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Question 1
Correct
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A 22-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of ankle pain. He has been training for a marathon and running up to 60 miles per week. During the examination, he experiences difficulty flexing his four lateral toes. The GP suspects tenosynovitis affecting his flexor digitorium longus.
Which other muscles are part of the affected leg compartment?Your Answer: Tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, and popliteus
Explanation:The muscles located in the deep posterior compartment include the Tibialis posterior, Flexor hallucis longus, Flexor digitorum longus, and Popliteus. The Flexor digitorum longus muscle is specifically affected in this compartment.
Muscular Compartments of the Lower Limb
The lower limb is composed of different muscular compartments that perform various actions. The anterior compartment includes the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor hallucis longus muscles. These muscles are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve and are responsible for dorsiflexing the ankle joint, inverting and evert the foot, and extending the toes.
The peroneal compartment, on the other hand, consists of the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles, which are innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. These muscles are responsible for eversion of the foot and plantar flexion of the ankle joint.
The superficial posterior compartment includes the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for plantar flexion of the foot and may also flex the knee.
Lastly, the deep posterior compartment includes the flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for flexing the toes, flexing the great toe, and plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, respectively.
Understanding the muscular compartments of the lower limb is important in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect these muscles. Proper identification and management of these conditions can help improve mobility and function of the lower limb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman visits the hand clinic for a check-up on her pre-existing osteoarthritis. During the consultation, the surgeon suggests the removal of a bone located at the base of her thumb to relieve some of her symptoms.
What bone would the surgeon consider removing?Your Answer: Scaphoid
Correct Answer: Trapezium
Explanation:The bone located at the base of the thumb is called the trapezium. In certain cases, it may be removed to relieve symptoms of osteoarthritis in the thumb. To remember the carpal bones in order from lateral to medial, you can use the mnemonic ‘Sam Left The Party To Take Curtis Home’, which stands for scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate.
Carpal Bones: The Wrist’s Building Blocks
The wrist is composed of eight carpal bones, which are arranged in two rows of four. These bones are convex from side to side posteriorly and concave anteriorly. The trapezium is located at the base of the first metacarpal bone, which is the base of the thumb. The scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones do not have any tendons attached to them, but they are stabilized by ligaments.
In summary, the carpal bones are the building blocks of the wrist, and they play a crucial role in the wrist’s movement and stability. The trapezium bone is located at the base of the thumb, while the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones are stabilized by ligaments. Understanding the anatomy of the wrist is essential for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A pediatric gastroenterologist is conducting a meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials to evaluate the effectiveness of probiotics and antibiotics in treating acute diarrhea in children.
What measures could they take to address potential publication bias in their analysis?Your Answer: Forest plot
Correct Answer: Funnel plot
Explanation:The scatter plot is not the best choice for displaying the results of a meta-analysis, as it only shows the relationship between two variables and does not provide information on the overall effect size or confidence interval. Similarly, box plots are not appropriate for meta-analyses as they are used to display the distribution of data points in a single dataset. A forest plot, on the other hand, is a commonly used graphical representation of meta-analysis results, showing the effect size and confidence interval for each study included in the analysis. However, it does not provide information on publication bias or which studies were included in the meta-analysis.
Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses
Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).
In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 68-year-old woman is presented to the vascular clinic with a painful ulcer on the anterior aspect of her shin. She reports experiencing pain in the same leg at night and while sitting in a chair.
The patient has a medical history of diabetes for 11 years, hypertension for 12 years, and has been a smoker for over 50 years.
Upon examination, a pale ulcer with a 'punched out' appearance is observed. The patient declines further examination.
Based on the given clinical scenario, what is the most probable type of ulcer?Your Answer: Venous ulcer
Correct Answer: Arterial ulcer
Explanation:The correct answer is arterial ulcer. These types of leg ulcers are typically pale, painful, and have a punched-out appearance. They are often associated with peripheral vascular disease, which is likely in this patient given her cardiovascular risk factors and claudication pain. The fact that she experiences pain while sitting down suggests critical ischemia. Venous ulcers, on the other hand, appear red and oozing with irregular margins and are usually associated with varicose veins, edema, or lipodermatosclerosis. Marjolin ulcers are a malignant transformation of chronic ulcers into squamous cell carcinoma, while neuropathic ulcers typically occur over pressure areas such as the sole of the foot and are associated with a sensory neuropathy. Although this patient has diabetes, the history and appearance of the ulcer are more consistent with an arterial ulcer.
