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  • Question 1 - A 4-year-old girl of South Asian origin presents with bowed legs, thickened ankles...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl of South Asian origin presents with bowed legs, thickened ankles and wrists and a prominent forehead. Prior to this, she had not attended the surgery much and her mother is of the opinion that her development has been normal.
      What is the most likely cause of these features?

      Your Answer: Dietary deficiency of vitamin D

      Explanation:

      Understanding Rickets: Causes and Symptoms

      Rickets is a condition that affects bone development in children, caused by a severe deficiency of vitamin D. This vitamin is essential for bone mineralization, and without it, bones become soft and weak, leading to deformities and impaired growth. In adults, the condition is known as osteomalacia and can cause bone pain and tenderness.

      The most common cause of rickets is a dietary deficiency of vitamin D, which can be compounded by inadequate exposure to sunlight. Other risk factors include having dark skin and following a vegetarian diet. Oily fish and cod liver oil are the best food sources of vitamin D.

      Hyperparathyroidism, cystic fibrosis, nephrotic syndrome, and juvenile idiopathic arthritis are all potential causes of bone abnormalities, but they are not typically associated with rickets. Hyperparathyroidism and nephrotic syndrome can cause bone-related issues, but they are not commonly associated with rickets. Cystic fibrosis and other malabsorption diseases can lead to vitamin D deficiency, but they typically present with other symptoms such as recurrent chest infections. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis causes joint pain and swelling, rather than bony deformities.

      In summary, rickets is a condition caused by a severe deficiency of vitamin D, which can lead to bone deformities and impaired growth in children. It is important to ensure adequate vitamin D intake through diet and sunlight exposure to prevent this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a recent diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and seeks advice on managing her condition. What treatment option is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE)?

      Your Answer: High fibre diet

      Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)

      When it comes to treating irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), there are several options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends tricyclic antidepressants as a second-line treatment if other medications have not been effective. Treatment should start at a low dose and be reviewed regularly. Acupuncture and aloe vera are not recommended by NICE for the treatment of IBS. It is suggested to limit intake of high-fibre foods and increase intake of fresh fruit, but to limit it to three portions per day. It’s important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment plan for individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 19-year-old male student presents with a purulent urethral discharge and tests positive...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male student presents with a purulent urethral discharge and tests positive for Chlamydia. He has had a number of partners over the past 12 months. Who should be contacted as part of routine contact tracing?

      Your Answer: All partners from the 3 months prior to the onset of symptoms

      Correct Answer: All partners from the 4 weeks prior to the onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      For symptomatic men, it is recommended to notify all sexual partners from the 4 weeks before the onset of symptoms. For women and asymptomatic men, it is recommended to notify all sexual partners from the last 6 months or the most recent sexual partner.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Tom is a 35-year-old carpenter, who comes to your clinic because he tells...

    Incorrect

    • Tom is a 35-year-old carpenter, who comes to your clinic because he tells you that his wife is concerned about his family history of bowel cancer.

      On questioning, Tom denies any history of abdominal discomfort, changes in bowel habit or rectal bleeding. He is generally fit and well, and rarely attends your surgery.

      Which one of the following is the single most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Perform a full examination of Bill's abdomen, including digital rectal examination

      Correct Answer: Take a full family history

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer

      Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC) is a genetic condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. If you or a family member have been diagnosed with HNPCC, it is important to take the necessary precautions to manage the risk.

      If you are a reluctant clinic-attendee, it is important to take your concerns seriously. Reassurance should not be given prematurely without knowing the full family history, including the ages of cancer diagnoses. A full family history can help determine if there is evidence of a genetic susceptibility. The modified Amsterdam criteria are widely recognized for assessing this risk.

      It is important to understand the clinical presentation of HNPCC and to take proactive measures to manage the risk. By working with healthcare professionals and staying informed, individuals with HNPCC can take steps to reduce their risk of developing colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      64.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The standardised mortality ratio for a group of elderly patients with antisocial personality...

    Incorrect

    • The standardised mortality ratio for a group of elderly patients with antisocial personality disorder is 120 (95% CI 90-130). How should this result be interpreted?

