use of ethambutol has been linked to optic neuropathy and the onset of color blindness. If these symptoms occur, the medication should be stopped. To prevent these adverse effects, pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is often administered alongside ethambutol in medical settings.

      Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs

      Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.

      Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

      In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      17.4
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  • Question 155 - A 35-year-old woman presents with excessive sweating and weight loss. Her partner reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with excessive sweating and weight loss. Her partner reports that she is constantly on edge and you notice a fine tremor during the consultation. A large, nontender goitre is also noted. Upon examination of her eyes, there is no evidence of exophthalmos. Her pulse rate is 96/min. The following results were obtained: Free T4 26 pmol/l, Free T3 12.2 pmol/l (3.0-7.5), and TSH < 0.05 mu/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis

      Correct Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs

      Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also exhibits specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.

      Autoantibodies are also present in Graves’ disease, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy can also aid in the diagnosis of Graves’ disease, as it shows diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine.

      Overall, Graves’ disease presents with both typical and unique features that distinguish it from other causes of thyrotoxicosis. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      262.1
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - A 60-year-old man who was recently diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis presents to his...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man who was recently diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis presents to his General Practitioner due to persistent central abdominal pain. This has been present ever since he was admitted to the hospital and diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis; however, he feels that the medication he was prescribed is losing its effects.
      The patient is currently on amlodipine, amitriptyline, perindopril and pancreatic enzyme replacement.
      Which of the following management options is the best next step to control the patient’s pain?
      Select the SINGLE best management plan from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Continue same medication and add ibuprofen

      Correct Answer: Stop amitriptyline, start duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Managing Neuropathic Pain: Choosing the Right Medication

      Neuropathic pain can be a challenging condition to manage, especially when standard analgesia such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and paracetamol prove ineffective. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, the first-line management of neuropathic pain involves starting the patient on amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin. However, if the first-line drug treatment does not work, one of the other drugs can be tried.

      It is important to note that drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy rather than in combinations. Therefore, if a drug does not achieve the desired clinical effect, it should be replaced by another drug rather than adding a new drug to it. Duloxetine is a good next option, but it should replace the amitriptyline rather than be added to it.

      Further management of neuropathic pain includes pain management clinics and tramadol as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. By choosing the right medication and following appropriate management strategies, patients with neuropathic pain can achieve better pain control and improved quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden breathlessness and pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden breathlessness and pain on the left side of her chest for the past 24 hours. She is generally healthy and takes the combined oral contraceptive pill.
      What is the highest scoring factor in the Wells' scoring system for suspected pulmonary embolism (PE)?

      Your Answer: Heart rate >100 beats/min

      Correct Answer: Clinical signs and symptoms of a deep-vein thrombosis (DVT)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Two-Level PE Wells Score: Clinical Signs and Symptoms of DVT

      The Two-Level PE Wells Score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of a patient having a pulmonary embolism (PE). One of the key factors in this score is the presence of clinical signs and symptoms of a deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), which includes leg swelling and pain on palpation of the deep veins. This carries three points in the score, and is a crucial factor in determining the likelihood of a PE.

      Other factors in the score include an alternative diagnosis being less likely than a PE, heart rate over 100 beats/min, immobilization or recent surgery, previous DVT/PE, haemoptysis, and malignancy. Each of these factors carries a certain number of points, and a score of over 4 points indicates a high likelihood of a PE, while a score of 4 points or less indicates a lower likelihood.

      Overall, understanding the Two-Level PE Wells Score and the clinical signs and symptoms of DVT is important in accurately assessing the likelihood of a patient having a PE and determining the appropriate course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      116.1
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - A 42-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of migraine and is administered a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of migraine and is administered a subcutaneous injection of sumatriptan, resulting in the alleviation of his symptoms.
      What is the mechanism of action of the drug?

      Your Answer: Blocking receptors to acetylcholinesterase

      Correct Answer: Causing vasoconstriction of cranial arteries

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mechanisms of Sumatriptan: A Migraine and Cluster Headache Treatment

      Sumatriptan is a medication commonly used to treat migraine and cluster headaches. It works by activating specific serotonin receptors (5-HT1D and 5-HT1B) found on cranial and basilar arteries, causing vasoconstriction of these blood vessels. This medication can be administered orally, by subcutaneous injection, or intranasally.

      It is important to note that sumatriptan has no effect on adrenergic receptors or acetylcholinesterase receptors. It is also not a cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitor or an opioid receptor agonist or antagonist.

      In addition to its effects on blood vessels, sumatriptan has been shown to decrease the activity of the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for its effectiveness in treating cluster headaches.

      Overall, understanding the mechanisms of sumatriptan can help healthcare professionals and patients better understand how this medication works to alleviate the symptoms of migraine and cluster headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 159 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with diarrhea and abdominal pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with diarrhea and abdominal pain. She has a history of depression and takes citalopram, smokes 20 cigarettes per day, and drinks 20 units of alcohol per week. During ileocolonoscopy, Crohn's disease is diagnosed, and she is treated with glucocorticoid therapy. What is the most crucial step to decrease the likelihood of future episodes?

      Your Answer: Stop drinking

      Correct Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      Managing Crohn’s Disease: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. To manage this condition, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines that provide recommendations for inducing and maintaining remission, as well as treating complications. One of the most important steps in managing Crohn’s disease is to advise patients to quit smoking, as this can worsen the condition. Additionally, some medications, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the combined oral contraceptive pill, may increase the risk of relapse, although the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are often used, either orally, topically, or intravenously. Budesonide is an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about the side effects of steroids. Second-line treatments for inducing remission include 5-ASA drugs like mesalazine, as well as azathioprine or mercaptopurine, which may be used in combination with other medications. Methotrexate is another option. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and patients may continue on azathioprine or methotrexate.

      To maintain remission, stopping smoking is a priority, and azathioprine or mercaptopurine is used first-line. TPMT activity should be assessed before starting these medications. Methotrexate is used second-line. Surgery may be necessary for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Perianal fistulae and abscesses require specific treatments, such as oral metronidazole, anti-TNF agents like infliximab, or a draining seton. By following these guidelines and treatment options, patients with Crohn’s disease can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      27.6
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  • Question 160 - A first-time mother brings her daughter, Lily, who is 7-months old, to the...

    Correct

    • A first-time mother brings her daughter, Lily, who is 7-months old, to the GP surgery. She is worried about Lily's development as she is still unable to sit without support. However, Lily is able to roll from front to back, sit with back straight if being held, and grasp toys when lying on her back. Can you inform the mother at what age Lily will be able to sit without support?

      Your Answer: 7-8 months, refer if not achieved by 12 months

      Explanation:

      If sitting without support is not achieved by 12 months, referral is necessary, although it should typically be achieved by 7-8 months.

      Gross Motor Developmental Milestones

      Gross motor skills refer to the ability to use large muscles in the body for activities such as crawling, walking, running, and jumping. These skills are essential for a child’s physical development and are achieved through a series of developmental milestones.
      At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to lift and grasp their feet when lying on their back, pull themselves to a sitting position, and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a standing position and crawl. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. By 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.