Venous leg ulcers are caused by venous hypertension and can be managed with compression banding. Marjolin’s ulcers are a type of squamous cell carcinoma that occur at sites of chronic inflammation. Arterial ulcers are painful and occur on the toes and heel, while neuropathic ulcers commonly occur over the plantar surface of the metatarsal head and hallux. Pyoderma gangrenosum is associated with inflammatory bowel disease and can present as erythematous nodules or pustules that ulcerate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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At which phase of cell division do the sister chromatids separate and migrate towards opposite poles of the cell?
Your Answer: Telophase
Correct Answer: Anaphase
Explanation:In the process of mitosis, sister chromatids are separated and move towards opposite poles of the cell during anaphase.
Anaphase is divided into two stages:
anaphase A involves the breaking of cohesins that hold the sister chromatids together, followed by the contraction of kinetochore microtubules that pull the daughter chromosomes towards opposite poles of the cell.
anaphase B involves the pushing of polar microtubules against each other, which results in the elongation of the cell.Mitosis: The Process of Somatic Cell Division
Mitosis is a type of cell division that occurs in somatic cells during the M phase of the cell cycle. This process allows for the replication and growth of tissues by producing genetically identical diploid daughter cells. Before mitosis begins, the cell prepares itself during the S phase by duplicating its chromosomes. The phases of mitosis include prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis. During prophase, the chromatin in the nucleus condenses, and during prometaphase, the nuclear membrane breaks down, allowing microtubules to attach to the chromosomes. In metaphase, the chromosomes align at the middle of the cell, and in anaphase, the paired chromosomes separate at the kinetochores and move to opposite sides of the cell. Telophase occurs when chromatids arrive at opposite poles of the cell, and cytokinesis is the final stage where an actin-myosin complex in the center of the cell contacts, resulting in it being pinched into two daughter cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 6
Correct
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A couple brings in their adolescent son who has been diagnosed with haemophilia A. The parents are both adoptees and have no knowledge of their biological families. Given this information, what is the most probable mode of inheritance for their son's condition?
Your Answer: His mother is a carrier for haemophilia A
Explanation:It is more probable that the condition is inherited rather than acquired through spontaneous mutations.
X-linked recessive inheritance affects only males, except in cases of Turner’s syndrome where females are affected due to having only one X chromosome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by carrier females, and male-to-male transmission is not observed. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is rare for an affected father to have children with a heterozygous female carrier, but in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect can be seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 7
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents to an orthopedic surgeon with a two-month history of dull pain in his left knee that is worse at night and unresponsive to over-the-counter pain relievers. Both knees appear normal with no swelling, tendon or ligament abnormalities, and no limited range of motion. The patient has a history of Paget disease of the bone and takes alendronic acid. The orthopedic surgeon notes a Codman triangle on knee X-ray due to periosteum elevation. What is the most likely condition affecting this patient?
Your Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:The presence of a Codman triangle on an X-ray is a strong indication of osteosarcoma, a bone tumor that can cause night pain and is unresponsive to analgesics. This condition is often associated with Paget disease of the bone, which increases the risk of developing osteosarcoma. Giant cell tumor is another bone tumor that can occur in young adults and has a characteristic ‘soap bubble’ appearance on X-ray. Osteochondroma is a common benign bone tumor that can rarely transform into a malignant chondrosarcoma. Osteoarthritis is a painful joint condition caused by mechanical destruction of the cartilage, often worsened by factors such as obesity and age. Treatment options for osteoarthritis include pain relief medication and joint replacement surgery.
Types of Bone Tumours
Benign and malignant bone tumours are two types of bone tumours. Benign bone tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a benign overgrowth of bone that usually occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, the most common benign bone tumour, is a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma that occurs most frequently in the epiphyses of long bones.
