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  • Question 1 - A 6-year-old girl with known coeliac disease develops a symmetrical prurigo with numerous...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl with known coeliac disease develops a symmetrical prurigo with numerous vesicles on her shoulders, back, and buttocks. She is also currently experiencing several mouth ulcers.
      What is the probable diagnosis for her skin rash?

      Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Treatments

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a rare skin condition that is linked to gluten sensitivity. It causes clusters of blisters to appear symmetrically on the scalp, shoulders, buttocks, elbows, and knees. Treatment involves a gluten-free diet and medication to reduce itching.

      Atopic dermatitis, also known as eczema, is a chronic and itchy skin condition that is very common. It can appear anywhere on the body and is often treated with topical steroids and moisturizers.

      Seborrheic dermatitis is a chronic form of eczema that mainly affects the scalp and face. It causes redness, itching, and flaking of the skin. Treatment involves medicated shampoos and topical creams.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes small, teardrop-shaped plaques all over the body. It often follows a streptococcal throat infection and is treated with topical steroids and phototherapy.

      Eczema pompholyx, also known as hand/foot eczema, is characterized by blisters on the hands and feet. Treatment involves avoiding irritants and using topical steroids and moisturizers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - An 85-year-old man who lives alone visits his General Practitioner complaining of a...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old man who lives alone visits his General Practitioner complaining of a worsening itchy, red rash over his trunk, arms and legs. He has a medical history of psoriasis, hypertension and high cholesterol. Upon examination, the doctor observes an extensive erythematosus rash with scaling covering a large portion of his body. The patient has a normal temperature, a blood pressure of 110/88 mmHg and a heart rate of 101 bpm. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Topical emollient and steroid

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Management of Erythroderma in an Elderly Patient Living Alone

      Erythroderma is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent treatment. In elderly patients who are systemically unwell and live alone, urgent admission to the hospital is necessary. This is the case for an 86-year-old man with a history of psoriasis who presents with erythroderma. The patient needs to be managed in the hospital due to the high risk of infection and dehydration. Topical emollients and steroids are essential in the management of erythroderma, but this patient requires intravenous fluids and close monitoring. Oral antibiotics are not indicated in the absence of features of infection. A topical steroid with a vitamin D analogue would be appropriate for a patient with psoriasis, but urgent assessment by Dermatology in an inpatient setting is necessary. An urgent outpatient Dermatology appointment is not appropriate for an elderly patient with abnormal observations and living alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      67.8
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  • Question 3 - A 10-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of generalised itch...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of generalised itch for the past few days. He mentions that it is causing him to lose sleep at night. Upon examination, the GP observes linear burrows on the hands and evidence of excoriation on the abdomen and limbs. The GP suspects scabies as the underlying cause.
      What is the initial treatment recommended for non-crusted scabies?

      Your Answer: Permethrin 5% cream

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scabies: Understanding the Role of Different Medications

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei parasite. The primary treatment for non-crusted scabies is permethrin 5% cream, which is an insecticide. If permethrin is not tolerated or contraindicated, malathion can be used as a second-line agent. It is important to apply permethrin cream over the entire body and wash it off after 8-12 hours. Treatment should be repeated after one week.

      Clotrimazole 2% cream, which is an antifungal medication, is not effective in treating scabies. Similarly, topical antibiotics like fusidic acid cream are not used to treat scabies unless there is a secondary bacterial infection.

      Steroids like hydrocortisone 1% ointment are not used to treat scabies directly, but they can be used to alleviate symptoms like itching. Oral antibiotics like flucloxacillin are only necessary if there is a suspected secondary bacterial infection.

      In summary, understanding the role of different medications in treating scabies is crucial for effective management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a lump on the side of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a lump on the side of his head. During the examination, the GP suspects that the lump may be a basal cell carcinoma. What characteristic is most indicative of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pigmentation

      Correct Answer: Telangiectasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Basal Cell Carcinomas: Characteristics and Warning Signs

      Basal cell carcinomas are the most common type of skin cancer, typically found in sun-exposed areas such as the face and neck. They can be familial and associated with certain syndromes. A basal cell carcinoma often appears as a slow-growing, skin-colored, pearly nodule with surface telangiectasia, or fine vessels on the surface. It may also be an ulcerated lesion with rolled edges. Biopsy confirms the diagnosis, and treatment involves excision with a clear margin. While basal cell carcinomas rarely metastasize, they can be locally invasive and destructive. Pigmentation is a feature of melanocytic lesions, but basal cell carcinomas may rarely show pigmentation. Size is not a specific feature of malignancy, but sudden increases in size should be referred for further assessment. Other warning signs include crusted edges and unprovoked bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A 14-year-old girl came to the clinic with several erythematosus lesions on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl came to the clinic with several erythematosus lesions on her trunk. The lesions had a collarette of scales at their periphery and were asymptomatic. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pityriasis alba

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis Rosea: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Pityriasis rosea is a skin condition that typically begins with a single patch, known as the herald or mother patch. This is followed by smaller patches that appear in clusters, resembling a Christmas tree pattern on the upper trunk of the body. These patches have a fine ring of scales around their edges, known as a collarette. The condition is believed to be caused by a viral infection and typically lasts for six to eight weeks. While there is no specific treatment for pityriasis rosea, symptoms can be managed with over-the-counter medications and topical creams.

      Pityriasis rosea is a common skin condition that can cause discomfort and embarrassment for those affected. the symptoms, causes, and treatment options can help individuals manage the condition and alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      48.8
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old carpenter presents with a complaint of widespread pruritus that has been...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old carpenter presents with a complaint of widespread pruritus that has been bothering him for the past 2 weeks. He has no significant medical history, but is currently staying at his sister's house due to marital issues. He reports that the itching is most severe at night. Upon examination, he has several linear erythaematous lesions on the backs of his hands and between his fingers.
      What is the most suitable initial treatment option for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Permethrin cream applied from neck down for 8-14 h

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scabies Infestation

      Scabies infestation is a common condition that can affect anyone, but is more prevalent in individuals with poor personal hygiene, immunocompromisation, low socioeconomic status, and those working in industrial settings. The first-line treatment for scabies is the application of Permethrin 5% cream from the neck down for 8-14 hours, followed by washing it off. It is important to treat all household contacts simultaneously, even if they are symptom-free. Additionally, all affected linens should be washed and cleaned immediately.

      While emollient cream can be applied regularly from the neck down, it will not treat the underlying infestation. Similarly, 5% Hydrocortisone cream applied twice daily to the hands will not address the underlying infestation. Oral antihistamines may provide relief from the symptomatic itch, but they do not treat the underlying infestation.

      In cases where Permethrin is not effective, Malathion cream can be used as a second-line treatment for scabies. It should be applied from the neck down for 24 hours and then washed off. It is important to follow the instructions carefully and consult a healthcare professional if symptoms persist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      48.5
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old builder comes to the GP complaining of large itchy silvery white...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old builder comes to the GP complaining of large itchy silvery white scaly patches on his elbows and knees. He has no history of skin problems, but his father had psoriasis. What is the most suitable initial treatment to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Topical steroid alone

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid and topical calcipotriol

      Explanation:

      Topical Treatments for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis: NICE Recommendations

      Chronic plaque psoriasis is a common skin condition that can be managed with topical treatments. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends a stepwise approach to treatment, with different options depending on the severity of the condition and the response to previous therapies.

      First-line treatment for chronic plaque psoriasis is a potent corticosteroid applied once daily, combined with a vitamin D analogue, for up to 4 weeks. This combination therapy has been shown to be effective in reducing inflammation and improving symptoms.

      If there is no improvement with both steroid and calcipotriol after 8 weeks, topical calcipotriol alone can be used as a second-line management option. However, it is insufficient to prescribe alone as a first-line treatment.

      Topical steroid alone is a third-line management option for psoriasis if there is no improvement after 8-12 weeks. This is because long-term use of topical steroids can have side effects such as skin thinning and increased risk of infection.

      Short-acting dithranol could be used as a fourth-line option, but not as initial management. Topical coal tar is also part of third-line management for psoriasis.