      It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and healthcare professionals to monitor a child’s physical development and identify any potential delays or concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      88
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) four weeks after suffering...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) four weeks after suffering from a vomiting illness. She complains of numbness and tingling in her lower limbs which has developed over the past three days. On examination, she has weakness of ankle and knee flexion and extension, diminished knee and ankle reflexes and sensory loss below the knee. The GP arranges urgent hospital admission and she is started on treatment as soon as she arrives at the hospital.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.

      Your Answer: Haemodialysis

      Correct Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Guillain-Barré Syndrome

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is an autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nerves, resulting in symmetrical weakness, hyporeflexia, and paraesthesia. The condition often occurs after an infection, usually involving the respiratory or gastrointestinal tract. The most commonly used treatment for GBS is intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG), which helps to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms. Plasmapheresis (plasma exchange) is another option that filters antibodies from the patient’s plasma.

      However, corticosteroids such as intravenous prednisolone have not been shown to improve GBS symptoms and may even prolong recovery. Haemodialysis is not necessary unless the patient has concurrent renal failure. Antivirals such as intravenous acyclovir have no role in managing GBS as it is not a viral illness. Although a bacterial infection may precede GBS, antibiotics such as intravenous ceftriaxone are not used to treat the autoimmune process causing the neurological symptoms. In some cases, patients with GBS may require invasive ventilation, which may cause pneumonia and require treatment with antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      433.1
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - A 6-year-old boy presents to his General Practitioner with his mother three weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy presents to his General Practitioner with his mother three weeks following his recent admission to the Paediatric Ward where he was treated for Kawasaki disease. He responded well to his treatment in the hospital.
      His mother asks if her son still needs to be taking the treatment prescribed by the Paediatric Team.
      Which of the following treatments is the patient likely to still be taking?

      Your Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin weekly

      Correct Answer: Oral aspirin daily

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Kawasaki Disease: Understanding the Use of Aspirin

      Kawasaki disease is a condition that affects children and causes inflammation in the blood vessels throughout the body. When diagnosed, treatment typically involves intravenous immunoglobulin and aspirin. In this article, we will discuss the use of aspirin in the treatment of Kawasaki disease and why it is important.

      Oral aspirin is given to patients with Kawasaki disease due to its anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet properties. It helps to reduce the chances of blood clots if there are developing problems in the heart, such as coronary artery aneurysms that can occur in Kawasaki disease. The dosage of aspirin is usually higher (30 mg/kg per day) for up to two weeks and then continued at lower doses (3-5 mg/kg per day) until a review of echocardiogram, which is usually 6-8 weeks after the onset of illness.

      If the review echocardiogram at 6-8 weeks shows no evidence of any coronary artery aneurysms, then aspirin is usually stopped. However, until that time, patients with Kawasaki disease will continue to take oral aspirin daily.

      It is important to note that other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications such as ibuprofen should be avoided while taking aspirin. Additionally, oral steroids are a second-line treatment that are considered when there is failure to respond to initial intravenous immunoglobulin therapy.

      In conclusion, aspirin is an important part of the treatment for Kawasaki disease due to its anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet properties. Patients with Kawasaki disease will continue to take oral aspirin daily until a review echocardiogram shows no evidence of any coronary artery aneurysms. It is important to follow the treatment plan prescribed by a specialist to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      45.9
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  • Question 163 - A 60-year-old man complains of worsening pain and swelling in both knees with...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man complains of worsening pain and swelling in both knees with stiffness and decreased mobility over the past eight months. He also has painful wrist joints with nodules at the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints which have developed slowly over the past two years.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis (OA)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between types of arthritis: A case study

      In this case study, a patient presents with bony swelling at the DIP and PIP joints of the hands. It is important to differentiate between various types of arthritis to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is characterized by loss of articular cartilage and overgrowth of underlying bone, commonly affecting the hips, knees, and small hand joints. Pain and swelling are common presenting features, along with crepitus on examination. Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes may also be present.

      Osteoporosis, on the other hand, is a condition of reduced bone density and increased fragility, often diagnosed following a low-impact fracture or screening of high-risk patients. Pain and bony swelling are not typical features of osteoporosis.

      Psoriatic arthritis is an inflammatory seronegative spondyloarthropathy associated with psoriasis, commonly affecting the hands but not causing the changes described in this case. Dactylitis is a usual examination finding with psoriatic arthritis.

      Reactive arthritis is characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following an infection. It typically presents as an acute, asymmetrical lower-limb arthritis, occurring a few days to weeks after the initial infection.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) presents most often in women between the ages of 35 and 55 with symmetrical polyarticular arthritis, most often in the small joints of the hands or feet. Swelling is present at the metacarpophalangeal and PIP joints of the hands, along with other signs such as swan neck and Boutonnière deformities of the fingers, ulnar deviation of fingers, and Z deformity of the thumb.

      In conclusion, careful examination and consideration of various types of arthritis are necessary for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      13.7
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  • Question 164 - A 75-year-old man is prescribed oral alendronate after a hip fracture. Can you...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is prescribed oral alendronate after a hip fracture. Can you provide instructions on how to take the tablet?

      Your Answer: Take at least 30 minutes after a main meal + sit-upright for 30 minutes following

      Correct Answer: Take at least 30 minutes before breakfast with plenty of water + sit-upright for 30 minutes following

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      21.9
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  • Question 165 - An itchy rash over the extensor surfaces in a patient with gluten intolerance:...

    Incorrect

    • An itchy rash over the extensor surfaces in a patient with gluten intolerance:

      Your Answer: Pemphigoid

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is the correct answer, which is a skin rash that is closely linked to coeliac disease. This is a persistent skin condition that causes blisters, but it is not caused by or related to the herpes virus. It is important to note that dapsone is an effective treatment for Dermatitis herpetiformis, which is a common question in exams. Additionally, a gluten-free diet can also help alleviate symptoms.

      Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is an autoimmune blistering disorder that is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces of the body, such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.

      To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is required, which will show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis. This condition can be managed by following a gluten-free diet and taking dapsone medication.

      It is important to understand the symptoms and management of dermatitis herpetiformis to ensure that proper treatment is given. By following a gluten-free diet and taking medication, individuals with this condition can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - Nosocomial wound infections are often caused by various factors. However, which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Nosocomial wound infections are often caused by various factors. However, which of the following is the most frequent cause of such infections?

      Your Answer: Too frequent skin disinfection and destruction of the normal skin flora

      Correct Answer: Inadequate hand disinfection

      Explanation:

      Preventing Hospital-Acquired Wound Infections: Common Causes and Solutions

      Hospital-acquired wound infections are a serious concern for patients and healthcare providers alike. While all wounds are contaminated by microbes, proper hygiene and disinfection can greatly reduce the risk of infection. However, there are several common causes of hospital-acquired wound infections that must be addressed to prevent their occurrence.

      The most frequent cause of nosocomial wound infection is inadequate hand disinfection. Hands are a major source of transmission for hospital infections, and compliance with handwashing protocols can be suboptimal for a variety of reasons. These include lack of accessible equipment, insufficient knowledge of staff about risks and procedures, and too long a duration recommended for washing.

      Inadequate instrument disinfection is another common cause of hospital-acquired wound infections. Different levels of disinfection are recommended for patient equipment depending on the type of care, with surgical instruments presenting a critical level of risk. Sterilisation or high-level disinfection is necessary to minimise the risk of infection.

