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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male with no previous medical history presents with a sprained ankle and is incidentally found to be in atrial fibrillation. He denies any symptoms of palpitations or shortness of breath. Despite discussing treatment options, he declines cardioversion. Cardiovascular examination is otherwise normal, with a blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg. As per the most recent NICE guidelines, what is the recommended treatment for this patient if he remains in chronic atrial fibrillation?
Your Answer: Dabigatran
Correct Answer: No treatment
Explanation:NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man is discharged from the hospital after being treated for a thrombolysed ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He has a history of depression but no other significant medical history. During his stay in the coronary care unit, he developed dyspnoea and an echo revealed a reduced left ventricular ejection fraction. His cardiorespiratory examination today was normal. In addition to the standard treatment of ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, aspirin, clopidogrel, and statin, what other type of medication should he be prescribed?
Your Answer: Thiazide diuretic
Correct Answer: Aldosterone antagonist
Explanation:According to the current NICE guidelines, a patient with a reduced left ventricular ejection fraction should be prescribed an aldosterone antagonist. However, a loop diuretic should only be prescribed if there is evidence of fluid overload.
Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.
Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 3
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman collapses during a hypertension clinic. She is not breathing and a carotid pulse cannot be felt. What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to ventilation?
Your Answer: 30:02:00
Explanation:The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old overweight man presents with worsening shortness of breath and leg swelling due to advanced heart failure. His kidney function is normal and his potassium level is 4.2 mmol/l. Which combination of medications would provide the greatest mortality benefit for him?
Your Answer: Ramipril, furosemide, bendroflumethiazide and atenolol
Correct Answer: Ramipril and bisoprolol
Explanation:There are several medications used to treat heart failure, including ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers, which have been shown to provide a mortality benefit. However, ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored closely when starting. If ACE inhibitors are not tolerated, angiotensin II receptor antagonists can be used instead. Atenolol is not recommended for use in heart failure, and agents typically used are bisoprolol, carvedilol, or metoprolol. Diuretics like furosemide and bendroflumethiazide provide symptom relief but do not improve mortality. When used together, they have a potent diuretic effect that may be required when patients accumulate fluid despite an adequate furosemide dose. However, this combination provides no long-term mortality benefit. It is important to note that decisions regarding medication management should be made by a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 5
Correct
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A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left-sided chest pain that has been ongoing for 2 hours. He mentions experiencing similar pains that occur during exercise and subside when he rests. The patient appears to be in distress, sweating, and having difficulty breathing. An ECG is conducted, revealing new T-wave inversion in V3-V6. His troponin and d-dimer levels are as follows:
Troponin 223 ng/L (<5)
D-Dimer 932 ng/mL (< 400)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)
Explanation:Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term that covers various acute presentations of ischaemic heart disease, including ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. ACS develops in patients with ischaemic heart disease, which is the gradual build-up of fatty plaques in the coronary arteries. ACS can cause chest pain, dyspnoea, sweating, and nausea and vomiting. The two most important investigations for ACS are an ECG and cardiac markers. Treatment for ACS includes preventing worsening of presentation, revascularising the vessel is occluded, and treating pain. Patients who have had an ACS require lifelong drug therapy to reduce the risk of a further event.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 59 year old man with a history of aortic stenosis presents to his cardiology clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of breath and fainting episodes. His recent ECHO reveals a mean gradient of 45 mmHg and mild aortic regurgitation, while his ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy, left bundle branch block, and a prolonged PR interval. What factor is most indicative of the need for valve replacement surgery?
Your Answer: Patient's age
Correct Answer: Presence of symptoms
Explanation:Aortic valve replacement is typically recommended for patients with severe aortic stenosis who are experiencing symptoms such as dyspnea, chest pain, and syncope. Without treatment, these symptoms can lead to a mortality rate of 2-3 years. However, the decision to perform valve replacement on asymptomatic patients is a topic of debate.
Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management
Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope, and a characteristic ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can also cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The most common causes of aortic stenosis are degenerative calcification in older patients and bicuspid aortic valve in younger patients.
If a patient is asymptomatic, observation is usually recommended. However, if the patient is symptomatic or has a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, valve replacement is necessary. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.