      In summary, the NICE recommendations for topical treatments for chronic plaque psoriasis involve a stepwise approach, with combination therapy as the first-line option and other treatments used if there is no improvement or if side effects occur. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to find the most effective and safe treatment plan for each individual.

      NICE Recommendations for Topical Treatments for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old patient presents with a history of well demarcated, erythematous lesions with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with a history of well demarcated, erythematous lesions with silvery-white scaling plaques on the extensor surfaces of the elbows. There is evidence of nail pitting.
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Topical 1% hydrocortisone

      Correct Answer: Topical betnovate + vitamin D

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for psoriasis is the application of betnovate (or another potent steroid) plus vitamin D for four weeks. If there is no or minimal improvement, referral to a specialist may be considered. Dermovate, a very potent steroid, should only be initiated by a specialist who may alter the treatment or advance it to include phototherapy or biologics. Hydrocortisone is not recommended for psoriasis treatment as it is not potent enough. Phototherapy is not the first-line treatment and should only be initiated by a dermatologist after considering all risks and benefits. Biologics are the last stage of treatment and are only initiated by a dermatologist if the detrimental effects of psoriasis are heavily impacting the patient’s life, despite other treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      129.4
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a 4-year history of a progressively worsening rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a 4-year history of a progressively worsening rash on her face, characterised by dark-coloured lesions with periodic background scaling, burning and pruritus. Physical examination reveals well-defined patches of flaky skin which is yellow and dry on the scalp. There is also flaking in the nasolabial folds, eyebrows and behind the ears. The patient’s eyelids are also red and inflamed. They report itchiness and discomfort.
      Given the likely diagnosis of this patient, what is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Emollients

      Correct Answer: Ketoconazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Seborrheic Dermatitis and Psoriasis

      Seborrheic dermatitis and psoriasis are two common skin conditions that can cause discomfort and irritation. Fortunately, there are several treatment options available to help manage symptoms and improve overall skin health.

      Ketoconazole is the preferred medication for treating seborrheic dermatitis in adults. It is available as a 2% cream and should be applied once or twice daily for at least four weeks. Antifungal shampoo can also be used on the scalp. For infants with seborrheic dermatitis, clotrimazole is a suitable option and should be applied 2-3 times a day for up to four weeks.

      Emollients are often used to relieve symptoms of psoriasis by moisturizing dry skin and reducing itching. They can be used before starting steroid treatment for psoriasis. It is important to avoid using soap and shaving creams on the face, as they can exacerbate irritation. Instead, non-greasy emollients or emollient soaps can be used as an alternative.

      Topical steroids are commonly used to treat psoriasis by reducing skin inflammation. Mild topical steroids can be used on the face or skinfolds. It is important to follow the instructions provided by your healthcare provider and to use these medications as directed.

      In summary, there are several treatment options available for managing seborrheic dermatitis and psoriasis. By working with your healthcare provider, you can find the best approach to improve your skin health and overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      130
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  • Question 10 - A 22-year-old woman presents to her dermatologist with a 4-year history of acne...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presents to her dermatologist with a 4-year history of acne on her back, chest and face. She has comedones, pustules and scars that have not improved with previous treatments. The dermatologist decides to prescribe isotretinoin. What other medication should be prescribed alongside this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive

      Explanation:

      The patient has severe acne and topical treatment has not been effective. The dermatologist will prescribe oral isotretinoin, which is a specialist drug that can only be prescribed in secondary care. However, isotretinoin is teratogenic, so women of reproductive age must use at least two methods of contraception while taking the drug. The combined oral contraceptive pill is often co-prescribed with isotretinoin to help balance the hormonal profile and improve the skin condition. Topical retinoids are the treatment of choice for mild to moderate acne, but they are not indicated for severe acne. Oral oxytetracycline can be used in combination with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide for moderate acne, but it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Topical erythromycin is used for mild to moderate acne and should always be prescribed in combination with benzoyl peroxide to prevent microbial resistance. Topical benzoyl peroxide is used for mild or moderate acne and can be combined with a topical retinoid or antibiotic, or an oral antibiotic for moderate acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (3/9) 33%
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