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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man is involved in a high-speed car accident and suffers from...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is involved in a high-speed car accident and suffers from severe injuries. During the initial assessment, it is discovered that he has free fluid in his abdominal cavity on FAST scan. Due to his unstable condition, he is taken to the operating theatre for laparotomy. The surgeons identify the main sources of bleeding in the mesentery of the small bowel and tie them off. The injured sections of the small bowel are stapled off but not reanastamosed. However, there are multiple tiny areas of bleeding, especially in the wound edges, which the surgeons refer to as a general ooze. The abdomen is closed, and the patient is admitted to the intensive care unit. The surgeons plan to return to the theatre to repair the small bowel 24 hours later when the patient is more stable. What is the principle of damage control laparotomy?

      Your Answer: Laparotomy performed to stop bleeding

      Correct Answer: Laparotomy performed to restore normal physiology

      Explanation:

      Damage Control Laparotomy: A Life-Saving Procedure

      Damage control laparotomy is a surgical procedure performed when prolonged surgery would further deteriorate the patient’s physiology. Patients who require this procedure often present with a triad of acidosis, hypothermia, and coagulopathy. The primary goal of this procedure is to stop life-threatening bleeding and reduce contamination, rather than reconstructing damaged tissue and reanastomosing the bowel. For instance, the surgeon may staple off a perforated bowel to prevent further contamination.

      After the abbreviated laparotomy for damage control, the patient is transferred to the intensive care unit for resuscitation. The medical team focuses on correcting the patient’s abnormal physiology, such as warming up the patient and correcting coagulopathy. The patient is closely monitored until their physiology is closer to normal, which usually takes 24 to 48 hours.

      Once the patient’s physiology has improved, the surgeon performs an operation to reconstruct the anatomy. This approach allows the patient to recover from the initial surgery and stabilize before undergoing further procedures. Damage control laparotomy is a life-saving procedure that can prevent further deterioration of the patient’s condition and increase their chances of survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of frequent urination and dribbling....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of frequent urination and dribbling. He reports going to the bathroom six times per hour and waking up multiple times at night to urinate. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia, and is currently taking finasteride and tamsulosin. On physical examination, the doctor notes an enlarged, symmetrical, firm, and non-tender prostate. The patient denies any changes in weight, fever, or appetite. His International Prostate Symptom Score is 20. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Add sildenafil

      Correct Answer: Add tolterodine

      Explanation:

      Tolterodine should be added to the management plan for patients with an overactive bladder, particularly those with voiding and storage symptoms such as dribbling, frequency, and nocturia, which are commonly caused by benign prostatic hyperplasia in men. If alpha-blockers like tamsulosin are not effective, antimuscarinic agents can be added according to NICE guidelines. Adding alfuzosin or sildenafil would be inappropriate, and changing the alpha-blocker is not recommended.

      Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a urinalysis to check for infection and haematuria, perform a digital rectal examination to assess the size and consistency of the prostate, and possibly conduct a PSA test after proper counselling. Patients should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.

      For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be offered. If there are mixed symptoms of voiding and storage not responding to an alpha-blocker, an antimuscarinic drug may be added. For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered, and antimuscarinic drugs may be prescribed if symptoms persist. Mirabegron may be considered if first-line drugs fail. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night, furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon, and desmopressin may be helpful.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with a lump on her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with a lump on her left breast. She has no family history of breast cancer. Upon examination, a smooth, rubbery, mobile mass measuring 4 cm in diameter with clearly defined edges is found. An ultrasound of her breasts reveals a single round solid mass of 4 cm diameter, which is well circumscribed and lobulated. Core biopsy confirms the presence of epithelial and stromal elements consistent with a fibroadenoma. The lump is causing her moderate discomfort and she expresses a desire to have it removed. What is the most appropriate advice to give this patient?

      A) The lump will regress by itself so no need to remove.
      B) The lump is non-cancerous and hence cannot be removed, but she should return if it changes or grows.
      C) Refer her for excision biopsy to remove the mass.
      D) Prescribe her ibuprofen for the pain, and advise her that she does not require removal of the lump.
      E) Refer her for a breast mammogram to assess the lump.

      Explanation:
      As the lump has examination, ultrasound, and histological findings consistent with a fibroadenoma and is causing moderate discomfort, surgical excision should be recommended. It is important to obtain histological evidence to confirm the diagnosis of fibroadenoma if excision is required. Observation and simple advice would be sufficient if the fibroadenoma were less than 3 cm, but the size and discomfort of this lump make that option incorrect. A breast mammogram is usually ineffective for a younger woman due to dense breasts. Prescribing ibuprofen is generally the treatment for fibroadenosis, which is a different condition where women experience painful breasts generally around their periods. It would not be a solution for the discomfort caused by the mass effect of the fibroadenoma.

