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Question 1
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A 55-year-old Asian woman with severe rheumatoid arthritis has not responded well to most traditional DMARD treatments. She is currently taking methotrexate 20 mg weekly and has been receiving regular infusions of the anti-TNF-alpha monoclonal antibody, infliximab, for the past six months. Her joint disease has significantly improved. However, she now presents with fevers, pleuritic chest pain, and a large pleural effusion on the left side, with little evidence of joint synovitis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Joint Effusion in Patients on Anti-TNF-alpha Treatment
Joint effusion is a common complication in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. However, when peripheral joint disease is well controlled, other possible causes need to be excluded. In patients on anti-TNF-alpha treatment, the most likely cause of joint effusion is TB reactivation. This is because treatment with anti-TNF-alpha increases the risk of opportunistic infections, and in particular, there is a significant increase in the risk of TB reactivation in conjunction with infliximab. Therefore, patients are often screened for Hepatitis B, C, TB, and HIV prior to commencing infliximab.
On the other hand, a rheumatoid effusion is unlikely when peripheral joint disease is well controlled. Other possible causes of joint effusion in patients on anti-TNF-alpha treatment include septic arthritis, crystal-induced arthritis, and malignancy. However, TB reactivation remains the most likely cause and needs to be excluded before considering other possible causes. It is important to note that early diagnosis and treatment of TB reactivation can prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents with a one month history of painful and swollen distal interphalangeal joints in his right hand index and middle finger. He reports a few previous episodes of finger swelling in his left hand that resolved within a week. He drinks 6 units of alcohol per week and recently returned from a trip to the USA. There is no significant medical history except for his sister having psoriasis. On examination, the distal interphalangeal joints in his right hand index and middle finger are swollen and tender. His recent blood test shows a haemoglobin level of 130 g/L (130-180), WBC count of 10.9 ×109/L (4-11), neutrophil count of 6.8 ×109/L (1.5-7), and an ESR of 45 mm/hr (0-15). Urea, electrolytes, and creatinine are normal, and rheumatoid factor is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic Arthritis and Differential Diagnosis
Psoriatic arthritis is a condition that can occur in individuals with psoriasis or those with a family history of psoriasis. There are five different patterns of joint involvement that can occur in psoriatic arthritis, including distal interphalangeal joint involvement associated with nail pitting and onycholysis, a rheumatoid arthritis type pattern, large joint oligoarthritis, a predominantly axial pattern, and arthritis mutilans. Reactive arthritis is unlikely in the absence of preceding infection, while rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely due to asymmetrical joint involvement. Gout is also unlikely unless there are significant risk factors present. Palindromic rheumatism may be present when joint swelling episodes last for a few days and migrate across the patient’s body. these different patterns of joint involvement and differential diagnoses can aid in the accurate diagnosis and treatment of psoriatic arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old Hispanic man presents for evaluation with a history of two episodes of transient ischaemic attacks in the past 24 months. Additionally, he reports experiencing cramping in his legs when walking for extended periods. He has also been feeling significantly fatigued lately.
He has a history of smoking 1 pack of cigarettes per day for the past 20 years. Arteriography reveals diffuse stenoses of the femoral and popliteal arteries.
The following investigations were conducted:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 300 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Neutrophils 4.0 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 1.8 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 45 mm/hour 1–20 mm/hour
C-Reactive Protein (CRP) 15 mg/l < 10 mg/l
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 35 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 80 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 20 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) Negative
What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosis
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Overview of Takayasu’s Disease and Differential Diagnoses
Takayasu’s disease is a rare inflammatory vasculitis that affects the aorta and its branches, causing progressive occlusive disease. It is more common in Asia and the Far East, but can also occur in Caucasian patients. The disease typically presents with constitutional, neurological, or vascular symptoms, as well as cardiac and renal manifestations. Blood tests may show a modest inflammatory response. Treatment involves corticosteroids and steroid-sparing agents, with good long-term survival rates.
Differential diagnoses for Takayasu’s disease include Buerger’s disease, which predominantly affects young male smokers and presents with inflammation and thrombosis of small and medium arteries and veins in the hands and feet. Behçet’s disease is a rare, multi-system vasculitis associated with oral and genital ulcers and uveitis, usually found in men. Giant-cell arteritis is a condition that affects elderly Caucasian females and is associated with headache and a risk of irreversible blindness. Systemic lupus erythematosus is a disease that typically affects young females and presents with various symptoms, but this patient has no signs of SLE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician after returning from a 2-week trip to India. She reports discomfort while urinating and occasionally passing cloudy urine resembling pus. Additionally, she experiences joint pain, particularly in her knees and ankles, and itchy eyes. During the examination, a psoriasis-like rash is observed on her hands.
Based on the probable diagnosis, which of the following treatments would be most appropriate for managing this condition?Your Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg bd
Explanation:Treatment Options for Reactive Arthritis with Keratoderma Blennorrhagica
Reactive arthritis is a type of spondyloarthritis caused by a previous gastrointestinal or urogenital infection. The possible pathogens include Chlamydia trachomatis, Yersinia, Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, E. coli, Clostridium difficile, and Chlamydia pneumoniae. In this case, the patient’s social history and symptoms suggest a Chlamydia infection, which can also cause keratoderma blennorrhagica.
The treatment for reactive arthritis involves addressing the underlying infection and using NSAIDs for symptomatic relief. Doxycycline 100 mg bd is a suitable antibiotic for Chlamydia infection. Methotrexate 2.5 mg po weekly and azathioprine are not recommended for reactive arthritis and are more commonly used for other types of arthritis.
