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  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old man presents to you with a history of intermittent 'stabbing' headaches....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to you with a history of intermittent 'stabbing' headaches.

      He reports experiencing excruciating unilateral headache around his right eye and over the right temporal area. The headaches last anywhere from a couple of minutes to half an hour. He also experiences lacrimation, nasal epiphora, and a slightly red eye on the affected side during a headache episode.

      He reports having about 20 attacks of the headache a day, which tend to occur during the daytime rather than the night. During attacks, he tends to go and 'curl up in bed' to try and let things settle.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this headache?

      Your Answer: Sumatriptan subcutaneously

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline orally

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Episodic Paroxysmal Hemicrania from Cluster Headache

      Episodic paroxysmal hemicrania (EPH) and cluster headache (CH) share similar characteristics, making it difficult to differentiate between the two. However, there are key elements in their history that can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis. EPH is characterized by frequent attacks of unilateral pain focused around the eye or temporal region, lasting from 2-30 minutes and occurring during the day. In contrast, CH attacks typically last between 15 and 180 minutes, start one to two hours after falling asleep, and occur in clusters ranging from one every other day to eight a day.

      Furthermore, EPH is associated with autonomic symptoms and responds well to treatment with indomethacin (25-75 mg TDS), while CH doesn’t. Indomethacin is a useful differentiator, as it is not commonly prescribed in practice but can have a significant impact on the patient’s symptoms if the diagnosis is correct. By understanding the duration, frequency, and timing of the headaches, clinicians can accurately differentiate between EPH and CH and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      54.7
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  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a review. He reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a review. He reports experiencing evening headaches for the past four weeks that start from his neck and extend to the occipital area. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Correct Answer: Tension headache

      Explanation:

      Common Types of Headaches and Their Clinical Features

      Tension Headache:
      A tension headache can be diagnosed when the headache is featureless, without any accompanying symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia, osmophobia, throbbing, or aggravation with movement. This differentiates it from migraine, which typically presents with one or more of these features and is the main differential diagnosis. Tension headaches can be either chronic or episodic.

      Cluster Headache:
      Cluster headache is a severe unilateral pain that is localized in or around the eye and is accompanied by ipsilateral autonomic features such as lacrimation and rhinorrhea. These attacks occur in bouts lasting 6-12 weeks, once or twice a year, often at the same time each year. A chronic form of cluster headache also exists.

      Fibromyalgia:
      Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder characterized by chronic widespread pain, unrefreshing sleep, and fatigue. Pain occurs at multiple sites, including headaches, which may be migrainous.

      Migraine:
      Migraine is the main differential diagnosis for tension headache. However, it typically presents with one or more of the following symptoms: nausea/vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia, osmophobia, throbbing, or aggravation with movement, which are not reported by patients with tension headaches.

      Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus:
      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a condition that usually affects elderly patients and is characterized by ventricular dilatation in the absence of raised cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure. It is characterized by a triad of gait abnormality (similar to Parkinson’s), urinary or bowel incontinence, and dementia. The dementia is potentially reversible. About half of the cases are idiopathic, while the remainder may be secondary to meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, tumor, or head injury. Headache is rarely present in normal pressure hydrocephalus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28.8
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old woman comes to you seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to you seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 12 hours ago. She has a history of epilepsy and is currently taking carbamazepine.

      What is the recommended first-line emergency contraception to offer in this situation?

      Your Answer: Levonorgestrel 3 mg

      Correct Answer: Ulipristal acetate 30 mg

      Explanation:

      First-Line Treatment for Emergency Contraception in Patients on Liver-Inducing Drugs

      The question of first-line treatment for emergency contraception in patients on liver-inducing drugs is an important one. It is crucial to understand the terminology used in such questions to avoid confusion and provide accurate answers. The recommended first-line treatment in such cases is the copper intrauterine device. This device is particularly useful for patients on drugs such as carbamazepine, phenytoin, rifampicin, antiretrovirals, and St John’s wort, which induce liver enzymes. If a patient declines the use of an IUD, a double dose of levonorgestrel (3mg) is recommended as second-line treatment. It is important to note that this information is specific to first-line treatment and not just any possible treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.7
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  • Question 4 - A 62-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of a new headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of a new headache that has been bothering her for about a week. She has been feeling more tired than usual and has been experiencing muscle aches and pains. She has also noticed pain when chewing. Apart from these symptoms, she is in good health.
      During the physical examination, an unusual finding is observed.
      Which component of the physical examination is most likely to be abnormal?