In summary, aortic stenosis is a condition that can cause various symptoms and requires prompt management to prevent complications. The causes of aortic stenosis vary, and treatment options depend on the patient’s age, operative risk, and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You are urgently requested to assess a 62-year-old female patient admitted to the cardiology ward with complaints of breathing difficulty. During the examination, you observe a raised JVP and bilateral fine crackles to the mid zones. The patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, and the pulse is irregular and ranges between 140-150. An ECG confirms atrial fibrillation, and there is no prior history of the condition in the patient's notes or previous ECGs. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Oral digoxin
Correct Answer: Urgent synchronised DC cardioversion
Explanation:Urgent synchronised DC cardioversion is necessary when heart failure is observed as an adverse sign.
Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias
The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines for the management of peri-arrest tachycardias have been simplified in the 2015 update. The previous separate algorithms for broad-complex tachycardia, narrow complex tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation have been replaced by a unified treatment algorithm. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, pallor, sweating, confusion, or impaired consciousness. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given, up to a maximum of three shocks.
The treatment following this is based on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is given if the rhythm is regular. If the rhythm is irregular, expert help should be sought as it could be due to atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.
For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are given if the rhythm is regular. If unsuccessful, atrial flutter is considered, and rate control is achieved with beta-blockers. If the rhythm is irregular, it is likely due to atrial fibrillation, and electrical or chemical cardioversion is considered if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control unless contraindicated. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 8
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia presents with sudden shortness of breath one hour after undergoing primary percutaneous intervention for an anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. The procedure was successful and radial access was used. She initially appeared stable and a bedside echocardiogram showed normal left ventricular function. However, on examination, she appears unwell with diaphoresis, tachypnea, hypotension (80/42 mmHg), tachycardia (111/minute), and elevated JVP. There are no signs of peripheral oedema or deep venous thrombosis. What is the most urgent intervention that could save her life?
Your Answer: Pericardiocentesis
Explanation:Cardiac tamponade is suggested by the presence of Beck’s triad, which includes falling blood pressure, rising jugular venous pulse, and muffled heart sounds. Therefore, cardiogenic shock is unlikely as the patient underwent successful revascularization and had a normal echocardiogram post-procedure. While inotropes may provide temporary support for low blood pressure, they are not a curative option in this case. Sepsis is not the cause of hypotension as it is typically associated with a fever, bounding pulse, and warm extremities, and the jugular venous pulse would not be elevated. Intravenous antibiotics are therefore not the correct answer. Hypovolemia is also not associated with an elevated jugular venous pulse, so intravenous fluids are not the correct answer. Additionally, the use of radial access makes a retroperitoneal hematoma less likely. The correct answer is pericardiocentesis, as the clinical features suggest cardiac tamponade, which is a known complication of primary percutaneous intervention in myocardial infarction.
Cardiac tamponade is a condition where there is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac, which puts pressure on the heart. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including hypotension, raised JVP, muffled heart sounds, dyspnoea, tachycardia, and pulsus paradoxus. One of the key features of cardiac tamponade is the absence of a Y descent on the JVP, which is due to limited right ventricular filling. Other diagnostic criteria include Kussmaul’s sign and electrical alternans on an ECG. Constrictive pericarditis is a similar condition, but it can be distinguished from cardiac tamponade by the presence of an X and Y descent on the JVP, the absence of pulsus paradoxus, and the presence of pericardial calcification on a chest X-ray. The management of cardiac tamponade involves urgent pericardiocentesis to relieve the pressure on the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 9
Correct
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A 56-year-old female presents with an acutely painful hand. She has a history of hypertension, Raynaud's phenomenon, and has smoked twenty cigarettes a day since she was twenty-two years old. She describes the pain as 'different from her usual Raynaud's,' there has been no relief of symptoms despite wearing gloves and making sure her hands are warm.
Upon examination, her blood pressure is 158/80 mmHg, her right hand is blanched white and feels cold, and the colour of her forearm is normal. The radial pulse is not palpable at the wrist. What is the most likely explanation for her symptoms?Your Answer: Buerger's disease
Explanation:If a patient with extremity ischaemia is diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon, Buerger’s disease should be considered as a possible underlying condition. Buerger’s disease is a condition where the small and medium arteries in the hands and feet become inflamed and thrombosed, leading to acute or chronic progressive ischaemic changes and potentially gangrene. It is strongly associated with smoking. Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, presents with joint pain and swelling, typically in the wrist, knee, hip, or thumb base, and is more common with age. Radial artery dissection is unlikely in the given scenario as there is no history of traumatic injury. Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is characterised by transient vasospasm of the digits triggered by cold, is usually treated conservatively with warmth and sometimes calcium channel blockers in severe cases. It is mostly idiopathic but can be associated with underlying connective tissue disease.
