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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are taking the family history of an adult whom you suspect may have a cancer.
Which of the following conditions would alert you to an increased risk of cancer?Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis
Explanation:Syndromes and their Association with Cancer
There are certain syndromes that have been linked to an increased risk of developing certain types of cancer. Down’s syndrome, for example, has been associated with leukaemia, while neurofibromatosis, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, has been linked to CNS tumours. Other rare syndromes have also been linked to certain cancers.
It is important for primary healthcare professionals to be aware of these associations and to be vigilant for any unexplained symptoms in children or young people with these syndromes. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for these patients. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to stay informed and up-to-date on the latest research and recommendations regarding these syndromes and their potential links to cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is true about malignant melanoma in the UK?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malignant transformation in common moles is about 1:10,000
Explanation:Malignant Melanoma: Types, Incidence, and Demographics
Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can occur not only on the skin but also on mucosal surfaces such as the subungual, buccal, and anal areas. While most cases of melanoma occur on the trunk or legs, it can also present in other areas. The incidence of malignant melanoma has been rapidly increasing in white populations worldwide, with a threefold increase in Great Britain from 1971 to 1996.
Amelanotic malignant melanoma is a type of melanoma that lacks pigment and is often associated with metastasis to the skin. It is believed that more than 50% of cases arise without a pre-existing pigmented lesion. Tumour size is only one of the criteria used in the 2009 AJCC Melanoma Staging and Classification.
According to Cancer Research UK, the demographics of malignant melanoma in the UK show that it is more common in females than males and is most frequently diagnosed in people aged 65-69. It is also more common in affluent areas and in those with fair skin, light hair, and blue or green eyes. Regular skin checks and sun protection are important in preventing and detecting malignant melanoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father. She has been experiencing coryza and a fever of 37.8ÂşC for the past 3 days. This morning her father noticed a red rash with a slapped cheek appearance on both cheeks and pallor surrounding her mouth. What is the most probable organism responsible for this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19
Explanation:The cause of the boy’s symptoms, which include a red rash following coryza and fever, is erythema infectiosum, also known as slapped-cheek syndrome. This infection is caused by parvovirus b19, a common organism responsible for childhood infections.
The table summarizes the main characteristics of childhood infections including Chickenpox, measles, mumps, rubella, erythema infectiosum, scarlet fever, and hand, foot and mouth disease. Each infection has its own set of symptoms such as fever, rash, and lymphadenopathy. Some infections have specific identifying features such as Koplik spots in measles and a ‘slapped-cheek’ rash in erythema infectiosum. Hand, foot and mouth disease is caused by the coxsackie A16 virus and presents with vesicles in the mouth and on the palms and soles of the feet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening pain and fever following a dental extraction 5 days ago. He is usually in good health. On examination, he has a tender swelling in the left submandibular region and mild trismus. His tongue is slightly displaced upwards and he is unable to protrude it. There is no respiratory distress or stridor. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a 999 ambulance for immediate transfer to hospital
Explanation:Ludwig’s Angina is a medical emergency that falls under the domain of ENT. The patient in question is displaying symptoms and indications that suggest the presence of this rare infection, which affects the soft tissues of the neck and the floor of the mouth. While it is typically caused by dental issues, it can also arise from other types of soft tissue infections in the neck. Due to the effectiveness of modern antibiotics and dental hygiene, Ludwig’s Angina is now quite uncommon, and many physicians may not be familiar with its presentation. However, it can lead to rapid deterioration and airway obstruction within a matter of minutes, necessitating immediate airway management and aggressive surgical intervention. If there is any suspicion of Ludwig’s Angina, it is crucial to transfer the patient to the emergency department without delay.
Understanding Ludwig’s Angina
Ludwig’s angina is a serious form of cellulitis that affects the soft tissues of the neck and the floor of the mouth. It is usually caused by an infection that originates from the teeth and spreads to the submandibular space. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as neck swelling, fever, and difficulty swallowing.