      Your Answer: Examination of the neck for muscle tenderness and stiffness

      Correct Answer: Palpation of the scalp/temporal arteries

      Explanation:

      Clinical Examination for Temporal Arteritis

      Temporal arteritis is a condition that should be suspected in patients over 50 years of age who present with a new headache. The headache is often persistent, severe, and worse at night. Palpation of the scalp and temporal arteries may reveal marked tenderness and signs of inflammation, such as erythema, nodularity, and reduced pulsation. Jaw claudication when chewing is also a common feature. Here are some clinical examination techniques that can help diagnose temporal arteritis:

      1. Palpation of the scalp/temporal arteries: Marked scalp tenderness is common in patients with temporal arteritis. Approximately half of patients exhibit signs of superficial temporal artery inflammation, which can be detected by palpation.

      2. Examination of the neck for muscle tenderness and stiffness: Neck examination may reveal a limitation in the range of movement of the neck and crepitation, especially in tension-type headaches. However, the history in this patient, including generalised muscle aches, jaw claudication and temporal headache are more suggestive of temporal arteritis.

      3. Blood pressure (BP) measurement: Raised BP is very rarely a cause of headache. However, patients often think it is and may expect their BP to be measured. Nevertheless, this would neither confirm nor refute a diagnosis of temporal arteritis, the likely diagnosis here.

      4. Examination of the jaw and bite: Routine examination of the jaw and bite is unlikely to contribute to the diagnosis here. The jaw pain here is suggestive of claudication, which is a feature associated with temporal arteritis.

      5. Examination of the optic fundi: The optic fundi should always be examined in patients presenting with headache. However, this patient is not exhibiting any features that suggest a raised intracranial pressure.

      In conclusion, a combination of clinical examination techniques can help diagnose temporal arteritis in patients presenting with a new headache, especially in those over 50 years of age. Palpation of the scalp and temporal arteries, examination of the neck for muscle tenderness and stiffness, and assessment of jaw claudication are particularly useful in this regard.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 5 - A 61-year-old man presented to his GP with wasting and weakness of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man presented to his GP with wasting and weakness of the muscles in his left hand.

      He had noticed severely impaired hand grip and had noticed problems with writing. He had also developed a tingling sensation over the palm of his hand extending up the forearm.

      On examination he appeared alert and orientated. Fundoscopy and cranial nerve examination were all normal and neck movements were full.

      On examination of the upper limb, there was significant wasting over the left thenar eminence and fasciculations with a small burn over the left thumb. No other fasciculations could be detected in the proximal limb or other hand. Tone appeared normal and reflexes were intact. There was weakness of thumb abduction and opposition, with loss of pinprick and light touch sensation over the thumb, index and middle finger.

      On examination of the lower limb, no abnormalities could be found.

      Given the above history and clinical findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Median nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a condition that occurs when there is pressure on the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. This can result in severe wasting of the muscles in the thenar eminence, abductor pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis, as well as the lateral two lumbricals. Nerve conduction studies can confirm denervation and absent sensory potentials within the median nerve territory.

      It is important to note that CTS is not indicative of motor neurone disease, which presents with a combination of upper and lower motor neurone abnormalities without sensory disturbance. Syringomyelia within the cervical cord would cause lower motor neurone signs at the level of the syrinx, with dissociated pain and temperature loss and upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Thoracic inlet syndrome affecting C8, T1 of the brachial plexus would cause additional weakness of hand muscles. An ulnar nerve palsy would cause weakness of small muscles of the hand with preserved thenar muscle function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of a headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of a headache that has been persistent for the past four months. He reports a mild, dull ache over the right temporal area. The pain is present most of the time, is not related to posture, and is not worse at night. He has attempted to alleviate the pain with ibuprofen, but it has been ineffective. He denies experiencing any aura, nausea, vomiting, seizures, ringing in the ears, drowsiness, or changes in cognitive function. He is otherwise healthy and doesn't take any regular medications.

      During the examination, he is alert and oriented. His blood pressure is normal. The cervical spine examination reveals no abnormalities, and he has a good range of motion. The neurological examination, including the cranial nerves, is normal, and there is no papilledema.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Request an urgent CT headscan

      Correct Answer: Non-urgent referral to a local specialist

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Patients with Recent Onset Headaches

      If a patient presents with a headache of recent onset, lasting for at least one month, but without any signs of raised intracranial pressure, it is recommended to discuss with a local specialist or consider a non-urgent referral. However, urgent referral to a specialist is necessary if the headache is accompanied by features suggestive of raised intracranial pressure, such as vomiting, drowsiness, posture-related headache, or pulse-synchronous tinnitus. Additionally, if the patient experiences other non-focal neurological symptoms like blackout, change in personality or memory, immediate referral to a specialist is also required. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure timely and appropriate management of patients with recent onset headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      77
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  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain and visual...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain and visual loss in one eye that has been progressively worsening over the past three days. She reports feeling fine otherwise and has no other symptoms. The patient was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) ten years ago and has experienced four acute relapses since.
      What is the best course of treatment for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Methylprednisolone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Relapse in Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) patients experiencing sudden increases in symptoms or significant new symptoms should seek medical attention. A course of oral or intravenous methylprednisolone treatment is required to manage acute relapse. However, before steroids are considered, a urinary tract or other infection should be excluded as the cause for the exacerbation.