      Your Answer: Patients with antisocial personality disorder have a significantly increased mortality rate

      Correct Answer: The result is not statistically significant

      Explanation:

      The statistical significance of the result is questionable since the confidence interval encompasses values below 100. This implies that there is a possibility that the actual value could be lower than 100, contradicting the observed value of 120 that indicates a rise in mortality within this group.

      Understanding the Standardised Mortality Ratio

      The standardised mortality ratio (SMR) is a useful tool for comparing mortality rates across different populations. It takes into account confounding factors such as age and sex, which can affect mortality rates. The SMR is calculated by dividing the observed deaths by the expected deaths, sometimes multiplied by 100.

      An SMR of 100 or 1 indicates that the mortality rate in the population being studied is the same as the standard population. If the SMR is greater than 100, it suggests a higher than expected mortality rate. The SMR is a valuable tool for researchers and policymakers to identify populations with higher mortality rates and to develop interventions to address the underlying causes. By understanding the SMR, we can better understand mortality rates and work towards improving health outcomes for all populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may be...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may be at an increased risk of developing colon cancer. His father died at the age of 56 from a sigmoid colon adenocarcinoma. His brother, aged 61, has just undergone a colectomy for a caecal carcinoma.
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer for one-off colonoscopy aged 55

      Explanation:

      Screening Recommendations for Patients with Family History of Colorectal Cancer

      Patients with a family history of colorectal cancer may be at an increased risk of developing the disease. The British Society of Gastroenterology and the Association of Coloproctology for Great Britain and Ireland have produced screening guidelines for patients with family history profiles that place them in a moderate-risk category.

      Colonoscopy is recommended for patients with a family history of two first-degree relatives with a mean age of less than 60 years with colorectal cancer, starting at the age of 55. Abdominal ultrasound examination doesn’t have a role in screening for or diagnosing colorectal cancer.

      Patients with an increased risk should not be advised that they have no increased risk. Instead, they should be screened appropriately. Faecal immunochemical tests (FIT) are used to detect blood in the stool and are used in the national bowel cancer screening programme. However, patients with a higher risk, given their family history, should be offered earlier screening with colonoscopy rather than waiting until they are eligible for the national screening programme. False positives and negatives are possible with FIT, making colonoscopy a more reliable screening option for high-risk patients.

      Therefore, it is important for patients with a family history of colorectal cancer to be aware of the screening recommendations and to discuss their individual risk and screening options with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of gradual onset back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of gradual onset back pain for the past 10 months. The pain worsens with activity and causes bilateral pain and weakness in his calves when walking. Leaning forward or sitting relieves the back pain.

      Upon examination, no neurological findings are observed. The patient has no significant medical history, smokes socially, and drinks a glass of wine with dinner every night. He works as a builder and is worried that his back pain will affect his ability to work.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Correct Answer: Spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

      Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.

      Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.

      After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.

      Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      51
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old man with a diagnosis of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism doesn't wish to undergo...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with a diagnosis of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism doesn't wish to undergo fertility treatment currently. What is the most suitable course of treatment in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Cyproterone acetate

      Correct Answer: Regular testosterone injections

      Explanation:

      Options for Testosterone Replacement Therapy

      Testosterone replacement therapy is a common treatment for men with low testosterone levels. There are several options available, including testosterone undecanoate for oral use, injections, implants, patches, and gels. However, intramuscular depot preparations of testosterone esters are preferred for replacement therapy, according to the British National Formulary. One long-acting injectable formulation of testosterone undecanoate needs to be used only every 10–14 weeks.

      Regular injections of human chorionic gonadotrophin and pulsatile subcutaneous administration of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) are not recommended for testosterone replacement therapy. While chorionic gonadotrophin has been used in delayed puberty in males, it has little advantage over testosterone. GnRH stimulates the release of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary in normal subjects and is used to check whether the pituitary gland can produce LH and FSH in the correct levels.

      Cyproterone acetate is an anti-androgen and is not used for testosterone replacement therapy. Regular injections of human menopausal gonadotrophin (HMG) have been replaced by recombinant gonadotrophins in fertility treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You have a female patient aged 30 who works in a factory producing...

    Incorrect

    • You have a female patient aged 30 who works in a factory producing latex products. She has developed asthma and you have referred her to the respiratory unit for further investigation into the possibility of occupational asthma. She wants to know what tests she may need.

      Which test is of proven value in diagnosing occupational asthma?