Malignant bone tumours are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and is associated with t(11;22) translocation. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old American sheep farmer comes to an outpatient liver ultrasound as part of a work-up for suspected non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. He initially visited his primary care physician (PCP) with mild abdominal tenderness and occasional nausea and vomiting. The ultrasound report shows septated cysts with 'multiple anechoic areas, echogenic material between cysts, and evidence of a double echogenic shadow (likely due to pericyst presence)' and suggests a possible differential diagnosis of hydatid disease.
Which of the listed organisms is the probable cause of this farmer's condition?Your Answer: Plasmodium vivax
Correct Answer: Echinococcus granulosus
Explanation:A sheep farmer has been diagnosed with hepatic cysts on ultrasound, which is caused by Echinococcus granulosus tapeworms. This zoonotic disease is a significant public health concern, with over 1 million people affected at any given time. The tapeworm is transmitted through intermediate and definitive hosts, with herbivorous and omnivorous animals acting as intermediate hosts and carnivores as definitive hosts. Humans can become infected through close contact with intermediate hosts.
Hydatid disease can be asymptomatic for years until cysts grow and cause clinical signs, such as abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Ultrasound imaging is the preferred diagnostic tool, with CT and MRI scans used as complementary tests.
In HIV patients, Cryptococcus neoformans is the most common CNS fungal infection, which is managed with IV amphotericin B and flucytosine for 2 weeks, followed by oral fluconazole for 8 weeks.
Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is a common parasitic infection in children that causes itching in the perianal region. Symptomatic patients and anyone living in the same residence should be treated with mebendazole due to the high transmission rates.
Malaria, caused by Plasmodium vivax, is transmitted through mosquito bites and can lead to flu-like symptoms, such as chills, fever, and headache. If left untreated, it can cause metabolic acidosis, respiratory distress syndrome, raised intracranial pressure, and multi-organ failure.
Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Incorrect
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For individuals with multiple endocrine neoplasia type IIb, what is the most probable clinical presentation they will exhibit?
Your Answer: Acromegalic facies
Correct Answer: Marfanoid features
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia
Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) is an autosomal dominant disorder that affects the endocrine system. There are three main types of MEN, each with its own set of associated features. MEN type I is characterized by the 3 P’s: parathyroid hyperplasia leading to hyperparathyroidism, pituitary tumors, and pancreatic tumors such as insulinomas and gastrinomas. MEN type IIa is associated with the 2 P’s: parathyroid hyperplasia leading to hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma, as well as medullary thyroid cancer. MEN type IIb is characterized by phaeochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and a marfanoid body habitus.
The most common presentation of MEN is hypercalcaemia, which is often seen in MEN type I due to parathyroid hyperplasia. MEN type IIa and IIb are both associated with medullary thyroid cancer, which is caused by mutations in the RET oncogene. MEN type I is caused by mutations in the MEN1 gene. Understanding the different types of MEN and their associated features is important for early diagnosis and management of this rare but potentially serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 10
Correct
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A 45-year-old male patient complains of haemoptysis and is diagnosed with tuberculosis. What type of cells typically internalize the tubercle bacillus?
Your Answer: Macrophage
Explanation:M. Tuberculosis has the tendency to survive within macrophages.
Understanding Tuberculosis: The Pathophysiology and Risk Factors
Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The pathophysiology of tuberculosis involves the migration of macrophages to regional lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. This complex leads to the formation of a granuloma, which is a collection of epithelioid histiocytes with caseous necrosis in the center. The inflammatory response is mediated by a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. While healthy individuals can contain the disease, immunocompromised individuals are at risk of developing disseminated (miliary) TB.
Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. These include having lived in Asia, Latin America, Eastern Europe, or Africa for years, exposure to an infectious TB case, and being infected with HIV. Immunocompromised individuals, such as diabetics, patients on immunosuppressive therapy, malnourished individuals, or those with haematological malignancies, are also at risk. Additionally, silicosis and apical fibrosis increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. Understanding the pathophysiology and risk factors of tuberculosis is crucial in preventing and treating this infectious disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the following is the primary location for the release of dehydroepiandrosterone in individuals?
Your Answer: Zona reticularis of the adrenal gland
Explanation:The adrenal cortex can be remembered with the mnemonic GFR-ACD, where DHEA is a hormone with androgenic effects that is primarily secreted by the adrenal gland.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer on his left foot. Blood cultures grow MRSA. Which antibiotic would you consider in addition to vancomycin to cover this?
