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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old man complains of increasing lower back and buttock pain over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man complains of increasing lower back and buttock pain over the last 6 months. He describes a burning sensation that is unresponsive to paracetamol. The pain has become so severe that he frequently needs to sit down when walking downhill to catch the bus. However, he has no difficulty walking home from the bus stop and no issues with bladder or bowel function. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sciatica

      Correct Answer: Spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      Sitting down or leaning forward can often alleviate the symptoms of spinal stenosis.

      Spinal stenosis is the correct diagnosis in this case, as the patient experiences relief from their symptoms when sitting down and their symptoms worsen when walking downhill. This condition is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 60 and 70 and may present with lower back pain. Leaning forward can help to open up the spinal canal and alleviate symptoms. Patients may also exhibit a characteristic stooped or flexed posture when walking, and as the condition progresses, they may experience numbness, tingling, and pain in the back, buttocks, and legs.

      Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

      Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.

      Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.

      After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.

      Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and dry eyes...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and dry eyes that have been bothering her for a few months. She also reports having a significantly dry mouth, which sometimes makes it difficult for her to eat. She has no notable medical history.

      During the examination, the doctor observes mild redness in the eyes and a dry tongue. Suspecting a particular diagnosis, the doctor orders an initial blood test:

      Antinuclear antibodies 1:1600 (<1:280)

      What is the most conclusive test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Salivary gland biopsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sjogren’s Syndrome

      Sjogren’s syndrome is a medical condition that affects the exocrine glands, leading to dry mucosal surfaces. It can either be primary or secondary to other connective tissue disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis. The condition is more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. Patients with Sjogren’s syndrome have a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancy, which is 40-60 times more likely than the general population.

      The symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome include dry eyes, dry mouth, vaginal dryness, arthralgia, Raynaud’s, myalgia, sensory polyneuropathy, recurrent episodes of parotitis, and subclinical renal tubular acidosis. To diagnose the condition, doctors may perform a Schirmer’s test to measure tear formation, as well as check for the presence of rheumatoid factor, ANA, anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies, and anti-La (SSB) antibodies.

      Management of Sjogren’s syndrome involves the use of artificial saliva and tears, as well as medications like pilocarpine to stimulate saliva production. It is important for patients with Sjogren’s syndrome to receive regular medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing up of small amounts of blood over the past two weeks. He also complains of frequent nosebleeds and headaches over the past three months. He feels generally lethargic and has lost a stone and a half in weight.

      On examination, he has no cyanosis, finger clubbing, pallor or a skin rash. Pulse is 98 beats/min and BP 140/95 mmHg. Respiratory rate is 30 breaths/min, chest expansion moderate and on auscultation there are inspiratory crackles at the right lung base.

      Investigations show:

      Haemoglobin 95 g/L (115-165)

      White cell count 20.5 ×109/L (4-11)

      Platelets 550 ×109/L (150-400)

      Plasma sodium 140 mmol/L (137-144)

      Plasma potassium 5.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Plasma urea 32.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Plasma creatinine 780 µmol/L (60-110)

      Plasma glucose 6.0 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      Plasma bicarbonate 7 mmol/L (20-28)

      Plasma calcium 2.25 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)

      Plasma phosphate 1.8 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)

      Plasma albumin 32 g/L (37-49)

      Bilirubin 10 µmol/L (1-22)

      Plasma alkaline phosphatase 400 U/L (45-105 >14 years)

      Plasma aspartate transaminase 70 U/L (1-31)

      Arterial blood gases on air:

      pH 7.1 (7.36-7.44)

      pCO2 3.8 kPa (4.7-6.0)

      pO2 9.0 kPa (11.3-12.6)

      ECG Sinus tachycardia

      Chest x ray Shadow in right lower lobe

      Urinalysis:

      Blood +++

      Protein ++

      What is the most appropriate acid-base abnormality description for this patient?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation

      Explanation:

      Acid-Base Disorders and Differential Diagnosis of Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis

      In cases of metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation, the primary issue is a decrease in bicarbonate levels and pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory decrease in pCO2. On the other hand, respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation is characterized by an increase in pCO2 and a decrease in pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory increase in bicarbonate levels.

      When nosebleeds are present, it is more likely that the patient has Granulomatosis with polyangiitis rather than microscopic polyarteritis. This is because 95% of patients with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis develop antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cytoplasmic pattern) or cANCAs. The major c-ANCA antigen is proteinase-3, while the perinuclear or p-ANCAs are directed against myeloperoxidase. Although p-ANCAs are non-specific and can be detected in various autoimmune disorders, the presence of cANCAs is highly suggestive of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis.

      Overall, acid-base disorders and differential diagnosis of autoimmune disorders such as Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is crucial in providing accurate and timely medical care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 53-year-old female comes to the rheumatology outpatient clinic complaining of severe pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old female comes to the rheumatology outpatient clinic complaining of severe pain in her hands for the past three months. She has no significant medical history. During the examination, there is swelling and redness in the first, second, and third metacarpophalangeal joints on both hands. The diagnosis is rheumatoid arthritis.