Prednisolone 40 mg po daily is not suggested for reactive arthritis, but intra-articular steroid injections can be used for those who do not respond to oral NSAIDs. Coal tar skin creams can be used to treat the psoriatic-type rash, which is more likely keratoderma blennorrhagica in this case. Topical steroids or salicylates are also effective treatments for this condition.
In summary, the treatment options for reactive arthritis with keratoderma blennorrhagica include antibiotics for the underlying infection, NSAIDs for symptomatic relief, intra-articular steroid injections for non-responsive cases, and topical creams for the skin rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing up of small amounts of blood over the past one week. She also complains of frequent nosebleeds and headaches over the past two months. She feels generally lethargic and has lost a stone in weight.
She is noted to have a purpuric rash over her feet. Chest expansion moderate and on auscultation there are inspiratory crackles at the left lung base.
Investigations show:
Haemoglobin 100 g/L (115-165)
White cell count 19.9 ×109/L (4-11)
Platelets 540 ×109/L (150-400)
Plasma sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144)
Plasma potassium 5.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Plasma urea 30.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Plasma creatinine 760 µmol/L (60-110)
Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
Plasma bicarbonate 8 mmol/L (20-28)
Plasma calcium 2.23 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
Plasma phosphate 1.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Plasma albumin 33 g/L (37-49)
Bilirubin 8 µmol/L (1-22)
Plasma alkaline phosphatase 380 U/L (45-105)
Plasma aspartate transaminase 65 U/L (1-31)
Arterial blood gases on air:
pH 7.2 (7.36-7.44)
pCO2 4.0 kPa (4.7-6.0)
pO2 9.5 kPa (11.3-12.6)
ECG Sinus tachycardia
Chest x ray Shadow in left lower lobe
Urinalysis:
Blood +++
Protein ++
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Explanation:Acid-Base Disorders and Differential Diagnosis of Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
In cases of metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, the primary issue is a decrease in bicarbonate levels and pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory decrease in pCO2. On the other hand, respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation is characterized by an increase in pCO2 and a decrease in pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory increase in bicarbonate levels.
When nosebleeds are present, the diagnosis of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is more likely than microscopic polyarteritis due to upper respiratory tract involvement. Goodpasture’s disease is less likely because it does not cause a rash. In particular, 95% of patients with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis develop antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cytoplasmic pattern) or cANCAs, with proteinase-3 being the major c-ANCA antigen. Conversely, perinuclear or p-ANCAs are directed against myeloperoxidase, are non-specific, and are detected in various autoimmune disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Correct
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Ms. Johnson is a 65-year-old woman with pulmonary fibrosis secondary to dermatomyositis. She visits your clinic after seven weeks of being on high dose steroids due to disease progression. During the consultation, Ms. Johnson reports an increase in shortness of breath, especially when she exerts herself. She denies any fever or weight loss but has a chronic cough that produces white sputum, which has remained stable.
Upon examination, Ms. Johnson appears comfortable at rest, and her chest auscultation is surprisingly clear. Her oxygen saturation is 97% at rest, but after walking to the end of the corridor and back, it drops to 82%. An urgent chest radiograph is ordered, which reveals bilateral patchy infiltrates.
What is the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer: Co-trimoxazole
Explanation:Co-trimoxazole is the recommended treatment for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, which is caused by an opportunistic yeast-like fungus. Patients with dermatomyositis or polymyositis and pulmonary fibrosis who are receiving glucocorticoids should also receive PCP prophylaxis with co-trimoxazole. It is important to note that not all patients taking glucocorticoids for rheumatological conditions require PCP prophylaxis, but those with both glucocorticoid use and deficiencies in immune components should be considered. Examples of patients who should receive prophylaxis include those on high doses of prednisolone for one month or more, those undergoing stem cell or solid organ transplantation, and those with dermatomyositis and pulmonary fibrosis. Stopping steroids would not be appropriate in the case of PCP pneumonia.
Pneumocystis jiroveci Pneumonia in HIV Patients
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (formerly known as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia) is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with HIV. The organism responsible for this infection is an unicellular eukaryote, which is classified as a fungus by some and a protozoa by others. Symptoms of PCP include dyspnea, dry cough, fever, and few chest signs. Pneumothorax is a common complication of PCP, and extrapulmonary manifestations are rare.
To diagnose PCP, a chest x-ray is typically performed, which may show bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates or other findings such as lobar consolidation. Sputum tests often fail to show PCP, so a bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) may be necessary to demonstrate the presence of the organism. Treatment for PCP involves co-trimoxazole or IV pentamidine in severe cases. Aerosolized pentamidine is an alternative treatment, but it is less effective and carries a risk of pneumothorax. Steroids may be prescribed if the patient is hypoxic, as they can reduce the risk of respiratory failure and death.
It is recommended that all HIV patients with a CD4 count below 200/mm³ receive PCP prophylaxis. This infection can be serious and potentially life-threatening, so prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the gastroenterology clinic for follow-up. She was diagnosed with coeliac disease 2 years ago and has been experiencing severe fatigue, muscle aches, and weakness in her proximal muscles for the past few months. During the examination, her blood pressure is 112/70 mmHg, and her pulse is regular at 75 beats per minute. Proximal muscle weakness is confirmed.
Lab results show a calcium level of 2.0 mmol/l and an alkaline phosphatase level of 275 IU/l. What is the most useful next investigation?Your Answer: Vitamin D
Explanation:Coeliac disease can disrupt the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, such as vitamin D, leading to a deficiency. This deficiency, along with low calcium levels and elevated alkaline phosphatase, can result in osteomalacia, which is characterized by symptoms of proximal myopathy. Therefore, the investigation of vitamin D levels is the next appropriate step.
While inflammatory myositis is a possibility, the limited proximal weakness observed in this case, along with low calcium levels, is more indicative of osteomalacia. Although parathyroid hormone levels may be elevated, this is a secondary effect of the low levels of vitamin D and calcium.
Understanding Osteomalacia: Causes, Features, Investigation, and Treatment
Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by the softening of bones due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. While rickets is the term used for this condition in growing children, osteomalacia is the preferred term for adults. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, diet, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited factors, liver disease, and coeliac disease.
The features of osteomalacia include bone pain, bone/muscle tenderness, fractures (especially femoral neck), proximal myopathy, and a waddling gait. To investigate this condition, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels (in around 30% of patients), and raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients). X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.
The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium is inadequate. By understanding the causes, features, investigation, and treatment of osteomalacia, individuals can take steps to prevent and manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman presents with a dry cough, recurrent sinusitis, and weight loss over the past few weeks. Despite multiple courses of antibiotics, her symptoms have not improved. On admission, she has a temperature of 37°C, pedal edema, and a blood pressure of 178/98 mm Hg. A urine dipstick reveals 3+ blood and 3+ protein. She also has bloody nasal discharge. Recent tests show elevated levels of ESR, CRP, and creatinine, as well as a positive ANCA (cytoplasmic pattern) and anti-proteinase 3 antibody. CXR, ultrasound abdomen and pelvis are normal.
What is the next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide - IV
Correct Answer: Renal biopsy
Explanation:Treatment for Generalised Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
This patient has been diagnosed with active generalised Granulomatosis with polyangiitis based on clinical and serological evidence. To confirm the diagnosis and guide treatment, a renal biopsy should be performed before starting any long-term treatment. Azathioprine or methotrexate are not effective in inducing remission for this patient. The recommended pharmacotherapy for her includes IV methylprednisolone (1 gm/day for three days) and cyclophosphamide. If necessary, IV methylprednisolone can be started before the renal biopsy.
Overall, it is important to accurately diagnose and treat generalised Granulomatosis with polyangiitis to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old presents with a painful right knee, without any history of trauma or past medical issues. During examination, the knee appears red and warm with a moderate effusion. The patient's vital signs include a respiratory rate of 24/min, blood pressure of 120/72 mmHg, and a temperature of 37.8ºC. The knee is aspirated, revealing cloudy fluid with calcium pyrophosphate crystals. The Gram stain results are pending. What is the recommended course of treatment?
Your Answer: Check ferritin
Correct Answer: Admit for intravenous antibiotics
Explanation:Septic arthritis cannot be ruled out until the absence of organisms is confirmed. Therefore, the patient must receive intravenous antibiotics immediately after the aspirate is taken and should only be discharged after septic arthritis has been ruled out.
While calcium pyrophosphate crystals are commonly associated with pseudo gout, their presence does not exclude septic arthritis. In addition, using ferritin as a screening tool for haemochromatosis in this situation would not be recommended since it is likely to be elevated in septic arthritis.
Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and swelling. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, while Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism in sexually active young adults. The infection is usually spread through the bloodstream, often from distant bacterial infections such as abscesses. The knee is the most commonly affected joint in adults.
Symptoms of septic arthritis include acute joint swelling, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever. To diagnose the condition, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if needed. Blood cultures and joint imaging may also be necessary.
Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci, such as flucloxacillin or clindamycin if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotics are typically given for several weeks, and patients may be switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration is used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required. Overall, prompt diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent joint damage and other complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old Asian woman presents to the Rheumatology Clinic with chronic joint issues. She reports initial involvement of the small joints in her hands, which resolved after a few weeks, but now her wrists, elbows, and knees are primarily affected. She has a history of recurrent ear infections and nasal septum inflammation, for which she received antibiotics and pain relief. Her family has a history of systemic lupus erythematosus, and she takes amlodipine for hypertension. On examination, her wrists and knees are swollen and tender with limited movement, and her nose is saddle-shaped with red and tender right upper ear cartilage. Lab results show low hemoglobin, high white cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and slightly elevated creatinine. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibody tests are negative, and urine dipstick is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)
Correct Answer: Relapsing polychondritis
Explanation:Understanding Relapsing Polychondritis
Relapsing polychondritis is a rare disorder that affects cartilaginous and connective tissues, causing episodic inflammation and destruction. It typically occurs in middle age and affects both men and women equally. The most common symptom is inflammation of the external ear and nasal cartilage, along with relapsing remitting arthralgia/arthritis.
Characteristic of the disease are bouts of inflammation that heal over weeks. Recurrent inflammation results in destruction of cartilaginous tissue, leading to floppy ears and a saddle nose. Biopsy of affected cartilaginous tissue is necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
It’s important to differentiate relapsing polychondritis from other conditions such as mixed connective tissue disorder, granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), systemic sclerosis, and polymyalgia rheumatica. ANA is negative in relapsing polychondritis, and ear and nose involvement are key differentiators from GPA. Raynaud’s is almost universal in systemic sclerosis, and the ANA is negative in polymyalgia rheumatica.
If you suspect relapsing polychondritis, seek medical attention promptly for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 57-year-old man with acute polyarticular gout was prescribed colchicine (500 mcg b.d). After two weeks, he was also prescribed allopurinol (300 mg/day) while continuing the colchicine. He was also taking aspirin, omeprazole, furosemide, and insulin. However, he later developed a widespread non-blanching purpuric rash, fever, and malaise and went to see his GP. The following are the results of his recent blood tests:
- Haemoglobin: 121 g/L (130 - 180)
- WBC: 11.9 ×109/L (4-11)
- Neutrophils: 6.1 ×109/L (1.5-7.0)
- Lymphocytes: 2.1 ×109/L (1.5-4.0)
- Eosinophils: 3.0 ×109/L (0.04-0.4)
- Platelets: 480 ×109/L (150-400)
- AST: 185 IU/L (1-31)
- ALT: 220 IU/L (5-35)
- Bilirubin: 34 μmol/L (1-22)
- Alkaline phosphatase: 85 IU/L (45-105)
- Urea, electrolytes and creatinine: normal
What is the recommended next step in managing his condition?Your Answer: Discontinue allopurinol
Explanation:Allopurinol can cause hypersensitivity syndrome (AHS) in 0.1-0.4% of patients, which can be severe and even fatal. Risk factors include renal impairment, thiazide diuretic use, and recent initiation of allopurinol. AHS is caused by the toxic effects of oxypurinol or T cell activation. Patients with AHS should not be rechallenged with the drug. Other side effects of allopurinol include itchy rashes, gastrointestinal dysfunction, and deranged liver function tests. Allopurinol can also increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and cause a rash when prescribed with amoxicillin or ampicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presents with a 6-month history of fatigue, joint pain and a recurring macular rash. Prior to this, she was healthy. She has no previous medical history or recent illnesses and has not traveled recently.
On examination, her temperature is 37.5 °C, blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, and pulse is 90 bpm. A non-blanching macular rash is seen on her arms and legs. There is swelling and tenderness in her wrists and ankles. Lymph nodes are palpable in her neck and groin.
Investigations reveal the following:
- Hb: 130 g/l (normal range: 120-160 g/l)
- WCC: 12.0 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)
- PLT: 350 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
- Na+: 142 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
- K+: 4.5 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
- Cr: 80 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 μmol/l)
- RF: Negative
- ANA: Negative
- Anti-dsDNA: Negative
- ASO titre: Not detected
- ECG: Normal sinus rhythm
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis from the choices listed below?Your Answer: Pauciarticular Still's disease
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Systemic Still’s disease is a type of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis that typically presents before the age of 16. It is characterized by systemic features such as high fever, rashes, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly, with minor arthritis symptoms. In contrast, pauciarticular Still’s disease affects large joints and often leads to seronegative spondyloarthritis. Antinuclear antibodies are present in this type of JRA. Acute rheumatic fever is another possible diagnosis, but it typically presents with carditis and a positive ASO titre, which is not the case here. Juvenile systemic lupus erythematosus is also a consideration, but the absence of antinuclear antibodies and the presence of significant systemic features make it less likely. Reactive arthritis is unlikely due to the absence of an infective precipitant and the atypical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. In summary, a child presenting with systemic features and arthritis may have Systemic Still’s disease or pauciarticular Still’s disease, and other diagnoses such as acute rheumatic fever, juvenile systemic lupus erythematosus, and reactive arthritis should be ruled out.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology outpatient clinic with a history of Giant Cell Arteritis diagnosed 3 years ago. Despite being on prednisolone 8 mg, she has been unable to taper down the dose due to excruciating temporal headaches, weakness, and fatigue. Previous attempts to lower the dose have resulted in mild visual loss, requiring hospitalization. She is also on zoledronic acid for osteoporosis, with recent vertebral fractures. Concerned about the side effects of steroids, including diabetes and weight gain, she asks about alternative treatment options for her condition. What are the available management options for this patient's Giant Cell Arteritis?
Your Answer: Etanercept
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:In cases of difficult to manage, frequently relapsing giant cell arteritis, methotrexate can be used as an alternative to steroids to spare their use. This is particularly relevant for elderly patients who may experience side effects from long-term steroid use, such as osteoporosis and type II diabetes mellitus. According to the British Society of Rheumatology guidelines, methotrexate is a suitable option as long as the patient has normal liver function and pre-treatment testing is normal. While etanercept and ciclosporin have been used in the past for difficult cases of GCA, studies have not shown any additional benefits from their use in managing the condition.
Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.
To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 14
Correct
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An older woman undergoes routine blood tests prior to a hernia repair. Her liver function tests are repeated twice, with calcium, ALT, and bilirubin within normal limits, but her alkaline phosphatase level is elevated at 380. Upon further inquiry, she reports drinking a glass of wine and smoking 6 cigarettes per day, as well as experiencing hip and lower back pain. She has also recently been evaluated for hearing impairment. What is the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Skeletal survey
Explanation:Assessing Paget’s Disease: Skeletal Survey vs. Isotope Bone Scan
Paget’s disease is a condition that affects around 2% of the population over 55 years old, with a higher prevalence in men. Symptoms may include bone pain, deformities, and hearing loss in skull base Paget’s. Osteogenic sarcoma is a rare complication. The mainstay of treatment is bisphosphonates.