Understanding Buerger’s Disease
Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a type of vasculitis that affects the small and medium-sized blood vessels. This condition is strongly linked to smoking and can cause a range of symptoms, including extremity ischemia, intermittent claudication, ischaemic ulcers, superficial thrombophlebitis, and Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Individuals with Buerger’s disease may experience reduced blood flow to their limbs, which can lead to pain, numbness, and tingling sensations. This can make it difficult to walk or perform other activities, and may even result in the development of ulcers or sores on the skin.
Superficial thrombophlebitis, or inflammation of the veins close to the surface of the skin, is another common symptom of Buerger’s disease. This can cause redness, swelling, and tenderness in the affected area.
Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is characterized by the narrowing of blood vessels in the fingers and toes, is also associated with Buerger’s disease. This can cause the affected areas to turn white or blue and feel cold and numb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 10
Correct
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Which one of the following patients should not be prescribed a statin without any contraindication?
Your Answer: A 57-year-old man with well controlled diabetes mellitus type 2 with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 8%
Explanation:Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 11
Correct
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A geriatric patient presents with chronic heart failure.
Which of the following drugs should be used as a first-line treatment for heart failure?
Your Answer: Enalapril
Explanation:Heart Failure Medications: Uses and Recommendations
Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management and treatment. There are several medications available for heart failure, each with its own specific uses and recommendations.
Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that works by reducing levels of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor, resulting in reduced vasoconstriction and a reduction in left ventricular afterload. It is recommended as a first-line treatment for all patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction.
Digoxin is recommended for worsening or severe heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction despite first- and second-line treatment for heart failure.
Aspirin should be prescribed for patients with heart failure and atherosclerotic arterial disease, including coronary heart disease. It is not useful in monotherapy for the treatment of heart failure.
Furosemide is a diuretic that is routinely used for the relief of congestive symptoms and fluid retention in patients with heart failure. It should be titrated according to need after the initiation of subsequent heart failure therapies.
Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist that forms the second-line treatment in patients with heart failure. It is important to closely monitor potassium and creatinine levels and the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). Specialist advice should be sought if the patient develops hyperkalaemia or renal function deteriorates.
In summary, the appropriate medication for heart failure depends on the individual patient’s condition and needs. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old taxi driver presents with a frontal headache that has been ongoing for the past 2 weeks. After taking 3 blood pressure readings, the lowest of which is 168/98 mmHg, a 24-hour tape reveals an average blood pressure reading of 158/88mmHg. The patient is open to starting medication for hypertension but expresses concern about how this diagnosis will affect his job. What advice would you give him?
Your Answer: Advise him to contact the DVLA immediately to let them know about the diagnosis and stop driving in the interim
Correct Answer: Advise him that he may continue driving as long as is blood pressure is not consistently above 180mmHg systolic or above 100mmHg diastolic
Explanation:Drivers of cars and motorcycles are not required to inform the DVLA of their hypertension, but they must refrain from driving if their symptoms would impair their ability to drive safely. The same guidelines apply to bus and lorry drivers, but if their resting blood pressure consistently exceeds 180 mmHg systolic or 100mmHg diastolic, they must cease driving and notify the DVLA.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, for those with Group 2 Entitlement, a resting blood pressure consistently at 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more disqualifies them from driving.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must refrain from driving for four weeks. However, if successfully treated by angioplasty, driving is permitted after one week. Those with angina must cease driving if symptoms occur at rest or while driving.
For individuals who have undergone pacemaker insertion, they must refrain from driving for one week. If they have an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) for sustained ventricular arrhythmia, they must cease driving for six months. If the ICD is implanted prophylactically, they must cease driving for one month, and having an ICD results in a permanent bar for Group 2 drivers. Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires two days off driving.
Individuals with an aortic aneurysm of 6cm or more must notify the DVLA, and licensing will be permitted subject to annual review. However, an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Those who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (on echo) has a blood pressure (BP) of 160/95 mmHg. She is currently on lisinopril (maximum doses).