      While strict schedules for cleaning and disinfection of rooms are in place in hospitals, inadequate room disinfection is still a concern. However, this is not the main cause of surgical wound infection.

      The use of wrong disinfectants during skin disinfection can also contribute to hospital-acquired wound infections. Specific hand disinfectants are used for skin disinfection, including alcoholic rubs and emollient gels.

      Finally, too frequent skin disinfection can lead to the destruction of the normal skin flora, which can increase the risk of infection. Disinfecting agents must be chosen with care to avoid sensitisation or irritation of the skin.

      In conclusion, preventing hospital-acquired wound infections requires a multifaceted approach that addresses the common causes of infection. Proper hand hygiene, instrument disinfection, and skin disinfection are all essential components of a comprehensive infection prevention program.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      72.3
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  • Question 167 - A 52-year-old woman presents to an eye screening appointment, having been referred by...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to an eye screening appointment, having been referred by her General Practitioner. She has a family history of type II diabetes mellitus. At the appointment, there are no signs of diabetic retinopathy.
      What is the most appropriate ongoing eye screening for this patient?

      Your Answer: Annual tonometry

      Correct Answer: Annual visual acuity testing and retinal photography

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Annual Eye Screening for Diabetic Patients

      The National Health Service diabetic eye screening programme recommends that patients over the age of 12 with diabetes attend annual eye screening appointments. These appointments include visual acuity testing and retinal photography, which can detect changes consistent with background retinopathy or more severe forms of diabetic retinopathy. Patients with moderate, severe, or proliferative retinopathy will be referred for further assessment and may require more frequent screening following treatment.

      Tonometry, which measures intraocular pressure, is also important in the diagnosis of glaucoma. However, the gold-standard test for diagnosing diabetic retinopathy is dilated retinal photography with or without fundoscopy. Retinal photographs are preferable to fundoscopy because they provide a clear view of the entire retina and can be compared with previous images to monitor disease progression.

      It is important for diabetic patients to attend annual eye screening appointments, even if they have no changes in vision. Vision may be preserved until relatively advanced stages of the disease, and early detection of diabetic retinopathy can prevent irreversible loss of vision. Therefore, patients should not wait for changes in vision to occur before attending screening appointments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      249.3
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  • Question 168 - A 42-year-old woman arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of a painful and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of a painful and red eye with watering and mild sensitivity to light. The diagnosis was uncertain, but it was suspected to be either episcleritis or scleritis. The on-call ophthalmologist was contacted, and they requested that a specific eye drop be administered to differentiate between the two conditions.

      Which of the following eye drops is capable of distinguishing between episcleritis and scleritis?

      Your Answer: Local anaesthesia eye drops

      Correct Answer: Phenylephrine eye drops

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between episcleritis and scleritis can be achieved using eye drops. By administering the drops, it is possible to observe whether the redness in the eye blanches or not. If it does, then the condition is episcleritis, but if it doesn’t, then it is scleritis. This skill is particularly valuable for those working in an Emergency Medicine rotation. None of the other options are useful for distinguishing between these two conditions.

      Understanding Episcleritis

      Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.

      One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.

      Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      749.4
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  • Question 169 - A new phlebotomist, who has only received one dose of hepatitis B vaccine,...

    Incorrect

    • A new phlebotomist, who has only received one dose of hepatitis B vaccine, accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from a patient known to have hepatitis B. What steps should she take to reduce her risk of contracting the virus?

      Your Answer: Give hepatitis B immune globulin

      Correct Answer: Give an accelerated course of the hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immune globulin

      Explanation:

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Infectious Diseases

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to an infectious disease. The type of PEP given depends on the specific disease and the circumstances of the exposure. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, if the source is HBsAg positive, a booster dose of the HBV vaccine should be given to known responders. Non-responders require hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and a booster vaccine. If the source is unknown, known responders may receive a booster dose of the HBV vaccine, while known non-responders require HBIG and a vaccine. Those in the process of being vaccinated should have an accelerated course of the HBV vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, the risk of transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. Low-risk incidents such as human bites generally do not require PEP. However, for high-risk incidents, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. It is important to note that the risk of transmission varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      78.8
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  • Question 170 - The combined contraceptive pill increases a woman's susceptibility to which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The combined contraceptive pill increases a woman's susceptibility to which of the following conditions? Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Functional ovarian cysts

      Correct Answer: Venous thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Benefits and Risks of Oral Contraceptives

      Oral contraceptives, also known as birth control pills, are a popular form of contraception for women. They contain synthetic hormones that prevent pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation, thickening cervical mucus, and altering the lining of the uterus. While oral contraceptives have many benefits, they also carry some risks.

      Venous Thrombosis: The estrogen component of oral contraceptives can activate the blood-clotting mechanism, increasing the risk of venous thrombosis. However, low-dose oral contraceptives are associated with a lower risk of thromboembolism.

      Benign Breast Disease: Oral contraceptives can prevent benign breast disease, but their association with breast cancer in young women is controversial. While some studies suggest a slightly increased risk of breast cancer, the risk is small and the resulting tumors spread less aggressively than usual.

      Functional Ovarian Cysts: Oral contraceptives suppress ovarian stimulation, reducing the risk of developing functional ovarian cysts.

      Carcinoma of the Ovary or Uterus: Oral contraceptives can prevent epithelial ovarian and endometrial carcinoma. They are associated with a 40% reduced risk of malignant and borderline ovarian epithelial cancer and a 50% reduction in the risk of endometrial adenocarcinoma.

      Pelvic Inflammatory Disease: Oral contraceptives can prevent the development of pelvic inflammatory disease.

      Overall, oral contraceptives are reliable and reversible, reduce menstrual symptoms, and lower the risk of certain cancers and pelvic inflammatory disease. However, they carry some risks, including an increased risk of venous thrombosis and a controversial association with breast cancer. Women should discuss the benefits and risks of oral contraceptives with their healthcare provider to determine if they are a suitable form of contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 171 - A 65-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a complaint of gradual...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a complaint of gradual vision loss. During tonometry, his intraocular pressure is found to be 26mmHg and optic disc cupping is observed on fundoscopy. Visual field examination reveals peripheral visual loss. The physician prescribes timolol eye drops to be used twice daily. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Decrease production of aqueous fluid

      Explanation:

      Timolol, a beta blocker, is effective in treating primary open-angle glaucoma by reducing the production of aqueous fluid. This condition is characterized by increased intraocular pressure due to inefficient drainage of fluid in the eye’s trabecular meshwork. Symptoms include gradual loss of vision, particularly in the peripheral fields. Brimonidine, an alpha-adrenergic agonist, also reduces aqueous fluid production and increases uveoscleral outflow. However, drugs that decrease uveoscleral outflow or increase aqueous fluid production would worsen the patient’s condition. Glucocorticoids can cause reduced drainage of aqueous humour and are implicated in causing open-angle glaucoma. Latanoprost, a prostaglandin analogue, increases uveoscleral outflow.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      109.4
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  • Question 172 - A 56-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of numbness and tingling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of numbness and tingling in his thumb, middle, and index fingers for the past 8 months. This is beginning to interfere with his work as a financial analyst. He has a history of hypothyroidism for which he takes 75 micrograms of thyroxine daily. Other than that, his medical history is unremarkable. Which nerves are likely affected in this condition?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      To identify the affected nerve, it is crucial to accurately diagnose the underlying condition. The patient’s symptoms, such as numbness and tingling in the thumb and middle finger (and possibly the radial half of the ring finger), suggest carpal tunnel syndrome. Additionally, the patient’s occupation involving computer use and hypothyroidism are risk factors for this condition. Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the median nerve is compressed at the wrist within the carpal tunnel.