When assessing for Paget’s disease, a limited skeletal survey is preferred over an isotope bone scan. This is because bone scanning underestimates the extent of disease activity when there is significant osteoclastic resorption of bone. Immunoglobulin electrophoresis is most useful in evaluating multiple myeloma, while an ultrasound scan of the liver is not necessary in the absence of other abnormal liver function tests. A chest X-ray may be considered if respiratory symptoms are present, but in this case, the patient’s lack of significant symptoms makes bronchial carcinoma less likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman presents to your clinic with the results of her DEXA scan:
Left femoral neck -2.9
Right femoral neck -3.1
She has a past medical history of hyperparathyroidism and a previous pulmonary embolism.
During your discussion about bone protection, she informs you that she had a severe rash from bisphosphonates and is unwilling to restart any medication from that class.
What is the mechanism of action of the most suitable alternative therapy?Your Answer: RANKL inhibitor
Explanation:Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns
Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.
The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.
Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 16
Correct
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A local GP requests your evaluation of a 40-year-old female patient who has been experiencing symptoms of oesophageal reflux disease that have only partially responded to proton-pump inhibitors. Lately, she has been complaining about the cold weather and may have Raynaud's phenomenon. During routine blood testing, her creatinine levels were found to be elevated at 180 µmol/l, and she has hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 170/85 mmHg. What is the most effective treatment to prevent further renal impairment?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Treatment Options for Renal Disease Associated with Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects interlobular renal arteries, causing intimal thickening and fibrinoid changes in afferent glomerular arterioles. ACE inhibitors are the preferred treatment for renal disease associated with systemic sclerosis, as they have positive effects on proteinuria and can even reverse the decline in renal function in some cases. Prostacyclin infusion may also be beneficial in cases where renal function is rapidly deteriorating. Thiazide diuretics like bendrofluazide are not recommended for hypertension treatment in patients with an eGFR of less than 30 ml/min/1.73 m2 and have no reno-protective benefits. Calcium channel blockers like amlodipine may be useful in treating Raynaud’s and systemic sclerosis with lung involvement. Steroids like prednisolone and IV methylprednisolone should be used sparingly in patients with scleroderma, as they may trigger renal crisis and are not effective in ameliorating further renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old Japanese city banker with a history of irritable bowel disease presents with recurrent mouth ulcers that have been occurring more frequently despite previous treatment with chlorhexidine mouthwashes, oral aciclovir, and prednisolone lozenges. He has also been experiencing pain at the tip of his penis during sexual intercourse and has been feeling increasingly tired, leading him to give up playing football. He denies any weight loss and his appetite is unchanged. On examination, multiple aphthous ulcers are found in the oral cavity, as well as a small aphthous ulcer on the tip of the penis. Abdominal examination reveals mild, diffuse tenderness but no masses, and rectal examination reveals no abnormality. Investigations reveal a low haemoglobin level, elevated white cell count and platelets, and slightly elevated urea and creatinine levels. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is slightly elevated, but anti-nuclear antibody and anti-dsDNA antibody tests are negative. The patient is currently taking oxytetracycline for acne. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Behçet's syndrome
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Behçet’s syndrome is a chronic disease that affects multiple systems in the body and is most commonly found in the Mediterranean, Middle East, and Japan. It has been linked to certain HLA types, including B12, -B51, and -B5. Diagnosis is made by excluding other conditions, as there is no specific test for it. Behçet’s syndrome is a vasculitic disorder that affects both arteries and veins, often leading to thrombosis. Symptoms include painful oral and genital ulcers, ocular inflammation, arthritis, skin lesions, and abnormal response to tissue injury. Treatment is usually symptomatic, but some cases may require systemic corticosteroids or immunosuppressants. Reactive arthritis, Crohn’s disease, herpes simplex type I infection, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all conditions that can be ruled out based on the specific symptoms present in the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 67-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease presents with stiffness of the fingers and a mild photosensitive rash that has been present for two months. He has been taking procainamide for the past year. On examination, there is puffy swelling of the hands and wrists, along with tenderness of the metacarpophalangeal joints. A chest x-ray ordered by the GP shows small bilateral pleural effusions. What test is indicative of this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Anti-histone antibodies
Explanation:Procainamide-Induced Lupus Erythematosus
Drug-induced lupus erythematosus caused by procainamide is generally a mild condition that presents with symptoms such as arthritis, a rash that is sensitive to light, inflammation of the lining of the lungs or heart, and muscle pain. Unlike systemic lupus erythematosus, the kidneys and central nervous system are usually not affected.
Most individuals who develop procainamide-induced lupus produce antibodies to histone proteins. This type of lupus is typically reversible once the medication is discontinued. It is important for individuals taking procainamide to be aware of the potential for drug-induced lupus and to report any symptoms to their healthcare provider. With prompt recognition and management, the prognosis for procainamide-induced lupus is generally favorable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old female has arrived at the emergency department complaining of severe headache and shortness of breath for the past six hours, followed by two seizures within the last hour. The patient has a history of diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis and is currently taking steroids and cyclophosphamide.
Upon examination, the patient appears ill, agitated, and dyspneic. Her pulse rate is regular at 100 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is elevated at 220/110 mmHg. The patient's JVP is raised, and there is a gallop rhythm and bilateral basal crackles. Additionally, there is lower limb edema and brisk reflexes. Fundoscopy reveals grade 3 hypertensive retinopathy.