Which of the following new agents would you add in?Your Answer: Diltiazem
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Medications for Heart Failure: Benefits and Guidelines
Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management through medications. Among the drugs commonly used are bisoprolol, bendroflumethiazide, clopidogrel, spironolactone, and diltiazem.
Bisoprolol and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor are recommended for all heart failure patients as they have been shown to reduce mortality. Bendroflumethiazide and loop diuretics like furosemide can help alleviate symptoms but do not have a mortality benefit. Clopidogrel, on the other hand, is not indicated for heart failure but is used for vascular diseases like NSTEMI and stroke.
Spironolactone is recommended for patients who remain symptomatic despite treatment with an ACE inhibitor and a b blocker. It is also beneficial for those with left ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD) after a myocardial infarction (MI). However, diltiazem should be avoided in heart failure patients.
According to NICE guidelines, b blockers and ACE inhibitors should be given to all LVSD patients unless contraindicated. Spironolactone can be added if symptoms persist. Proper medication management is crucial in improving outcomes for heart failure patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 14
Correct
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A 65-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner for advice regarding optimisation of secondary prevention. He has a history of non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) two years ago. He is on a combination of clopidogrel, atenolol 50 mg once daily and atorvastatin 80 mg once daily. He also has diabetes for which he takes metformin 1 g twice daily. His pulse rate is 70 bpm, and blood pressure 144/86 mmHg. His past medical history includes an ischaemic stroke two years ago, from which he made a complete recovery.
What additional therapy would you consider?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Perindopril
Explanation:The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Post-MI Patients with Vascular Disease and Diabetes
Following a myocardial infarction (MI), the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors for all patients, regardless of left ventricular function. This is based on evidence from trials such as PROGRESS and HOPE, which demonstrate the benefits of ACE inhibitors in patients with vascular disease. Additionally, for patients with diabetes, the use of ACE inhibitors is preferable. The benefits of ACE inhibition are not solely related to blood pressure reduction, but also include favorable local vascular and myocardial effects. Calcium channel blockers, such as amlodipine and diltiazem, are not recommended for post-MI patients with systolic dysfunction. Nicorandil should also be avoided. Clopidogrel is the preferred antiplatelet for patients with clinical vascular disease who have had an MI and a stroke. Blood pressure should be optimized in post-MI patients, and further antihypertensive therapy may be necessary, including the addition of an ACE inhibitor to achieve the desired level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 15
Correct
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A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that has been radiating to his neck and left arm for the past 3 hours. An ECG reveals ST depression in the inferior leads, and a troponin test is ordered. The patient is given aspirin and sublingual nitrates, and a non-ST elevated myocardial infarction is suspected. The physician conducts a risk assessment to determine the patient's 6-month mortality.
What factors are taken into account by the doctor during this calculation?Your Answer: Age, ECG, troponin, renal function
Explanation:To determine the management of NSTEMI, doctors use a risk assessment score such as GRACE. This score takes into account various factors such as age, ECG, troponin, and renal function, as well as blood pressure, heart rate, and whether the patient experienced a cardiac arrest upon presentation. Renal function is particularly important to consider as it is often affected during an AMI. However, lactate and liver function tests are not included in the GRACE score as they are not typically affected by an MI.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to you with recent blood test results showing a total cholesterol of 6.2 mmol/L. You schedule an appointment to discuss this further and calculate his Qrisk score to be 23%. He has a 20-year history of smoking 10 cigarettes a day and his father died of a heart attack at age 50. He also has a past medical history of asthma. Which medication would you recommend he start taking?
Your Answer: Atorvastatin 80mg
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 20mg
Explanation:To prevent cardiovascular disease, it is recommended to start taking Atorvastatin 20mg, which is a high-intensity statin. Atorvastatin 80 mg is used for secondary prevention. Simvastatin 10mg and 20mg are considered low-intensity statins. It is important to combine statin treatment with lifestyle changes such as increasing physical activity, reducing alcohol consumption, and adopting a heart-healthy diet.
The 2014 NICE guidelines recommend using the QRISK2 tool to identify patients over 40 years old who are at high risk of CVD, with a 10-year risk of 10% or greater. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and atorvastatin 20mg should be offered first-line. Lifestyle modifications include a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, limiting alcohol intake, and smoking cessation. Follow-up should occur at 3 months, with consideration of increasing the dose of atorvastatin up to 80 mg if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man comes to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. Upon conducting an ECG, it is found that he has sinus rhythm with a rate of 85 bpm. The QRS duration is 110 ms, PR interval is 180 ms, and corrected QT interval is 500ms. What is the reason for the abnormality observed on the ECG?