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 173 - A 26-year-old male is admitted with acute severe asthma. The initial treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male is admitted with acute severe asthma. The initial treatment of 100% oxygen, nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers and IV hydrocortisone is initiated. However, there is no improvement. What should be the next step in management?

      Your Answer: IV salbutamol

      Correct Answer: IV magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      The routine use of non-invasive ventilation in asthmatics is not supported by current guidelines.

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.

      Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 174 - A 60-year-old man is discovered to have hypocalcaemia during routine blood tests for...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man is discovered to have hypocalcaemia during routine blood tests for his chronic kidney disease. He has a medical history of polycystic kidney disease, and it is anticipated that the low calcium result is a complication of this. What abnormalities would you anticipate in his other laboratory values?

      Your Answer: ↓ serum phosphate, normal ALP and normal PTH

      Correct Answer: ↑ serum phosphate, ↑ ALP and ↑ PTH

      Explanation:

      Chronic kidney disease can lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is characterized by low serum calcium, high serum phosphate, high ALP, and high PTH levels. The kidneys are unable to activate vitamin D and excrete phosphate, resulting in calcium being used up in calcium phosphate. This leads to hypocalcemia, which triggers an increase in PTH levels to try and raise calcium levels. PTH stimulates osteoclast activity, causing a rise in ALP found in bone. Normal serum phosphate, normal ALP, and normal PTH levels are associated with osteoporosis or osteopetrosis, but in this case, the patient’s hypocalcemia and chronic kidney disease suggest other abnormal results. High serum phosphate, normal ALP, and low PTH levels are found in hypoparathyroidism, which is not consistent with chronic kidney disease. Low serum phosphate, normal ALP, and normal PTH levels suggest an isolated phosphate deficiency, which is also not consistent with the patient’s clinical picture.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.

      Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.

      Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      19
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  • Question 175 - A 55-year-old woman with a history of diabetes complains of left-sided ear pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with a history of diabetes complains of left-sided ear pain and discharge. During examination, her temperature is recorded at 37.9ºC and there is red discharge in the ear canal. The tympanic membrane is partially visible and appears normal. Despite visiting the out of hours clinic twice and using different ear drops for two weeks, her symptoms persist. What course of treatment should be recommended?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin and topical antibiotic drops

      Correct Answer: Referral to secondary care

      Explanation:

      It is probable that the patient is suffering from malignant otitis externa, a condition that affects individuals with weakened immune systems like those with diabetes. This condition is characterized by osteomyelitis of the temporal bone. Despite receiving several rounds of antibiotic drops, the patient’s symptoms have not improved. It is recommended that the patient be referred to an ENT specialist for a CT scan of the temporal bones and treated with an extended course of intravenous antibiotics.

      Understanding Otitis Externa: Causes, Features, and Management

      Otitis externa is a common condition that often prompts patients to seek medical attention. It is characterized by ear pain, itch, and discharge, and is caused by various factors such as infection, seborrhoeic dermatitis, and contact dermatitis. Swimming is also a common trigger of otitis externa. Upon examination, the ear canal appears red, swollen, or eczematous.

      The recommended initial management of otitis externa involves the use of topical antibiotics or a combination of topical antibiotics with a steroid. However, if the tympanic membrane is perforated, aminoglycosides are traditionally not used. In cases where there is canal debris, removal may be necessary, while an ear wick may be inserted if the canal is extensively swollen. Second-line options include oral antibiotics, taking a swab inside the ear canal, and empirical use of an antifungal agent.

      It is important to note that if a patient fails to respond to topical antibiotics, referral to an ENT specialist may be necessary. Malignant otitis externa is a more serious condition that is more common in elderly diabetics. It involves the extension of infection into the bony ear canal and the soft tissues deep to the bony canal, and may require intravenous antibiotics.

      Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of otitis externa is crucial in providing appropriate care and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 176 - You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing hip discomfort. Do you suspect...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing hip discomfort. Do you suspect osteoarthritis as the diagnosis? If so, what signs or symptoms would warrant additional testing for a different diagnosis?

      Your Answer: A history of development dysplasia of the hip

      Correct Answer: Morning stiffness lasting 4 hours

      Explanation:

      If morning stiffness persists for more than 2 hours, it could be a sign of inflammatory arthritis and should be investigated further.

      Osteoarthritis (OA) of the hip is a prevalent condition, with the knee being the only joint more commonly affected. It is particularly prevalent in older individuals, and women are twice as likely to develop it. Obesity and developmental dysplasia of the hip are also risk factors. The condition is characterized by chronic groin pain that is exacerbated by exercise and relieved by rest. However, if the pain is present at rest, at night, or in the morning for more than two hours, it may indicate an alternative cause. The Oxford Hip Score is a widely used tool to assess the severity of the condition.

      If the symptoms are typical, a clinical diagnosis can be made. Otherwise, plain x-rays are the first-line investigation. Management of OA of the hip includes oral analgesia and intra-articular injections, which provide short-term relief. However, total hip replacement is the definitive treatment.

      Total hip replacement is a common operation in the developed world, but it is not without risks. Perioperative complications include venous thromboembolism, intraoperative fracture, nerve injury, surgical site infection, and leg length discrepancy. Postoperatively, posterior dislocation may occur during extremes of hip flexion, presenting with a clunk, pain, and inability to weight bear. Aseptic loosening is the most common reason for revision, and prosthetic joint infection is also a potential complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      159.7
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  • Question 177 - A 14-year-old girl presents to the GP with concerns regarding menstruation, as she...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to the GP with concerns regarding menstruation, as she has not yet started her periods. She has no past medical history.

      On examination, there is little to no axillary or pubic hair, and she has a tall stature. Bilateral lower pelvic masses are noted. Her BMI is 19 kg/m².

      Investigations are performed:

      Hb 130 g/L (115 - 160)

      Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 5.7 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      FSH 9 IU/L (1 - 12)

      LH 7 IU/L (1 - 9)

      Testosterone 100 ng/dL (15-70)

      Estradiol 30 pg/mL (30 - 400)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea

      Correct Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS). This is because she has not started menstruating by the age of 15, has little to no axillary or pubic hair, and elevated testosterone levels. These symptoms are all indicative of AIS, which is a genetic condition where individuals with male chromosomes (46XY) have a female appearance due to their body’s resistance to testosterone. The lower pelvic masses seen on examination are likely to be undescended testes.

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically causes excess male-pattern hair growth, including axillary and pubic hair, which is not seen in this patient. Additionally, CAH would not explain the presence of the lower pelvic masses.

      Functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea is also unlikely as this condition is typically associated with low body weight, which is not the case for this patient. Furthermore, her FSH and LH levels are within the normal range, indicating that there is no hypothalamic dysfunction.