Your Answer: Metronidazole
Correct Answer: Rifampicin
Explanation:Other antibiotics may not be effective against MRSA due to its resistance.
Understanding MRSA and its Screening and Treatment
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a type of bacteria that is resistant to many antibiotics. It is a dangerous organism that can cause hospital-acquired infections. To prevent the spread of MRSA, patients awaiting elective admissions and all emergency admissions are screened for the bacteria. The screening involves a nasal swab and examination of skin lesions or wounds. If a patient is identified as a carrier of MRSA, they can be treated with mupirocin for the nose and chlorhexidine gluconate for the skin. Antibiotics such as vancomycin, teicoplanin, and linezolid are commonly used to treat MRSA infections. However, newer antibiotics like linezolid, quinupristin/dalfopristin combinations, and tigecycline should be reserved for resistant cases. It is important to understand MRSA and its screening and treatment to prevent the spread of this dangerous organism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which serum protein is most likely to increase in a patient with severe sepsis?
Your Answer: Transthyretin
Correct Answer: Ferritin
Explanation:During an acute phase response, ferritin levels can significantly rise while other parameters typically decrease.
Acute Phase Proteins and their Role in the Body’s Response to Infection
During an infection or injury, the body undergoes an acute phase response where it produces a variety of proteins to help fight off the infection and promote healing. These proteins are known as acute phase proteins and include CRP, procalcitonin, ferritin, fibrinogen, alpha-1 antitrypsin, ceruloplasmin, serum amyloid A, serum amyloid P component, haptoglobin, and complement.
CRP is a commonly measured acute phase protein that is synthesized in the liver and binds to bacterial cells and those undergoing apoptosis. It is able to activate the complement system and its levels are known to rise in patients following surgery. Procalcitonin is another acute phase protein that is used as a marker for bacterial infections. Ferritin is involved in iron storage and transport, while fibrinogen is important for blood clotting. Alpha-1 antitrypsin helps protect the lungs from damage, and ceruloplasmin is involved in copper transport. Serum amyloid A and serum amyloid P component are involved in inflammation, while haptoglobin binds to hemoglobin to prevent its breakdown. Complement is a group of proteins that help to destroy pathogens.
During the acute phase response, the liver decreases the production of other proteins known as negative acute phase proteins, including albumin, transthyretin, transferrin, retinol binding protein, and cortisol binding protein. These proteins are important for maintaining normal bodily functions, but their production is decreased during an infection or injury to allow for the production of acute phase proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 14
Correct
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A 25-year-old male presents to his GP with recurrent episodes of haematuria. He reports having a sore throat and mild cough for the past three days. Upon examination, his urine dipstick is negative for leukocytes and nitrates. His vital signs are as follows: SpO2 99%, respiratory rate 16/min, blood pressure 140/90mmHg, heart rate 80bpm, and temperature 37.1ºC. The initial blood results show a Hb of 14.8 g/dL, platelets of 290 * 109/L, WBC of 14.9 * 109/L, Na+ of 138 mmol/L, K+ of 4.5 mmol/L, urea of 7.2 mmol/L, creatinine of 150 µmol/L, and CRP of 1.2 mg/L. What is the most likely mechanism responsible for his haematuria?
Your Answer: Immune complex deposition
Explanation:The likely diagnosis for the man is IgA nephropathy, which is characterized by immune complex deposition in the glomerulus and recurrent macroscopic haematuria following an upper respiratory tract infection. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) caused by activation of the coagulation cascade and damage from toxins such as Shiga toxin in haemolytic uraemic syndrome are not responsible mechanisms for IgA nephropathy. Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH), which is caused by hypertrophy of prostatic cells, can also cause haematuria, but it is unlikely in this patient as it typically affects older men and presents with other urinary symptoms.
Understanding IgA Nephropathy
IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It typically presents as macroscopic haematuria in young people following an upper respiratory tract infection. The condition is thought to be caused by mesangial deposition of IgA immune complexes, and there is considerable pathological overlap with Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). Histology shows mesangial hypercellularity and positive immunofluorescence for IgA and C3.