Your Answer: Pyrexia
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Long QT syndrome can be caused by hypokalaemia, which is an electrolyte imbalance that leads to a prolonged corrected QT interval on an ECG. This condition is often seen in young people and can present as cardiac syncope, tachyarrhythmias, palpitations, or cardiac arrest. Long QT syndrome can be inherited or acquired, with hypokalaemia being one of the acquired causes. Other causes include medications, CNS lesions, malnutrition, and hypothermia. It’s important to note that hypercalcaemia is associated with a shortened QT interval, not a prolonged one.
Understanding Long QT Syndrome
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes delayed repolarization of the ventricles, which can lead to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. The most common types of LQTS are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other medical conditions. Some drugs that can prolong the QT interval include amiodarone, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, and subarachnoid hemorrhage can also cause a prolonged QT interval.
LQTS may be picked up on routine ECG or following family screening. The symptoms and events associated with LQTS can vary depending on the type of LQTS. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress or exercise. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers may be used, and in high-risk cases, implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary. It is important to recognize and manage LQTS to prevent sudden cardiac death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 18
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presented to her GP with a 3-week history of fatigue, fever and muscle aches. A new murmur was detected in the mitral area.
Which of the following is the most suitable initial investigation?Your Answer: Blood culture
Explanation:Investigations for Infective Endocarditis: Choosing the Most Appropriate Initial Test
When a patient presents with fever and a new murmur, infective endocarditis is a likely diagnosis until proven otherwise. The most appropriate initial investigation is a blood culture, with three samples taken from different sites before starting antibiotics. Positive blood cultures are a major criterion for diagnosing infective endocarditis.
While other investigations may be useful in aiding diagnosis, they are not as specific as blood cultures. An ECG may show evidence of an aortic root abscess and its possible sequelae, such as AV block. A 24-hour ECG is helpful in diagnosing paroxysmal arrhythmias.
C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are non-specific markers that may be raised in infective endocarditis, but also in other conditions such as infection, malignancy, and pregnancy.
In summary, when suspecting infective endocarditis, the most appropriate initial investigation is a blood culture. Other investigations may be useful in aiding diagnosis, but are not as specific as blood cultures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 19
Correct
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A 45-year-old otherwise healthy man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath on minimal exertion that have been worsening over the past few months. Investigations reveal normal angiogram and chest x-ray results, but an echocardiogram shows severe aortic stenosis. What is the most suitable management option?
Your Answer: Surgical aortic valve replacement
Explanation:Treatment Options for Aortic Stenosis
Aortic stenosis (AS) is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment. The gold standard treatment for symptomatic AS is surgical aortic valve replacement, which involves open-heart surgery and the use of mechanical or biological valves. However, for patients who are deemed too high risk for open-heart surgery, aortic balloon valvuloplasty or transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) may be considered as less invasive options.
Annual echocardiography monitoring is necessary to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. It is important to note that oral nitrates are contraindicated in patients with AS as they can cause profound hypotension. Direct oral anticoagulants are also not licensed or indicated for the treatment of valvular heart disease. Overall, the choice of treatment depends on the patient’s individual risk factors and overall health status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 20
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard that worsens with the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Syncope: A Guide
Syncope, or fainting, can be caused by a variety of underlying conditions. One such condition is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM), which often presents with syncope following exercise. Patients with HCM may also have a mid-systolic murmur and a jerky pulse, which worsens with Valsalva but improves with squatting.
Atrial fibrillation, on the other hand, typically presents with palpitations, fatigue, or shortness of breath, but not syncope. It does not cause a murmur and results in an irregularly irregular pulse.
Epilepsy is not a common cause of syncope, as typical seizures involve loss of consciousness, tensing, shaking, and postictal fatigue.
Aortic stenosis can cause dizziness and syncope, and is usually associated with angina. The murmur associated with aortic stenosis is a crescendo-decrescendo murmur that radiates to the carotids.
A vasovagal attack, while it can cause syncope, would not cause a murmur. If syncope is recurrent, other causes should be sought.
Dyspnea is a common complaint in patients with HCM, but they may also experience angina or syncope. A left ventricular apical impulse, a prominent S4 gallop, and a harsh systolic ejection murmur are typical findings. The Valsalva maneuver can increase the murmur. An echocardiogram is the diagnostic procedure of choice.
Most patients with aortic stenosis have gradually increasing obstruction for years but do not become symptomatic until their sixth to eighth decades.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with intermittent leg pain that worsens with movement and improves with rest. He reports no recent illness or injury. The patient has a history of hypertension and takes amlodipine 5mg daily. He is a smoker with a BMI of 30 kg/m². On examination, there is no visible deformity in his lower limbs, and his calves are soft and nontender bilaterally with no edema. The ankle-brachial pressure index is 0.8. The patient is started on atorvastatin 80 mg daily. What other treatment should be prescribed for this patient?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Correct Answer: Clopidogrel
Explanation:NICE guidelines recommend that patients with peripheral arterial disease should be treated with clopidogrel and atorvastatin. This patient is experiencing intermittent claudication, which is a symptom of peripheral vascular disease caused by atherosclerosis. It is important to differentiate this from critical limb ischaemia, which is characterised by pain at rest. An ankle-brachial pressure index of < 0.9 suggests PAD, with an index < 0.5 suggesting critical limb ischaemia. This patient has several risk factors, including smoking, hypertension and obesity. Aspirin is not the first-line antiplatelet for PAD and should only be used if clopidogrel is not tolerated. Low molecular weight heparin is indicated for deep vein thrombosis, which is characterised by unilateral calf pain and swelling with tenderness along the deep venous system. Metformin is indicated for diabetes mellitus, which cannot be diagnosed without a HbA1c or blood glucose reading. Regular glucose checks are recommended for patients with vascular risk factors. Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition that is strongly associated with smoking. Therefore, patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit smoking. It is also important to treat any comorbidities that the patient may have, such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with Atorvastatin 80 mg being the recommended dosage. In 2010, NICE published guidance recommending the use of clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients instead of aspirin. Exercise training has also been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions. For severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia, there are several treatment options available. Endovascular revascularization and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with or without stent placement are typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. On the other hand, surgical revascularization, surgical bypass with an autologous vein or prosthetic material, and endarterectomy are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should only be considered for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery. There are also drugs licensed for use in PAD, including naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, is not recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 22
Correct
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A 59-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of severe dizziness, double vision and tinnitus whenever he lifts weights. He is a non-smoker and is in good health otherwise. During the examination, there is a difference of 35 mmHg between the systolic blood pressure (BP) in his left and right arms. His cardiovascular examination is otherwise unremarkable. His neurological examination is also normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Subclavian steal syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating Subclavian Steal Syndrome from Other Conditions
Subclavian steal syndrome is a condition that occurs when the subclavian artery is narrowed or blocked, leading to reversed blood flow in the vertebral artery. This can cause arm claudication and transient neurological symptoms when the affected arm is exercised. A key diagnostic feature is a systolic blood pressure difference of at least 15 mmHg between the affected and non-affected arms. However, other conditions can also cause discrepancies in blood pressure or similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate subclavian steal syndrome from other possibilities.
Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that can cause a sudden onset of chest pain and rapidly deteriorating symptoms. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is characterized by vertigo triggered by head movements, but does not involve blood pressure differences or diplopia. Buerger’s disease is a rare condition that can cause blood pressure discrepancies, but also involves skin changes and tissue ischemia. Carotid sinus hypersensitivity (CSH) can cause syncope when pressure is applied to the neck, but does not explain the other symptoms reported by the patient.
In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary to distinguish subclavian steal syndrome from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 23
Correct
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A 70-year-old man is rushed to the hospital due to severe chest pain and nausea. His ECG reveals ST elevation in leads V1, V2, V3, and V4. Following angiography and percutaneous coronary intervention, his left anterior descending coronary artery is stented. The patient admits to avoiding doctors and not seeing his GP for more than two decades. He has been smoking 15 cigarettes daily since he was 18. What are the recommended medications for secondary prevention?
Your Answer: Aspirin + prasugrel + lisinopril + bisoprolol + atorvastatin
Explanation:Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.
Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with known permanent AF (atrial fibrillation) on warfarin has a fast, irregularly irregular pulse. He has no other past medical history. The ECG confirms AF with a rate of 132 beats/min. He is haemodynamically stable and well. He denies any history of palpitations, shortness of breath or syncope.
Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?Your Answer: DC cardioversion
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation: A Comprehensive Guide
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt and appropriate management to prevent complications. Here are some treatment options for AF:
Rate Control: This is recommended for patients who have had AF for more than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are the first-line treatment unless there is a contraindication such as asthma. Calcium channel blockers can also be used.
Digoxin: This drug can be used as rate control if the patient cannot have beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers. However, it should only be used as a third-line treatment or as an adjunct because it has been shown to increase mortality. It is also only effective in sedentary patients.
DC Cardioversion: This can be used to treat new-onset AF if the patient has had it for less than 48 hours. It can also be considered in patients who have had it for longer than that, once they have been on stable anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.
Flecainide: This is a class Ic antiarrhythmic drug that can be used as chemical cardioversion in new AF (<48 hours) or if a patient has been anticoagulated for >3 weeks.
Rhythm Control: Nice guidelines advise that rhythm control can be used if AF onset was <48 hours ago, but should be avoided if longer ago because it can increase the risk of stroke from an atrial thrombus. In longer cases, rate control should be used, which is with beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. Digoxin can be used third line or as an adjunct. In conclusion, the appropriate treatment for AF depends on the duration of the arrhythmia, the patient’s comorbidities, and other factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a history of fainting. He reports feeling lightheaded while jogging. His father recently passed away suddenly due to a heart condition. Upon examination, he has an irregular pulse, a forceful cardiac impulse, and a mid-systolic murmur.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose the ONE best option from the list below.Your Answer: Mitral valve prolapse
Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Explanation:Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a genetic disorder with autosomal dominant transmission that is the most common form of inherited cardiomyopathy. It has a prevalence of about 100 per 100,000 and can present with symptoms similar to aortic stenosis, but with a jerky pulse. Sudden death can be the first symptom, especially during or after physical activity. Risk factors for sudden death in HCM include a history of previous cardiac arrest or sustained ventricular tachycardia, recurrent syncope, adverse genotype and/or family history, exercise-induced hypotension, multiple episodes of non-sustained ventricular tachycardia on ambulatory ECG, and a marked increase in the thickness of the left ventricular wall. Dilated cardiomyopathy is the most common form of non-ischaemic cardiomyopathy, but given the patient’s family history, jerky pulse, and collapse on exercise, it is not the most likely cause. Mitral valve prolapse tends to present with palpitations, dyspnoea, low BMI, chest pain, and syncope, with a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur. Aortic stenosis can cause dizziness, syncope, and angina, but the family history makes HCM more likely than AS. Pericarditis tends to cause central chest pain that is relieved by leaning forward and worsened by coughing or straining.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 26
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman is recuperating in the hospital after a coronary angiogram for unstable angina. Two days after the procedure, she reports experiencing intense pain in her left foot. Upon examination, her left lower limb peripheral pulses are normal. There is tissue loss on the medial three toes on the left foot and an area of livedo reticularis on the same foot.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cholesterol embolisation
Explanation:Differentiating Vascular Conditions: Causes and Symptoms
Cholesterol embolisation occurs when cholesterol crystals from a ruptured atherosclerotic plaque block small or medium arteries, often following an intervention like coronary angiography. This results in microvascular ischemia, which typically does not affect blood pressure or larger vessels, explaining the normal peripheral pulses in affected patients. Livedo reticularis, a purplish discoloration, may also occur due to microvascular ischemia.
Arterial thromboembolism is a common condition, especially in patients with established cardiovascular disease or risk factors like hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and smoking. It tends to affect larger vessels than cholesterol embolism, leading to the absence of peripheral pulses and gangrenous toes.
Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a vasculitis that mainly affects young men who smoke. It presents with claudication of the arms or legs, with or without ulcers or gangrene. However, the acute onset of symptoms following an intervention makes cholesterol embolism a more likely diagnosis.
Deep vein thrombosis typically presents with a swollen, painful calf and does not display signs of arterial insufficiency like gangrene and livedo reticularis.