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically causes irregular periods rather than a complete absence of menstruation. Additionally, patients with PCOS often have excessive hair growth, which is not seen in this patient. PCOS would also not explain the presence of the lower pelvic masses.

      Understanding Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome is a genetic condition that affects individuals with an XY genotype, causing them to develop a female phenotype due to their body’s resistance to testosterone. This condition was previously known as testicular feminization syndrome. The main features of this condition include primary amenorrhea, little or no pubic and axillary hair, undescended testes leading to groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to estrogen.

      Diagnosis of androgen insensitivity syndrome can be made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis, which reveals a 46XY genotype. After puberty, testosterone levels in affected individuals are typically in the high-normal to slightly elevated range for postpubertal boys.

      Management of androgen insensitivity syndrome involves counseling and raising the child as female. Bilateral orchidectomy is recommended to reduce the risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes. Additionally, estrogen therapy may be used to promote the development of secondary sexual characteristics.

      In summary, androgen insensitivity syndrome is a genetic condition that affects the development of individuals with an XY genotype, causing them to develop a female phenotype. Early diagnosis and management can help affected individuals lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 178 - A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. Her mother was recently released...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. Her mother was recently released from the hospital after fracturing her hip. The patient is worried that she may have inherited osteoporosis and wants to know what steps she should take. She has no significant medical history, does not take any regular medications, and has never experienced any fractures. She is a smoker, consuming approximately 20 cigarettes per day, and drinks 3-4 units of alcohol daily.

      What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start first-line bone protection (i.e. ensure calcium/vitamin D replete + oral bisphosphonate)

      Correct Answer: Use the FRAX tool

      Explanation:

      Due to her positive family history, smoking, and excess alcohol intake, this woman is at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis. Therefore, it is recommended that she undergo a FRAX assessment without delay, rather than waiting until the age of 65 as typically recommended for women without such risk factors.

      Assessing the Risk of Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012 for assessing the risk of fragility fracture. Women aged 65 years and older and men aged 75 years and older should be assessed, while younger patients should be assessed in the presence of risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, history of falls, and low body mass index.

      NICE recommends using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors.

      If the FRAX assessment was done without a bone mineral density (BMD) measurement, the results will be categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the FRAX assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorised into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. Patients assessed using QFracture are not automatically categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 179 - A 36-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and itchy skin. During...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and itchy skin. During the examination, the doctor notices yellowing of the eyes and an enlarged liver. Blood tests reveal the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMAs).

      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer from the options below.

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is a chronic liver disease that primarily affects middle-aged women. It is believed to be an autoimmune disorder that causes progressive cholestasis and can lead to end-stage liver disease. Symptoms include fatigue, pruritus, and right upper quadrant discomfort. Laboratory tests typically show elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase, g-glutamyl transpeptidase, and immunoglobulins, as well as the presence of antimitochondrial antibodies. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid to slow disease progression. Autoimmune hepatitis, diffuse systemic sclerosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and systemic lupus erythematosus are other potential differential diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 180 - A 35-year-old man with a history of asthma and bipolar disorder visits his...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man with a history of asthma and bipolar disorder visits his local GP clinic complaining of 'tonsillitis' and requesting an antibiotic. Upon examination, he has inflamed tonsils on both sides, a temperature of 37.8ºC, and a pulse rate of 90/min. He is currently taking salbutamol inhaler as needed, Clenil inhaler 2 puffs twice daily, co-codamol 30/500 2 tablets four times a day, and quetiapine 100mg twice daily. The decision is made to prescribe penicillin. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Arrange a full blood count

      Explanation:

      Monitoring FBC is crucial in patients taking clozapine as agranulocytosis/neutropenia, a potentially fatal side effect, can occur. It is imperative to rule out neutropenia in case of infections.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 181 - A 43-year-old woman complains of muscle cramps and fatigue. Upon examination, her neck's...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman complains of muscle cramps and fatigue. Upon examination, her neck's front is tender and swollen to touch. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medication. Her blood results show a TSH level of 12.3 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 4.2 pmol/L (9.0 - 18). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Toxic multinodular goitre

      Correct Answer: Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's)

      Explanation:

      Subacute thyroiditis can be differentiated from Hashimoto’s thyroiditis as a cause of hypothyroidism by the presence of tenderness in the thyroid gland. The symptoms are indicative of hypothyroidism, which is confirmed by elevated TSH levels and low T4 levels in the thyroid function tests. The occurrence of a painful goitre points towards subacute thyroiditis as the most probable diagnosis. Graves’ disease, on the other hand, leads to hyperthyroidism and not hypothyroidism. Although Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can also cause hypothyroidism, it is typically painless. Riedel thyroiditis can cause hypothyroidism and may be painful, but it is less likely than subacute thyroiditis.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.

      In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 182 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Paediatric Emergency with fever and fatigue....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Paediatric Emergency with fever and fatigue. She seems sick and sleepy. Neck stiffness is found during examination.
      What is the main factor that would prevent a lumbar puncture (LP) in this case?

      Your Answer: Tachycardia

      Correct Answer: Extensive rash on trunk and limbs

      Explanation:

      Contraindications for Lumbar Puncture in Children with Suspected Bacterial Meningitis

      When a child presents with suspected bacterial meningitis, a lumbar puncture (LP) should be performed as soon as possible. However, there are certain contraindications that must be considered before attempting an LP. These include signs of raised intracranial pressure (ICP), haemodynamic instability, extensive or spreading purpura, seizures (until stabilised), coagulation abnormalities, infection at the site of LP, and respiratory compromise.

      A Glasgow coma scale (GCS) score of 13 is not a contraindication for LP. However, an LP should not be attempted when there are signs of raised ICP, such as a GCS score < 9, drop in GCS of 3, relative bradycardia and hypertension, focal neurological signs, abnormal posturing, anisocoria (unequal pupils), papilloedema, or tense or bulging fontanelle. A history of febrile seizure in the past is not a contraindication for LP. However, if the child has ongoing seizures, an LP should not be attempted. Tachycardia is also not a contraindication for LP, as it could be a result of fever. However, if there is any feature of haemodynamic compromise, such as prolonged capillary refill, hypotension, or reduced urine output, an LP should not be attempted. Coagulation abnormalities are contraindications for LP. A LP should not be attempted when the platelet count is < 100 × 109/l, the patient is on anticoagulants, or bleeding and clotting parameters are deranged. It is important to consider these contraindications before attempting an LP in children with suspected bacterial meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 183 - A 65-year-old man with a history of lung cancer presents with a three-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of lung cancer presents with a three-week history of loss of appetite, nausea, and fatigue. He appears mildly dehydrated on examination. You order some blood tests and the results are as follows:
      Calcium 3.12 mmol/l
      Albumin 40 g/l
      Glucose (random) 6.7 mmol/l
      Urea 10.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 115 µmol/l
      Which medication that he is currently taking is most likely contributing to his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lisinopril

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia is caused by thiazides.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. In most cases, two conditions account for 90% of hypercalcaemia cases. The first is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients. The second is malignancy, which is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. For this reason, measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial when investigating patients with hypercalcaemia.

      Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. It is important to note that hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization in patients with Paget’s disease of the bone, although this condition is usually normal.

      In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is essential in investigating patients with hypercalcaemia. Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 184 - A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening psoriasis. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening psoriasis. He reports feeling more stressed lately and suspects it may be contributing to his flare-up. Additionally, he has recently started taking a new medication. During the physical examination, scaly plaques on the extensor surfaces and trunk that are erythematous are observed. Which of the following medications could potentially trigger exacerbations in his condition?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      The medication lithium has been known to worsen psoriasis in some patients and can even cause psoriasis in those who did not previously have it, even at normal therapeutic levels. It is important to inform both the patient and their psychiatrist of this potential effect. Furosemide, on the other hand, does not typically worsen or cause drug-induced psoriasis, but can lead to electrolyte imbalances. Amiodarone also does not worsen or cause drug-induced psoriasis, but can cause a bluish discoloration of the skin.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors. These include physical trauma, consumption of alcohol, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, stopping the use of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take necessary precautions to manage their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 185 - A previously healthy 26-year-old female complains of profuse diarrhoea and is worried after...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 26-year-old female complains of profuse diarrhoea and is worried after observing bright red blood in her stool. She has been feeling unwell for the past four days and denies consuming any unusual food, although she did attend a barbecue five days ago. What is the most probable organism responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of prodrome and bloody diarrhoea are indicative of a Campylobacter infection, which is the most common bacterial cause of infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The incubation period for this infection is typically 1-6 days, which aligns with the patient’s presentation. Bacillus cereus, which is associated with food poisoning from reheated rice, typically has a shorter incubation period and would not usually cause bloody diarrhoea. Clostridium difficile infection is more commonly found in hospital settings and is linked to antibiotic use, but there are no risk factors mentioned for this patient. Salmonella enteritidis, which has a shorter incubation period and is associated with severe vomiting and high fever, is less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      Campylobacter: The Most Common Bacterial Cause of Intestinal Disease in the UK

      Campylobacter is a Gram-negative bacillus that is responsible for causing infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The bacteria is primarily spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, diarrhoea (often bloody), and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.

      In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and does not require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the patient is immunocompromised or if symptoms are severe (high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day) and have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. It is important to note that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.

      Complications of Campylobacter infection may include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or persist for an extended period of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      9.9
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  • Question 186 - A 52-year-old woman had a anterior myocardial infarction (MI) three weeks ago and...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman had a anterior myocardial infarction (MI) three weeks ago and has been prescribed various drugs by the cardiology team.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to decrease this patient’s mortality post-MI?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Common Medications for Cardiovascular Conditions

      Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker that specifically targets the heart, reducing strain by decreasing pre-load and after-load. It has been found to be effective in reducing mortality after a heart attack, especially in patients with heart failure.

      Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic drug that can be used to prevent irregular heartbeats. However, it does not improve mortality rates in post-heart attack patients.

      Isosorbide mononitrate is a medication that helps lower blood pressure and can alleviate chest pain in stable angina. It does not improve mortality rates and should be used with caution when taken with sildenafil.

      Nicorandil works by dilating the coronary arteries, reducing chest pain in stable angina. While it does not improve prognostic outcomes, it can improve symptoms.

      Patients who have experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) should be started on a combination of medications to improve their outcomes. The following medications are recommended for post-MI patients:

      1. Statin: This medication helps to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of future cardiovascular events.

      2. ACE inhibitor: This medication helps to lower blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart failure.

      3. Beta blocker: This medication helps to reduce the workload on the heart and improve its function.

      4. Aspirin: This medication helps to prevent blood clots and reduce the risk of future cardiovascular events.

      Other medications may be used to relieve symptoms, such as ISMN and nicorandil, but they do not offer any mortality benefit. It is important for post-MI patients to take their medications as prescribed and to follow up with their healthcare provider regularly to monitor their progress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      55.4
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  • Question 187 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the endocrine clinic with thyroid function test results...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the endocrine clinic with thyroid function test results indicating palpitations, excessive sweating, unintentional weight loss, and a notable thyroid goitre that is tender upon palpation. The test results show a TSH level of 9.4 mU/L (normal range: 0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 6.4 pmol/L (normal range: 9.0-18). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Papillary carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Subacute (De Quervain's) thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases

      Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.

      To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.

      It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 188 - A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with central crushing chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with central crushing chest pain. Upon arrival, an ECG reveals ST-elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient has a history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril, aspirin and simvastatin. What is the most effective course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Aspirin + clopidogrel + LMWH + tenecteplase

      Correct Answer: Aspirin + clopidogrel + IV heparin + immediate percutaneous coronary intervention

      Explanation:

      Immediate percutaneous coronary intervention with aspirin, clopidogrel, and IV heparin is recommended.

      Myocardial infarction, specifically ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), can be managed using evidence-based approaches. Patients without contraindications should be given aspirin and a P2Y12-receptor antagonist, with ticagrelor being preferred over clopidogrel due to improved outcomes despite slightly higher bleeding rates. Unfractionated heparin is typically given to patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), but low-molecular weight heparin can also be used. Oxygen therapy should not be routinely administered, but supplemental oxygen can be given to patients with oxygen saturation levels below 94% or those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure.

      Primary PCI is the preferred treatment for STEMI, but it may not be available in all centers. Thrombolysis can be performed in patients without access to primary PCI, with tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) offering clear mortality benefits over streptokinase. Tenecteplase is easier to administer and has non-inferior efficacy to alteplase with a similar adverse effect profile. An ECG should be performed 90 minutes following thrombolysis to assess whether there has been a greater than 50% resolution in the ST elevation. If there has not been adequate resolution, rescue PCI is superior to repeat thrombolysis. For patients successfully treated with thrombolysis, PCI has been shown to be beneficial, but the optimal timing is still being investigated.

      For patients with diabetes mellitus, NICE recommends using a dose-adjusted insulin infusion with regular monitoring of blood glucose levels to keep glucose below 11.0 mmol/l. Intensive insulin therapy regimes are not recommended routinely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      26.3
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  • Question 189 - A 68-year-old male visits his primary care physician with a complaint of persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male visits his primary care physician with a complaint of persistent left-sided ear pain for over a month. He reports no hearing loss or discharge and feels generally healthy. He has a history of hypertension and currently smokes 15 cigarettes a day. Otoscopy reveals no abnormalities in either ear. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Trial of amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Refer to ENT under 2-week wait

      Explanation:

      If a person experiences unexplained ear pain on one side for more than 4 weeks and there are no visible abnormalities during an otoscopy, it is important to refer them for further investigation under the 2-week wait. This is particularly crucial for individuals who smoke, as they are at a higher risk for head and neck cancer. Using topical antibiotic/steroid drops or nasal steroid sprays without identifying any underlying pathology is not recommended. While amitriptyline may provide relief for symptoms, it should not be used as a substitute for proper diagnosis and treatment. Referring the patient for further evaluation is necessary to rule out the possibility of malignancy.

      Understanding Head and Neck Cancer

      Head and neck cancer is a broad term that encompasses various types of cancer, including oral cavity cancers, pharynx cancers, and larynx cancers. Symptoms of head and neck cancer may include a neck lump, hoarseness, persistent sore throat, and mouth ulcers.