Ludwig’s angina is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention as it can lead to airway obstruction, which can be life-threatening. The management of this condition involves airway management and the administration of intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are asked to assess an elderly 83-year-old man who has advanced prostate cancer and is experiencing poor appetite and anorexia. Upon further inquiry, he reports that his nausea is well-managed with cyclizine as needed, and he doesn't have any difficulty swallowing. His pain is adequately controlled, and he has regular bowel movements. What would be the most beneficial approach in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nutritional supplements alongside any tolerated diet
Explanation:Addressing Lack of Appetite in Palliative Care Patients
A thorough history and clinical examination are crucial in identifying the underlying cause of anorexia and lack of appetite in palliative care patients. Pain, constipation, nausea, vomiting, and dysphagia are some of the potential causes that need to be treated accordingly. However, if the primary cause is a lack of appetite, specific measures should be taken to address it.
Home care input may not be effective in improving appetite, and changing antiemetics is unnecessary if the current medication is working well. Nutritional supplements may aid in caloric intake, but addressing the lack of appetite is still the priority. Referral for PEG feeding is not appropriate if there are no physical problems preventing oral intake.
The best option to stimulate appetite and improve oral intake is a course of prednisolone or dexamethasone. These corticosteroids have been proven to increase appetite and enjoyment of food in many patients. Progestogens are also effective but are more expensive.
In conclusion, addressing the lack of appetite in palliative care patients is crucial in improving their quality of life. A thorough assessment of the underlying cause is necessary, and appropriate measures should be taken to address it. Corticosteroids such as prednisolone and dexamethasone are effective in stimulating appetite and improving oral intake.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a urethral discharge.
Upon laboratory examination of the discharge, it is revealed that there are numerous neutrophils present, some of which contain Gram negative intracellular diplococci.
The patient is administered ceftriaxone 250 mg intramuscularly, which initially resolves the symptoms. However, the patient returns five days later with the same complaint.
What is the most probable cause of this discharge?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Chlamydia: A Common and Often Asymptomatic STD
Chlamydia is a prevalent sexually transmitted disease that often goes unnoticed due to its asymptomatic nature. In fact, 75% of women and 25% of men with Chlamydia show no symptoms, making it difficult to detect and treat. However, this disease can have serious consequences, including infertility.
In men, the main symptoms of Chlamydia include clear, white, or yellow discharge from the urethra, dysuria, and tingling or itching sensations. It is important to note that Chlamydia often co-occurs with Gonorrhoea, and patients should be treated for both if Gonorrhoea is suspected. Failure to treat both infections can result in the return of symptoms and potential complications. Therefore, it is crucial to practice safe sex and get tested regularly to prevent the spread of Chlamydia and other STDs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman, who recently gave birth, visits her GP for a routine check-up. She expresses her worries about the medications she is taking for her different health conditions and their potential impact on her breastfeeding baby. Which medications are safe for her to continue taking?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Breastfeeding is generally safe with most anti-epileptic drugs, including the commonly prescribed Lamotrigine. This drug is often preferred for women as it doesn’t affect their ability to bear children. However, Carbimazole and Diazepam’s active metabolite can be passed on to the baby through breast milk and should be avoided. Isotretinoin’s effect on breastfed infants is not well studied, but oral retinoids should generally be avoided while breastfeeding.
Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important to aim for monotherapy and to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, with sodium valproate being associated with neural tube defects, carbamazepine being considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics, and phenytoin being associated with cleft palate. Lamotrigine may be a safer option, but the dose may need to be adjusted during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn. It is important to seek specialist neurological or psychiatric advice before starting or continuing antiepileptic medication during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age. Recent evidence has shown a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of sodium valproate, leading to recommendations that it should not be used during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age unless absolutely necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought in by his parents with a 3-week history of violent paroxysms of coughing that end in an inspiratory whoop. He often vomits with the coughing attacks. He and his parents are exhausted.
Select from the list the single correct statement about whooping cough.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coughing may last up to 100 days
Explanation:Treatment and Prevention of Pertussis
Pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough, is a highly contagious respiratory disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. Treatment with antibiotics can reduce the infectivity of the disease, but it doesn’t shorten the duration of the illness. Macrolide antibiotics are the preferred treatment for pertussis.
Immunization is the most effective way to prevent pertussis. However, the vaccine provides only 95% protection and relies on a degree of herd immunity. Infants less than 6 months old and any unwell child should be admitted to the hospital for treatment.