Differentiating between IgA nephropathy and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is important. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is associated with low complement levels and the main symptom is proteinuria, although haematuria can occur. There is typically an interval between URTI and the onset of renal problems in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
Management of IgA nephropathy depends on the severity of the condition. If there is isolated hematuria, no or minimal proteinuria, and a normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR), no treatment is needed other than follow-up to check renal function. If there is persistent proteinuria and a normal or only slightly reduced GFR, initial treatment is with ACE inhibitors. If there is active disease or failure to respond to ACE inhibitors, immunosuppression with corticosteroids may be necessary.
The prognosis for IgA nephropathy varies. 25% of patients develop ESRF. Markers of good prognosis include frank haematuria, while markers of poor prognosis include male gender, proteinuria (especially > 2 g/day), hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidaemia, and ACE genotype DD.
Overall, understanding IgA nephropathy is important for proper diagnosis and management of the condition. Proper management can help improve outcomes and prevent progression to ESRF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of fatigue and constipation. Upon examination, no significant findings were observed except for the following blood results:
- Hb: 125 g/L (Female: 115-160)
- Platelets: 162 * 109/L (150-400)
- WBC: 6.8 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
- Na+: 142 mmol/L (135-145)
- K+: 3.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
- Urea: 6.2 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 105 µmol/L (55-120)
- CRP: 2 mg/L (<5)
- TSH: 105.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
- Free thyroxine (T4): 6.8 pmol/L (9.0-18)
The appropriate medication was prescribed to treat the underlying condition. What is the receptor targeted by this drug?Your Answer: G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs)
Correct Answer: Nuclear
Explanation:Levothyroxine functions by binding to nuclear receptors, while drugs such as lidocaine primarily act on ion channels, specifically voltage-gated sodium channels. G-protein coupled receptors are more intricate, with drugs binding to the receptor causing a series of events within the G-protein subunits, ultimately leading to the production of secondary messengers like cyclic AMP or protein phosphorylation cascades. Adrenoreceptors are an example of G-protein coupled receptors.
Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.
It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.
The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A new treatment for arthritis in elderly patients is being studied. The research focuses on the reduction of joint pain after 6 months. The given data is as follows:
Number of patients Number who experienced joint pain reduction within 6 months
New treatment 150 75
Placebo 300 150
What is the percentage of relative risk reduction?Your Answer: 0.8
Correct Answer: 20%
Explanation:Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials
Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.
To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man has arrived at the emergency department via ambulance following a sudden onset of symptoms during lunch with his daughter. He reports feeling extremely dizzy and nauseous, and has since lost hearing in his left ear and the ability to move the left side of his face. An urgent CT scan reveals a thrombus blocking an artery in his brain. Which artery is most likely affected by the thrombus?
Your Answer: Posterior cerebral artery
Correct Answer: Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
Explanation:The correct answer is the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, as sudden onset vertigo and vomiting, ipsilateral facial paralysis, and deafness are all symptoms of lesions in this area.
The middle cerebral artery is an incorrect answer, as lesions in this area cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, and aphasia.
The posterior cerebral artery is also an incorrect answer, as lesions in this area cause contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia.
Similarly, the posterior inferior cerebellar artery is an incorrect answer, as lesions in this area cause ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, contralateral limb/torso pain and temperature loss, ataxia, and nystagmus.
Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.
Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 18
Correct
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Which one of the following is true in relation to the sartorius muscle?
Your Answer: Forms the Pes anserinus with Gracilis and semitendinous muscle
Explanation:The superficial branch of the femoral nerve provides innervation to it. It is a constituent of the pes anserinus.
The Sartorius Muscle: Anatomy and Function
The sartorius muscle is the longest strap muscle in the human body and is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh. It is the most superficial muscle in this region and has a unique origin and insertion. The muscle originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and inserts on the medial surface of the body of the tibia, anterior to the gracilis and semitendinosus muscles. The sartorius muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve (L2,3).
The primary action of the sartorius muscle is to flex the hip and knee, while also slightly abducting the thigh and rotating it laterally. It also assists with medial rotation of the tibia on the femur, which is important for movements such as crossing one leg over the other. The middle third of the muscle, along with its strong underlying fascia, forms the roof of the adductor canal. This canal contains important structures such as the femoral vessels, the saphenous nerve, and the nerve to vastus medialis.