      Your Answer: The lump is non-cancerous and hence she cannot have it removed, but to return if it changes or grows

      Correct Answer: Refer her for excision biopsy to remove the mass

      Explanation:

      Surgical excision is the recommended course of action for a breast fibroadenoma that is over 3 cm in size and causing moderate discomfort, based on examination, ultrasound, and histological findings. It is important to confirm the diagnosis of fibroadenoma through histological evidence before proceeding with excision. While some fibroadenomas may disappear without treatment, this is not the case for larger ones causing discomfort. Observation and simple advice are only appropriate for fibroadenomas that are less than 3 cm in size. A breast mammogram is generally not effective for younger women with dense breasts. Prescribing ibuprofen is not a solution for the discomfort caused by the fibroadenoma, as this is a different condition from fibroadenosis, which causes painful breasts around the time of menstruation.

      Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma

      Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30.

      Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended.

      In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.

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  • Question 4 - Which of the following types of renal stones are radiolucent? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of renal stones are radiolucent?

      Your Answer: Cystine stones

      Correct Answer: Xanthine stones

      Explanation:

      On an x-ray, cystine stones appear semi-opaque while urate and xanthine stones are radiolucent.

      Types of Renal Stones and their Appearance on X-ray

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, are solid masses that form in the kidneys due to the accumulation of certain substances. There are different types of renal stones, each with a unique appearance on x-ray. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common, accounting for 40% of cases, and appear opaque on x-ray. Mixed calcium oxalate/phosphate stones and calcium phosphate stones also appear opaque and make up 25% and 10% of cases, respectively. Triple phosphate stones, which develop in alkaline urine and are composed of struvite, account for 10% of cases and appear opaque as well. Urate stones, which are radiolucent, make up 5-10% of cases. Cystine stones, which have a semi-opaque, ‘ground-glass’ appearance, are rare and only account for 1% of cases. Xanthine stones are the least common, accounting for less than 1% of cases, and are also radiolucent. Staghorn calculi, which involve the renal pelvis and extend into at least 2 calyces, are composed of triple phosphate and are more likely to develop in alkaline urine. Infections with Ureaplasma urealyticum and Proteus can increase the risk of their formation.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 5 - A 49-year-old woman, who had undergone a right-sided mastectomy for breast carcinoma, reports...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman, who had undergone a right-sided mastectomy for breast carcinoma, reports difficulty reaching forward and notices that the vertebral border of her scapula is closer to the midline on the side of surgery during a follow-up visit to the Surgical Outpatient Clinic. Which nerve is likely to have been injured to cause these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Long thoracic

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Upper Limb Function

      The nerves of the upper limb are vulnerable to injury, particularly during surgical procedures or trauma. Understanding the effects of nerve damage on muscle function is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment. Here are some common nerve injuries and their effects on upper limb function:

      Long Thoracic Nerve: Injury to this nerve results in denervation of the serratus anterior muscle, causing winging of the scapula on clinical examination. The patient will be unable to protract the scapula, leading to weakened arm movements.

      Musculocutaneous Nerve: This nerve innervates the biceps brachii, brachialis, and coracobrachialis muscles. Damage to this nerve results in weakened arm flexion and an inability to flex the forearm.

      Axillary Nerve: The teres minor and deltoid muscles are innervated by this nerve. Fractures of the surgical neck of the humerus can endanger this nerve, resulting in an inability to abduct the upper limb beyond 15-20 degrees.

      Radial Nerve: The extensors of the forearm and triceps brachii muscles are innervated by this nerve. Damage to this nerve results in an inability to extend the forearm, but arm extension is only slightly weakened due to the powerful latissimus muscle.

      Suprascapular Nerve: This nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, which are important for initiating abduction and external rotation of the shoulder joint. Damage to this nerve results in an inability to initiate arm abduction.

      In conclusion, understanding the effects of nerve injuries on muscle function is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of upper limb injuries.

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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old snowboarder presents to the Emergency department complaining of pain and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old snowboarder presents to the Emergency department complaining of pain and swelling around the first metacarpophalangeal joint (MCP joint) following a fall during practice.
      Upon examination, there is significant swelling and bruising on the ulnar side of the joint.

      What is the most probable injury that the patient has sustained?

      Your Answer: Proximal phalanx

      Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament

      Explanation:

      Skier’s Thumb: A Common Injury in Winter Sports

      Skier’s thumb, also known as gamekeeper’s thumb, is a common injury that occurs in winter sports. It is caused by damage or rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament, which is located at the base of the thumb. This injury can result in acute swelling and gross instability of the thumb. In severe cases where a complete tear of the ligament is suspected, an MRI may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis, and surgical repair may be required.

      Once the acute swelling has subsided, treatment for skier’s thumb typically involves immobilization in a thumb spica. This is the standard therapy for cases of partial rupture.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of increased frequency of urination for...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of increased frequency of urination for the past 3 months, particularly at night. He also reports dribbling while urinating and a sensation of incomplete bladder emptying. He denies any weight loss. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender. The digital rectal examination reveals a smooth unilateral enlargement of the lateral lobe of the prostate.

      What is the initial management strategy that should be employed?