If left untreated, pertussis can lead to complications such as bronchiectasis and pneumonia. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you or your child has pertussis. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent the spread of the disease and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old insulin-treated diabetic complains of severe burning pain in his feet, particularly at night, pins and needles, and hyperaesthesia for several months. On examination his feet have normal pulses, sensation and reflexes.
Select the single correct statement regarding his management.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duloxetine should be prescribed
Explanation:Treatment Options for Painful Diabetic Neuropathy
Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common complication of diabetes that can significantly impact a person’s quality of life. While there is no cure for neuropathy, there are several treatment options available to manage the symptoms.
Improved diabetic control is the first line of defense in preventing the progression of neuropathy. However, it is important to note that good control doesn’t reverse neuropathy. In cases where diabetic control alone is not enough, medications such as duloxetine, amitriptyline, gabapentin, or pregabalin may be prescribed. These drugs are suggested by NICE as options for managing neuropathic pain.
For localized neuropathy, capsaicin 0.0075% cream can be used. Tramadol may also be prescribed on a short-term basis while a patient awaits an appointment with a specialized pain service.
In cases of Raynaud’s phenomenon, calcium antagonists are used. Epidural injections of local anesthetic and steroid may be used for acute sciatica. However, fluoxetine is not recommended as a treatment option.
Overall, there are several treatment options available for managing painful diabetic neuropathy. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.
Managing Painful Diabetic Neuropathy: Treatment Options
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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To assess a new diagnostic test, 300 patients aged 50 and above are evaluated using both the new test and the current gold-standard test for diagnosis.
The new test is observed to have a sensitivity of 80%, specificity of 60%, a positive predictive value of 66.7% and a negative predictive value of 75%.
What is the positive likelihood ratio of the test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:To calculate the positive likelihood ratio, divide the sensitivity by 1 minus the specificity. For this scenario, the positive likelihood ratio is 2, which is obtained by dividing 0.8 by 0.4 (1 minus 0.6).
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old Asian female presents with gingival hypertrophy. What is the most likely cause of her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Causes of Gum Hypertrophy
Gum hypertrophy, or an abnormal increase in the size of the gums, can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is the use of certain drugs such as phenytoin, which is used to treat seizures. Acute myeloid leukaemias can also lead to gum hypertrophy.
Scurvy, a condition caused by vitamin C deficiency, can result in swollen and bleeding gums, but it is not typically associated with true gingival hypertrophy. Instead, petechiae, or small red or purple spots, may appear on the mucosae.
Lead toxicity can cause pigmentation of the gums, while carbamazepine, a medication used to treat seizures and bipolar disorder, is not typically associated with gum hypertrophy. However, it can cause other side effects such as ataxia, drowsiness, and blood dyscrasias.
In summary, while gum hypertrophy can be caused by various factors, phenytoin and acute myeloid leukaemias are the most likely culprits. Scurvy may cause swollen and bleeding gums, but it is not typically associated with true gingival hypertrophy. Lead toxicity can cause pigmentation of the gums, while carbamazepine is not typically associated with gum hypertrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with COPD and no other co-morbidities is being seen in the respiratory outpatient department. He smoked 30 cigarettes a day for 40 years but has not smoked since his diagnosis of COPD 5 years ago. He has had his influenza and pneumococcal vaccinations and has attended pulmonary rehabilitation. He was admitted to hospital twice in the last year with exacerbations of COPD. A CT scan 6 months ago showed typical changes of COPD with no other evidence of other lung pathology. His pre-clinic bloods are as follows:
Hb 142 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 356 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 10.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 74 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 2 mg/L (< 5)
Bilirubin 6 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 46 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 15u/L (3 - 40)
ÎłGT 56 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 42 g/L (35 - 50)
What test should be done before starting azithromycin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ECG
Explanation:An ECG and baseline liver function tests should be performed prior to initiating azithromycin to ensure there is no prolonged QT interval and to establish a baseline for liver function. As the liver function tests in the question stem were normal, the most suitable option would be to conduct an ECG.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has metastatic breast cancer in her bones. Pain has been well controlled with modified-release morphine and she is still quite mobile. A palliative care nurse has given her a National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) Distress Thermometer for Patients. This is a visual analogue scale that records subjective distress on a scale of 0-10. She records 7-8 and most of this is recorded as being due to emotional issues (depression, nervousness, worry, loss of interest). She is assessed to have moderate depression with significant functional impairment. She declines psychological intervention, but would be happy to take medication.