Two weeks prior, the patient's laboratory results showed a serum sodium level of 140 mmol/L, serum potassium level of 5.7 mmol/L, serum urea level of 17 mmol/L, serum creatinine level of 250 mol/L, and urinalysis indicating protein ++ and blood ++.
What is the most appropriate immediate treatment to lower the patient's blood pressure?Your Answer: IV sodium nitroprusside
Correct Answer: Oral ACE inhibitor
Explanation:The patient is experiencing scleroderma renal crisis, which manifests as malignant hypertension, heart failure, and rapid deterioration of renal function that progresses to acute renal failure.
To manage this hypertensive emergency, it is recommended to gradually reduce blood pressure by 10-15 mmHg per day using an oral ACE inhibitor. This is because the underlying pathology of scleroderma renal crisis involves vasospasm.
It is important to avoid using IV sodium nitroprusside and IV labetalol as they can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure and renal hypoperfusion, which can worsen the already compromised renal function by causing acute tubular necrosis.
Given the severity of the patient’s condition, ICU admission is necessary to manage her heart failure and acute renal failure.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is still unknown. It is more common in females than males, with three patterns of the disease. The first pattern is limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis, which is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, scleroderma affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. A subtype of this pattern is CREST syndrome, which includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, Oesophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia.
The second pattern is diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, which affects the trunk and proximal limbs, and is associated with scl-70 antibodies. This pattern has a poor prognosis, with respiratory involvement being the most common cause of death, including interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension. Other complications include renal disease and hypertension, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor.
The third pattern is scleroderma without internal organ involvement, which is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies play a significant role in systemic sclerosis, with ANA positive in 90% of cases, RF positive in 30%, anti-scl-70 antibodies associated with diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, and anti-centromere antibodies associated with limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 2-week history of progressive shoulder pain. She reports difficulty getting dressed in the morning due to the pain. She also feels weak and fatigued and has lost around 2 kg in weight. There is no significant medical history. On examination, she has a temperature of 37.8 °C, heart rate of 90 bpm, and blood pressure of 127/77 mmHg. Heart sounds are normal, and breath sounds are vesicular bilaterally. Abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable organomegaly. Bilateral proximal muscle stiffness is noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Proximal Muscle Pain and Stiffness in an Elderly Patient
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is an inflammatory condition that typically affects women over 60 years old. It presents with proximal muscle pain and stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves throughout the day. PMR should not be confused with polymyositis, which causes proximal muscle weakness rather than pain or stiffness. Treatment for PMR involves long-term steroid therapy.
Hyperthyroidism and other endocrine diseases can also cause proximal myopathy, but this patient’s symptoms suggest an inflammatory cause rather than myopathy. Adhesive capsulitis, or frozen shoulder, typically affects only one shoulder, while bilateral shoulder pain and stiffness should raise suspicion of an alternative diagnosis. Fibromyalgia, a chronic pain syndrome that predominantly affects women, is not an inflammatory disease and does not present with morning stiffness.
Polymyositis, an inflammatory muscle disease, can cause proximal muscle ache, but morning stiffness is not a feature. If visual symptoms are present, giant cell arteritis should also be considered, as it has similarities with PMR. Overall, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of proximal muscle pain and stiffness in an elderly patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman with RA has been taking methotrexate for six weeks and has seen significant improvement in her joint symptoms. However, she has developed a dry cough, shortness of breath, and fever over the past three days. Her current medications include methotrexate, folic acid, and aspirin, and she has no personal or family history of chronic illnesses. On examination, she has synovitis in both wrists and MCPJs, and scattered crepitations in her respiratory system. Blood tests show elevated ESR and patchy airspace shadows are seen bilaterally on her CXR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Methotrexate pneumonitis
Explanation:Methotrexate Pneumonitis: An Overview
Methotrexate pneumonitis is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients with rheumatoid arthritis who are taking methotrexate. It is an acute interstitial pneumonitis that typically presents within the first few months of starting the medication. The incidence of methotrexate pneumonitis in RA patients is around 3.3%.
If a patient is suspected of having methotrexate pneumonitis, the drug should be stopped immediately. Rechallenging the patient with methotrexate is not recommended. Once underlying infection has been ruled out, treatment with prednisolone may be considered.
It is important to note that methotrexate pneumonitis can rarely be associated with other conditions such as Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia or tuberculosis. Therefore, it is crucial to thoroughly evaluate the patient for any underlying infections before initiating treatment.
In summary, methotrexate pneumonitis is a serious condition that requires prompt recognition and management. Healthcare providers should be aware of the signs and symptoms of this condition and take appropriate measures to ensure patient safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 22
Correct
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You see a 28-year-old patient with a swollen left knee. It has been getting worse for a number of months and is now affecting her ability to work as a nurse. The pain and stiffness are worse overnight and in the morning and gets better throughout the day. She denies any trauma or fever. She also has some pain and stiffness in her toes which is also worse in the morning. Her joints are worse after rest.
She is normally fit and well and denies any previous joint problems or psoriasis. However, her mother has a history of psoriasis. She says there is no family history of joint problems to her knowledge.
On examination, her knee is red, warm and tender to palpate. There is a moderate knee effusion and flexion is limited due to pain. Her distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs) are tender and slightly swollen.
There are no skin rashes. Although her knee is painful the patient looks well and has a heart rate of 80 beats per minute and her temperature is 36.8ºC.