Takayasu’s arteritis is a rare form of large vessel vasculitis that mainly affects the aorta. It is more common in women and tends to present below the age of 30 years old with pulseless arms. However, this patient’s history is not typical for Takayasu’s arteritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 27
Correct
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A 65-year-old man is being discharged after undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention for an acute coronary syndrome. He has no significant medical history prior to this event. What type of lipid modification therapy should have been initiated during his hospitalization?
Your Answer: Atorvastatin 80mg on
Explanation:Atorvastatin 80 mg should be taken by patients who have already been diagnosed with CVD.
The 2014 NICE guidelines recommend using the QRISK2 tool to identify patients over 40 years old who are at high risk of CVD, with a 10-year risk of 10% or greater. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and atorvastatin 20mg should be offered first-line. Lifestyle modifications include a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, limiting alcohol intake, and smoking cessation. Follow-up should occur at 3 months, with consideration of increasing the dose of atorvastatin up to 80 mg if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has been taking warfarin for 2 years due to paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. He recently underwent DC cardioversion and is now in sinus rhythm after consulting with his cardiologist. His CHAD-VASC score is 4. Assuming he remains in sinus rhythm, what is the best course of action for his anticoagulation?
Your Answer: Stop all anticoagulation today
Correct Answer: Continue anticoagulation lifelong
Explanation:Anticoagulation should be continued long-term, even if sinus rhythm is maintained, following elective DC cardioversion for AF in high-risk patients. The correct answer is to continue anticoagulation lifelong, with regular evaluation of bleeding risk. The options of continuing anticoagulation for 4 weeks or 6 months then stopping are incorrect for this patient who has a high CHAD-VASC score. One week of low molecular weight heparin is not the appropriate answer in this case, although it may be used for thromboprophylaxis in some post-surgical patients.
Atrial Fibrillation and Cardioversion: Elective Procedure for Rhythm Control
Cardioversion is a medical procedure used in atrial fibrillation (AF) to restore the heart’s normal rhythm. There are two scenarios where cardioversion may be used: as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. In the elective scenario, cardioversion can be performed either electrically or pharmacologically. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.
According to the 2014 NICE guidelines, rate or rhythm control should be offered if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and rate control should be started if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain. If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised and may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological means. However, if the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately.
NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological. If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of feeling dizzy and experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. He has a bicuspid aortic valve and is waiting for valve replacement surgery.
Which of the following murmurs would be the most likely to occur in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs Based on Location and Type
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate various cardiac conditions. The location and type of murmur can help differentiate between different conditions.
Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge: This is typical for aortic stenosis, which is more likely to occur in a bicuspid aortic valve. The murmur may radiate to the carotids. Pulmonary stenosis, hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, and atrial septal defect can also cause this type of murmur, but the location would be different.
Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal edge: This location is typical for pulmonary stenosis, not aortic stenosis. The patient’s history indicates symptomatic aortic stenosis, making this finding inconsistent.
Early diastolic murmur loudest over the 3rd intercostal space, left sternal edge: This type and location of murmur is typical for aortic regurgitation, not aortic stenosis. The location is Erb’s point, where S1 and S2 should both be heard.
Mid-diastolic murmur loudest over the apex: This type and location of murmur is typical for mitral stenosis, not aortic stenosis. The apex is the mitral area, located at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.
Pansystolic murmur loudest over the apex: This type and location of murmur is typical for mitral regurgitation, not aortic stenosis. The apex is the mitral area, located at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy with Marfan syndrome is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He has been researching possible complications of his condition online and is worried about potential cardiac issues.
Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most probable in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Cardiac Abnormalities Associated with Marfan Syndrome
Marfan syndrome is commonly associated with cardiac abnormalities, with aortic root dilatation being the most prevalent, found in approximately 80% of cases. This can lead to aortic regurgitation and even dissection. While there is some evidence of a slight increase in atrial septal defects in Marfan syndrome patients, it is not as common as aortic regurgitation or mitral valve prolapse. Dilated cardiomyopathy can also present in Marfan syndrome patients, although it is not as prevalent as aortic root dilatation or regurgitation. Pulmonary regurgitation is also increased in incidence in Marfan syndrome, but it is still less common than aortic regurgitation. Finally, while persistent ductus arteriosus is more commonly found in Marfan syndrome patients than in the general population, the association is relatively weak. Overall, Marfan syndrome patients should be monitored closely for these cardiac abnormalities to ensure proper management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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