      Your Answer: Lung function tests

      Correct Answer: Serial peak flow measurements

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Occupational Asthma

      Investigations that have been proven valuable in diagnosing occupational asthma include serial peak flow measurements at and away from work, specific IgE assay or skin prick testing, and specific inhalation testing. To accurately measure peak flow, it should be measured more than four times a day at and away from work for three weeks. Results should be plotted as daily minimum, mean, and maximum values, and intraday variability should be calculated as a percentage of either the mean or highest value (normal upper value is 20%).

      Occupational asthma can be confirmed if there is a consistent fall in peak flow values with increased intraday variability on working days, and improvement on days away from work. Computer-based analysis may be necessary. It is important to note that these investigations are only useful when the patient is still in the job with exposure to the suspected agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What measure can be taken to avoid the spread of the common cold?...

    Incorrect

    • What measure can be taken to avoid the spread of the common cold?

      Your Answer: Frequent hand washing

      Correct Answer: Vaccination

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Prevention of Viral Infections

      There are several approaches to treating and preventing viral infections, but not all of them are effective. Antivirals, for example, have no evidence of efficacy. Antibiotics are also not appropriate for uncomplicated cases. However, frequent hand washing can reduce contamination from surfaces. Health food products like ginseng have no evidence of efficacy either. Topical interferon alpha can prevent symptoms if given before disease onset, but it cannot be used for long-term prophylaxis due to side effects and cost implications. Vaccination is not an option due to the numerous types of viruses. The role of vitamin C remains controversial, but some evidence suggests it may help during times of severe stress. The current consensus is that it doesn’t. By understanding the limitations and benefits of these approaches, individuals can take steps to protect themselves from viral infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 6-month-old baby boy is being evaluated. Two weeks ago, a trial of...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old baby boy is being evaluated. Two weeks ago, a trial of alginate therapy (Gaviscon) was initiated for frequent regurgitation accompanied by discomfort. Unfortunately, there has been no improvement in the symptoms, and the mother now reports that the baby is refusing to eat. There are no other new symptoms, such as a rash or diarrhea, and the baby is gaining weight steadily. He is exclusively bottle-fed, as his mother stopped breastfeeding at 8 weeks of age. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Trial of hydrolysed formula milk

      Correct Answer: Trial of proton pump inhibitor

      Explanation:

      If alginates/thickened feeds fail to alleviate symptoms in infants with GORD and they exhibit feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth, a trial of PPI is recommended by NICE. However, metoclopramide should not be used without specialist advice due to the risk of side-effects like dystonia. Restarting breastfeeding is not practical once it has stopped, and there is no evidence to suggest that it would improve symptoms. While cow’s milk protein intolerance should be considered as a differential diagnosis, there is currently no indication of this diagnosis. Additionally, it is not advisable to stop milk feeds for such a young baby.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who has been experiencing recurrent issues with...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who has been experiencing recurrent issues with hand dermatitis for the past few years. Despite trying various topical treatments, she has not found relief and has been referred to the dermatologists by a colleague. During your conversation, you discover that she has been washing her hands frequently since she was a teenager, and if she doesn't wash them, she feels anxious and uptight. Although washing her hands reduces her anxiety, she finds the need to do so distressing and unpleasant. She can spend up to two hours each day washing her hands. Despite attempting to resist hand-washing in the past, she has been unable to do so. She acknowledges that her behavior is excessive and unnecessary but cannot seem to stop. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Phobic disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by obsessions and compulsions. Obsessions are repetitive, intrusive, and distressing thoughts, images, or impulses that the patient knows are their own but cannot resist. Compulsions are repetitive behaviors that the patient recognizes as unnecessary but feels compelled to perform to relieve the anxiety associated with their obsessions. The most common obsession in OCD is contamination, while the most common compulsion is handwashing.

      Body dysmorphic syndrome is another condition that causes preoccupation and distress over minor or imagined physical defects. Depression and anxiety often coexist with OCD, but in some cases, OCD can be the primary diagnosis.

      Phobias, on the other hand, are specific fears that cause anxiety and avoidance of situations where the feared stimulus may be encountered. Phobias related to germs and illness are not uncommon.