In summary, the sartorius muscle is a unique muscle in the anterior compartment of the thigh that plays an important role in hip and knee flexion, thigh abduction, and lateral rotation. Its location and relationship to the adductor canal make it an important landmark for surgical procedures in the thigh region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 19
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy complains of muscle pain and early fatigue during exercise, along with dark urine. He is diagnosed with McArdle's disease.
What is the enzyme that limits the defective pathway in this condition?Your Answer: Glycogen phosphorylase
Explanation:Glycogen phosphorylase is the enzyme that limits the rate of glycogenolysis, which is the breakdown of glycogen into glucose for energy use and blood glucose maintenance. McArdle’s disease, a type V glycogen storage disease, is caused by a deficiency of myophosphorylase, which is involved in glycogenolysis in muscle. Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate limiting enzyme for the citric acid cycle, while phosphofructokinase-1 limits the rate of glycolysis. Glycogen synthase is the enzyme that limits the rate of glycogenesis.
Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes
Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.
For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.
Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.
The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.
Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 20
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of vision changes, including deteriorating visual acuity, colour perception, and distorted images. After conducting tests, the diagnosis of dry age-related macular degeneration (Dry-AMD) is confirmed. What retinal sign is typical of Dry-AMD?
Your Answer: Drusen
Explanation:Drusen, which are yellow deposits on the retina visible during fundoscopy, can indicate the severity of dry-AMD based on their distribution and quantity. Wet-AMD is more commonly associated with retinal hemorrhages and neovascularization. While painless vision loss can be caused by papilledema, this condition is typically linked to disorders that directly impact the optic disc.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of feeling unwell. She reports having a headache and a stiff, painful neck. She is sensitive to light, feels nauseated, and has vomited twice. She experiences alternating sensations of hot and cold and is sweating. During the examination, her temperature is elevated, and Kernig's sign is positive. You decide to perform a lumbar puncture to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). In which ventricle is the choroid plexus, the structure responsible for producing the majority of CSF?
Your Answer: Third ventricle
Correct Answer: All four of the ventricles
Explanation:The choroid plexus is a branching structure resembling sea coral, consisting of specialized ependymal cells that produce and release cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). It is present in all four ventricles of the brain, with the largest portion located in the lateral ventricles. The choroid plexus is also involved in removing waste products from the CSF.
The patient described in the previous question displays symptoms and signs indicative of meningitis, including a positive Kernig’s sign. This test involves flexing the thigh and hip to 90 degrees, followed by extending the knee to elicit pain. Analysis of the CSF obtained through lumbar puncture can help identify the cause of meningitis and guide appropriate treatment.
Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.
The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.
The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner due to ongoing investigations for infertility. She has a BMI of 32 kg/m² and noticeable facial hair on her upper lip. A recent transvaginal ultrasound scan revealed the presence of numerous cystic lesions on her ovaries.
What is the probable reason behind her infertility?Your Answer: Hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation
Correct Answer: Normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation
Explanation:The most common type of ovulatory disorder is normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, which is often associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). This condition is characterized by normal levels of gonadotropin and estrogen, but low levels of FSH during the follicular phase can lead to anovulation. It is important to perform a thorough evaluation of both male and female factors when investigating infertility. Hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, which is characterized by low levels of GnRH or pituitary unresponsiveness to GnRH, resulting in low gonadotropins and low estrogen, is seen in conditions such as amenorrhea due to low weight, stress, or Sheehan syndrome. Uterine abnormalities, such as fibroids, may also contribute to infertility, but this is not consistent with the clinical findings in this case. Hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation, which is characterized by high levels of gonadotropins but unresponsive ovaries and low estrogen levels, is more commonly seen in conditions such as Turner’s syndrome, primary ovarian failure, or ovary damage.
Understanding Ovulation Induction and Its Categories
Ovulation induction is a common treatment for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. The process of ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. Anovulation can occur due to alterations in this balance, which can be classified into three categories: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation, leading to a singleton pregnancy.
There are various forms of ovulation induction, starting with the least invasive and simplest management option first. Exercise and weight loss are typically the first-line treatment for patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome, as ovulation can spontaneously return with even a modest 5% weight loss. Letrozole is now considered the first-line medical therapy for patients with PCOS due to its reduced risk of adverse effects on endometrial and cervical mucous compared to clomiphene citrate. Clomiphene citrate is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that acts primarily at the hypothalamus, blocking the negative feedback effect of estrogens. Gonadotropin therapy tends to be the treatment used mostly for women with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.
One potential side effect of ovulation induction is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), which can be life-threatening if not identified and managed promptly. OHSS occurs when ovarian enlargement with multiple cystic spaces form, and an increase in the permeability of capillaries leads to a fluid shift from the intravascular to the extra-vascular space. The severity of OHSS varies, with the risk of severe OHSS occurring in less than 1% of all women undergoing ovarian induction. Management includes fluid and electrolyte replacement, anticoagulation therapy, abdominal ascitic paracentesis, and pregnancy termination to prevent further hormonal imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old surgical trainee (ST) is conducting a research study in orthopedics to investigate the effectiveness of a new pain relief medication compared to a placebo. The ST wants to ensure that the study has enough power to detect a significant difference between the two groups if one truly exists.
What is the statistical parameter that the ST is attempting to optimize in the design of the study?Your Answer: Confidence interval
Correct Answer: Power
Explanation:Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 24
Correct
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A 55-year-old inpatient needs to undergo a magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) to investigate possible gallstones. However, it was discovered that the patient had consumed a fatty meal in the morning, and the medical team wants to postpone the procedure. The reason being that the patient's gallbladder would be harder to visualize due to the release of cholecystokinin (CCK) in response to the meal.
What type of cells in the intestine are responsible for secreting CCK?Your Answer: I cells
Explanation:The I cells located in the upper small intestine release cholecystokinin, a hormone that triggers the contraction of the gallbladder when fats, proteins, and amino acids are ingested. Additionally, cholecystokinin stimulates the exocrine pancreas, slows down gastric emptying by relaxing the stomach, and induces a feeling of fullness through vagal stimulation.
K and L cells secrete gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) and glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), respectively. These incretins increase in response to glucose and regulate metabolism. GLP-1 agonists, also known as incretin mimetics, are medications that enhance the effects of these hormones.
ECL cells, found in the stomach, secrete histamine, which increases acid secretion to aid in digestion.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a recent onset of confusion. Her daughter reports that she had a fall at home last month and hit her head but did not seek medical attention as she appeared to be fine. A CT scan of her head reveals a hyper-dense crescent-shaped area in the left hemisphere. What is the likely diagnosis, and between which meningeal layers is the blood collecting?
Your Answer: Bone
Correct Answer: Arachnoid mater
Explanation:The middle layer of the meninges is called the arachnoid mater. In an elderly patient with a history like the one described, a subacute subdural hematoma is likely the cause. This occurs when blood collects in the space between the dura mater and arachnoid mater. The arachnoid mater is a very thin layer that is attached to the inside of the dura mater and separated from the innermost layer (pia mater) by the subarachnoid space. Acromion and bone are incorrect answers as they are not related to the meninges, and pia mater is incorrect because it is the innermost layer of the meninges that is attached to the brain and spinal cord.
The Three Layers of Meninges
The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.
The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.
The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has a brain mass, but there is no rise in intracranial pressure. What could be the reason for the absence of increased intracranial pressure?
Your Answer: Reduced diastolic blood pressure
Correct Answer: Reduced CSF as dictated by the Monro-Kelly Doctrine
Explanation:The Monro-Kelly Doctrine views the brain as a closed box, where any increase in one of the three components within the skull (brain, CSF, and blood) must be compensated by a decrease in one of the other components or else intracranial pressure will rise. To maintain intracranial pressure, changes in CSF volume can offset initial increases in brain volume. The CNS has the ability to regulate its own blood supply, so changes in diastolic and systolic pressure do not affect cerebral pressure. Cushing’s triad, which includes hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular breathing, is a set of symptoms that typically occur in the final stages of acute head injury due to increased intracranial pressure.
Understanding Cerebral Blood Flow and Angiography
Cerebral blood flow is regulated by the central nervous system, which can adjust its own blood supply. Various factors can affect cerebral pressure, including CNS metabolism, trauma, pressure, and systemic carbon dioxide levels. The most potent mediator is PaCO2, while acidosis and hypoxemia can also increase cerebral blood flow to a lesser degree. In patients with head injuries, increased intracranial pressure can impair blood flow. The Monro-Kelly Doctrine governs intracerebral pressure, which considers the brain as a closed box, and changes in pressure are offset by the loss of cerebrospinal fluid. However, when this is no longer possible, intracranial pressure rises.
Cerebral angiography is an invasive test that involves injecting contrast media into the carotid artery using a catheter. Radiographs are taken as the dye works its way through the cerebral circulation. This test can be used to identify bleeding aneurysms, vasospasm, and arteriovenous malformations, as well as differentiate embolism from large artery thrombosis. Understanding cerebral blood flow and angiography is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with heart failure following 10 months of progressive breathlessness and swelling in her ankles. She has been prescribed several medications and provided with lifestyle recommendations. What are the two types of infections that she is most susceptible to due to her recent diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chest infections and myocarditis
Correct Answer: Chest infections and ulcerated cellulitic legs
Explanation:As a result of the volume overload caused by heart failure, she will have a higher susceptibility to chest infections due to pulmonary edema and leg infections due to peripheral edema.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug treatment, according to updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is a combination of an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are recommended as second-line treatment, but potassium levels should be monitored as both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia. Third-line treatment should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenzae and one-off pneumococcal vaccines. Those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease may require a booster every 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not associated with excessive glucocorticoids?
Your Answer: Osteonecrosis
Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:Excessive levels of glucocorticoids can lead to various negative consequences such as skin thinning, osteonecrosis, and osteoporosis. Steroids can cause the body to retain sodium and water, while also resulting in potassium loss and potentially leading to hypokalaemic alkalosis.
Cortisol: Functions and Regulation
Cortisol is a hormone produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. It plays a crucial role in various bodily functions and is essential for life. Cortisol increases blood pressure by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles, allowing for a normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines. However, it inhibits bone formation by decreasing osteoblasts, type 1 collagen, and absorption of calcium from the gut, while increasing osteoclastic activity. Cortisol also increases insulin resistance and metabolism by increasing gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, and proteolysis. It inhibits inflammatory and immune responses, but maintains the function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.
The regulation of cortisol secretion is controlled by the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. The pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol. The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH. Stress can also increase cortisol secretion.
Excess cortisol in the body can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms such as weight gain, muscle weakness, and high blood pressure. Understanding the functions and regulation of cortisol is important for maintaining overall health and preventing hormonal imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You have been asked to assist with the write-up of the data analysis section of a research paper on the topic of the effects of a new medication on blood pressure in patients over 60 years old. As part of this, you have been given the result of the sample size calculation, which determined the number of patients that needed to be recruited into the trial. One of the factors affecting this sample size was the fact that a power of 0.8 was selected.
What is the significance of selecting a power of 0.8 in the sample size calculation for this study on the effects of a new medication on blood pressure in patients over 60 years old?Your Answer: Probability of a Type 2 error
Correct Answer: 1 - probability of a Type 2 error
Explanation:What is the meaning of statistical power and how is it related to the different types of error in statistical analysis?
Statistical analysis involves two types of error: Type 1 error, which is the probability of falsely rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true, and Type 2 error, which is the probability of falsely accepting the null hypothesis when it is false. The p-value for a study represents the probability of a Type 1 error occurring.
Statistical power, on the other hand, is the probability of detecting a true effect or difference in a study. It is calculated as 1 minus the probability of making a Type 2 error (represented by β). Therefore, the higher the statistical power, the lower the chance of making a Type 2 error and the more likely it is to detect a true effect or difference.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 30
Correct
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Which one of the following statements relating to osteomyelitis is not true?
Your Answer: Should be treated by aggressive surgical debridement initially
Explanation:The initial management involves medical treatment with an antistaphylococcal antibiotic, as opposed to septic joints where prompt joint washout is necessary.
Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria in the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children and can be caused by risk factors such as sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species are more prevalent. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%.
The treatment for osteomyelitis involves a course of antibiotics for six weeks. Flucloxacillin is the preferred antibiotic, but clindamycin can be used for patients who are allergic to penicillin. Understanding the types, causes, and treatment of osteomyelitis is crucial in managing this bone infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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