      Your Answer: Tamsulosin

      Explanation:

      Tamsulosin is the preferred initial treatment for patients with bothersome symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), particularly those experiencing voiding symptoms such as weak urine flow, difficulty starting urination, straining, incomplete bladder emptying, and dribbling at the end of urination. Despite the potential for ejaculatory dysfunction, the benefits of tamsulosin in relieving symptoms outweigh the drawbacks. It is not necessary to wait for a biopsy before starting treatment, as the patient’s symptoms and physical exam findings suggest BPH rather than prostate cancer. Finasteride may be considered for patients at high risk of disease progression or those who do not respond to tamsulosin. Oxybutynin is not indicated for this patient, as it is used to treat urge incontinence, which he does not have.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.

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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP with concerns about a lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP with concerns about a lump in her right breast. The patient reports that she first noticed the lump about two months ago and it has remained persistent without any noticeable increase in size. Upon examination, the GP observes a smooth, mobile 2 cm lump in the Inferolateral quadrant without skin or nipple changes. The patient denies any family history of breast cancer and has no lumps in her axilla. What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Arrange breast ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Routine breast clinic referral

      Explanation:

      If a woman under 30 years old presents with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, she may not meet the 2-week-wait referral criteria but can still be referred for further evaluation. The most likely diagnosis is a fibroadenoma, which is a common benign breast lump that often occurs in younger women. These lumps are typically firm, smooth, and highly mobile. It is important to refer the patient to a breast clinic for evaluation, but routine referral is sufficient given the low likelihood of cancer. Mammograms or ultrasounds are not necessary at this stage. Reviewing the patient in one month is also unnecessary as the lump has already persisted for two months. Urgent referral is not needed due to the patient’s age and low risk of breast cancer. NICE CKS recommends a 2-week-wait referral for those over 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump, or over 50 years old with unilateral nipple changes. Referral should also be considered for those with skin changes suggestive of breast cancer or those over 30 years old with an unexplained lump in the axilla.

      In 2015, NICE released guidelines for referring individuals suspected of having breast cancer. If a person is 30 years or older and has an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, or if they are 50 years or older and have discharge, retraction, or other concerning changes in one nipple only, they should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. If a person has skin changes that suggest breast cancer or is 30 years or older with an unexplained lump in the axilla, a suspected cancer pathway referral should also be considered. For individuals under 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, non-urgent referral should be considered.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old type 2 diabetic is scheduled for a vaginal hysterectomy tomorrow. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old type 2 diabetic is scheduled for a vaginal hysterectomy tomorrow. Her usual medication regimen includes taking Metformin in the morning and Gliclazide during breakfast and dinner. What is the recommended approach for managing her medications prior to surgery?

      Your Answer: Omit Metformin the day before and on the day. Take Gliclazide as normal.

      Correct Answer: Omit Metformin on the day of surgery. Omit the morning Gliclazide, and take the dinner time Gliclazide if she is able to eat.

      Explanation:

      Medication Management for Diabetic Patients on the Day of Surgery

      When managing medication for diabetic patients on the day of surgery, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of each medication. Here are some guidelines for different scenarios:

      – Omit Metformin on the day of surgery. Omit the morning Gliclazide, and take the dinner time Gliclazide if she is able to eat.
      – Omit Metformin the day before and on the day. Take Gliclazide as normal.
      – Take Metformin as normal. Omit Gliclazide.
      – Omit Metformin the day before and on the day. Omit Gliclazide on the day of surgery.
      – Omit Metformin on the day of surgery. Halve the Gliclazide doses at lunchtime and dinner.

      It is important to note that these guidelines may vary depending on the individual patient’s medical history and current condition. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional for personalized medication management.

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  • Question 10 - A 39-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of malaise, fever, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of malaise, fever, and rigours. Upon CT scan, it is revealed that he has fulminant pancolitis and an emergency subtotal colectomy with stoma formation is necessary. What type of stoma will he have post-surgery?

      Your Answer: Flush with the skin, single opening in the left iliac fossa

      Correct Answer: Spouted from the skin, single opening in the right iliac fossa

      Explanation:

      An ileostomy is a stoma formed from the small bowel, specifically the terminal ileum, and is typically located in the right iliac fossa. It is spouted from the skin to prevent alkaline bowel contents from causing skin irritation when attaching and removing stoma bags. The output of an end ileostomy is liquid and it has a single opening that is spouted from the skin.

      A colostomy, on the other hand, is usually flush with the skin and has a more solid output. It is typically located in the left iliac fossa, except for defunctioning loop transverse colostomies which are located in the epigastrium. An end colostomy is a single opening, flush stoma in the left iliac fossa, while a loop ileostomy is a spouted stoma with a double opening in the right iliac fossa.

      It is rare to find an end ileostomy in the left iliac fossa, especially after a subtotal colectomy. The only reason a left-sided ileostomy would be fashioned is if there was an anatomical reason it could not be brought out on the right, such as adhesions or right-sided sepsis. A subtotal colectomy involves resecting most of the large bowel, except the rectum, and forming an end ileostomy. In contrast, a Hartmann’s procedure for sigmoid perforation secondary to diverticulitis or a tumor involves forming an end colostomy in the left iliac fossa.

      Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.

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  • Question 11 - A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of pain during bowel movements...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of pain during bowel movements for the past 4 days. Upon examination, a tender, oedematous, and purple subcutaneous mass is found at the anal margin. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer via 2 week wait

      Correct Answer: Stool softeners, ice packs and analgesia

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from thrombosed haemorrhoids, which is characterized by anorectal pain and a tender lump on the anal margin. Since the patient has a 4-day history, stool softeners, ice packs, and analgesia are the recommended management options. Referral for excision and analgesia would be appropriate if the history was <72 hours. However, a 2-week wait referral for suspected cancer is not necessary as the patient's symptoms and examination findings are not indicative of cancer. Although this condition typically resolves within 10 days with supportive management, reassurance alone is not enough. The patient should be given analgesia and stool softeners to alleviate the pain. Thrombosed haemorrhoids are characterized by severe pain and the presence of a tender lump. Upon examination, a purplish, swollen, and tender subcutaneous perianal mass can be observed. If the patient seeks medical attention within 72 hours of onset, referral for excision may be necessary. However, if the condition has progressed beyond this timeframe, patients can typically manage their symptoms with stool softeners, ice packs, and pain relief medication. Symptoms usually subside within 10 days.

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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old man presents with urinary problems. He has been passing very frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with urinary problems. He has been passing very frequent small amounts of urine and has also been getting up several times in the night to urinate.

      Upon examination, he has a smooth, non-enlarged prostate, and no abdominal masses. Further investigation rules out diabetes, infection, and urological malignancy. It is determined that his symptoms are due to an overactive bladder. Lifestyle advice is discussed, and he is referred for bladder training exercises.

      What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Botulinum toxin injection

      Correct Answer: Oxybutynin

      Explanation:

      Antimuscarinic medications are effective in managing symptoms of overactive bladder. This condition is characterized by storage symptoms such as urinary urgency, frequency, and nocturia, often caused by detrusor overactivity. Oxybutynin is an example of an antimuscarinic drug that can increase bladder capacity by relaxing the detrusor’s smooth muscle, thereby reducing overactive bladder symptoms. Other antimuscarinic drugs include tolterodine and darifenacin. While botulinum toxin injection is an invasive treatment option for overactive bladder, it is not typically the first choice. Finasteride, a 5 alpha-reductase inhibitor, is not indicated for overactive bladder treatment as it is used to decrease prostate size in BPH patients. Mirabegron, a beta-3 adrenergic receptor agonist, can also relax the detrusor’s smooth muscle, but it is only recommended when antimuscarinic drugs are not effective or contraindicated due to side effects.

      Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a urinalysis to check for infection and haematuria, perform a digital rectal examination to assess the size and consistency of the prostate, and possibly conduct a PSA test after proper counselling. Patients should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.

      For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be offered. If there are mixed symptoms of voiding and storage not responding to an alpha-blocker, an antimuscarinic drug may be added. For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered, and antimuscarinic drugs may be prescribed if symptoms persist. Mirabegron may be considered if first-line drugs fail. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night, furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon, and desmopressin may be helpful.

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  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department following a car crash....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department following a car crash. He was found to be in a profound coma and subsequently pronounced brain dead.

      What is the accurate diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Brain death testing should be undertaken by two separate doctors on separate occasions

      Explanation:

      To ensure accuracy, brain death testing must be conducted by two experienced doctors who are knowledgeable in performing brain stem death testing. These doctors should have at least 5 years of post-graduate experience and must not be members of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. The patient being tested should have normal electrolytes and no reversible causes, as well as a deep coma of known aetiology and no sedation. The knee jerk reflex is not used in brain death testing, instead, the corneal reflex and oculovestibular reflexes are tested through the caloric test. It is important to note that brain death testing should be conducted by two separate doctors on separate occasions.

      Criteria and Testing for Brain Stem Death

      Brain death occurs when the brain and brain stem cease to function, resulting in irreversible loss of consciousness and vital functions. To determine brain stem death, certain criteria must be met and specific tests must be performed. The patient must be in a deep coma of known cause, with reversible causes excluded and no sedation. Electrolyte levels must be normal.

      The testing for brain stem death involves several assessments. The pupils must be fixed and unresponsive to changes in light intensity. The corneal reflex must be absent, and there should be no response to supraorbital pressure. The oculovestibular reflexes must be absent, which is tested by injecting ice-cold water into each ear. There should be no cough reflex to bronchial stimulation or gagging response to pharyngeal stimulation. Finally, there should be no observed respiratory effort in response to disconnection from the ventilator for at least five minutes, with adequate oxygenation ensured.

      It is important that the testing is performed by two experienced doctors on two separate occasions, with at least one being a consultant. Neither doctor can be a member of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. These criteria and tests are crucial in determining brain stem death and ensuring that the patient is beyond recovery.

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  • Question 14 - A 44-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with a sudden and severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with a sudden and severe headache. During the examination, he exhibits significant neck stiffness and has a fever of 38ºC. What factor in his medical history would indicate a diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage instead of bacterial meningitis?

