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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presents with complaints of dyspnea. Upon examination, fine bibasal crackles are heard in the lungs. Which of the following result sets would be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis?
Your Answer: FVC - increased, FEV1/FVC - increased
Correct Answer: FVC - reduced, FEV1/FVC - normal
Explanation:Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests
Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully and the total amount of air they can exhale. The results of these tests can help diagnose conditions such as asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis.
Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully (FEV1) and a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of obstructive lung diseases include asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and bronchiolitis obliterans.
On the other hand, restrictive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the total amount of air a person can exhale (FVC) and a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of restrictive lung diseases include pulmonary fibrosis, asbestosis, sarcoidosis, acute respiratory distress syndrome, infant respiratory distress syndrome, kyphoscoliosis, and neuromuscular disorders.
Understanding the results of pulmonary function tests can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage respiratory diseases more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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A 70-year-old retired ship-builder has a 6-month history of increasing shortness of breath, dull right-sided chest pain, loss of appetite and sweats. He is a non-smoker. Examination of his lungs reveals dullness to percussion and reduced air entry at the right base.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Malignant mesothelioma
Explanation:Distinguishing Mesothelioma from Other Lung Diseases
Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the pleura and peritoneum, and is almost always caused by exposure to asbestos. Symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, fever, weight loss, and fatigue. A pleural effusion is also common in mesothelioma cases.
Small-cell lung cancer, on the other hand, is highly aggressive and life expectancy is only weeks without treatment. Smoking is the major risk factor, although asbestos can also cause this type of lung cancer. Symptoms are similar to mesothelioma, but lack of smoking history and longer onset of symptoms point more towards mesothelioma.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is usually caused by smoking and presents with progressive shortness of breath, productive cough, frequent chest infections, and wheeze. Examination could reveal cyanosis, barrel chest, hyperresonance on percussion, poor air entry, and wheeze or coarse crackles. However, this presentation does not fit with COPD.
Chronic thromoboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CPTH) can develop months or years after a large pulmonary embolism (PE) or after several episodes. Symptoms include shortness of breath, chest pain on exertion, and fatigue. The patient can go on to develop right heart failure, but this diagnosis would not explain the weight loss and sweats.
Tuberculosis usually presents with a persistent productive cough, weight loss, night sweats, fevers, lymphadenopathy, and general malaise. In this patient, the symptoms, along with history of asbestos exposure, are highly suggestive of mesothelioma rather than tuberculosis.
In summary, distinguishing mesothelioma from other lung diseases requires careful consideration of symptoms, risk factors, and examination findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents to you with her husband. Her husband complains of frequently waking up in the middle of the night and experiencing difficulty in breathing. She also notes that he feels excessively tired during the day and often dozes off while reading the newspaper. You suspect moderate sleep apnoea and decide to refer him for further evaluation. The patient is curious about the treatment options available. What is the primary treatment for moderate sleep apnoea?
Your Answer: Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
Explanation:Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome
Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition where the upper airway becomes partially or completely blocked during sleep, leading to interrupted breathing and reduced oxygen levels in the body. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. The condition is often characterized by excessive snoring and periods of apnoea, which can be reported by the patient’s partner.
OSAHS can have several consequences, including daytime somnolence, compensated respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. To assess sleepiness, healthcare professionals may use tools such as the Epworth Sleepiness Scale or the Multiple Sleep Latency Test. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies, ranging from monitoring pulse oximetry to full polysomnography.
Management of OSAHS typically involves weight loss and continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as the first line of treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, healthcare professionals may consider them in certain cases.
Overall, understanding OSAHS and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever and joint pains. Blood tests show the presence of raised antibody titres and the presence of cold agglutinins. A diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection is made.