      Research suggests that a reduced level of vitamin D in the blood is a risk factor for developing MS. Although studies are underway to determine if vitamin D levels influence disease activity, there is not enough evidence to suggest that treatment with vitamin D in the acute phase is warranted.

      Interferon beta and terifluonamide are disease-modifying drugs used to treat relapsing-remitting MS. They are used to reduce the incidence of relapse but have no role in managing acute relapse.

      Natalizumab is a recombinant humanised monoclonal antibody used as a second-line drug to reduce relapse. However, it doesn’t have a role in the management of acute relapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 8 - You assess a 64-year-old man who has recently been released from the hospital...

    Correct

    • You assess a 64-year-old man who has recently been released from the hospital after being admitted for acute coronary syndrome. He has a medical history of myasthenia gravis and has been taking prednisolone for a long time. However, since his admission, his myasthenia symptoms have significantly worsened, and you observe bilateral ptosis and slurred speech. Which of the newly prescribed medications is most likely responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Myasthenic crises are often triggered by beta-blockers like bisoprolol.

      Exacerbating Factors of Myasthenia Gravis

      Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that is characterized by fatigability, which is worsened by exertion. This means that symptoms become more pronounced as the day progresses. In addition to exertion, certain drugs can also exacerbate myasthenia gravis. These drugs include penicillamine, quinidine, procainamide, beta-blockers, lithium, and certain antibiotics such as gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, and tetracyclines. It is important for individuals with myasthenia gravis to be aware of these exacerbating factors and to avoid them whenever possible in order to manage their symptoms effectively. By doing so, they can improve their quality of life and minimize the impact of this condition on their daily activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old man presents with a severe, intermittent, daily, right-sided frontotemporal headache over...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents with a severe, intermittent, daily, right-sided frontotemporal headache over the past 4 weeks. It seems to occur early in the morning, around the same time each day and lasts for approximately 2 hours. The pain makes him feel nauseous although he has not vomited. He has been significantly stressed with personal issues recently. Interestingly, he also reports his right eye sometimes appears red and painful with increased lacrimation. He has no loss of visual acuity.

      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Cluster headaches are characterized by intermittent severe frontotemporal headaches lasting up to 2 hours at a time, with ipsilateral autonomic disturbance. These clusters typically last from 4 to 12 weeks and are more common in men than women. Glaucoma may cause a change in visual acuity, but headaches related to brain tumors would not exhibit ipsilateral autonomic disturbance and would not be as severe or intermittent. While migraine is a possibility, it would be unusual to experience such frequent episodes over a 4-week period and without ipsilateral autonomic disturbance.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man comes to you with complaints of severe, stabbing pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to you with complaints of severe, stabbing pain in his right eye that has been occurring once a day for the past few weeks. The pain lasts for about 30 minutes and he is often seen pacing around and shouting during these episodes. His wife reports that his right eye appears red and he has clear nasal discharge during the episodes.

      Based on the probable diagnosis, what advice would you give the patient to prevent future episodes?

      Your Answer: Stress

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Cluster headaches are often triggered by alcohol, and they typically affect individuals of a certain age and gender.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      69.1
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  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old man has a persistent tremor that only occurs when he extends...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man has a persistent tremor that only occurs when he extends his arm. His wife is worried that it may be a serious condition. Other than the tremor, there are no other neurological symptoms observed during examination.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Essential tremor

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Tremors: Essential Tremor, Chorea, Intention Tremor, Parkinsonism, and Motor Neurone Disease

      Tremors are involuntary movements that can be caused by various conditions. Essential tremor is a common type that is worsened by movement and relieved by rest. Patients may turn to alcohol to alleviate symptoms. It can be difficult to distinguish from other types of tremors, such as exaggerated physiological tremor or medication-induced tremor. Essential tremor typically affects the upper limbs, but can also involve the neck, face, and jaw muscles.

      Chorea, on the other hand, is characterized by irregular, flowing movements that are not repetitive or rhythmic. Intention tremor is a feature of cerebellar ataxia, which is usually accompanied by other cerebellar signs like ataxia and dysarthria. Parkinsonism causes a resting tremor and cogwheel rigidity, which occurs even in a relaxed limb that is fully supported.

      Motor neurone disease usually presents with fasciculations, which are involuntary muscle contractions and relaxations that are visible under the skin. It is important to differentiate between these different types of tremors to accurately diagnose and treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old woman has had three witnessed episodes when she looked blank, fiddled...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman has had three witnessed episodes when she looked blank, fiddled with her hands and opened and closed her mouth repetitively. She has no recollection of these events but did feel tired for a while afterwards. On direct questioning, she reports what sounds like déjà vu feelings associated with abdominal discomfort occurring over three years, which she had ignored. There is a history of two febrile convulsions in infancy.
      Which class of seizure has this patient most likely experienced?

      Your Answer: Focal impaired awareness

      Explanation:

      Types of Seizures and Their Characteristics

      Seizures can be classified into different types based on their characteristics. Here are some common types of seizures and their descriptions:

      1. Focal Impaired Awareness Seizures: These seizures originate from one part of the brain and can affect a larger area than focal aware seizures. The patient’s consciousness is impaired, and they may look blank, have no recollection of the event, and feel tired afterwards.

      2. Unknown-Onset Motor Seizures: These seizures involve physical movements but occur during sleep or are unwitnessed, making it difficult to determine whether they have a focal or generalized onset.

      3. Focal Aware Seizures: These seizures begin and affect one part of the brain, but the patient remains conscious and alert throughout the seizure and has full recollection of the event afterwards. Déjà vu feelings are an example of focal aware seizures.

      4. Generalized Motor Seizures: These seizures affect both sides of the brain simultaneously and involve physical movements, such as tonic-clonic or myoclonic seizures.

      5. Generalized Non-Motor Seizures: These seizures also affect both sides of the brain but do not involve physical movements. The patient appears blank and unresponsive during the seizure, but repetitive movements may be present.

      Understanding the different types of seizures and their characteristics can help in their diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of numbness and pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of numbness and pain in his left thigh. He reports feeling unsteady on his feet and has gained more than 6 kg in weight over the past six months. He also has chronic lower back pain. His family has a history of a neurological condition, with his uncle having multiple sclerosis (MS). He has no other medical conditions.
      During the examination, the patient is found to be overweight. He has reduced pinprick sensation over the anterior part of his left thigh, but no motor signs. His tendor reflexes are normal and there are no cerebellar signs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lumbar canal stenosis with nerve root entrapment

      Correct Answer: Meralgia paraesthetica

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between causes of lower limb pain: A brief overview

      Lower limb pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own unique symptoms and diagnostic criteria. Here, we will briefly discuss four potential causes of lower limb pain and how they can be differentiated.

      Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by numbness, paraesthesia, and pain in the anterolateral thigh. It is caused by either an entrapment neuropathy or a neuroma of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. The pain can be reproduced by deep palpation just below the anterior superior iliac spine and by extension of the hip. Obesity and weight gain are risk factors.

      Diabetic lumbosacral plexopathy is a condition in which patients develop severe pain in the hip and thigh, followed by weakness and wasting of the thigh muscles. This often occurs asymmetrically and is accompanied by distal sensory neuropathy. However, this patient has no diagnosis of diabetes.

      Familial MS is a form of multiple sclerosis that usually presents as intermittent episodic sensory, motor, or autonomic disturbances. While a family history of MS may be present, it is not a definitive diagnostic criterion.

      Lumbar canal stenosis with nerve root entrapment typically causes pain in the buttocks or lower extremities, with or without back pain. Standing, walking, or lumbar extension often exacerbate the condition, while forward flexion, sitting, or lying flat often relieves the pain.

      Finally, lumbar facet arthropathy is characterized by facet joints causing back pain that can radiate to the buttocks and legs. The pain is worsened by retroflexion and lateral flexion of the spine and prolonged standing or walking. However, facet syndrome would not usually cause reduced sensation.

      In conclusion, a thorough clinical evaluation and diagnostic testing can help differentiate between these potential causes of lower limb pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 38-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for an urgent appointment. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for an urgent appointment. She has a diffuse headache, which she describes as severe. The headache is acute, having developed within the last three hours. She lost consciousness for a brief period. There is no significant past medical history.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: First seizure

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with a sudden, severe headache, subarachnoid haemorrhage should be considered as a possible cause, with or without loss of consciousness. Menigeal irritation may take some time to appear. In cases of epilepsy, postictal headaches are common, lasting between six and 24 hours. Cluster headaches are characterized by rapid onset and unilateral pain around the eye, temple or forehead, often accompanied by lacrimation or rhinorrhoea. Migraines are also unilateral and may be preceded by an aura, with associated nausea and vomiting. TIAs usually present with focal neurological symptoms, rather than headaches, and loss of consciousness is not typical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman comes to Neurology Outpatients with complaints of experiencing multiple episodes...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to Neurology Outpatients with complaints of experiencing multiple episodes in the past few months where she smells a burning odor followed by twitching in her left arm. These symptoms usually last for a maximum of a few minutes. She remains fully conscious during the episodes and has not experienced any loss of consciousness.
      Which type of seizure do the symptoms of this patient suggest?

      Your Answer: Focal aware seizure

      Explanation:

      Types of Seizures and Their Characteristics

      Seizures can be classified into different types based on their characteristics. Focal onset seizures start in one part of the brain and can spread to both hemispheres, leading to a generalised tonic-clonic seizure. Focal onset seizures can be either aware or impaired awareness, depending on whether the patient has full consciousness and awareness throughout the seizure. Focal seizures may involve motor symptoms or unusual sensations, and there is often an aura such as an abnormal smell or taste.

      Generalised clonic seizures involve sustained rhythmical jerking of the whole body with loss of consciousness. This type of seizure is less common than tonic-clonic seizures, which involve muscle stiffening along with the clonus.

      Absence seizures are a form of generalised seizure that typically involve a transient loss of consciousness, eyelid fluttering, and a blank stare. This type of seizure is more common in children than adults.

      Focal impaired awareness seizures involve an aura and only one part of the body is affected, but the patient is fully aware and alert during the seizure.

      Generalised atonic seizures are often described as drop attacks, as muscle tone is suddenly and transiently lost, resulting in the person falling over and becoming floppy. Focal atonic seizures present when one part of the body becomes limp during a seizure, such as a drooping eyelid. There is usually no aura prior to this type of seizure, and a quick recovery follows.

      Understanding the Different Types of Seizures

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old man presents with a headache. He has never experienced significant headaches...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with a headache. He has never experienced significant headaches before but developed this one about a week ago.

      He describes a vague headache on the left side of his head, starting above his left eye and extending to the parietal area. The headache has been fairly constant, and he has taken paracetamol and ibuprofen, which have only provided slight relief and have not significantly reduced the pain.

      There is no history of vomiting, drowsiness, loss of consciousness, seizures, postural related headache, or tinnitus. There are no mental or cognitive changes.

      On clinical examination, all cranial nerves are normal, and there is no focal limb neurological deficit or cerebellar signs. ENT examination is normal, and there is no scalp or temporal tenderness. There is no neck stiffness or restriction of neck movements. Observations, including blood pressure and temperature, are normal, and there is no anxiety, depression, or psychological upset.

      Despite the lack of a clear cause for this new headache, which of the following statements is true regarding papilloedema?

      Your Answer: The finding of papilloedema merits urgent MRI regardless of any other factors in the history or examination

      Correct Answer: The absence of papilloedema rules out the presence of a brain tumour

      Explanation:

      Importance of Fundal Examination in Headache Assessment

      Fundal examination is a crucial part of headache assessment, particularly in cases of new and unexplained headaches. It helps to check for papilloedema, which may indicate raised intracranial pressure and requires urgent action, even in the absence of other symptoms or normal examination results. However, the absence of papilloedema doesn’t rule out the possibility of a brain tumor, and papilloedema is not always a sign of a brain tumor.

      According to the latest NICE guidelines, the predictive value of symptoms is more important than clinical signs in referring patients for suspected cancer. However, they recommend an urgent direct access MRI scan of the brain (or CT scan if MRI is contraindicated) within two weeks for adults with progressive, subacute loss of central neurological function. This is to assess for brain or central nervous system cancer and to speed up the diagnostic process for patients with a tumor.

      Some GPs may have direct access to MRI, while others may need to coordinate with secondary care colleagues through locally arranged pathways. Regardless of the means of acquiring an MRI, the finding of papilloedema warrants urgent MRI, regardless of other factors in the history or examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - You are conducting a headache history with a 10-year-old girl who you suspect...

    Correct

    • You are conducting a headache history with a 10-year-old girl who you suspect may be experiencing migraines. What feature is more prevalent in younger patients with migraines compared to older ones?

      Your Answer: Bilateral symptoms

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of migraine in children are frequently experienced on both sides of the head.

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her doctor complaining of an increase in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her doctor complaining of an increase in the frequency of her migraine attacks. She is currently experiencing approximately four migraines per month. What medication would be the most suitable to prescribe in order to decrease the frequency of her migraine attacks?

      Your Answer: 5-HT1 antagonist

      Correct Answer: Beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating migraines, the recommended acute treatment options are a combination of triptan with either NSAID or paracetamol. For prophylaxis, the first-line options are topiramate or propranolol. While topiramate is recommended by NICE, it’s important to consider that the patient is a woman of childbearing age, making a beta-blocker like propranolol a safer choice.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 19 - A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with a complaint of lower...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with a complaint of lower back pain that has been gradually worsening over six weeks. He reports a burning sensation that extends into his buttock and down his right leg, along with paraesthesia in the same region. He believes that his right leg is weaker.
      What is the one characteristic that indicates a sciatic nerve lesion?

      Your Answer: Foot drop

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nerve Lesions: Symptoms and Signs

      Nerve lesions can cause a variety of symptoms and signs depending on the affected nerve. Here are some common examples:

      Foot Drop
      A sciatic nerve lesion can lead to foot drop, as the nerve supplies all the muscles of the leg and is responsible for all foot movements and the ankle jerk.

      Absent Knee Tendon Jerk
      Loss of the knee jerk signifies an L3-4 nerve root lesion or femoral nerve involvement.

      Decreased Sensation on Anterior Thigh and Medial Leg
      Femoral nerve lesions typically cause anterior thigh and medial leg sensory loss.

      Inability to Flex the Hip
      The femoral nerve, rather than the sciatic nerve, mediates flexion of the hip.

      Reduced Anal Tone
      Reduced anal tone, often accompanied by faecal incontinence, is a sign of cauda equina syndrome and would not be a feature of a sciatic nerve lesion.

      Understanding these symptoms and signs can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat nerve lesions effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 61-year-old man visits his doctor with his wife, who is concerned about...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man visits his doctor with his wife, who is concerned about his recent behavior changes. She notes that he used to be reserved, but in the past year, he has become much louder and seeks attention at social events. Additionally, he makes inappropriate comments and lacks empathy towards her. She also mentions that he has been consuming a lot of fatty and carbohydrate-rich foods, despite being health-conscious previously. The patient's neurological exam is normal, and his wife recalls that his mother passed away at 63 due to a neurological condition, but she cannot recall the name of it. What condition is likely affecting this man?

      Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      The individual in question is exhibiting a slow progression of personality changes and social conduct issues at a younger age, while still maintaining their memory and visuospatial abilities. Additionally, their mother passed away at 65 years old due to a comparable neurological condition. This suggests that the individual is likely suffering from Frontotemporal lobar degeneration, specifically Pick’s disease. Other forms of dementia have distinct presentations and can be found in the PassMedicine textbook. Bipolar disorder is an unlikely diagnosis due to its sudden onset and the strong familial connection to Pick’s disease.

      Understanding Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

      Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a type of cortical dementia that is the third most common after Alzheimer’s and Lewy body dementia. There are three recognized types of FTLD: Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Progressive non-fluent aphasia (chronic progressive aphasia, CPA), and Semantic dementia.

      FTLD is characterized by an onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. Pick’s disease is the most common type of FTLD and is characterized by personality change and impaired social conduct. Other common features include hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite, and perseveration behaviors. Focal gyral atrophy with a knife-blade appearance is characteristic of Pick’s disease.

      CPA is characterized by non-fluent speech, where the patient makes short utterances that are agrammatic. Comprehension is relatively preserved. Semantic dementia, on the other hand, is characterized by fluent progressive aphasia. The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning. Unlike in Alzheimer’s, memory is better for recent rather than remote events.

      In terms of management, NICE doesn’t recommend the use of AChE inhibitors or memantine in people with frontotemporal dementia. Understanding the different types of FTLD and their characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old patient presents with sudden monocular visual loss on the right, associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient presents with sudden monocular visual loss on the right, associated with pain behind the eye and alteration of colour vision. Examination the following day reveals a relative afferent pupillary defect in the right eye.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Optic Nerve Lesions: A Guide

      When a patient presents with impaired colour appreciation and a relative afferent pupillary defect, an acute optic nerve lesion is likely. In younger patients, optic neuritis due to demyelination is the most common cause. Fundoscopy may reveal a swollen optic nerve head in the acute stage. Hemianopic visual disturbance is more commonly seen in cerebral infarction, while optic nerve glioma typically presents over a longer period with proptosis. Migraine can cause transient monocular visual disturbances, often accompanied by headache. Temporal arteritis is rare in patients under 50.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner, having developed sudden-onset weakness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner, having developed sudden-onset weakness and numbness in her left arm and leg while exercising. She takes the combined oral contraceptive pill. No other risk factors for stroke are identified.
      On examination, she exhibits mild pyramidal weakness on the left side of her face, arm and leg. Left-sided hemisensory loss is also present, as well as left homonymous hemianopia and left-sided inattention.
      She is admitted to hospital for further testing. A brain computed tomography (CT) scan and diffusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) show a recent, single infarction in the territory of the right middle cerebral artery.
      What is the most likely cause for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dissection of the right carotid artery

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with total anterior cerebral syndrome

      Explanation:

      A patient presenting with total anterior cerebral syndrome, which includes left-sided weakness, hemisensory loss, and homonymous hemianopia, may have various underlying causes. One possibility is a spontaneous or minimally provoked cervical vascular dissection, which can affect the internal carotid and its middle cerebral branch. Although two-thirds of patients with this condition experience head or neck pain at onset, some do not, as in this case. Horner syndrome may also occur. Anticoagulation may be necessary, and specialist investigation and management are required.

      Another potential cause is an inherited thromboembolic disorder, which is more likely to manifest as venous thrombosis, such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism, rather than arterial ischaemic stroke. Women of childbearing age with this condition may also have recurrent miscarriages.

      Cardioembolism from an atrial septal defect is possible, especially if the ischaemic event occurs during exercise and is precipitated by a Valsalva manoeuvre. However, if exercise provokes the event, arterial dissection is more likely.

      Dissection of the vertebral artery is less common than that of the right carotid artery but can also cause a posterior circulation infarct.

      Finally, a thromboembolic disorder secondary to carotid atherosclerosis, which is more prevalent in older patients with other cardiovascular risk factors, can also lead to ischaemic stroke in a similar distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of blurred vision in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of blurred vision in her right eye and pain on eye movement for the past 6 days. Upon examination, the doctor finds that her acuity is reduced to 6/36, she has impaired colour vision, a relatively afferent pupillary defect, and a swollen, pale optic disc. The doctor diagnoses her with optic neuritis. The patient mentions that she has heard about a connection between optic neuritis and multiple sclerosis (MS) and asks for more information. What is the best advice to give to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a useful tool for predicting the risk of developing MS

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Demyelinating Optic Neuritis and its Relationship to Multiple Sclerosis

      Acute demyelinating optic neuritis (ADON) is a condition that can be associated with multiple sclerosis (MS). Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a useful tool for predicting the risk of developing MS, as the presence of white matter abnormalities on MRI of the brain increases the risk of MS. The Optic Neuritis Treatment Trial (ONTT) revealed that the risk of developing MS at 15-year follow-up was approximately 25% for patients with no white matter lesions on MRI compared to 75% for those with lesions.

      Interferon-beta treatment can increase the time interval to relapse in MS, particularly in patients with ADON and white matter lesions on MRI. However, it is important to remember that many patients with ADON will not develop MS. Information about their prognosis can help patients to decide whether to undergo MRI scanning and whether to use interferon-beta or other immunomodulators in their treatment.

      While the risk of recurrence of ADON is approximately 35% over ten years, the prognosis for vision retainment in patients with ADON is usually good. The ONTT found that one year after onset, 93% of individuals had visual acuity greater than 6/12 in the affected eye. However, many patients may continue to experience subjective reductions in vision and other visual impairments.

      In summary, understanding the relationship between ADON and MS, as well as the potential benefits and risks of treatment options, can help patients make informed decisions about their care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - An 85-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of tingling and numbness...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of tingling and numbness in both feet, which has worsened over a period of six months. She has hypercholesterolaemia, ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and diabetes. She is currently taking amlodipine, aspirin, atorvastatin, gliclazide, metformin, ramipril and sitagliptin. She doesn't drink alcohol.
      On examination, she has altered pinprick sensation over both feet and absent ankle reflexes. Femoral pulses are present, but those in the feet are absent.
      What is the most likely cause of this patient's neurological symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Symmetrical Polyneuropathy: Causes and Risk Factors

      Chronic symmetrical polyneuropathy is a condition characterized by weakness and sensory symptoms such as burning and tingling. The most common cause of this condition is diabetic neuropathy, which is directly related to the duration of diabetes and poor blood sugar control. However, certain drugs such as isoniazid, vincristine, phenytoin, nitrofurantoin, gold, and excess vitamin B6 can also cause polyneuropathy.

      Hyperlipidemia and hypertension are also associated with peripheral neuropathy, but they are not as common as diabetic neuropathy. Peripheral vascular disease, which is characterized by reduced blood flow to the limbs, can also increase the risk of polyneuropathy, especially in patients with diabetes and ischemic disease.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic symmetrical polyneuropathy to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications. Patients with this condition may experience reduced sensation and balance issues, making it crucial to manage their symptoms and prevent falls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old man is requested to come to the clinic for a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is requested to come to the clinic for a routine check up following a car accident. He claims he did not see a cyclist emerging from a road to his left while driving his car. Upon further inquiry, he confesses to bumping into door frames in his house more frequently than usual, but attributes it to his general clumsiness. His medical history includes hypertension, which is managed with ramipril, and erectile dysfunction, for which he has recently been prescribed sildenafil. During the examination, he displays bilateral peripheral field visual loss. What would be the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent pituitary MRI

      Explanation:

      Pituitary Tumour and Peripheral Vision Loss

      The combination of peripheral visual field loss and erectile dysfunction is a cause for concern as it may indicate the presence of a pituitary tumour. While pituitary function tests are important, the urgent need to protect the patient’s sight requires an immediate pituitary MRI scan to check for possible compression of the optic chiasma. The availability of this scan may vary depending on local arrangements, but it is crucial to understand the necessary steps to take in order to act accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a headache lasting 45 minutes associated with lacrimation...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a headache lasting 45 minutes associated with lacrimation and nasal stuffiness. A similar headache the previous day lasted for 60 minutes.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Headache Types: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Cluster Headache
      Cluster headaches are characterized by rapid onset of pain around one eye, accompanied by lacrimation, rhinorrhea, eyelid swelling, ptosis, myosis, facial sweating, and flushing. Attacks are unilateral and occur two to three times in a 24-hour period, lasting from 15 to 180 minutes untreated. Sufferers are restless during attacks, and treatment involves 100% oxygen and/or sumatriptan.

      Intracranial Tumour
      The chronic headache of an intracranial tumour or any other cause of raised intracranial pressure is usually worse in the morning, present on waking, and worse when lying down. The headache of raised intracranial pressure is not usually severe.

      Acute Glaucoma
      Acute glaucoma presents with a decrease in visual acuity, nausea, and a dull ache around the affected eye.

      Maxillary Sinusitis
      Maxillary sinusitis presents as constant dull pain over the maxillary sinus, worse on bending over, and may last up to two weeks.

      Trigeminal Neuralgia
      Trigeminal neuralgia presents with intense stabbing pain, usually lasting only a few seconds. Pain occurs in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve and is often precipitated by contact with the skin over the affected area. Pain is unilateral.

      Understanding the Characteristics of Different Headache Types

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A 43-year-old former beef farmer is currently being looked after in a care...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old former beef farmer is currently being looked after in a care home after a severe deterioration in his memory and ability to care for himself.

      You examine him and note that he has nystagmus, bilateral lateral rectus palsy, ataxia, a broad based gait and peripheral neuropathy with sensory loss in his feet. You understand that his father died at an early age, apparently from Alzheimer's disease.

      He is known to drink alcohol.

      Which one of the following is most likely to be the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy and Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that occurs in patients with thiamine deficiency, often associated with chronic alcohol abuse or other malnutrition states. It is characterized by haemorrhage into the mamillary bodies of the brain. If left untreated, it can progress to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is a chronic stage of the same condition.

      Early stages of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can be reversible, especially the eye signs. However, if left untreated, it can lead to memory loss and other irreversible symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This highlights the importance of early thiamine replacement in patients admitted to the hospital with symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. By recognizing and treating Wernicke’s encephalopathy early, we can prevent the progression to Korsakoff’s syndrome and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who has been experiencing headaches. What is...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who has been experiencing headaches. What is the most characteristic feature of migraines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phonophobia

      Explanation:

      Phonophobia is present in approximately 75% of patients.

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - You assess a 65-year-old patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 65-year-old patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and epilepsy. The patient's seizure control has deteriorated lately. Which of the following medications is most likely to exacerbate seizure control?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aminophylline

      Explanation:

      Medications to Avoid in Patients with Epilepsy

      Prescribing medications to patients with epilepsy requires careful consideration as some drugs may worsen seizure control. Alcohol, cocaine, and amphetamines are known to have negative effects on seizure control. Antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin, as well as aminophylline and theophylline, should also be avoided. Bupropion, methylphenidate (used in ADHD), and mefenamic acid are other medications that may worsen seizure control.

      It is important to note that some medications, such as benzodiazepines, baclofen, and hydroxyzine, may provoke seizures during withdrawal. Additionally, certain medications may interfere with the metabolism of anti-epileptic drugs, which can worsen seizure control. These medications are known as P450 inducers/inhibitors.

      Prescribers should carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a patient with epilepsy. Close monitoring and communication with the patient’s healthcare team is essential to ensure optimal seizure control and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 55 year old man comes to the clinic with complaints of tingling...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old man comes to the clinic with complaints of tingling sensations in his left thumb and first finger. He reports difficulty in gripping objects and unintentionally dropping them. Upon examination, there is noticeable muscle wasting in the thenar eminence. What clinical sign would indicate a diagnosis other than carpal tunnel syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positive Hoffmans sign

      Explanation:

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is often misdiagnosed as carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) in patients who undergo surgery for the former. This highlights the importance of considering DCM as a differential diagnosis in patients suspected to have CTS.

      CTS is a peripheral nervous system disorder that results from compression of the median nerve at the wrist within the carpal tunnel. It affects only the aspects of the hand innervated by the median nerve, including sensation and motor function. Symptoms typically include intermittent pain or parasthesiae, and motor signs are less commonly seen.

      Tests such as Tinels and Phalens can be positive in CTS, but they are not always reliable. In contrast, examination features in focal central nervous system disorders like DCM have low sensitivity but high specificity. DCM affects the sensory, motor, and autonomic nervous systems from the neck downwards, and motor signs are typically upper motor neuron signs such as increased tone, hyper-reflexia, and pyramidal weakness.

      Detecting early DCM can be challenging, as the neurological signs are often subtle initially but likely to worsen over time. Therefore, a high index of suspicion, comprehensive neurological examination, and monitoring for progression are required.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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