      Your Answer: Acromegaly

      Correct Answer: Family history of polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage is a potential complication of ADPKD.

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.

      Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.

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  • Question 15 - Which one of the following statements regarding male circumcision is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding male circumcision is correct?

      Your Answer: All infants with hypospadias should be circumcised before the age of 1 year

      Correct Answer: Reduces the rate of HIV transmission

      Explanation:

      Understanding Circumcision

      Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.

      The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.

      There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.

      Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.

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  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old woman comes in with a lesion on her left breast. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman comes in with a lesion on her left breast. Upon examination, there is a weeping, crusting lesion on the left nipple, but the areolar region is unaffected. No palpable mass is found in the breast, but there is a palpable lymph node in the axillary region. The patient's doctor attempted to treat the lesion with 1% hydrocortisone cream, but it was unsuccessful. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pagets disease of the nipple

      Explanation:

      This type of lesion, which appears crusty and causes tears, is typically associated with Paget’s disease of the nipple. It is worth noting that the areolar region is usually unaffected. While there may not be a palpable mass, some patients may still have an invasive cancer underlying the lesion, which can lead to lymphadenopathy.

      Paget’s disease of the nipple is a condition that affects the nipple and is associated with breast cancer. It is present in a small percentage of patients with breast cancer, typically around 1-2%. In half of these cases, there is an underlying mass lesion, and 90% of those patients will have an invasive carcinoma. Even in cases where there is no mass lesion, around 30% of patients will still have an underlying carcinoma. The remaining cases will have carcinoma in situ.

      One key difference between Paget’s disease and eczema of the nipple is that Paget’s disease primarily affects the nipple and later spreads to the areolar, whereas eczema does the opposite. Diagnosis of Paget’s disease involves a punch biopsy, mammography, and ultrasound of the breast. Treatment will depend on the underlying lesion causing the disease.

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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a lump in her...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a lump in her right breast that she has noticed for the past 4 weeks. She denies any pain, discharge, or skin changes. The patient is concerned about the lump as she has recently started a new relationship and her partner has also noticed it. On examination, a mobile, smooth, firm breast lump measuring 3.5 cm is palpated. Ultrasound confirms a fibroadenoma. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Surgical excision

      Explanation:

      Surgical excision is the recommended treatment for fibroadenomas larger than 3 cm in size. This is because such masses can cause cosmetic concerns and discomfort, especially if they continue to grow. Given the patient’s expressed anxiety about the mass, surgical excision should be offered as a treatment option. Anastrozole, which is used to treat hormone-receptor-positive breast cancer in postmenopausal women, is not appropriate in this case as the patient has a benign breast lesion, and there is no information about hormone receptor status or menopausal status. Tamoxifen, which has been shown to reduce benign breast lump development in some pre-menopausal women, is not a primary treatment for fibroadenomas. Ultrasound-guided monochloroacetic acid injection is also not a suitable treatment option as it is used for plantar wart management and not for breast cryotherapy. While some centers may offer ultrasound-guided cryotherapy for fibroadenomas smaller than 4 cm, surgical excision is the more common treatment.

      Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma

      Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30.

      Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended.

      In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.

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  • Question 18 - As an FY1 on medical ward cover, you have been tasked with cannulating...

    Incorrect

    • As an FY1 on medical ward cover, you have been tasked with cannulating a 72-year-old female with type-1 diabetes. She is currently being treated for pneumonia, has a right below the knee amputation, and suffers from diabetic neuropathy. What would be the appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: A cannula should only stay in for 24 hours in a known diabetic

      Correct Answer: You should avoid cannulating his foot

      Explanation:

      It is advisable to avoid cannulating the feet of a patient with a known history of diabetes. In this case, the patient has poorly controlled diabetes, diabetic retinopathy, and likely peripheral neuropathy, which has led to amputation. Cannulating the foot could easily result in a diabetic ulcer due to the neuropathy. However, there is no reason why the hand cannot be used for cannulation. While diabetics are more susceptible to infections, there are no guidelines stating that a cannula can only remain in place for 24 hours. It can stay in for up to 3 days, as in most other patients. Administering a shot of antibiotics prior to cannulation is unnecessary and potentially dangerous. A sterile, non-touch technique should be used to minimize the risk of infection, as in any other patient. While cannulation can be stressful for some patients, administering insulin would be inappropriate and hazardous. It is always important to check the patient’s blood glucose levels before administering insulin.

      Intravenous Cannula: Colour, Size, and Maximal Flow Rates

      Intravenous cannulas are medical devices used to administer fluids, medications, and blood products directly into a patient’s bloodstream. These cannulas come in different sizes and colours, each with a specific maximal flow rate. The colour and size of the cannula determine the amount of fluid that can be administered per minute.

      The orange cannula, which has a size of 14g, has the highest maximal flow rate of 270 ml/min. The grey cannula, which has a size of 16g, has a maximal flow rate of 180 ml/min. The green cannula, which has a size of 18g, has a maximal flow rate of 80 ml/min. The pink cannula, which has a size of 20g, has a maximal flow rate of 54 ml/min. Lastly, the blue cannula, which has a size of 22g, has a maximal flow rate of 33 ml/min.