Which of the following drugs would you prescribe as first-line treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Co-trimoxazole
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Treatment options for Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a bacterium that causes atypical pneumonia and is transmitted through respiratory droplets. The symptoms vary but can include fever, malaise, myalgia, headache, and a rash. Diagnosis is usually confirmed with serology, and treatment typically involves a macrolide antibiotic such as clarithromycin for at least 10-14 days. Penicillin and other beta-lactam antibiotics are ineffective as Mycoplasma pneumoniae lacks a cell wall. Tetracycline can be used but macrolides are preferred due to a better side-effect profile. Rifampicin is mostly limited to the treatment of tuberculosis and leprosy, while co-trimoxazole is not indicated for Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection. Extrapulmonary involvement is possible and may suggest the diagnosis in a patient presenting with pneumonia. A chest radiograph is non-specific and typically shows a reticulonodular or patchy consolidation pattern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true when considering an exacerbation of chronic bronchitis in patients with COPD?
Your Answer: The clinical symptoms are usually severe.
Correct Answer: Moraxella catarrhalis is not commonly isolated on culture
Explanation:Exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are a common occurrence and can be caused by various factors, including bacterial infections. In a bacterial acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the most common causative pathogens are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis. Since the introduction of the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, the most common bacterial pathogen may be changing from Streptococcus pneumoniae to Haemophilus influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Chlamydia pneumoniae are also relatively common. An elevated white cell count may indicate exacerbation, but a lack of prominent leukocytosis is common. Clinical judgement is crucial, and a C-reactive protein (CRP) test may be useful, but it lags behind by 24-48 hours.
Exacerbations of COPD are characterized by episodes of acutely increased dyspnea and cough, often with a change in the characteristics of the sputum. Despite fever and other signs and symptoms, the clinical presentation is mild to moderate in most cases. Patients with COPD often develop type 2 respiratory failure, which can escalate into respiratory acidosis, a potentially serious complication that may require non-invasive or invasive ventilation. An arterial blood gas analysis should be performed early in every patient presenting with a possible exacerbation of COPD.
Treatment options for bacterial infections in exacerbations of COPD include trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Septrin) combinations. However, resistance to this combination has been frequently reported in cases of infection with M. catarrhalis. The vast majority of cases of infection with M. catarrhalis are also penicillin-resistant due to their production of beta-lactamase. Co-amoxiclav is usually the antibiotic of choice, with macrolides being good alternatives. In most cases, the initial antibiotic treatment is empirical and mainly guided by known local sensitivities and the patient’s previous history of exacerbations. Gram stain can be quite useful to identify broad classes of bacteria. If the gram stain is inconclusive, blood cultures should be performed if the patient is pyrexial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 63-year-old man visits his doctor with a persistent cough that has lasted for 5 weeks. He reports coughing up smelly, green phlegm and experiencing night sweats, left-sided chest pain, and occasional fevers. He denies any weight loss. During the examination, the lower left lung is dull to percussion with low-pitched bronchial breath sounds, and he has a temperature of 38.2°C. The patient has not traveled recently or had any contact with sick individuals. The doctor notes that he was treated for pneumonia 7 weeks ago. What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Lung abscess
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is lung abscess, as they are presenting with a subacute productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, and night sweats. The duration of a cough can be categorized as acute, subacute, or chronic, and this patient falls under the subacute category. The patient’s recent history of aspiration pneumonia and examination findings, such as dullness on percussion, bronchial breath sounds, and fever, support the diagnosis of lung abscess.
Lung cancer is not the most likely diagnosis for this patient, as they do not have weight loss and have other findings that point towards lung abscess. Pulmonary fibrosis is also unlikely, as it is rare to have unilateral pulmonary fibrosis, and the patient’s examination findings do not support this diagnosis. Recurrent pneumonia is a good differential, but the presence of bronchial breath sounds and night sweats make lung abscess a more likely diagnosis.
Understanding Lung Abscess
A lung abscess is a localized infection that occurs within the lung tissue. It is commonly caused by aspiration pneumonia, which can be triggered by poor dental hygiene, reduced consciousness, or previous stroke. Other potential causes include haematogenous spread, direct extension, and bronchial obstruction. The infection is typically polymicrobial, with Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumonia, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa being the most common monomicrobial causes.