      To ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has established suspected cancer pathway referral criteria. For instance, individuals aged 45 and over with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck may be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for laryngeal cancer. Similarly, those with unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than three weeks or a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck may be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for oral cancer.

      Dentists may also play a role in identifying potential cases of oral cancer. Individuals with a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia may be urgently referred for assessment within two weeks. Finally, individuals with an unexplained thyroid lump may be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for thyroid cancer. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of head and neck cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      63.2
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - A 35-year-old expectant mother seeks guidance regarding the likelihood of her child inheriting...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old expectant mother seeks guidance regarding the likelihood of her child inheriting polycystic kidney disease. Despite her diagnosis, she is presently in good health. Her father, who also has the condition, is currently undergoing dialysis. What is the probability that her offspring will develop the disease?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a prevalent genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 1,000 Caucasians. The disease is caused by mutations in two genes, PKD1 and PKD2, which produce polycystin-1 and polycystin-2, respectively. ADPKD type 1 accounts for 85% of cases, while ADPKD type 2 accounts for the remaining 15%. Individuals with ADPKD develop multiple fluid-filled cysts in their kidneys, which can lead to renal failure.

      To diagnose ADPKD in individuals with a positive family history, an abdominal ultrasound is typically performed. The diagnostic criteria for ultrasound include the presence of two cysts, either unilateral or bilateral, in individuals under 30 years of age, two cysts in both kidneys for those aged 30-59 years, and four cysts in both kidneys for those over 60 years of age.

      Management of ADPKD may involve the use of tolvaptan, a vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist, for select patients. Tolvaptan has been recommended by NICE as an option for treating ADPKD in adults with chronic kidney disease stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment, evidence of rapidly progressing disease, and if the company provides it with the agreed discount in the patient access scheme. The goal of treatment is to slow the progression of cyst development and renal insufficiency. An enlarged kidney with extensive cysts is a common finding in individuals with ADPKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      941.9
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  • Question 191 - A 25-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and recurring fevers....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and recurring fevers. He describes a flu-like illness in recent days, with myalgia and rigours every two days. He has previously been well, other than an episode of suspected malaria on a gap year in Brazil three years ago, which was felt to be successfully treated. He has not been abroad since.
      On examination, he has splenomegaly, scleral icterus and a temperature of 39.1°C.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 95 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White Cell Count (WCC) 14 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 100 × 109 150–450× 109/l
      Blood film Awaited
      Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Plasmodium malariae

      Correct Answer: Plasmodium vivax

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Fluctuating Pyrexia: Malaria vs. Other Causes

      The patient in question is experiencing fluctuating rigours of malaria, despite not having been in a malaria-affected zone for two years. This suggests a recurrence of pre-existing malaria, with the most likely subtype being P. vivax due to its ability to lie dormant in the liver for extended periods. While dengue fever is a possibility, the history of fluctuating pyrexia is more indicative of malaria, which also causes anaemia and thrombocytopenia. P. falciparum is a reasonable differential, but less likely given the patient’s travel history. P. malariae is rare and typically presents with fevers recurring every three days, making it less likely. Yellow fever is also unlikely due to the patient’s travel timeline and lack of jaundice. Overall, malaria is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      67.5
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  • Question 192 - A 38-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that started...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that started 2 hours ago. He describes the pain as radiating to his left arm and jaw. He has no significant past medical history; he drinks alcohol occasionally and admits to sometimes using illegal drugs.

      On examination, he appears sweaty and agitated. His limbs are mildly hypertonic and hyper-reflexive, and his pupils are dilated. His blood pressure is 175/82 mmHg. An ECG shows some QRS widening and QT prolongation, as well as ST depression and T wave inversion in several leads.

      What should be given as part of the acute management?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      In the case of a suspected myocardial infarction (MI) caused by cocaine use, the recommended first-line treatment is intravenous benzodiazepines, such as diazepam, to alleviate coronary artery vasospasm. Nitrates can also be administered to relieve chest pain. Atorvastatin, which is used to lower cholesterol levels and prevent future MIs, is not appropriate for immediate treatment. While beta-blockers like bisoprolol are typically used to manage MIs, their use in cocaine-related MIs is controversial due to the potential to worsen coronary vasospasm. Naloxone, which reverses opioid overdose symptoms like respiratory depression and constricted pupils, is not indicated in this case as the patient is intoxicated with cocaine, not opioids.

      Understanding Cocaine Toxicity

      Cocaine is a popular recreational stimulant derived from the coca plant. However, its widespread use has resulted in an increase in cocaine toxicity cases. The drug works by blocking the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin, leading to a variety of adverse effects.

      Cardiovascular effects of cocaine include coronary artery spasm, tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, QRS widening, QT prolongation, and aortic dissection. Neurological effects may include seizures, mydriasis, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. Psychiatric effects such as agitation, psychosis, and hallucinations may also occur. Other complications include ischaemic colitis, hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, and rhabdomyolysis.

      Managing cocaine toxicity involves using benzodiazepines as a first-line treatment for most cocaine-related problems. For chest pain, benzodiazepines and glyceryl trinitrate may be used, and primary percutaneous coronary intervention may be necessary if myocardial infarction develops. Hypertension can be treated with benzodiazepines and sodium nitroprusside. The use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is controversial, with some experts warning against it due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm.

      In summary, cocaine toxicity can lead to a range of adverse effects, and managing it requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      8.3
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  • Question 193 - A 55-year-old man presents to the respiratory clinic for a follow-up on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the respiratory clinic for a follow-up on his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He has a history of chronic CO2 retention and his oxygen saturation goals are between 88-92%. Upon examination, his chest sounds are quiet throughout, with equal air expansion, and a hyper-expanded chest. His oxygen saturation levels are at 91% on air. The clinic performs an arterial blood gas test.

      What would be the most likely blood gas results for this patient?

      Your Answer: pH = 7.48, pO2 = 7.9 kPa, pCO2 = 2.3 kPa, HCO3- = 24 mmol/l

      Correct Answer: pH = 7.37, pO2 = 9.1 kPa, pCO2 = 6.1 kPa, HCO3- = 30 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation Made Easy

      Arterial blood gas interpretation can be a daunting task for healthcare professionals. However, the Resuscitation Council (UK) has provided a simple 5-step approach to make it easier. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, which is indicated by a PaO2 level of less than 10 kPa on air. The third step is to check if the patient is acidaemic or alkalaemic, which is determined by the pH level. A pH level of less than 7.35 indicates acidaemia, while a pH level of more than 7.45 indicates alkalaemia.

      The fourth step is to assess the respiratory component by checking the PaCO2 level. A PaCO2 level of more than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level of less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth and final step is to evaluate the metabolic component by checking the bicarbonate level or base excess. A bicarbonate level of less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess of less than -2mmol/l indicates metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level of more than 26 mmol/l or a base excess of more than +2mmol/l indicates metabolic alkalosis.