Which of the following is the most appropriate medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Chlorine salicylate gel
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Select from the list the single patient who might benefit from receiving antibiotics if they are 65 years old.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 4-year-old with otitis media associated with otorrhoea
Explanation:Antibiotic Use in Children with Otitis Media and Sore Throat: NICE Guidelines and Cochrane Review
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend immediate antibiotic prescribing for children with otorrhoea and acute otitis media, as well as for children under 2 years with bilateral otitis media, those who are systemically unwell, have signs of complications, or have pre-existing co-morbidities. For children with acute sore throat and three or more Centor criteria, antibiotics may be considered due to the likelihood of a group A β-haemolytic streptococcus infection. However, a Cochrane review found that antibiotics provide only a small benefit for acute otitis media in children, and the possible adverse reactions must be weighed against this benefit. A pragmatic approach is to provide a prescription for antibiotics but advise parents to wait and see if it is necessary to have it dispensed based on worsening or prolonged symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman requests a steroid cream for her vulval itch. She mentions that her aunt recommended she get some from the GP, as it worked for her.
Would you kindly request the patient to come in for an in-person consultation?
What is the primary rationale for requesting the patient to come in?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Identification of an underlying cause for vulval itching is possible in patients
Explanation:Pruritus vulvae can usually be attributed to an underlying cause, which can be determined through a thorough history and physical examination. The most common cause is contact dermatitis, but there are various skin conditions and infections that can also lead to vulval itching, including psoriasis, lichen simplex/planus/sclerosus, candidiasis, trichomoniasis, scabies, pubic lice, and even (pre-)malignant conditions like VIN.
Prescribing medication over the phone, video-link, or online is permitted by the GMC, as long as the healthcare provider is satisfied with the consultation and has taken into account the limitations of the communication medium and the need for examination or access to the patient’s records.
The patient has control over their information and can disclose any relevant details over the phone. Depending on the potential diagnoses, swabs and urine samples may be necessary.
Pruritus vulvae, or vaginal itching, is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 10 women who may seek medical assistance at some point. Unlike pruritus ani, pruritus vulvae typically has an underlying cause. The most common cause is irritant contact dermatitis, which can be triggered by latex condoms or lubricants. Other potential causes include atopic dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and psoriasis, which is seen in around one-third of patients with psoriasis.
To manage pruritus vulvae, women should be advised to take showers instead of baths and clean the vulval area with an emollient such as Epaderm or Diprobase. It is recommended to clean only once a day as repeated cleaning can worsen the symptoms. Most of the underlying conditions can be treated with topical steroids. If seborrhoeic dermatitis is suspected, a combined steroid-antifungal treatment may be attempted. Overall, seeking medical advice is recommended for proper diagnosis and treatment of pruritus vulvae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated in surgery. She has asthma that is hard to manage and is presently on a tapering regimen of steroids. Her respiratory specialist has requested that you consider measures to protect her bones. Upon reviewing her medical history, it is discovered that she has undergone 11 rounds of oral prednisolone in the past year, some of which have lasted for more than a week. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a DEXA scan
Explanation:To protect the bones of patients who are taking corticosteroids, those who are under 65 years old should undergo a DEXA scan before any treatment is initiated. For those who are 65 years old or older, it is recommended to begin taking alendronate as a preventative measure.
Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids
Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.
The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.
The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man presents in a confused state. He is known to regularly smoke cannabis.