The symptoms of lung abscess are similar to pneumonia, but they tend to develop more slowly over several weeks. Patients may experience fever, productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, chest pain, and dyspnea. Some may also have systemic features such as night sweats and weight loss, while a minority may experience haemoptysis. Physical examination may reveal dull percussion and bronchial breathing, as well as clubbing in some cases.
To diagnose lung abscess, a chest x-ray is usually performed, which shows a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation. Sputum and blood cultures should also be obtained to identify the causative organism. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics, but if the infection does not resolve, percutaneous drainage or surgical resection may be required in rare cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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An elderly man, aged 74, with metastatic small cell lung cancer has been admitted to the hospice for symptom management. He is currently experiencing persistent hiccups that are difficult to control. What is the best course of action for managing this symptom?
Your Answer: Chlorpromazine
Explanation:Palliative Care Prescribing for Hiccups
Hiccups can be a distressing symptom for patients receiving palliative care. To manage this symptom, healthcare professionals may prescribe medications such as chlorpromazine, which is licensed for the treatment of intractable hiccups. Other medications that may be used include haloperidol and gabapentin. In cases where there are hepatic lesions, dexamethasone may also be prescribed. It is important to note that the choice of medication will depend on the individual patient’s needs and medical history. Proper management of hiccups can improve the patient’s quality of life and provide relief from discomfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 50-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of chest tightness and shortness of breath on exertion for the past month. He reports that the symptoms subside after resting for 5 minutes. The patient has a medical history of asthma, hypertension, and obesity.
During the examination, the patient's temperature is 37.2ºC, heart rate is 86 bpm, blood pressure is 132/75 mmHg, and the ECG is normal.
What is the most appropriate prophylactic medication for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Prescribe sublingual glyceryl trinitrate
Explanation:To prevent angina attacks, the first-line treatment is either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker. This patient is displaying symptoms of stable angina, which includes shortness of breath and chest tightness that occurs during exercise and is relieved by rest. The ECG results are normal, ruling out any serious conditions like myocardial infarction. According to NICE guidelines, all patients with stable angina should receive aspirin and a statin, unless there are contraindications. Additionally, sublingual glyceryl trinitrate spray (GTN) should be given to stop acute angina attacks. However, GTN spray does not prevent future attacks, so prophylactic medication should also be prescribed.
Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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At a coffee shop, you observe a young woman beginning to cough and wheeze. Approaching her, you inquire if she is choking. She replies that she believes a sip of hot coffee went down the wrong way. What should be your initial course of action?
Your Answer: Encourage him to cough
Explanation:Dealing with Choking Emergencies
Choking is a serious medical emergency that can be life-threatening. It occurs when the airway is partially or completely blocked, often while eating. The first step in dealing with a choking victim is to ask them if they are choking. If they are able to speak and breathe, it may be a mild obstruction. However, if they are unable to speak or breathe, it is a severe obstruction and requires immediate action.
According to the Resus Council, mild airway obstruction can be treated by encouraging the patient to cough. However, if the obstruction is severe and the patient is conscious, up to five back-blows and abdominal thrusts can be given. If these methods are unsuccessful, the cycle should be repeated. If the patient is unconscious, an ambulance should be called and CPR should be started.
It is important to note that choking can happen to anyone, so it is important to be prepared and know how to respond in an emergency. By following these steps, you can help save a life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A 50-year-old female comes to an after-hours general practitioner complaining of worsening fever, chest pain that worsens when inhaling, and a productive cough with blood-streaked sputum. She reports that she had symptoms of a dry cough, myalgia, and lethargy a week ago, but this week her symptoms have changed to those she is presenting with today. Her chest x-ray shows a cavitating lesion with a thin wall on the right side and an associated pleural effusion. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various infectious agents. Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is the most common type of pneumonia and is caused by different microorganisms. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which accounts for around 80% of cases. Other infectious agents that can cause CAP include Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, atypical pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and viruses.
Klebsiella pneumoniae is another microorganism that can cause pneumonia, but it is typically found in alcoholics. Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is characterized by a rapid onset, high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and herpes labialis (cold sores).
In summary, pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents, with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is important to identify the causative agent to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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