      It is important to choose the appropriate cannula size and colour based on the patient’s needs and the type of fluid or medication being administered. Using the wrong cannula size or colour can result in complications such as infiltration, phlebitis, and extravasation. Therefore, healthcare professionals must be knowledgeable about the different types of cannulas and their maximal flow rates to ensure safe and effective patient care.

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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the surgical assessment unit with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the surgical assessment unit with a complaint of severe, slow onset pain in her left iliac fossa. Upon examination, left iliac fossa pain is confirmed, and she denies being sexually active. However, there is some clinical evidence of peritonitis. What investigation should be requested next?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      A pregnancy test is compulsory in all instances of acute abdomen in females who are of childbearing age.

      Exam Features of Abdominal Pain Conditions

      Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to be familiar with their characteristic exam features. Peptic ulcer disease, for instance, may present with epigastric pain that is relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers and worsened by eating in gastric ulcers. Appendicitis, on the other hand, may initially cause pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa, accompanied by anorexia, tenderness in the right iliac fossa, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. Acute pancreatitis, which is often due to alcohol or gallstones, may manifest as severe epigastric pain and vomiting, with tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever on examination.

      Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain include biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction. Biliary colic may cause pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back and interscapular region, while diverticulitis may present with colicky pain in the left lower quadrant, fever, and raised inflammatory markers. Intestinal obstruction, which may be caused by malignancy or previous operations, may lead to vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and tinkling bowel sounds.

      It is also important to remember that some conditions may have unusual or medical causes of abdominal pain, such as acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning. Therefore, being familiar with the characteristic exam features of various conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old smoker presents with a four-day history of dyspnoea and cough productive...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old smoker presents with a four-day history of dyspnoea and cough productive of purulent sputum with some blood staining. She also reports experiencing pleuritic chest pain for one day.

      During examination, her temperature is 38°C, pulse is 120/min, blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 20/min. Upon auscultation, inspiratory crepitations are heard at the left mid zone and the percussion note is dull in this area.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Productive Purulent Sputum

      Patients presenting with productive purulent sputum require a thorough differential diagnosis to ensure appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient is pyrexial and has signs of consolidation, indicating community-acquired pneumonia. However, it is important to consider other potential causes, such as lung cancer and pulmonary embolism.

      To exclude malignancy, features of cancer must be ruled out and the chest X-ray carefully examined. Additionally, the possibility of pulmonary embolism should be considered, and evidence of DVT and other risk factors should be assessed. If the patient fails to respond to antibiotic therapy or shows abnormal ECG results, pulmonary embolism may be suspected.

      Overall, a comprehensive evaluation is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat patients with productive purulent sputum. By considering all potential causes and ruling out malignancy and pulmonary embolism, appropriate treatment can be administered to improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 21 - A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department referred by his GP due...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department referred by his GP due to lower abdominal pain and distension for the past three days. He has been unable to pass stool or flatus. The patient had a laparotomy for a perforated duodenal ulcer 25 years ago. Upon examination, his abdomen is distended and non-tender, and he appears to be in obvious discomfort. The CT scan of his abdomen and pelvis reveals evidence of large bowel obstruction at the splenic flexure. What is the probable cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer: Adhesions from previous surgery

      Correct Answer: Colon cancer

      Explanation:

      A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine, paracetamol, and ibuprofen for their condition. They have been experiencing low mood and have tried non-pharmaceutical interventions with little success. The patient now reports that their depressive symptoms are worsening, prompting the GP to consider starting them on an antidepressant. Which antidepressant would pose the highest risk of causing a GI bleed in this patient, necessitating the use of a protein pump inhibitor as a precaution?

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  • Question 22 - What is the most suitable course of action for a 33-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable course of action for a 33-year-old man who has an extracapsular fractured neck of femur?

      Your Answer: Total hip replacement

      Correct Answer: Dynamic hip screw

      Explanation:

      Fractured Neck of Femur in Elderly Patients

      Fractured neck of femur is a common injury that causes morbidity and mortality in elderly patients. This type of fracture occurs between the head and trochanteric region of the femur and can also occur in younger patients due to trauma or associated conditions. The fracture can be displaced or nondisplaced, and intracapsular or extracapsular.

      For displaced fractures, there are two treatment strategies: reduction and fixation or replacement of the head and neck of the femur with a prosthesis. Physiologically younger and active patients with displaced extracapsular fractures should be treated with reduction and fixation, often with a dynamic hip screw. However, there is a risk of further surgery if the hip develops painful avascular necrosis, which may not be avoided despite the best surgical treatment. Displaced intracapsular fractures in younger patients are not straightforward to manage, and a total hip replacement may be considered.

      In older patients, displaced fractures are best treated with replacement of the head and neck of the femur to avoid potential further surgery. It is important for patients to understand the risks and benefits of each treatment option and to work with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action.