      It is important to note that OCD is different from psychotic disorders, as patients with OCD recognize that the drive to perform their compulsions is their own and not due to an external force. Delusions of control and other psychotic phenomena are not typically present in OCD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      59.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old known alcoholic comes to the emergency department with acute haematemesis. Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old known alcoholic comes to the emergency department with acute haematemesis. Emergency endoscopy shows bleeding oesophageal varices that are treated with banding. He is admitted and discharged 10 days later without any complications. What medication would be the most appropriate prophylactic agent to prevent further variceal bleeding?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Portal Hypertension and Varices in Alcoholic Cirrhosis

      The portal vein is responsible for carrying blood from the gut and spleen to the liver. In cases of alcoholic cirrhosis, this flow can become obstructed, leading to increased pressure and the development of porto-systemic collaterals. The most common site for these collaterals to form is at the gastro-oesophageal junction, resulting in the development of varices. These varices are prone to rupture, leading to acute and potentially life-threatening haematemesis.

      To prevent rebleeding and reduce portal pressures, beta blockers such as propranolol are commonly used. Propranolol has been found to be the most effective treatment for portal hypertension and is licensed for this purpose. By understanding the underlying mechanisms of portal hypertension and variceal formation in alcoholic cirrhosis, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and prevent potentially fatal complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Linda is a 38-year-old woman who presents with sudden onset left iliac fossa...

    Correct

    • Linda is a 38-year-old woman who presents with sudden onset left iliac fossa pain which woke her up from her sleep. She has taken some paracetamol, but the pain is still 10/10 in intensity. On further questioning, she tells you that she has recently undergone hormonal treatment for IVF and developed ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome as a result. For the last few days she has been feeling nauseous and bloated, however, her symptoms were starting to improve until she developed the pain overnight.

      On examination she is afebrile. Her abdomen is not distended, however, there is guarding on palpation of the left iliac fossa.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian torsion

      Explanation:

      If you experience ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, your chances of developing ovarian torsion are higher. This is because the ovary becomes enlarged, which increases the risk of torsion. If you experience sudden pelvic pain and vomiting on one side, it may be a sign of ovarian torsion.

      While an ovarian cyst can cause pelvic pain, the sudden onset of pain suggests a cyst accident, such as rupture, haemorrhage, or torsion.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease typically causes pelvic pain, fever, and abnormal vaginal bleeding.

      Appendicitis usually causes pain in the right iliac fossa.

      Understanding Ovarian Torsion

      Ovarian torsion is a condition where the ovary twists on its supporting ligaments, leading to a compromised blood supply. This can result in partial or complete torsion of the ovary. When the fallopian tube is also affected, it is referred to as adnexal torsion. The condition is commonly associated with ovarian masses, pregnancy, and ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome. Women of reproductive age are also at risk of developing ovarian torsion.

      The most common symptom of ovarian torsion is sudden, severe abdominal pain that is often colicky in nature. Other symptoms include vomiting, distress, and in some cases, fever. Adnexal tenderness may be detected during a vaginal examination. Ultrasound may reveal free fluid or a whirlpool sign. Laparoscopy is usually both diagnostic and therapeutic for ovarian torsion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 20-year-old man presents requesting contraception to a general practice.

    Which one of these...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man presents requesting contraception to a general practice.

      Which one of these statements is true with respect to condoms?

      Your Answer: Condoms are just as effective as hormonal contraception in preventing pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Condoms can be prescribed on a GP prescription

      Explanation:

      Condoms in General Practice

      Condoms cannot be prescribed in general practice in the UK, but local Clinical Commissioning Groups (CCGs) may have other arrangements for condom supplies. It is important to note that condoms pre-lubricated with spermicide are not recommended as they may increase the risk of HIV transmission. However, condoms in general do help prevent HIV transmission. It is also important to understand that condoms are not as effective at preventing pregnancy as hormonal and intrauterine methods. Condoms are typically made of either latex or polyurethane, and individuals with a latex allergy should stick to polyurethane condoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      67.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old man presents with a persistent cough for the past 20 days...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with a persistent cough for the past 20 days which initially started with a few days of cold symptoms. He describes it as ‘the worst cough I've ever had’. He has bouts of coughing followed by an inspiratory gasp. This is usually worse at night and can be so severe that he sometimes vomits. He is otherwise fit and well and confirms he completed all his childhood immunisations. Examination of his chest is unremarkable.