Which of the following physical signs is NOT a recognised feature of cannabis intoxication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sweating
Explanation:Understanding Cannabis Intoxication: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Cannabis intoxication refers to the problematic behavioural or psychological changes that occur after recent use of cannabis. These changes may include impaired motor coordination, euphoria, anxiety, a sensation of slowed time, impaired judgment, or social withdrawal. To diagnose cannabis intoxication, at least two physical signs must be present. However, sweating is not considered a recognized sign of cannabis intoxication, as it is more commonly associated with cannabis withdrawal. It is important for doctors to rule out any underlying medical conditions or mental disorders that may be causing the patient’s symptoms. This article provides an overview of the symptoms and diagnosis of cannabis intoxication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her son who is worried about her memory. A mini-mental state examination (scored out of 30) is conducted. What is the appropriate threshold to indicate the presence of dementia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 24 or less
Explanation:Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.
In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of painful swelling on the side of his anus that has been present for 10 days. Upon perianal examination, there is an inflamed, tender swelling that extends 12 cm lateral to the anus. Due to pain, a digital rectal examination was not performed. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischiorectal abscess
Explanation:Differentiating Anorectal Conditions: Ischiorectal Abscess, Rectocele, Inflamed Anal Skin Tag, Perianal Abscess, and Pilonidal Abscess
An ischiorectal abscess is a deeper and larger abscess that is further from the anus. It presents as a deep, tender swelling and may not have external signs until late. When it discharges, it does so through an external opening that is typically more than 5 cm from the anus.
A rectocele is a prolapse of the wall between the rectum and the vagina and is not usually painful. It is not present in male patients.
An anal skin tag is a fibro-epithelial polyp that hangs off the skin around the outside of the anus. It may become infected and inflamed, but it would not extend 12 cm from the anus.
A perianal abscess is a simple anorectal abscess that arises from glandular crypts in the anus or rectum. It presents as a red, tender swelling close to the anus.
A pilonidal abscess presents as a painful, tender lump in the natal cleft, which may be fluctuant and have a purulent discharge. It may also have accompanying cellulitis. However, the location described here is not consistent with a pilonidal abscess.
In summary, understanding the characteristics and locations of different anorectal conditions can aid in their differentiation and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old teacher has recently been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection, following a referral to the local gastroenterologist.
You have not yet received their clinic letter but the patient says that they explained to him that he will be starting treatment soon and wanted to ask you a few questions about the likely success.
Which of the following factors is associated with a good response to interferon alpha in patients with hepatitis C?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of cirrhosis
Explanation:Factors Affecting Response to Interferon Alpha in Hepatitis C Treatment
A high viral load, obesity, old age, cirrhosis, continued alcohol use, immune deficiency, poor adherence to treatment, and significant steatosis on liver biopsy are all factors that can affect the response rate to interferon alpha in hepatitis C treatment. Patients with genotype 1 infection and a high viral load are particularly at risk for a poor response to interferon alpha. On the other hand, patients with genotypes 2 or 3 infection and a short duration of disease have a better chance of responding well to treatment. The recommended duration of therapy also varies depending on the genotype. It is important to address these factors when considering treatment options for hepatitis C patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old male is admitted to the paediatric ward with malnutrition secondary to anorexia nervosa. The paediatrician ordered various tests, including a DEXA scan that revealed a Z score of -1.6.
What is the reference point used to calculate the Z score, comparing the patient's bone density?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bone mass of the young healthy female population
Explanation:The Z score in DEXA scans is adjusted based on the patient’s age, gender, and ethnicity. This score represents the number of standard deviations between the patient’s bone density and that of a population with similar demographic characteristics. A Z score below -2.0 indicates that the patient’s bone mass is lower than expected for their demographic. Z scores are typically used for children, men under 50, and premenopausal women. DEXA scans are a non-invasive and accurate imaging technique that uses X-rays to measure bone density and strength. They are helpful in diagnosing conditions such as osteopenia or osteoporosis, which can be associated with various factors such as anorexia nervosa, bulimia, long-term steroid use, and cancer.
Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis
When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has just been released from the hospital following a heart attack. He has a history of depression and is currently experiencing low mood. What is the antidepressant with the most safety evidence for patients with recent unstable angina or myocardial infarction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Sertraline as the Treatment of Choice for CHD Patients
NICE guidance recommends sertraline as the treatment of choice for patients with coronary heart disease (CHD) due to its safety and efficacy. Sertraline has been found to be cost-effective in a study conducted by O’Connor and colleagues in a hospitalised population with acute coronary syndrome. Although limited to one study, this evidence supports the use of sertraline in this population. Additionally, the SPS recommends sertraline as the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) of choice for CHD patients due to its lower propensity for interactions and the availability of more data on its use in a population with pre-existing heart disease compared to other SSRIs. Overall, sertraline is a safe and effective treatment option for CHD patients with depression or anxiety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of vulval itch and irritation. Upon examination, an area of inflammation and excoriation is found. She has no other dermatological conditions and is in a stable relationship.
What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She can be managed with a topical steroid and antifungal preparation
Explanation:Understanding Vulvovaginitis
Vulvovaginitis is a common condition that can have various causes, including lichen sclerosus, VIN, and other dermatological conditions. However, in young women, an inflammatory vulval dermatitis is often the culprit, triggered by factors such as soaps, frequent washing, perfumes, sanitary towels, douching, or candidiasis.
The initial treatment for this condition typically involves a combination of topical steroid and antifungal preparations. While STI screening and specialist referrals are not usually necessary, it’s important to offer a chaperone during same-sex examinations and consider them mandatory for opposite-sex examinations.
It’s worth noting that lack of estrogen is not typically a cause of vulvovaginitis, and vulval biopsy is not usually indicated based on the information available. By understanding the causes and appropriate treatments for vulvovaginitis, healthcare providers can help their patients manage this common condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has metastatic prostate cancer. Because he is now experiencing excessive fatigue, some routine blood tests are performed.
Which of the following findings would raise the most concern?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium 3.42 mmol/l
Explanation:Interpreting Blood Test Results: A Case Study of Hypercalcaemia
The patient’s blood test results show a serum calcium concentration of 3.42 mmol/l, indicating hypercalcaemia most likely caused by cancer. This constitutes an emergency, and the patient should be immediately offered admission to the hospital. Intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates are the usual management for hypercalcaemia. The other blood test results, including alanine aminotransferase, potassium, sodium, and urea, are all within normal limits or near the upper end of the reference range and are not a cause for concern. This case study highlights the importance of recognizing significant abnormalities in blood test results, especially in emergency situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a mild, resting tremor in his arms and legs. Upon examination, it is slightly more pronounced on his left side. There is also a slight stiffness and slowness of movement in his arms. His blood pressure measures 150/85 mmHg.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic Parkinson's disease (IPD)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Stiffness and Tremor
When presented with a patient exhibiting stiffness and tremor, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of this patient, the most likely diagnosis is idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (IPD), as the tremor is asymmetric and worsens at rest, and the patient displays slowness of movement and rigidity.
Cervical myelopathy is less likely, as it is characterized by neck pain with upper motor neuron signs in the legs and lower motor neuron signs in the arms, which are not present in this patient. Essential tremor, which is worse on movement, is also less likely, as the tremor described here is a resting tremor.
Hyperthyroidism could cause fine tremor and proximal muscle weakness, but no other specific features are seen in this patient. Ischaemic small-vessel disease (ISVD) can be associated with Parkinsonism, but the unilateral symptoms and lack of other neurological signs make IPD a more likely diagnosis.
In summary, when presented with a patient exhibiting stiffness and tremor, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses, but in this case, IPD is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are taking a history from a 21-year-old man. He reports difficulty sleeping at night due to concerns about abusing his special powers. He claims to be able to read other people's thoughts and sometimes feels he can control their hand movements. He believes this to be true because a passage in the Bible can be translated with a special code that dictates his powers. Additionally, he reports hearing voices talking about him.
What is the SINGLE CORRECT terminology for this type of delusion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusion of reference
Explanation:Understanding Delusions: False Beliefs and Their Types
Delusions are false beliefs that individuals hold onto despite evidence to the contrary. These beliefs are often maintained by altering other beliefs to keep their entire belief system consistent. There are several types of delusions, including delusions of reference, control, paranoia, replacement, and guilt.
Delusions of reference involve the belief that something innocent in the public domain holds a special meaning for the individual. Delusions of control consist of the belief that an external force is controlling the patient, often citing electricity or radio waves as the mediator. Paranoid delusions involve the belief that people or organizations are plotting to harm or harass the patient, while delusions of replacement occur when someone in the patient’s life has been replaced by an impostor. Delusions of guilt involve feeling guilty or remorseful for no valid reason.