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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old woman who has a history of Crohn's disease complains of painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who has a history of Crohn's disease complains of painful rectal bleeding. She reports that the bleeding happens after passing stool and it is bright red. What could be the probable cause of the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoid

      Correct Answer: Fissure in ano

      Explanation:

      If a person experiences pain while passing stool and notices bleeding after defecation, it could indicate the presence of a fissure in ano. Although thrombosed haemorrhoids may also cause painful rectal bleeding, a fissure is more probable in this case. Additionally, individuals with Crohn’s disease are more prone to developing fissures. While rectal cancer can also cause rectal bleeding, it is unlikely to occur in a 36-year-old.

      Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.

      Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.

      Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.

      In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.

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  • Question 24 - A 70-year-old woman is being discharged from the Surgical Ward following a midline...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman is being discharged from the Surgical Ward following a midline laparotomy for a perforated duodenal ulcer. She has several surgical staples in situ.
      How many days post-surgery should the staples be removed?

      Your Answer: 14–21 days

      Correct Answer: 10–14 days

      Explanation:

      Proper Timing for Suture Removal

      The length of time sutures should remain in place varies depending on the location of the wound and the tension across it. Sutures on the chest, stomach, or back should be removed after 10-14 days to prevent wound dehiscence while reducing the risk of infection and scarring. Facial sutures can be removed after 5-7 days, while sutures over the lower extremities or joints typically need removing after 14-21 days. Sutures should not be left in place for more than 21 days due to the increased likelihood of infection, scarring, and difficult removal. It is important to keep wounds dry for the first 24 hours and avoid baths and swimming until sutures are removed.

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  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old overweight woman presents to the emergency department with severe upper abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old overweight woman presents to the emergency department with severe upper abdominal pain that started suddenly 10 hours ago. The pain is at its worst 15 minutes after onset and radiates to her back. She finds some relief by sitting forward. She has also experienced nausea and vomiting but denies any diarrhea or fever. She has been on the combined oral contraceptive pill for the past 4 years and drinks one glass of wine per day but denies any recreational drug use. On examination, she appears unwell, has a pulse rate of 110/min, and is tender in the epigastric region. She has a history of biliary colic but no significant past medical history or previous surgery. What diagnostic test is most likely to yield a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum lipase

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis, likely caused by gallstones, can be diagnosed by checking for an elevation of more than 3 times the upper limit of normal in a serum lipase test. While chest and abdominal x-rays are not useful for diagnosing pancreatitis, they can help rule out other potential causes of abdominal pain and detect complications of pancreatitis. Full blood examination, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests do not directly aid in the diagnosis of pancreatitis but can help assess the severity of the disease or provide clues to its cause. Initial investigations to determine the cause may include an abdominal ultrasound, calcium level, and lipid profile.

      Understanding Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.

      To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.

      Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.

      In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.

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  • Question 26 - A 24-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a car accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a car accident. She has sustained blunt trauma to her abdomen and is experiencing central back pain. Upon assessment, her blood pressure is 87/58 mmHg, heart rate is 106 bpm, and respiratory rate is 17/min. Her peripheries are warm, and she has generalised abdominal tenderness and localised tenderness over T3. Despite being conscious, she is distressed and reports numbness in her feet. Her ECG is normal. What type of shock is most likely affecting this woman?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhagic shock

      Correct Answer: Neurogenic shock

      Explanation:

      The correct type of shock for the given clinical scenario is neurogenic shock, which is a form of distributive shock. The patient’s localized spinal pain and lack of feeling in her feet suggest a spinal cord transection, which can cause neurogenic shock. This type of shock maintains peripheral vascular resistance, resulting in warm peripheries. Anaphylactic shock is not a possibility as there are no signs of an allergic reaction. Cardiogenic shock is also unlikely as there are no risk factors present, and it leads to cool peripheries. While haemorrhagic shock may be possible due to abdominal trauma, the patient’s warm peripheries do not align with this type of shock.

      Understanding Shock: Aetiology and Management

      Shock is a condition that occurs when there is inadequate tissue perfusion. It can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, haemorrhage, neurogenic injury, cardiogenic events, and anaphylaxis. Septic shock is a major concern, with a mortality rate of over 40% in patients with severe sepsis. Haemorrhagic shock is often seen in trauma patients, and the severity is classified based on the amount of blood loss and associated physiological changes. Neurogenic shock occurs following spinal cord injury, leading to decreased peripheral vascular resistance and cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is commonly caused by ischaemic heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe hypersensitivity reaction that can be life-threatening.

      The management of shock depends on the underlying cause. In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics and haemodynamic stabilisation are crucial. In haemorrhagic shock, controlling bleeding and maintaining circulating volume are essential. In neurogenic shock, peripheral vasoconstrictors are used to restore vascular tone. In cardiogenic shock, supportive treatment and surgery may be required. In anaphylactic shock, adrenaline is the most important drug and should be given as soon as possible.