      What is the most suitable initial management for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Do not start any treatment as he has presented too late to benefit

      Correct Answer: Start a course of oral clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with symptoms consistent with whooping cough within 21 days of onset, the recommended first-line treatment is a macrolide antibiotic such as clarithromycin or azithromycin. Starting treatment within this timeframe can reduce the risk of spread. It is not recommended to delay treatment or offer a booster vaccination as initial management. Doxycycline is not the first-line antibiotic for whooping cough.

      A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      58.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old woman is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her weight is...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her weight is 76 kg, body mass index 34 kg/m2. After 3 months’ trial of dietary modification, she has lost 2 kg in weight, and her Hba1c, which was 78 mmol/mol at diagnosis, is 71 mmol/mol. She is well and has no symptoms related to her condition.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate treatment to commence.

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Type 2 Diabetes

      Type 2 diabetes is a chronic condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. Metformin is the preferred first-line treatment as it increases insulin sensitivity. However, caution should be taken when prescribing metformin to patients with renal impairment. If metformin is not suitable, other options include dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitors, pioglitazone, and sulfonylureas. Pioglitazone can be used as a second-line treatment or in combination with metformin. Acarbose is a weak hypoglycemic agent and is only used in combination with other agents. Sulfonylureas may be considered as first-line therapy in symptomatic patients, but should be prescribed with caution in obese individuals. Insulin may be necessary if oral therapies fail to adequately control HbA1C levels. It is important to consider contraindications and potential side effects when selecting a treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      63
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old ex-farmer has well-controlled congestive cardiac failure and mild dementia. He points...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old ex-farmer has well-controlled congestive cardiac failure and mild dementia. He points to a hard horn-like lesion sticking up from his left pinna for about 0.5 cm. It has a slightly indurated fleshy base.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate course of action.

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to secondary care

      Explanation:

      Cutaneous Horns and the Risk of Squamous Cell Carcinoma

      Cutaneous horns are hard, keratin-based growths that often occur on sun-damaged skin. Farmers and other outdoor workers are particularly at risk due to their increased sun exposure. While most cutaneous horns are benign, doctors should be cautious as they can be a sign of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) at the base of the lesion. SCCs can metastasize, especially if they occur on the ear, so urgent referral for removal is necessary if an SCC is suspected.

      Although most cutaneous horns are caused by viral warts or seborrheic keratosis, up to 20% of lesions can be a sign of premalignant actinic keratoses or frank malignancy. Therefore, it is important for doctors to carefully evaluate any cutaneous horn and consider the possibility of SCC. While current guidelines discourage GPs from excising lesions suspected to be SCCs, urgent referral for removal is necessary to prevent metastasis and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 27-year-old man is worried about his weight. He has a body mass...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man is worried about his weight. He has a body mass index of 38 kg/m^2. What is the most appropriate description of his weight?

      Your Answer: Morbidly obese (Obese III)

      Correct Answer: Clinically obese (Obese II)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Body Mass Index (BMI)

      Body mass index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on a person’s weight and height. It is calculated by dividing the weight (in kilograms) by the height (in metres) squared. BMI is used to determine whether a person is underweight, normal weight, overweight, obese, or morbidly obese.

      The old classification of BMI had five categories, ranging from underweight to morbidly obese. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has simplified the classification into three categories: underweight, normal, and overweight. The overweight category includes both obese and clinically obese individuals.

      It is important to note that BMI is not a perfect measure of body fat and doesn’t take into account factors such as muscle mass or body composition. Therefore, it should be used as a general guide and not as a definitive diagnosis. It is always best to consult with a healthcare professional for a more accurate assessment of one’s health status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Liam, a 19-year-old boy, comes in for his annual asthma review. He has...

    Incorrect

    • Liam, a 19-year-old boy, comes in for his annual asthma review. He has generally well-controlled asthma, with only one exacerbation requiring steroids this year. He takes 2 puffs of his beclomethasone inhaler twice daily, and salbutamol as required, both via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI).

      You decide to assess his inhaler technique. He demonstrates removing the cap, shaking the inhaler and breathing out before placing his lips over the mouthpiece, pressing down on the canister while taking a slow breath in and then holding his breath for 10 seconds. However, he immediately repeats this process for the second dose without taking a break.

      How could he improve his technique?