Blood tests reveal a raised CRP at 85 but a negative rheumatoid factor.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic arthritis may be diagnosed even before the appearance of psoriatic skin lesions, especially if there is a positive family history of psoriasis. The presence of joint pain and swelling, which worsens in the morning and after rest, affecting the DIPs and knee joints, further supports this diagnosis.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 32-year-old, previously healthy Turkish man presents with a history of painful oral and genital ulcers. He has also developed gritty eyes and a sore ankle. Upon examination, areas of mucosal ulceration and scarring are found, along with ankle synovitis and eye erythema. After repeated blood tests, he develops blistering at the sites of venipuncture. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Behçet’s syndrome
Explanation:Oral and genital ulcers can be caused by a variety of conditions. Behçet’s syndrome, which is most common in young Turkish males, presents with recurrent oral and genital ulcers, eye problems, and arthritis. Patients may also develop neurological complications. Reactive arthritis, on the other hand, consists of the triad of conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis, and patients may also develop erosions in the mouth and on the penis. The distinguishing feature in this history is the development of a pustule after skin puncture, which is characteristic of Behçet’s syndrome.
HIV seroconversion occurs when patients develop antibodies to the HIV virus and manifests as a flu-like illness. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection can cause vesicles and punched-out ulcers around the mouth or genitals, and primary HSV infection may also be associated with fever and malaise. Finally, primary syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacteria Treponema pallidum, manifests as a painless ulcer at the site of infection, whereas secondary syphilis presents as a widespread rash associated with a flu-like illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 30-year-old Caucasian farmer presents to the outpatient department with a complaint of generalised aches and pains that have been bothering him for the past two months. He used to be an active runner but had to give up competitive running a year ago due to a hip injury. Two years ago, he had a painful red eye for which he received treatment with eye drops in the Emergency department. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 45 cigarettes a day, and drinks five pints of beer every weekend. He denies any skin rashes or mucosal ulceration. His mother had rheumatoid arthritis, and his father had severe gout. On examination, the left first metatarsophalangeal joint was swollen and tense, but all the other joints were unremarkable. Rotation of the lumbar spine was restricted. What test would be most useful in establishing the diagnosis?
Your Answer: HLA-B27 antigen typing
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Joint Pains and Ocular Involvement
A male patient with a history of joint pains, particularly in the lumbar spine, and ocular involvement (uveitis) but without mucosal ulceration may be diagnosed with either ankylosing spondylitis or reactive arthritis. These two conditions share similar symptoms, including sacroiliitis, which is the earliest radiographic change in ankylosing spondylitis and can also be seen in reactive arthritis.
HLA-B27 antigen typing is a useful diagnostic tool for both conditions, as it is present in 90% of patients with ankylosing spondylitis and 75% with reactive arthritis. However, it is important to note that this antigen is only present in 8% of the normal Caucasian population. Therefore, a positive HLA-B27 test result can help differentiate between these two conditions and aid in the proper diagnosis and treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with a swollen and painful right knee, along with difficulty in walking for the past three days. Upon examination, the knee appears red, warm, tender, and has limited movement. The knee aspirate shows no organisms on Gram stain, but plenty of leucocytes and weakly positively birefringent crystals on polarised light microscopy. A knee radiograph reveals linear meniscal calcification. Recent blood tests show elevated WBC count, neutrophils, and ESR, along with corrected calcium and phosphate levels outside the normal range. Alkaline phosphatase and urea, electrolytes, and creatinine levels are normal. What is the underlying cause of acute monoarthritis in this patient?
Your Answer: Preceding infection
Correct Answer: Hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Calcium Pyrophosphate Deposition and Associated Conditions
Calcium pyrophosphate deposition (CPPD) is a common condition in the elderly that is often associated with osteoarthritis (OA). However, if CPPD occurs in individuals younger than 50 years of age, it is important to investigate the presence of familial disease, hyperparathyroidism, haemochromatosis, hypomagnesaemia, and hypophosphatasia. In patients with haemochromatosis, an atypical arthropathy with CPPD and premature OA can affect various joints, including the metacarpophalangeal joints (MCPJs), wrists, hips, shoulders, ankles, and knees.
This patient has acute calcium pyrophosphate (CPP) crystal arthritis, also known as pseudogout, and chondrocalcinosis. The presence of high calcium levels suggests the presence of hyperparathyroidism. It is important to consider these associated conditions when diagnosing and managing CPPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 50-year-old female presents to the acute medical unit with fever and rigors. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Recently, she was treated with trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection.
Upon examination, her blood results show a hemoglobin level of 110 g/l, platelets at 94 * 109/l, and a white blood cell count of 1.2 * 109/l. Her neutrophil count is 0.6 * 109/l, lymphocyte count is 0.4 * 109/l, and her CRP level is 212 mg/l. Her sodium level is 138 mmol/l, potassium level is 3.8 mmol/l, urea level is 7.8 mmol/l, and creatinine level is 104 µmol/l.