      What is the recommended treatment to initiate given a CRP level of 34 mg/L?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate + prednisolone + sulfasalazine

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate + prednisolone

      Explanation:

      The rheumatoid arthritis guidelines were updated by NICE in 2018, with a new recommendation for the initial treatment approach. Instead of dual DMARD therapy, they now suggest DMARD monotherapy with a brief course of bridging prednisolone.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) management has been transformed by the introduction of disease-modifying therapies in recent years. Patients with joint inflammation should begin a combination of disease-modifying drugs (DMARD) as soon as possible. Other important treatment options include analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery.

      In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with or without a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Previously, dual DMARD therapy was advocated. To monitor response to treatment, NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28).

      Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, either orally or intramuscularly. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, but monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.

      TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients who have had an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept is a recombinant human protein that acts as a decoy receptor for TNF-α and is administered subcutaneously. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and prevents it from binding with TNF receptors, and is administered intravenously. Adalimumab is also a monoclonal antibody, administered subcutaneously. Risks associated with TNF-inhibitors include reactivation of tuberculosis and demyelination.

      Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that results in B-cell depletion. Two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart, but infusion reactions are common. Abatacept is a fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes, leading to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. It is given as an infusion but is not currently recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old female presents with sudden onset back pain after lifting a chair....

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old female presents with sudden onset back pain after lifting a chair. The pain is severe, worsens with movement, and spreads to both sides of the hypochondriacal region. She denies any previous fractures but reports a gradual loss of height (5 cm from her young adult height) and occasional self-limiting back pain. The patient experienced spontaneous menopause at the age of 35 and has never taken any regular medications, calcium, or vitamin D supplements in the past.

      During examination, a dorsal hyperkyphosis was observed, and severe back pain was elicited on movement and local percussion. Further investigations revealed a BMD T-score of -3.0 at the lumbar spine and -2.8 at the total hip, as assessed by dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post menopausal osteoporotic vertebral fractures

      Explanation:

      Postmenopausal Osteoporosis

      Postmenopausal osteoporosis is a condition that affects women who have gone through menopause. It is characterized by a loss of bone density, which can lead to an increased risk of fractures. There are several risk factors for Postmenopausal osteoporosis, including early onset menopause, absence of hormone replacement therapy, calcium and vitamin D supplementation, and low body weight. Unfortunately, patients with osteoporosis may not experience any warning signs until they suffer their first fracture. Gradual height loss and dorsal kyphosis may result from microfractures or complete fractures of vertebral bodies.

      To diagnose osteoporosis, doctors use a T-score, which refers to the difference in standard deviation from the mean bone mass. The World Health Organisation has established criteria for the diagnosis of osteoporosis, with a T-score of -2.5 or lower indicating the presence of the condition. However, it is important to exclude causes of secondary osteoporosis, such as bone metastasis and myeloma, when a vertebral fracture is found. Overall, the risk factors and diagnostic criteria for Postmenopausal osteoporosis is crucial for early detection and prevention of fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 59-year-old man is experiencing difficulty with stairs, chairs, and reaching for items...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man is experiencing difficulty with stairs, chairs, and reaching for items on shelves. Upon examination, his proximal power is 4/5 with intact reflexes and downward going plantars. Recent blood tests show abnormal levels of Hb, WBC, neutrophils, platelets, ESR, CK, and CRP. Additionally, he tested positive for anti-nuclear antibodies. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Myositis

      Polymyositis is a type of myositis that does not cause any rash. On the other hand, dermatomyositis is characterized by the presence of Gottron’s papules on the hands and a periorbital heliotrope rash. Inclusion body myositis, which typically affects older individuals, has a gradual onset and does not result in significant elevations in creatine kinase (CK) levels. Unlike the other types of myositis, polymyalgia rheumatica does not lead to objective weakness.

      the differences between these types of myositis is important for accurate diagnosis and treatment. While polymyositis may not present with any visible symptoms, dermatomyositis and inclusion body myositis have distinct physical manifestations. Additionally, the absence of significant CK elevations in inclusion body myositis can help differentiate it from other types of myositis. Finally, recognizing that polymyalgia rheumatica does not cause objective weakness can help rule out other potential diagnoses. By these nuances, healthcare providers can provide more effective care for individuals with myositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old woman presents to rheumatology clinic for follow-up of her osteoporosis treatment....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents to rheumatology clinic for follow-up of her osteoporosis treatment. She was diagnosed with osteoporosis five years ago based on a DEXA scan due to a strong family history of osteoporosis and multiple courses of corticosteroids for asthma. The patient has never had a hip, wrist, or vertebral fracture. She has been taking alendronic acid 70 mg weekly without any adverse effects, but finds the need to drink a lot of water with her dose burdensome. Her medical history is significant for asthma, which is now well-controlled, and she denies any thyroid disease or rheumatoid arthritis. She is a non-smoker and rarely drinks alcohol. Her height is 160 cm, weight is 65 kg, and her current femoral neck BMD is T -1.9 g / cm2. Her FRAX 10-year probability of major osteoporotic fracture is 18% and hip fracture is 6.8%. What is the most appropriate management for her osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Discontinue alendronic acid and initiate treatment with denosumab

      Correct Answer: Hold further osteoporosis treatment with repeat DEXA scan in two years

      Explanation:

      The duration of bisphosphonate treatment for patients with osteoporosis is currently uncertain due to concerns about potential side effects, such as atypical femur fractures. As a result, treatment breaks or drug holidays are recommended for certain patients.

      For example, if a patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck bone mineral density greater than -2.5, and no history of fragility fractures, they may be eligible for a treatment break. It is recommended that a repeat DEXA scan be conducted after two years or if a fragility fracture occurs to reassess the need for further treatment.

      To determine a patient’s 10-year risk of fragility fracture, the WHO Fracture Risk Assessment Tool (FRAX) should be used in conjunction with National Osteoporosis Guideline Group (NOGG) guidance to inform treatment decisions. However, it should be noted that neither tool is validated for patients taking bisphosphonates.

      If bisphosphonate treatment has failed or a patient is intolerant to it, parenteral treatments such as denosumab may be considered.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old man attends the Gastroenterology outpatient clinic for a follow-up on his...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man attends the Gastroenterology outpatient clinic for a follow-up on his Crohn's disease, which was diagnosed three years ago. He has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia, gout, and ischaemic heart disease. The patient has been experiencing increased abdominal pain and diarrhoea for a few months, and the physician recommends starting azathioprine. Before initiating the medication, what is the crucial medication that needs to be checked if he is taking?

      Your Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      When taken together, azathioprine and allopurinol can cause a serious interaction that results in bone marrow suppression. This is because allopurinol inhibits the enzyme xanthine oxidase, which is needed to inactivate 6-mercaptopurine (the active ingredient in azathioprine). As a result, levels of 6-mercaptopurine increase and are metabolized differently, leading to higher levels of 6-thioguanine metabolites that can be incorporated into white blood cell DNA. This can reduce activation and replication potential, which can be life-threatening. To avoid this, dose reductions and extra monitoring are necessary when taking both medications. However, the other medications listed do not interact with azathioprine and do not require additional monitoring.

      Azathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 48-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after falling down the last...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after falling down the last two steps of her staircase and fracturing her left forearm. She reports feeling more fatigued than usual over the past few weeks and experiencing body aches and cramps. Her medical history includes stage 1 chronic kidney disease, and she is not currently taking any medications. Laboratory tests reveal abnormal levels of several markers. Based on this information, what is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      The patient has been diagnosed with osteomalacia, which is characterized by the demineralization of bones due to vitamin D deficiency. Symptoms include bony pain, muscle tenderness, proximal myopathy, and an increased risk of fractures. Blood tests show low levels of calcium and phosphate, as well as elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), which is consistent with this diagnosis. The patient’s history of lethargy and body aches and cramps is likely due to hypocalcemia.

      Osteopetrosis, also known as marble bone disease, is a disorder that affects bone resorption and results in dense bones that are prone to fractures. While bone pain is a common symptom, laboratory tests for calcium, phosphate, and ALP are typically normal.

      Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by reduced bone mineral density and is associated with various risk factors, including menopause, certain medications, and endocrine disorders. Unlike osteomalacia, patients with osteoporosis typically have normal levels of calcium, phosphate, and ALP.

      Paget’s disease is a rare condition that is most commonly seen in older men and is characterized by an isolated elevation of ALP levels, with normal levels of calcium and phosphate. It is unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms, as she is a young woman.

      Understanding Osteomalacia: Causes, Features, Investigation, and Treatment

      Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by the softening of bones due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. While rickets is the term used for this condition in growing children, osteomalacia is the preferred term for adults. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, diet, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited factors, liver disease, and coeliac disease.

      The features of osteomalacia include bone pain, bone/muscle tenderness, fractures (especially femoral neck), proximal myopathy, and a waddling gait. To investigate this condition, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels (in around 30% of patients), and raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients). X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.

      The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium is inadequate. By understanding the causes, features, investigation, and treatment of osteomalacia, individuals can take steps to prevent and manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old patient with a history of psoriasis complains of arthralgia. The patient...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old patient with a history of psoriasis complains of arthralgia. The patient reports experiencing swelling in her knuckles and worsening psoriasis symptoms over the past four months. Upon examination, severe plaque psoriasis is observed on the patient's extensors and scalp, resulting in alopecia. The metacarpophalangeal joints are visibly swollen and tender. The patient is currently taking naproxen 500mg BD, paracetamol 1g TDS, and using topical steroids and calcipotriol. What additional medication would you recommend?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate is the most effective DMARD for treating psoriatic arthritis, as it not only improves joint symptoms but also has a significant impact on skin disease. In contrast, other DMARDs have less of an effect on skin symptoms. If methotrexate cannot be used due to contraindications, leflunomide is the second-line treatment for peripheral psoriatic arthritis. Anti-TNF drugs like infliximab are only used as a first-line treatment if the patient has predominantly axial spondyloarthropathy. Hydroxychloroquine is not routinely used for psoriatic arthritis as it can worsen skin symptoms and has limited efficacy for joint symptoms. These recommendations are based on EULAR guidelines.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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Rheumatology (6/10) 60%
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