      Your Answer: She should wait 15 seconds before repeating the dose

      Correct Answer: She should wait 30 seconds before repeating the dose

      Explanation:

      To ensure proper drug delivery, it is important to use the correct inhaler technique. This involves removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, and taking a slow breath in while delivering the dose. After holding the breath for 10 seconds, it is recommended to wait for approximately 30 seconds before repeating the dose. In this case, the individual should have waited for the full 30 seconds before taking a second dose.

      Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers

      Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:

      1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.

      2. Breathe out gently.

      3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.

      4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.

      5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.

      6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.

      It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      81.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 36-year-old cocaine user, Sarah, visits the clinic and asks for a prescription...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old cocaine user, Sarah, visits the clinic and asks for a prescription for methadone. She had taken methadone at 30 mg once a day last year. Sarah is currently using the same amount of cocaine as she did last year and wants to resume taking 30 mg of methadone to manage withdrawal symptoms. However, you have no experience prescribing methadone and feel unsure about doing so. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Prescribe methadone at 10 mg once a day and gradually titrate up to control withdrawal symptoms

      Correct Answer: Not prescribe methadone

      Explanation:

      Prescribing methadone is a serious matter that requires an experienced and competent prescriber. It is important that the prescriber doesn’t feel pressured to prescribe the drug due to patient demands. As you are not confident in prescribing methadone, it would be unsafe for you to do so.

      Before prescribing methadone, it is essential to confirm opioid dependence through a thorough history, examination, and toxicology screening using urine or oral fluid swabs. The prescribing process should involve a multidisciplinary team, including the patient’s drug team or local drug worker and pharmacist.

      Methadone should be prescribed at a low dose and titrated upwards. The standard concentration is 1 mg/ml oral solution, with higher concentrations rarely used. The starting dose should be between 10 mg and 30 mg daily, depending on the amount and method of heroin or other opioids being used. Methadone is typically taken once daily.

      Understanding Opioid Misuse and its Management

      Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including natural opiates like morphine and synthetic opioids like buprenorphine and methadone. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning.

      Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death. Psychological and social problems such as craving, crime, prostitution, and homelessness can also arise.

      In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C may also be offered.

      Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and its management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      57.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 12-year-old boy is brought in by his mother. He has been complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is brought in by his mother. He has been complaining of knee pain and she is concerned because he has started to limp over the past month. There is no history of trauma.

      Other than the limp, he is otherwise fit and well. His mother says that he doesn't indulge in any sporting activity whatsoever and feels that this is a contributing factor towards his obesity.

      On examination, he can weight bear but needs your assistance to get up onto the couch. His weight is on the 90th centile, but he is apyrexial. Examination of the knee is normal but you think that the affected leg is shortened with reduced internal rotation.

      What is the most appropriate first line investigation?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

      Correct Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      Slipped Epiphysis: Diagnosis and Treatment

      Slipped epiphysis is a condition commonly found in overweight boys aged 10-15, with an association with obesity and hypothyroidism. Patients often present with pain, which may be referred to the knee, and a thorough examination of the hips is necessary. Key findings supporting the diagnosis include risk factors, leg shortening, and reduced internal rotation.

      The condition can be classified based on chronicity and stability. Acute, chronic, and acute on chronic are the classifications based on chronicity, while unstable and stable are the classifications based on stability. X-ray is the first line investigation for chronic and stable slipped epiphysis, and other tests such as U&Es, serum TFTs, and serum growth hormone may also be considered.

      Bilateral antero-posterior x-rays are performed, and Klein’s line is drawn along the superior aspect of the femoral neck to intersect the femoral head in a healthy hip. With slipped epiphysis, Klein’s line doesn’t intersect the femoral head. A frog leg lateral x-ray is a more sensitive view, where the physis may also be blurred or widened, known as Bloomberg’s sign.

      Treatment for unstable slipped epiphysis involves urgent surgical repair due to the risk of avascular necrosis. In contrast, treatment for stable slipped epiphysis usually involves in situ screw fixation. Orthopaedic surgeons may also consider prophylactic fixation of the contralateral hip in both cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      102
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency of urination, and suprapubic discomfort. Urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency of urination, and suprapubic discomfort. Urine dipstick testing shows:
      nitrites+
      leucocytes++
      blood++

      She has had four urinary tract infections in the last six months, with each episode confirmed by laboratory testing. On each occasion, urine dipstick testing has shown microscopic blood as well as nitrite and leucocyte positivity. After treatment with antibiotics, the infections have settled, but on the last occasion, she experienced visible haematuria.