Understanding the different types of delusions can help individuals recognize when someone they know may be experiencing them. It is important to seek professional help if someone is experiencing delusions, as they can be a symptom of a larger mental health issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman with stable sickle cell anaemia presents with an erythematous rash all over her body, which is associated with painful swollen joints. On examination she has clinical signs of anaemia. The full blood count shows absent reticulocytes in the peripheral blood.
Which pathogen is most likely to have caused her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19
Explanation:Parvovirus B19 Infection: Symptoms, Transmission, and Complications
Parvovirus B19 infection is a common viral illness that is primarily spread through respiratory droplets, but can also be transmitted through contaminated surfaces. Children between the ages of 6 and 10 are most commonly affected, with up to 70% of the population having been infected by the age of 20. Susceptible adults can also become infected, often through exposure to the virus from their own children. Epidemics tend to occur every 4-5 years, with peak infection rates in the winter and spring.
The most common symptom of parvovirus B19 infection is erythema infectiosum, a rash illness characterized by a red rash on the face and extremities. The rash typically appears 17-22 days after exposure to the virus and is preceded by mild fever and fatigue. In addition to the rash, more than 80% of adults with parvovirus B19 infection experience joint pain and swelling, particularly in the small joints of the hands and feet. A positive test for parvovirus B19-specific IgM indicates current or recent infection.
While parvovirus B19 infection typically doesn’t cause significant anemia in individuals with normal red-cell lifespan and function, it can lead to a more severe form of anemia called aplastic crisis in individuals with shortened red-cell lifespan, such as those with sickle-cell anemia. During the acute phase of aplastic crisis, there is a lack of reticulocytes in the blood and erythroid aplasia in the bone marrow. However, recovery is typically marked by the presence of reticulocytosis and giant pronormoblasts in the bone marrow.
In summary, parvovirus B19 infection is a common viral illness that can cause a range of symptoms, including rash and joint pain. While typically not severe, it can lead to complications in individuals with certain medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman who has had two Colle's fractures in the past two years undergoes a DEXA scan:
T-score
L2-4 -1.4
Femoral neck -2.7
What is the result of the scan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteopaenia in vertebrae, osteoporosis in femoral neck
Explanation:Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis
When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old teacher with a history of eczema, seasonal allergies and high blood pressure visits her doctor complaining of itchy hives on her arms after wearing latex gloves for 30 minutes. She reports no difficulty breathing or facial swelling. Her vital signs are within normal range.
What is the probable mechanism involved in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated hypersensitivity
Explanation:Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Characteristics
Hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses that can cause damage to the body. There are different types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with their own characteristics.
Immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated hypersensitivity is a type of reaction that involves the release of antibodies against an antigen, resulting in mast cell degranulation and the release of inflammatory mediators. This type of reaction is characterized by the presence of weals and occurs within one hour of contact with the allergen. Atopic individuals, such as those with asthma and hay fever, are more susceptible to this type of reaction.
Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions produce symptoms 48-72 hours after contact with an allergen. Allergic contact dermatitis is an example of this type of reaction, which causes redness, itching, swelling, blistering, or bumps on the skin.
Antibody-mediated cytotoxic reactions occur when antibodies bind to antigens on the cell surface, interfering with cell function and marking the cells for destruction. This type of reaction is the basis for autoimmune diseases and haemolytic diseases in newborns.
Contact irritant dermatitis occurs when irritants remove oils and natural moisturizing factors from the skin, allowing chemical irritants to penetrate the skin barrier and trigger inflammation. This type of reaction presents acutely with redness, papules, swelling, and blistering, and progresses to redness, dryness, and cracking in the chronic stage.
Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies bind to free-floating antigens, forming antigen-antibody complexes that can deposit in susceptible tissue and cause inflammation and damage. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is an example of a disease caused by this mechanism.
Understanding the Different Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Prior to initiating pioglitazone therapy, what is the most important factor to consider?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fracture risk
Explanation:The risk of osteoporosis and fractures is higher in individuals taking thiazolidinediones.
Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications
Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.
The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.
While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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