      Understanding the aetiology and management of shock is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide timely and appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old woman undergoes a right hemicolectomy for colon cancer and four days...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman undergoes a right hemicolectomy for colon cancer and four days later presents with vomiting, a distended abdomen, and absent bowel sounds. Her blood results show a CRP of 124 mg/l and a WBC count of 5.2 * 109/l. Nursing notes reveal no bowel movements since surgery. What is the probable cause of her clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Paralytic ileus

      Explanation:

      Simple constipation is unlikely in this patient due to the presence of vomiting and absent bowel sounds, which suggests paralytic ileus, especially so soon after surgery. Additionally, constipation alone would not explain all of the patient’s symptoms and signs. As the patient underwent a right hemicolectomy, the caecum would have been removed, making caecal volvulus an unlikely diagnosis. The raised CRP is a normal response to surgery. While peritonitis is a possibility, it would typically present with severe abdominal pain, tenderness, guarding, and more significantly elevated inflammatory markers and fever. Hirschsprung’s disease, a congenital condition, is highly unlikely to present for the first time in a 67-year-old patient.

      Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by a reduction in bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.

      The management of postoperative ileus typically involves starting with nil-by-mouth and gradually progressing to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemia, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. It is important to monitor the patient closely and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure a successful recovery.

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  • Question 28 - A 36-year-old woman presents to the hospital with severe epigastric pain and profuse...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to the hospital with severe epigastric pain and profuse vomiting. She has a history of sarcoidosis currently being treated with prednisolone. She drinks 40 units of alcohol per week. Bloods showed a serum amylase of 3000 U/L. The patient is treated with IV fluids and anti-emetics and is admitted under general surgery.

      During your overnight review of the patient, you order urgent blood tests, including an arterial blood gas (ABG). Which blood result would be the most concerning and prompt you to consider an intensive care review?

      Your Answer: Serum lipase >3x upper limit of normal

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Pancreatitis can be caused by hypercalcaemia, but the severity of pancreatitis is indicated by hypocalcaemia. The patient in question has acute pancreatitis due to multiple risk factors, including steroid use, alcohol excess, and possible hypercalcaemia from sarcoidosis. The Glasgow-Imrie criteria are used to determine severity, with three or more criteria indicating severe acute pancreatitis and requiring intensive care review. Hypocalcaemia (with serum calcium <2 mmol/L) is the only criterion listed above. Hyperglycaemia (blood glucose of 3.7 mmol/L) is also an indicator of severity, while hypertriglyceridemia is a cause of pancreatitis but not an indicator of severity. Leucocytosis (WBC >15 x 109/L) is an indicator of severity, but neutropenia is not mentioned as a criterion.

      Understanding Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.

      To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.

      Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.

      In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.

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  • Question 29 - A patient in their 60s with severe intermittent claudication undergoes an axillo-bifemoral bypass....

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s with severe intermittent claudication undergoes an axillo-bifemoral bypass. Two days after the operation, they develop pain in the leg. Examination reveals a warm, erythaematous swelling in the groin.
      What complication has occurred?

      Your Answer: Anastomotic leak

      Correct Answer: The graft has become infected

      Explanation:

      Possible Complications of a Graft Procedure

      Graft procedures are commonly performed to improve blood flow in patients with peripheral arterial disease. However, like any surgical intervention, there are potential complications that may arise. One possible complication is an infected graft, which can cause swelling and abscess formation. Another possibility is graft occlusion, which may occur if there is a surgical error and can lead to the recurrence of claudication symptoms. An anastomotic aneurysm is another rare but serious complication that may cause pulsatile swelling. Embolism is more likely to occur in patients with aneurysmal disease and can present with acute limb ischaemia or petechiae. Finally, an anastomotic leak is an extremely rare complication that may cause sudden pain and swelling at the site of the graft. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential complications and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms after a graft procedure.

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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of the most severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of the most severe headache he has ever experienced. He explains that he was sitting with his wife when he suddenly felt excruciating pain at the back of his head. The pain quickly escalated to a 10/10 intensity, and he also feels nauseous, although he has not vomited yet.

      The patient has a medical history of adult dominant polycystic kidney disease and hypertension, for which he takes ramipril. Upon examination, his Glasgow coma scale is 15/15, and there is no focal neurology.

      Due to concerns of an intracranial bleed, a non-contrast CT head is requested, which reveals hyperdensity in the subarachnoid space and ventricles. What is the most appropriate definitive intervention for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aneurysm clipping

      Correct Answer: Aneurysm coiling

      Explanation:

      After experiencing a sudden and severe headache known as a thunderclap headache, a subarachnoid haemorrhage was diagnosed through CT scans that revealed fresh blood in the subarachnoid space. Given the patient’s history of ADPKD, which is associated with Berry aneurysms, it is likely that the haemorrhage was caused by an aneurysm. The most appropriate treatment for such an aneurysm is now considered to be coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist. This is a preferred method over neurosurgical procedures such as aneurysm clipping or haematoma evacuation via craniotomy, which are reserved for specific cases. Thrombectomy, on the other hand, is used to manage acute ischaemic stroke, while external ventricular drains are used to treat complications such as hydrocephalus and are not directly related to treating the aneurysm itself.

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.

      Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.

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