What is the recommended treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Folinic acid
Explanation:When a patient experiences methotrexate toxicity, folinic acid is the preferred treatment. Methotrexate is a dihydrofolate reductase antagonist, and as such, taking trimethoprim, a selective inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase, is strictly prohibited. In this case, the patient has developed bone marrow suppression and neutropenic sepsis due to methotrexate toxicity. Folinic acid can bypass the effects of methotrexate on dihydrofolate reductase and replenish the body’s supply of folate. Therefore, it is crucial that the patient receives folinic acid immediately. Platelet transfusions are typically only given when the platelet count drops below 50 * 109/l. Additionally, the patient should be treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics for neutropenic sepsis. While urinary alkalisation with sodium bicarbonate has been shown to enhance drug excretion, the evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman presents to rheumatology clinic for follow-up of her osteoporosis treatment. She was diagnosed with osteoporosis five years ago after experiencing a fractured right neck of femur. The patient has been taking alendronic acid (70 mg weekly) as prescribed without any adverse effects. She had a left distal radius fracture last year and a deep vein thrombosis in her right leg three years ago, for which she was treated with warfarin for six months. The patient is a smoker (10 cigarettes per day) and drinks around 20 units of alcohol per week. Her mother had a fractured neck of femur at the age of 80. The patient has never been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and has not been exposed to corticosteroid treatment. Clinical examination showed no loss of height since her last measurement five years ago, and there was no tenderness on palpation of the thoracic or lumbar spine.
At present, the patient's femoral neck BMD is T - 2.9, which is lower than her previous measurement five years ago. Her FRAX 10-year probability of major osteoporotic fracture is 60%, and the probability of hip fracture is 50%. What is the appropriate management plan for this patient's osteoporosis?Your Answer: Stop treatment with alendronic acid and start treatment with denosumab
Explanation:The patient has a high risk of experiencing more fragility fractures and it is crucial for her to continue receiving osteoporosis treatment due to her extensive risk factors. Alendronic acid treatment should not be continued as the patient has experienced a fracture while on the medication. Strontium ranelate is not suitable for this patient due to her history of deep vein thrombosis, making denosumab the most appropriate treatment option.
In light of potential complications associated with long-term bisphosphonate treatment, some patients may be considered for treatment breaks after five years of treatment. Patients under 75 years old with a femoral neck T-score greater than -2.5 and classified as low risk by WHO Fracture Risk Assessment Tool (FRAX) and National Osteoporosis Guideline Group (NOGG) guidelines may be considered for treatment breaks. If a drug holiday is agreed upon, a DEXA scan should be repeated after two years or sooner if a fracture occurs. Patients who have ever experienced a vertebral insufficiency fracture should not take treatment breaks.
Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents with severe pain and aching in his hands and feet upon exposure to cold temperatures. He describes a triad of initial whitening of the fingers due to vasospasm, followed by blue discoloration and then reddening and pain.
The patient is currently on atenolol 50 mg po daily for hypertension and takes sumatriptan for occasional migraines. He has a history of chronic kidney disease with a creatinine level of 200 μg/l. The sumatriptan is discontinued.
What other intervention would be the most appropriate for this individual?Your Answer: Stop atenolol and start ramipril
Explanation:Treatment Options for Raynaud’s Phenomenon
Raynaud’s phenomenon can be caused or exacerbated by certain medications, including methysergide and atenolol. In such cases, it is recommended to stop atenolol and switch to ramipril, an ACE inhibitor that has evidence for reno-protection in cases of underlying autoimmune pathology. Calcium channel antagonists like nifedipine may also be helpful in improving symptoms.
In the absence of underlying connective tissue disease, primary Raynaud’s may be treated with prednisolone at a dose of 40 mg po daily. However, it is important to rule out other potential causes such as systemic sclerosis, mixed connective tissue disease, SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, polycythemia, and thromboangiitis obliterans.
Nitrates like isosorbide dinitrate have not been shown to improve Raynaud’s symptoms. NSAIDs like diclofenac are contraindicated in patients with kidney disease and would not improve Raynaud’s symptoms. Verapamil, although a calcium channel blocker, is not typically used for Raynaud’s.
Overall, treatment options for Raynaud’s phenomenon depend on the underlying cause and may include medication changes, calcium channel antagonists, and ruling out other potential causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male was recently prescribed alendronate for osteoporosis treatment after experiencing a fragility fracture. However, he presents to your clinic with concerning upper gastrointestinal adverse effects. What would be the most suitable course of action for his management?
Your Answer: Change alendronate to strontium ranelate
Correct Answer: Change alendronate to risedronate
Explanation:According to NICE guidance, if patients experience notable upper gastrointestinal adverse effects while taking alendronate, their medication should be switched to risedronate or etidronate as a first step.
Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman has just returned from a trip to Southeast Asia. She reports experiencing pain in her knees, ankles, and feet that is symmetrical, as well as discomfort in her eyes. Upon further inquiry, she reveals that she engaged in unprotected sexual activity multiple times while abroad and is now experiencing pain during urination. Her ESR is elevated, and a synovial fluid aspiration shows a high neutrophil count but is sterile. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthropathy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Arthritis and Recent Travel History to the Far East
A patient presents with arthritis and a recent travel history to the Far East with episodes of unprotected sexual encounters. The differential diagnosis includes reactive arthropathy, septic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and Still’s disease.
Reactive arthropathy is the most likely diagnosis due to the presence of oligoarthritis, urethritis/dysuria, and conjunctivitis. A penile swab should be taken, and treatment should include addressing the probable underlying sexually transmitted infection. Septic arthritis is less likely due to the sterile synovial fluid aspirate and concurrent symptom of sore eyes. Ankylosing spondylitis is unlikely due to the absence of back or buttock pain. Rheumatoid arthritis is less likely due to the presence of conjunctivitis and evidence of urethritis. Still’s disease is unlikely due to the absence of high spiking fevers and oligoarthritis over a few weeks/months, which is not typical for this age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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