      To make it easier to remember, healthcare professionals can use the ROME acronym. Respiratory is opposite, which means that low pH and high PaCO2 indicate acidosis, while high pH and low PaCO2 indicate alkalosis. Metabolic is equal, which means that low pH and low bicarbonate indicate acidosis, while high pH and high bicarbonate indicate alkalosis. By following this simple approach, healthcare professionals can easily interpret arterial blood gas results and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      1010.6
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  • Question 194 - A 21-year-old female presents for a follow-up after a medical termination of pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old female presents for a follow-up after a medical termination of pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation. She is considering getting a Nexplanon implant. When is it appropriate to insert Nexplanon in this situation?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      15.3
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  • Question 195 - A 55-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of weakness in his...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of weakness in his right leg for the past three days. During the examination, it was observed that there was a weakness in the right knee flexion, but the knee extension was intact. Additionally, there was a weakness in the dorsal and plantar flexion of the right ankle, as well as the right flexor hallucis longus. The right ankle jerk was lost, but the knee-jerk was intact, and the plantar response was downgoing. Based on the most probable nerve that is damaged in this patient, what are the nerve roots that supply this nerve?

      Your Answer: L4-5, S1-3

      Explanation:

      The sciatic nerve is innervated by spinal nerves L4-5, S1-3. The patient exhibits weakness in all muscle groups below the knee, with an intact knee jerk but weak ankle jerk, indicating damage to the sciatic nerve. The iliohypogastric nerve is supplied by T12-L1, while the genitofemoral nerve is supplied by L1-2.

      Understanding Sciatic Nerve Lesion

      The sciatic nerve is a major nerve in the body that is supplied by the L4-5, S1-3 vertebrae. It divides into two branches, the tibial and common peroneal nerves, which supply the hamstring and adductor muscles. A sciatic nerve lesion can cause paralysis of knee flexion and all movements below the knee, as well as sensory loss below the knee. However, knee jerk reflexes remain intact while ankle and plantar reflexes are lost.

      There are several causes of sciatic nerve lesions, including fractures of the neck of the femur, posterior hip dislocation, and trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      73.8
      Seconds
  • Question 196 - A 65-year-old woman is diagnosed with a DVT 2 weeks after undergoing a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman is diagnosed with a DVT 2 weeks after undergoing a hip replacement surgery, despite being on prophylactic dose LMWH. She has a history of osteoarthritis but no other significant medical history. The treatment for her DVT is started with LMWH. What is the best anticoagulation plan for her?

      Your Answer: Switch to direct oral anticoagulant for 3 months

      Explanation:

      For cases of venous thromboembolism that are provoked, such as those resulting from recent surgery, a standard length of warfarin treatment is 3 months. However, for unprovoked cases, the recommended length of treatment is 6 months.

      NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      38.5
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  • Question 197 - A child is born with a genetic condition that is inherited in an...

    Correct

    • A child is born with a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. The parents are informed of this. What is the most likely condition that the child has?

      Your Answer: Myotonic dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder causing muscle weakness and wasting. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease affecting chloride transport and causing thick mucus secretions. Homocystinuria is an autosomal recessive disorder of methionine metabolism leading to accumulation of homocysteine and its metabolites. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive disease causing mental retardation due to the inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine. Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disorder causing deformed red blood cells and oxygen deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 198 - Which of the following medications is most likely to cause a rash when...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications is most likely to cause a rash when exposed to sunlight?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Correct Answer: Tetracycline

      Explanation:

      Drugs that can cause sensitivity to light

      Photosensitivity is a condition where the skin becomes more sensitive to light, resulting in rashes, blisters, and other skin irritations. Certain drugs can cause photosensitivity, making it important to be aware of the medications that can cause this condition. Some of the drugs that can cause photosensitivity include thiazides, tetracyclines, sulphonamides, ciprofloxacin, amiodarone, NSAIDs like piroxicam, psoralens, and sulphonylureas.

      Thiazides are a type of diuretic that can cause photosensitivity, while tetracyclines, sulphonamides, and ciprofloxacin are antibiotics that can also cause this condition. Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm problems, but it can also cause photosensitivity. NSAIDs like piroxicam are pain relievers that can cause photosensitivity, while psoralens are used to treat skin conditions like psoriasis and can also cause photosensitivity. Sulphonylureas are medications used to treat diabetes that can cause photosensitivity as well.

      It is important to note that not everyone who takes these medications will experience photosensitivity, but it is still important to be aware of the potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      36.5
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  • Question 199 - A 21-year-old college student is brought to the emergency department by her roommates,...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old college student is brought to the emergency department by her roommates, presenting confusion and fever. She had been complaining of a severe headache and neck stiffness since yesterday. Her roommates have also noticed what appears to be bruising.
      Upon examination, she appears acutely unwell, with a fever and nuchal rigidity. A widespread purpuric rash is observed, as well as general pallor and mottling.
      Considering the probable diagnosis, what should be provided to her roommates?

      Your Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin if they develop any symptoms

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin now

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. In this case, the patient’s symptoms indicate meningococcal meningitis, and therefore, household members and close contacts should be offered prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin as the preferred drug. Intramuscular benzylpenicillin is not appropriate for prophylaxis, but may be given to a patient with suspected meningococcal meningitis in a pre-hospital setting. Intravenous benzylpenicillin is a treatment option for the patient, not for contacts. Intravenous cefotaxime is also a treatment option for the patient, but not a suitable prophylactic antibiotic for contacts. Waiting until symptoms develop to give oral ciprofloxacin is not recommended – it should be given immediately.

      The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      104
      Seconds
  • Question 200 - A floppy four-week-old neonate presents with vomiting, weight loss and circulatory collapse. Blood...

    Incorrect

    • A floppy four-week-old neonate presents with vomiting, weight loss and circulatory collapse. Blood tests demonstrate hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. Further tests confirm metabolic acidosis and hypoglycaemia. The paediatrician notices that the penis was enlarged and the scrotum pigmented. The child was treated with both a glucocorticoid and a mineralocorticoid.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Disorders: Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, Conn Syndrome, Addisonian Crisis, Cushing Syndrome, and Thyrotoxic Crisis

      Endocrine disorders are conditions that affect the production and regulation of hormones in the body. Here are five different endocrine disorders and their characteristics:

      Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) is a group of autosomal recessive conditions caused by mutations in the enzymes involved in the production of steroids and hormones from the adrenal glands. It can affect both men and women equally, and symptoms include ambiguous genitalia at birth for women and hyperpigmentation and penile enlargement for men. Treatment involves hormone replacement therapy.

      Conn Syndrome is a condition associated with primary hyperaldosteronism, which presents with hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia. It is more commonly seen in adult patients, but there are cases reported in childhood.

      Addisonian Crisis occurs due to glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid deficiency, usually occurring in adulthood. It is a potentially fatal episode that presents with hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoglycaemia, and hypercalcaemia. Urgent intravenous administration of glucocorticoids is necessary for management.

      Cushing Syndrome is due to cortisol excess, either exogenous or endogenous, and is usually diagnosed in adulthood. Symptoms include weight gain, hypertension, oedema, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia, and pigmentation of the skin in the axillae and neck.

      Thyrotoxic Crisis, also known as a thyroid storm, is a life-threatening condition associated with excessive production of thyroid hormones. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed hyperthyroidism in neonates and children. Symptoms include tachycardia, hypertension, fever, poor feeding, weight loss, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, seizures, and coma. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent acute congestive heart failure, shock, and death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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