      The patient asks if there is anything she can do to prevent these infections. She had only one previous UTI about six years ago. What is the best approach in this case?

      Your Answer: Trial a topical vaginal oestrogen preparation

      Correct Answer: Refer her to a urologist as urgent suspected cancer at this point in time

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Recurrent UTI with Non-Visible Haematuria

      Recurrent UTI is defined as three or more episodes in a year. In the case of a woman with her fourth episode in the last six months, it is important to investigate further. If visible or non-visible haematuria is present on dipstick testing when a UTI is suspected, a urine sample should be sent to the laboratory for mc+s testing in all patients. If infection is confirmed, a urine sample should be dipstick tested for blood after antibiotic treatment has been completed. If haematuria persists, further investigation is warranted.

      According to NICE guidelines, urgent referral is necessary for bladder cancer if a person aged 45 and over has unexplained visible haematuria without urinary tract infection or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection. For renal cancer, urgent referral is necessary if a person aged 45 and over has unexplained visible haematuria without urinary tract infection or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection.

      In the case of a woman with recurrent UTIs associated with non-visible haematuria each time, urgent referral to a urologist is necessary. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potential cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      124.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old man with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports decreased hypoglycemic awareness following...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports decreased hypoglycemic awareness following his recent hospital discharge. He was started on several new medications during his admission. Which medication is the most probable cause of this issue?

      Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.

      Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old woman comes to you for her annual medication review. She expresses...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to you for her annual medication review. She expresses worry about her likelihood of developing cancer since her father had a history of bladder cancer.

      What is the most significant factor that increases a person's chances of developing bladder cancer?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Bladder Cancer Risk Factors

      Understanding the risk factors associated with bladder cancer is crucial for early detection and prevention. While family history may be a concern for some, lifestyle and environmental factors play a more significant role in the majority of cases. Smoking, for instance, is responsible for 37% of bladder cancers, with smokers being 3.8 times more likely to develop the disease than non-smokers. A family history of bladder cancer in a first-degree relative increases the risk by 1.8 times, while HPV infection is associated with a 2.8 times higher risk. Obesity, with a body mass index of 30 or more, can cause a 9% higher risk of developing bladder cancer than in someone of healthy weight. However, alcohol consumption has not been shown to be a risk factor. Additionally, occupational and environmental factors can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. For more information on these factors, Cancer Research UK provides a useful resource on bladder cancer risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 6-year-old boy presents with a blanching rash that started on his abdomen...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy presents with a blanching rash that started on his abdomen and chest and has now spread throughout his body. The rash has a rough texture similar to sandpaper. He also complains of a sore throat and has a high fever of 38.5ºC. Scarlet fever is suspected, but the child is otherwise healthy and doesn't require hospitalization. However, he has a history of severe allergy to penicillin. What is the most suitable course of action for primary care management?

      Your Answer: Notify public health england (PHE) and commence 5 days of oral azithromycin

      Explanation:

      If a patient with scarlet fever has a penicillin allergy and doesn’t require hospitalization, they should be treated with oral azithromycin for 5 days, as per the current NICE CKS guidance. For patients without a penicillin allergy, a 10-day course of oral phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) or amoxicillin (if there are difficulties swallowing tablets) is recommended. Scarlet fever is a notifiable disease, and healthcare professionals should complete a notification form and send it to Public Health England (PHE) within 3 days if there is a suspicion of the disease.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      55.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old transgender man comes to your clinic for a follow-up on his...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old transgender man comes to your clinic for a follow-up on his testosterone treatment. He discloses that he had unprotected vaginal sex three days ago and doesn't want to conceive.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe emergency contraception and advise the patient that testosterone therapy is contraindicated in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Transgender males who are on testosterone therapy should be aware that this treatment doesn’t prevent pregnancy. In the event that a patient becomes pregnant, testosterone therapy is not recommended as it can have harmful effects on the developing fetus. Instead, emergency contraception should be prescribed and the patient should be advised against continuing testosterone therapy during pregnancy. It is important to note that emergency contraception is still safe for patients on testosterone therapy. While discussing the risk of sexually transmitted infections is important, it is not a substitute for effective contraception. While a future pregnancy test may be necessary, the immediate priority is to provide emergency contraception. It is also important to note that testosterone therapy is not a form of emergency contraception and that other options, such as a copper intrauterine device or specific medications, should be considered.

      Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals

      The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.

      For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.

      In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      81.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A colleague in your Practice collects data about the care of all patients...

    Incorrect

    • A colleague in your Practice collects data about the care of all patients at the practice who received palliative care over the past six months, anonymises it, collates it, and compares it to local guidelines.

      He presents the findings to the rest of the team and actions to improve care are identified.

      This is an example of which of the following processes?

      Your Answer: Case series

      Correct Answer: Clinical audit

      Explanation:

      Clinical audit aims to enhance patient care and results by conducting a methodical evaluation of care against specific standards and implementing modifications accordingly. This involves comparing practice with guidelines to evaluate the quality of care and pinpointing areas that require improvement. To ensure that care has improved, the audit process should be repeated after implementing any changes.

      Understanding Clinical Audit

      Clinical audit is a process that aims to improve the quality of patient care and outcomes by systematically reviewing care against specific criteria and implementing changes. It is a quality improvement process that involves the collection and analysis of data to identify areas where improvements can be made. The process involves reviewing current practices, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to improve patient care and outcomes.

      Clinical audit is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. It helps to identify areas where improvements can be made and provides a framework for implementing changes. The process involves a team of healthcare professionals working together to review current practices and identify areas for improvement. Once areas for improvement have been identified, changes can be implemented to improve patient care and outcomes.

      In summary, clinical audit is a quality improvement process that seeks to improve patient care and outcomes through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of change. It is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. By identifying areas for improvement and implementing changes, clinical audit helps to improve patient care and outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      75.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old man has a generalised tonic-clonic seizure.

    The neurologist decides to observe him...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has a generalised tonic-clonic seizure.

      The neurologist decides to observe him off treatment but two months later he has another seizure.

      What percentage of people who have two seizures will go on to have a third if they do not receive any treatment?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Likelihood of Successive Seizures

      Once a person experiences a second seizure, there is a high probability that they will have a third event, with around 75% of untreated individuals experiencing this. As a result, it is crucial to consider treatment options at this stage. This question aims to test a candidate’s understanding of the likelihood of successive seizures by providing broad ranges of percentages. This knowledge is essential for GPs who often counsel patients on their management and need to make informed decisions about whether to escalate treatment based on the likelihood of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes during her second pregnancy....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes during her second pregnancy. Despite progressing well, she has been experiencing persistent nausea and vomiting throughout her pregnancy. During her previous pregnancy, she tried metformin, but it worsened her symptoms and caused frequent loose stools. As a result, she is unwilling to take metformin again. She has made changes to her diet and lifestyle for the past two weeks.

      Her recent blood test results are as follows:

      - On diagnosis: Fasting plasma glucose of 6.7 mmol/L (normal range <5.6mmol/L)
      - Two weeks later: Fasting plasma glucose of 6.8 mmol/L (normal range <5.3mmol/L)

      What should be the next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Commence insulin

      Explanation:

      If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced as the next step. This is in accordance with current NICE guidelines, which recommend offering insulin if metformin is not suitable for the patient or contraindicated.

      For pregnant women with any form of diabetes, it is important to maintain plasma glucose levels below the following target values:

      – Fasting: 5.3 mmol/L
      – One hour after a meal: 7.8 mmol/L
      – Two hours after a meal: 6.4 mmol/L

      Commencing anti-emetic medications is not the correct answer, as this will not address the gestational diabetes and is therefore not the most relevant option.

      Similarly, commencing metformin is not appropriate in this case, as the patient has indicated that it is not acceptable to her. Insulin should be offered instead.

      Offering a 2 week trial of diet and exercise changes is not the correct answer, as this patient now requires medication. This approach may be appropriate for patients with a fasting plasma glucose of between 6.0 and 6.9 mmol/L without complications, but medication should be started if blood glucose targets are not met.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      70.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (2/4) 50%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/2) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/4) 25%
Allergy And Immunology (0/1) 0%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Sexual Health (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed