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  • Question 1 - As a general practice doctor, you see a 35-year-old plumber who complains of...

    Correct

    • As a general practice doctor, you see a 35-year-old plumber who complains of shooting pains down his left leg for the past 3 weeks. The pain has been increasing in intensity and over the counter analgesia has not helped. The patient has no past medical history and takes no regular medications. During examination, you find normal power in both legs but altered sensation over the great toe on his left. There are no urinary symptoms or perianal sensation issues. An MRI scan of his lumbar spine shows a small left paracentral L4/5 disc prolapse causing compression of the transiting L5 nerve root. There is no compression of the cauda equina with CSF visible around all nerve roots. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Start treatment with NSAIDs and refer for physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Most cases of sciatica can be resolved within 3 months through conservative treatment, and specialist referral is rarely necessary. However, if the pain persists after 4-6 weeks of physiotherapy and anti-neuropathic medication, referral to spinal surgery may be considered. Discharging the patient without proper intervention is not recommended as there is a risk of symptoms worsening and developing cauda equina syndrome. Patients should be advised to seek emergency care if they experience peri-anal or saddle sensory changes, difficulty urinating, or symptoms affecting both legs. Opiates are not recommended for neuropathic pain and may lead to dependence. Instead, a more appropriate and effective pain reliever for the patient’s age would be a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) like naproxen.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of right shoulder pain and limited movement in all directions. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adhesive capsulitis

      Explanation:

      The development of adhesive capsulitis is more likely in individuals with diabetes mellitus.

      Understanding Adhesive Capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder)

      Adhesive capsulitis, commonly known as frozen shoulder, is a prevalent cause of shoulder pain that primarily affects middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood. However, studies have shown that up to 20% of diabetics may experience an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over several days, with external rotation being more affected than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. In some cases, the condition may affect both shoulders, which occurs in up to 20% of patients. The episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.

      Diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis is usually clinical, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. Unfortunately, no single intervention has been proven to improve the outcome in the long-term. However, there are several treatment options available, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 3 - A 43-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful right shoulder. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful right shoulder. Despite being generally healthy and playing tennis regularly, he has been limited by the pain. Upon examination, his shoulders appear symmetrical with no skin changes, but he experiences mild tenderness over the right acromion. He can fully abduct his arm, but experiences pain approximately halfway through the motion, with the start and end of abduction being pain-free. There are no other symptoms or abnormalities in his upper limbs. What is the probable underlying pathology for this man's presentation?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus tear

      Correct Answer: Subacromial impingement

      Explanation:

      Subacromial impingement is often characterized by a painful arc of abduction. This is likely the cause of the patient’s shoulder pain, which is accompanied by tenderness at the acromion and pain around the midpoint of abduction (typically between 60 to 120 degrees). These symptoms are not indicative of inflammatory arthritis affecting the acromioclavicular joint, which is rare. Osteoarthritis affecting the ACJ may cause tenderness and swelling, but not acromial tenderness or a painful arc in abduction. Cervical radiculopathy would cause neuropathic pain in the distribution of a cervical root, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. Rheumatoid arthritis and other inflammatory arthropathies typically cause acute joint inflammation and effusion, which is not present in this case. A supraspinatus tear is a possible differential diagnosis, but the pain would be limited to the initial 60 degrees of abduction rather than the midpoint, indicating impingement as the more likely cause. Depending on the extent of the tear, abduction may also be limited due to difficulty initiating the movement.

      Understanding Rotator Cuff Injuries

      Rotator cuff injuries are a common cause of shoulder problems that can be classified into four types of disease: subacromial impingement, calcific tendonitis, rotator cuff tears, and rotator cuff arthropathy. The symptoms of a rotator cuff injury include shoulder pain that worsens during abduction.

      The signs of a rotator cuff injury include a painful arc of abduction, which typically occurs between 60 and 120 degrees in cases of subacromial impingement. In cases of rotator cuff tears, the pain may be felt in the first 60 degrees of abduction. Additionally, tenderness over the anterior acromion may be present.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 4 - A 62-year-old Hispanic man, who has a history of heavy alcohol consumption, complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old Hispanic man, who has a history of heavy alcohol consumption, complains of right knee pain. On examination, he has a limited range of movement at the knee joint and crepitus, and he is found to have a BMI of 30. A radiograph of the knee joint shows narrowing of the joint space and subchondral sclerosis.
      Which of the following is the possible cause for these findings?

      Your Answer: Pyrophosphate arthropathy

      Correct Answer: Obesity

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Osteoarthritis: Identifying the Causes of Joint Pain

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. There are many risk factors associated with the development of OA, including obesity, family history, joint trauma, and overuse. In this scenario, the patient’s BMI of 32 indicates obesity, which is a known risk factor for OA.

      Gender also plays a role in the development of OA, with women over the age of 55 being more commonly affected than men. Polyarticular OA is also more common in women.

      Pyrophosphate arthropathy, which causes pseudogout, can also increase the risk of OA in affected joints. However, radiological evidence of chondrocalcinosis is necessary for a diagnosis of this condition.

      While there is a variable distribution of OA across different ethnicities, no specific ethnic group is more at risk. Smoking has not been identified as a risk factor for OA.

      Identifying these risk factors can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage OA, improving the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old man complains of bilateral leg pain that occurs during walking. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man complains of bilateral leg pain that occurs during walking. He has a history of peptic ulcer disease and osteoarthritis. The pain usually starts after walking for about 5 minutes and goes away when he sits down. He has noticed that leaning forward or crouching helps relieve the pain. There are no abnormalities found during musculoskeletal and vascular examination of his lower limbs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peripheral arterial disease

      Correct Answer: Spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      This presentation is typical of spinal stenosis. Although peripheral arterial disease is a possible alternative diagnosis, the pain relief factors and absence of abnormalities in the vascular examination suggest otherwise.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman presents with complaints of recurring pain in her left ankle...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with complaints of recurring pain in her left ankle for the past 4-5 weeks. She also reports experiencing pain in her left sole and swelling in her right toes. Additionally, she has developed low back pain over the last 2 weeks. Upon further inquiry, she mentions having painless oral ulcers that heal on their own. She recently had chlamydial urethritis. Her full blood count, kidney, and liver function tests are all normal, and an autoimmune screen is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Reactive Arthritis from Other Arthritic Conditions

      Reactive arthritis is a type of arthritis that occurs after an infection, typically dysentery or a sexually transmitted disease. It is characterized by an acute, asymmetrical lower limb arthritis, with common symptoms including enthesitis, sacroiliitis, and spondylosis. Patients may also experience mouth ulcers, conjunctivitis, and cutaneous features such as circinate balanitis and keratoderma blenorrhagia. However, it is important to differentiate reactive arthritis from other arthritic conditions such as disseminated bacterial arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and hypersensitivity vasculitis. Understanding the unique features of each condition can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old man complains of a sudden pain in the back of his...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man complains of a sudden pain in the back of his calf during a football game, causing him to limp off the field. Upon examination by the team doctor, he exhibits a positive Simmond's sign. What type of injury is he likely to have suffered?

      Your Answer: Achilles tendon rupture

      Explanation:

      If a person experiences an audible ‘pop’ in their ankle, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, or is unable to continue playing a sport or running, an Achilles tendon rupture should be suspected. Posterior ankle impingement is characterized by pain during forced plantar flexion when jumping or kicking, and is most commonly seen in gymnasts, ballet dancers, and footballers. Navicular bone fractures, which are stress fractures, are frequently observed in athletes who engage in sports that involve sprinting and jumping. Athletes who have had multiple ankle sprains may experience peroneal tendon dislocation due to friction and inflammation of the tendon. Stress metatarsal fractures, also known as march fractures, are most commonly seen in soldiers, hikers, and hospital doctors who spend extended periods standing and walking.

      Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.

      In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old woman presents with a four month history of right-sided hip pain....

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman presents with a four month history of right-sided hip pain. The pain has developed without any apparent cause and is mainly felt on the outer side of the hip. It is particularly severe at night when she lies on her right side. Upon examination, there is a complete range of motion in the hip joint, including internal and external rotation. However, deep palpation of the lateral aspect of the right hip joint reproduces the pain. An x-ray of the right hip reveals a normal appearance with only minor joint space narrowing. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Greater trochanteric pain syndrome

      Explanation:

      Trochanteric bursitis is no longer the preferred term and has been replaced by greater trochanteric pain syndrome. The x-ray reveals joint space narrowing, which is a common occurrence. Osteoarthritis is unlikely due to the palpable pain and short duration of symptoms.

      Causes of Hip Pain in Adults

      Hip pain in adults can be caused by a variety of conditions. Osteoarthritis is a common cause, with pain that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. Reduced internal rotation is often the first sign, and risk factors include age, obesity, and previous joint problems. Inflammatory arthritis can also cause hip pain, with pain typically worse in the morning and accompanied by systemic features and raised inflammatory markers. Referred lumbar spine pain may be caused by femoral nerve compression, which can be tested with a positive femoral nerve stretch test. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, or trochanteric bursitis, is caused by repeated movement of the iliotibial band and is most common in women aged 50-70 years. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and typically presents as a burning sensation over the antero-lateral aspect of the thigh. Avascular necrosis may have gradual or sudden onset and may follow high dose steroid therapy or previous hip fracture or dislocation. Pubic symphysis dysfunction is common in pregnancy and presents with pain over the pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thighs, often with a waddling gait. Transient idiopathic osteoporosis is an uncommon condition sometimes seen in the third trimester of pregnancy, with groin pain and limited range of movement in the hip, and patients may be unable to weight bear. ESR may be elevated in this condition.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old man has been receiving weekly intramuscular injections for rheumatoid arthritis for...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has been receiving weekly intramuscular injections for rheumatoid arthritis for the past 8 weeks. Routine urinalysis shows that he has a proteinuria.
      Which of the following is he most likely to have been prescribed?

      Your Answer: d-Penicillamine

      Correct Answer: Gold

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis can be treated with various drugs, including gold, infliximab, d-penicillamine, leflunomide, and celecoxib. Gold is given by injection and can cause side effects such as glomerulonephritis. Infliximab is administered intravenously and can lead to infections and autoimmune syndromes. D-penicillamine can cause proteinuria and is taken orally. Leflunomide blocks T cell expansion and can cause diarrhea, nausea, and abnormal blood test results. Celecoxib is an NSAID taken orally and can increase the risk of vascular events and gastrointestinal issues. Understanding the different drug categories and their side effects is important for effective treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Monitoring for side effects is necessary for all disease-modifying drugs.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old man undergoes surgical resection of the terminal ileum for stricturing Crohn's...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man undergoes surgical resection of the terminal ileum for stricturing Crohn's disease. His gastroenterologist decides to begin azathioprine for remission maintenance after the surgery. What is the crucial enzyme level to test before starting this treatment?

      Your Answer: Alanine transaminase (ALT)

      Correct Answer: Thiopurine S-methyltransferase (TPMT)

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 11 - A 12-year-old boy is presented for surgery by his mother. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is presented for surgery by his mother. He has been experiencing pain in his distal right thigh for the past two weeks, which worsens when he runs. Upon examination, he is found to be overweight and has full mobility in his right knee. He can fully flex his right hip, but internal rotation causes discomfort. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trochanteric bursitis

      Correct Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hip Problems in Children

      Hip problems in children can be caused by a variety of conditions. Developmental dysplasia of the hip is often detected during newborn examinations and can be identified through positive Barlow’s and Ortolani’s tests, as well as unequal skin folds or leg length. Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is the most common cause of hip pain in children aged 2-10 years and is associated with acute hip pain and viral infections.

      Perthes disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children between the ages of 4-8 years. It is more common in boys and can cause hip pain, stiffness, and reduced range of motion. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is another condition that typically affects children aged 10-15 years, particularly those who are obese or male. It can cause knee or thigh pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion.

      Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is a type of arthritis that occurs in children under 16 years old and lasts for more than three months. Pauciarticular JIA, which affects four or fewer joints, is the most common type and can cause joint pain and swelling, as well as a limp. Finally, septic arthritis is an acute condition that causes hip pain and systemic upset, such as fever and severe limitation of the affected joint.

      Overall, hip problems in children can have a variety of causes and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate treatment.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old patient complains of a painful swollen left knee that has not...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old patient complains of a painful swollen left knee that has not improved after a week of rest. The patient denies any history of injury. Upon examination, a moderate-sized effusion is observed. A plain radiograph reveals the following findings: some joint space loss and linear calcification of the articular cartilage. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Chondrocalcinosis is a useful indicator for differentiating between pseudogout and gout.

      The presence of chondrocalcinosis can be observed in an x-ray, which helps to distinguish between pseudogout and gout. In older individuals, joint space loss and osteoarthritic-like changes are common and may be caused by pseudogout.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 13 - A 49-year-old man goes for a routine medical check-up for his new job....

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man goes for a routine medical check-up for his new job. He has no complaints and his physical examination is unremarkable. Blood tests are conducted and all results are normal except for:
      Uric acid 0.66 mmol/l (0.18-0.48 mmol/l)
      After reading online, the patient is concerned about his chances of developing gout. What treatment should be initiated based on this finding?

      Your Answer: Colchicine

      Correct Answer: No treatment

      Explanation:

      NICE does not recommend treating asymptomatic hyperuricaemia as a means of preventing gout. While high levels of serum uric acid are associated with gout, it is possible to have hyperuricaemia without experiencing any symptoms. NICE has found that attempting to prevent gout in this way is not cost-effective or beneficial for patients. Instead, lifestyle changes such as reducing consumption of red meat, alcohol, and sugar can help lower uric acid levels without the need for medication. The other options listed may be appropriate for treating gout, but are not recommended in the absence of symptoms.

      Understanding Hyperuricaemia

      Hyperuricaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of uric acid in the blood. This can be caused by either increased cell turnover or reduced renal excretion of uric acid. While some patients may not experience any symptoms, hyperuricaemia may be associated with hyperlipidaemia, hypertension, and the metabolic syndrome.

      There are several factors that can contribute to increased uric acid synthesis, including Lesch-Nyhan disease, myeloproliferative disorders, a diet rich in purines, exercise, psoriasis, and cytotoxics. On the other hand, decreased excretion of uric acid can be caused by drugs such as low-dose aspirin, diuretics, and pyrazinamide, as well as pre-eclampsia, alcohol consumption, renal failure, and lead exposure.

      It is important to understand the underlying causes of hyperuricaemia in order to properly manage and treat the condition. By identifying and addressing the contributing factors, healthcare professionals can help prevent complications such as gout and kidney stones.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of joint pain. She has previously...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of joint pain. She has previously sought medical attention for this issue, but her high BMI of 30 kg/m² was deemed to be the cause and weight loss was recommended. Upon examination, the doctor notes a significant effusion in her left knee and limited range of motion. The metacarpophalangeal joints in her right hand appear swollen and her fingers have a sausage-like appearance. Her left hand does not show any obvious deformities. The patient has tested positive for HLA-B27 and has a blood pressure of 138/87 mmHg and a temperature of 36.7ºC. Based on this information, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that can occur without prior psoriatic skin lesions and is often associated with dactylitis, also known as ‘sausage fingers’. HLA-B27 is commonly found in patients with psoriatic arthritis. Gout is unlikely in a woman under 60 and typically affects the big toe joint. Rheumatoid arthritis is also unlikely as it causes symmetrical polyarthritis and is associated with HLA-DRB1 rather than HLA-B27. Therefore, given the patient’s age, sex, dactylitis, and nail changes, psoriatic arthritis is a more likely diagnosis.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

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  • Question 15 - A woman in her early 50s with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her early 50s with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with right foot drop and numbness in her right hand, with thenar eminence wasting and sensory loss over the radial half of her hand.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause for her symptoms?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate cause from the list below.

      Your Answer: Peripheral sensory neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Mononeuritis multiplex

      Explanation:

      Neuropathies: Causes and Symptoms

      Neuropathies are a group of disorders that affect the peripheral nervous system. Here are some common causes and symptoms of different types of neuropathies:

      Mononeuritis Multiplex:
      This neuropathy affects two or more non-anatomically related peripheral nerves. It is caused by vasculopathy of the vasa nervorum or infiltration of the nerves. Common causes include diabetes mellitus, leprosy, polyarteritis nodosa, and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms include multiple concurrent peripheral nerve lesions without pain or paraesthesiae.

      Peripheral Sensory Neuropathy:
      This neuropathy is most commonly caused by diabetes mellitus (types 1 and 2) in the United Kingdom. It affects the sensory nerves and does not involve motor functions. Symptoms include aching pain, paraesthesiae, sensory loss, and muscle wasting.

      Entrapment Neuropathy:
      This neuropathy is caused by compression of peripheral nerves due to hypertrophied synovium or joint subluxation. It usually affects only one part of the body. The most common nerve compressions are cubital tunnel and carpal tunnel syndromes. Symptoms include aching pain, paraesthesiae, sensory loss, and muscle wasting.

      Myasthenia Gravis (MG):
      This autoimmune disorder affects the neuromuscular junction and causes fatigability of the muscle. It commonly affects the extraocular, bulbar, face, and neck muscles. Symptoms do not include pain or sensory loss, and wasting is only seen very late in the disease.

      Multiple Sclerosis:
      This autoimmune disorder affects the central nervous system and causes spasticity, ataxia, and paraesthesiae in the affected limbs. It commonly affects the optic nerve, causing optic neuritis. Peripheral nerve involvement is not seen.

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  • Question 16 - A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of worsening...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of worsening painless muscle weakness of six months’ duration. She reports difficulty rising from a chair, climbing stairs, and combing her hair. On examination, mild tenderness is noted in her upper arms and thighs. Her thyroid function tests, full blood count, and glycosylated haemoglobin are normal. Serum antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) and rheumatoid factor (RF) are positive, and her creatine kinase (CK) is markedly raised. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Conditions: Differentiating Polymyositis from Other Disorders

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory myopathy that causes gradual, symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, which is rarely painful. However, other autoimmune conditions can present with similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate between them. Here are some key differences:

      Systemic sclerosis: This condition causes abnormal growth of connective tissue, leading to vascular damage and fibrosis. Proximal muscle weakness is not a feature of systemic sclerosis, but patients may experience calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia.

      Polymyalgia rheumatica: This inflammatory condition causes bilateral pain and stiffness of proximal muscles, particularly the shoulders and pelvic girdle. However, painless proximal muscle weakness is not typical of polymyalgia rheumatica, and positive RF or ANA are not seen in this condition.

      Sjögren syndrome: This autoimmune condition is characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of exocrine glands, leading to dry eyes and dry mouth. While ANAs and RF may be positive in this condition, proximal myopathy is not a feature.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE): This multi-system autoimmune condition usually presents in women of childbearing age with remitting and relapsing symptoms. While ANA antibodies are often positive in SLE, CK is not usually raised, and painless proximal muscle weakness is not typical. The presence of anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid antibodies or low complement levels are more specific markers of SLE.

      In summary, while these autoimmune conditions may share some symptoms, careful evaluation can help differentiate between them and lead to appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 17 - A 60-year-old African American male presents with widespread bone pain and muscle weakness....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old African American male presents with widespread bone pain and muscle weakness. Upon investigation, the following results were obtained:
      Calcium 2.05 mmol/l
      Phosphate 0.68 mmol/l
      ALP 340 U/l
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bone tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia may be indicated by bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy (resulting in a waddling gait), as well as low levels of calcium and phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphatase.

      Understanding Osteomalacia

      Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.

      The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.

      The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision where he was the driver. A lorry in front lost control and caused significant damage to his car, resulting in the dashboard and footwell being pushed forward. The patient is currently stable but complains of severe pain in his right leg. Upon examination, his right leg is internally rotated, slightly flexed, adducted, and shortened compared to the left. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Femoral shaft fracture

      Correct Answer: Posterior hip dislocation

      Explanation:

      When a person has a posterior hip dislocation, their leg will appear shortened and internally rotated. This type of injury often occurs during car accidents, especially when the driver slams on the brakes to avoid a collision. The impact from the front of the car is then transferred through the leg to the hip joint, causing the femoral head to move behind the acetabulum. Pelvic fractures, on the other hand, typically cause pain when walking or touching the area, as well as instability, nerve or blood vessel damage in the leg, and signs of injury to pelvic organs such as bleeding from the rectum or blood in the urine. Anterior hip dislocations are less common than posterior ones, but they can cause the leg to appear abducted and externally rotated, with a noticeable bulge in the femoral head. These types of dislocations are often associated with hip prostheses. Finally, femoral shaft fractures can cause swelling, deformity, and shortening of the leg. Because such fractures require a significant amount of force to occur, there is usually also damage to the surrounding soft tissues and bleeding.

      Understanding Hip Dislocation: Types, Management, and Complications

      Hip dislocation is a painful condition that occurs when the ball and socket joint of the hip are separated. This is usually caused by direct trauma, such as road traffic accidents or falls from a significant height. The force required to cause hip dislocation can also result in other fractures and life-threatening injuries. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to reduce morbidity.

      There are three types of hip dislocation: posterior, anterior, and central. Posterior dislocation is the most common, accounting for 90% of cases. It causes the affected leg to be shortened, adducted, and internally rotated. On the other hand, anterior dislocation results in abduction and external rotation of the affected leg, with no leg shortening. Central dislocation is rare and occurs when the femoral head is displaced in all directions.

      The management of hip dislocation follows the ABCDE approach, which includes ensuring airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure. Analgesia is also given to manage the pain. A reduction under general anaesthetic is performed within four hours to reduce the risk of avascular necrosis. Long-term management involves physiotherapy to strengthen the surrounding muscles.

      Complications of hip dislocation include nerve injury, avascular necrosis, osteoarthritis, and recurrent dislocation due to damage to supporting ligaments. The prognosis is best when the hip is reduced less than 12 hours post-injury and when there is less damage to the joint. It takes about two to three months for the hip to heal after a traumatic dislocation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 19 - A 26-year-old nulliparous female with a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old nulliparous female with a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis presents with shortness of breath. The full blood count and clotting screen reveals the following results:

      Hb 12.4 g/dl
      Plt 137
      WBC 7.5 * 109/l
      PT 14 secs
      APTT 46 secs

      What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Antithrombin III deficiency

      Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is the most probable diagnosis due to the paradoxical occurrence of prolonged APTT and low platelets.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of bilateral knee pain...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of bilateral knee pain while walking, which has been gradually worsening over the past 12 months. He denies any history of trauma and has no early-morning pain or stiffness. During examination, both knees are swollen, there is tenderness over the medial joint lines bilaterally, and crepitus on flexion of both knees is observed. What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: No investigation necessary

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Osteoarthritis: When are they necessary?

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a condition that affects synovial joints, resulting in damage to the joints and loss of cartilage, bone remodelling, and osteophyte formation. While any synovial joint can be affected, the most common areas are the hip, knees, and fingers. In individuals over 45 years old with clear signs and symptoms of OA, a clinical diagnosis can be made without the need for investigation.

      Typical signs of OA include pain that is activity-related rather than early-morning pain and stiffness, making an inflammatory cause for the symptoms unlikely. While an X-ray may show changes such as reduced joint space and osteophyte formation, it is not necessary to confirm the diagnosis in individuals over 45 years old with typical signs or symptoms. However, an X-ray may be indicated in patients over 55 years old with knee pain following trauma or if the cause of non-traumatic joint pain is unclear from history and examination alone.

      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific inflammatory marker that may be raised in response to active infection or inflammation. However, it would not be helpful in diagnosing OA unless the diagnosis was unclear and inflammatory conditions needed to be excluded. Similarly, rheumatoid factor, an autoantibody present in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, is unlikely to be present in individuals with OA.

      Serum uric acid measurement may be indicated if gout is suspected, as hyperuricaemia can cause gout by forming uric acid crystals in joints. However, gout presents acutely with severe pain, swelling, redness, and heat to the affected joint, unlike the gradual onset of symptoms in OA. Uric acid measurement may be normal during an acute attack and should be checked following resolution of an acute attack.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 21 - A 21-year-old soccer player comes to you with complaints of shoulder and lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old soccer player comes to you with complaints of shoulder and lower back pain. He reports that his back has been getting stiffer over the past few months and has worsened. During the examination, you find out that he is also experiencing enthesitis of the Achilles tendon. You suspect a particular diagnosis and want to confirm it. What antigen's presence would confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HLA-B26

      Correct Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology Outpatients by her General Practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology Outpatients by her General Practitioner with a history of symptoms that highly resemble rheumatoid arthritis.
      Which one of the following X-ray findings would indicate a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Osteophytes

      Correct Answer: Juxta-articular osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Common X-Ray Findings in Arthritis

      Arthritis is a condition that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and inflammation. X-rays are often used to diagnose and monitor arthritis, as they can reveal changes in the bones and joints. Here are some common X-ray findings in arthritis:

      Juxta-articular osteoporosis/osteopenia: This is an early X-ray feature of rheumatoid arthritis, characterized by a loss of bone density around the joints.

      Loss of joint space: Both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis can cause joint space narrowing, which occurs when the cartilage no longer keeps the bones a normal distance apart. This can be painful, as the bones rub or put too much pressure on each other.

      Osteophytes: These are bony lumps (bone spurs) that grow on the bones of the spine or around the joints. They often form next to joints affected by osteoarthritis.

      Subchondral cysts: This is a feature of a degenerative process (osteoarthritis). A subchondral cyst is a fluid-filled space inside a joint that extends from one of the bones that form the joint.

      Subchondral sclerosis: This is a thickening of bone that happens in joints affected by osteoarthritis.

      Overall, X-rays can provide valuable information about the progression of arthritis and help guide treatment decisions.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 23 - A 56-year-old man is recuperating after experiencing his initial bout of gout. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is recuperating after experiencing his initial bout of gout. He continues to experience some persistent discomfort in his big toe. He has no predisposing factors for gout and no signs of gouty tophi upon examination. At what point would it be appropriate to initiate uric acid-lowering treatment?

      Your Answer: If one further attack of gout in the next 12 months

      Correct Answer: Once his symptoms of acute gout have resolved

      Explanation:

      It is now recommended to offer allopurinol to all patients after their first gout attack, without delay. However, it is advised to wait until the inflammation has subsided before discussing urate-lowering therapy with the patient. If the attacks are too frequent, allopurinol can be considered even before the inflammation has completely settled. These recommendations are provided by the 2017 British Society for Rheumatology and NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of swelling, pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of swelling, pain and stiffness in her fingers on both hands for the past few weeks. During examination, she is found to be afebrile and her fingers are generally swollen and sausage-shaped. Her nails are also pitted with onycholysis.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for her condition?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Arthritis: A Brief Overview

      Arthritis is a common condition that affects millions of people worldwide. However, not all types of arthritis are the same. Here is a brief overview of some of the most common types of arthritis and how they differ from each other.

      Psoriatic Arthritis: This type of arthritis is often seen in people with psoriasis and is characterized by painful, swollen joints. Dactylitis, or swelling of the whole digit causing ‘sausage-shaped’ fingers or toes, is a common feature. Nail changes, such as pitting and onycholysis, are also associated with psoriatic arthritis.

      Gonococcal Arthritis: This is a type of septic arthritis caused by the sexually transmitted infection Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It typically presents with fever, a rash, and an acutely swollen joint, but there is no nail involvement.

      Osteoarthritis (OA): This is a disease of synovial joints in which there is a loss of cartilage. It is uncommon for OA to be diagnosed in anyone under the age of 45. Dactylitis and nail changes are not associated with OA.

      Reactive Arthritis: This is a sterile arthritis occurring following an infection, usually either an acute gastrointestinal or sexually transmitted infection. The clinical features of dactylitis and nail changes described in this case are not associated with reactive arthritis.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA): This is an inflammatory condition that tends to affect the small joints of the hands but can affect any synovial joint. Nail changes are not usually associated with RA, and general swelling of the whole digit (dactylitis) is not a typical feature.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of arthritis and their unique features is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 25 - A 26-year-old female comes to your clinic after experiencing recurrent miscarriages and no...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female comes to your clinic after experiencing recurrent miscarriages and no successful pregnancies. She has been referred to you for further evaluation. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
      - APTT: 42 (normal range: 27-35)
      - Platelets: 95 (normal range: 150-400)
      - PT: 12 seconds (normal range: 11-14)
      What could be the possible reason for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune thrombocytopenia (AITP)

      Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by an elevated APTT and normal PT, and can lead to thrombocytopenia. AITP only causes a decrease in platelets, while vWD and hemophilia A only affect the APTT. Although unfractionated heparin can prolong the APTT, low platelets are a rare long-term side effect and are unlikely to be the cause of her repeated miscarriages.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing fever and passing seven loose, bloody stools per day for the past 48 hours. The patient is diagnosed with a severe flare-up of ulcerative colitis. Additionally, he has a known anaphylactic allergy to aspirin. Considering his medical history, which medication should be approached with the most caution when treating this patient?

      Your Answer: Infliximab

      Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 27 - An 80-year-old man presents to his GP with difficulty extending his ring and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to his GP with difficulty extending his ring and little finger on his left hand. Upon examination, the GP notes thickening of the palm and limited extension of the metacarpophalangeal joints, leading to a diagnosis of Dupuytren's contracture. The patient has a medical history of psoriasis, epilepsy, heart failure, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which medication prescribed to the patient is most commonly linked to the development of this condition?

      Your Answer: Atorvastatin

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin treatment may lead to the development of Dupuytren’s contracture as a potential adverse effect.

      Understanding Dupuytren’s Contracture

      Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects about 5% of the population. It is more common in older men and those with a family history of the condition. The causes of Dupuytren’s contracture include manual labor, phenytoin treatment, alcoholic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, and trauma to the hand.

      The condition typically affects the ring finger and little finger, causing them to become bent and difficult to straighten. In severe cases, the hand may not be able to be placed flat on a table.

      Surgical treatment may be necessary when the metacarpophalangeal joints cannot be straightened.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old African female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of escalating pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old African female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of escalating pain in her shoulders and thighs over the past week. She also reports aggravated knee pain. She was recently diagnosed with tuberculosis and has been taking the required medications. Her musculoskeletal symptoms disappear after discontinuing isoniazid. What type of antibodies are linked to her condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-Scl70 antibody

      Correct Answer: Antihistone antibody

      Explanation:

      The presence of antihistone antibodies is linked to drug-induced lupus, which is the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms. One of the drugs she was taking, isoniazid, is known to cause this condition. Rheumatoid factor is typically found in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, while anti Jo-1 antibody is associated with polymyositis and anti-Scl70 antibody is linked to diffuse systemic sclerosis.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Lupus

      Drug-induced lupus is a condition that shares some similarities with systemic lupus erythematosus, but not all of its typical features are present. Unlike SLE, renal and nervous system involvement is rare in drug-induced lupus. The good news is that this condition usually resolves once the drug causing it is discontinued.

      The most common symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint pain, muscle pain, skin rashes (such as the malar rash), and pulmonary issues like pleurisy. In terms of laboratory findings, patients with drug-induced lupus typically test positive for ANA (antinuclear antibodies) but negative for dsDNA (double-stranded DNA) antibodies. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith antibodies are only present in around 5% of cases.

      The most common drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. Other less common culprits include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 29 - You assess a 23-year-old man who has recently been released from the local...

    Correct

    • You assess a 23-year-old man who has recently been released from the local hospital after having a pneumothorax drained. This is his second admission in two years for the same issue. Upon examination today, his chest is clear with good air entry in all fields. However, you observe that he has pectus excavatum. He is 1.83m tall and weighs 72 kg. The only other relevant medical history is joint hypermobility, for which he was referred to a physiotherapist last year. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Marfan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The presence of recurrent pneumothoraces and joint hypermobility suggests the possibility of Marfan’s syndrome.

      Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome

      Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the defective gene from one parent to develop the condition. Marfan’s syndrome affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.

      The features of Marfan’s syndrome include a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05, a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, individuals with Marfan’s syndrome may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm. They may also have lung issues such as repeated pneumothoraces. Eye problems are also common, including upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, and myopia. Finally, dural ectasia, or ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level, may also occur.

      In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan’s syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and the use of beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, this has improved significantly in recent years. Despite these improvements, aortic dissection and other cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old woman complains of right elbow pain that has been persistent for...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman complains of right elbow pain that has been persistent for the last month without any apparent cause. During examination, she experiences pain when resisting wrist extension while the elbow is extended. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral epicondylitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.

      To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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