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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old male comes to your clinic at the suggestion of his partner....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male comes to your clinic at the suggestion of his partner. He has been experiencing hyperarousal to loud noises and difficulty concentrating at work since his stay in the ICU 4 weeks ago. His partner believes he may have acute stress disorder, but you diagnose him with PTSD and discuss treatment options. He asks you to explain the difference between the two to his partner. You explain that while the presentation is similar, the main difference is temporal.

      At what point after the event can you confirm a diagnosis of PTSD?

      Your Answer: 12 weeks

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Acute stress disorder is characterized by an acute stress reaction that occurs within four weeks of a traumatic event, while PTSD is diagnosed after four weeks have passed. Symptoms presented within two weeks would suggest acute stress disorder. Both acute stress disorder and PTSD share similar features, including re-experiencing, avoidance, hyperarousal, and emotional numbing. Re-experiencing symptoms may include flashbacks, nightmares, and repetitive and distressing intrusive images. Avoidance symptoms may involve avoiding people, situations, or circumstances associated with the traumatic event. Hyperarousal symptoms may include hypervigilance for threat, exaggerated startle response, sleep problems, irritability, and difficulty concentrating. Emotional numbing may result in a lack of ability to experience feelings and feeling detached.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.

      To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 16-year-old boy with an 8-year history of type I diabetes presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy with an 8-year history of type I diabetes presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a 24-hour history of vomiting. He tested his glucose and ketones at home and they were both high, glucose 30 mmol/L, ketones 3 mmol/L, so he attended the ED. He admits to omitting his insulin frequently. He appears dehydrated, has ketotic fetor, BP 112/76 mmHg, pulse 108 beats per minute, temp 37 degrees, oxygen saturations 98% on room air. Clinical examination is otherwise normal. The following are his laboratory investigations:
      Test Result Normal range
      pH 7.2 7.35–7.45
      Ketones 3 mmol/l < 0.6 mmol/l
      Glucose 28 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 11 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Base excess -5 mEq/l −2 to +2 mEq/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 3 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      What is required to make a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Anion gap < 16

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Diagnostic Criteria and Metabolic Imbalance

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a life-threatening complication of type 1 diabetes that results from a complex metabolic imbalance. The diagnostic criteria for DKA include hyperglycaemia (glucose >11 mmol/l), ketosis (>3 mmol/l), and acidemia (pH <7.3, bicarbonate <15 mmol/l). DKA is caused by insulin deficiency and an increase in counterregulatory hormones, which lead to enhanced hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, severe hyperglycaemia, and enhanced lipolysis. The resulting accumulation of ketone bodies, including 3-beta hydroxybutyrate, leads to metabolic acidosis. Fluid depletion, electrolyte shifts, and depletion are also common in DKA. While anion gap is not included in the UK diagnostic criteria, it is typically high in DKA (>10). Understanding the diagnostic criteria and metabolic imbalance of DKA is crucial for its prevention and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old man presented with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presented with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision and lacrimation in the left eye. He also felt a foreign body sensation in the affected eye. He had been doing some DIY work at home without wearing any goggles for the past few days prior to the onset of pain.
      On examination, his visual acuities were 6/18 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The conjunctiva in the left was red. The cornea was tested with fluorescein and it showed an uptake in the centre of the cornea, which looked like a dendrite. You examined his face and noticed some small vesicles at the corner of his mouth as well.
      What is the first-line treatment for this patient’s eye condition?

      Your Answer: Topical antiviral ointment such as acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that requires prompt and appropriate treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for this condition is topical antiviral ointment, such as acyclovir 3% ointment, which should be applied for 10-14 days. Topical artificial tears and topical antibiotic drops or ointment are not indicated for this condition. In fact, the use of topical steroid drops, such as prednisolone, may worsen the ulcer and should be avoided until the corneal ulcer is healed. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention and follow the recommended treatment plan to manage herpes simplex keratitis effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant and she receives a letter about...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant and she receives a letter about her routine cervical smear. She asks her obstetrician if she should make an appointment for her smear. All her smears in the past have been negative. What should the obstetrician advise?

      Your Answer: Reschedule the smear to occur at least 12 weeks post-delivery

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, women who are due for routine cervical screening should wait until 12 weeks after giving birth. If a woman has had an abnormal smear in the past and becomes pregnant, she should seek specialist advice. If there are no contraindications, such as a low-lying placenta, a cervical smear can be performed during the middle trimester of pregnancy. It is crucial to encourage women to participate in regular cervical screening.

      Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK

      Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect pre-malignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that around 15% of cervical adenocarcinomas are frequently undetected by screening.

      The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification, and the NHS has now moved to an HPV first system. This means that a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. However, cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.

      In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months post-partum, unless there are missed screenings or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.

      It is recommended to take a cervical smear around mid-cycle, although there is limited evidence to support this advice. Overall, the UK’s cervical cancer screening program is an essential tool in preventing cervical cancer and promoting women’s health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant presents to the labour suite with...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant presents to the labour suite with sporadic contractions. She had noticed a mucous plug in her underwear earlier in the day. Upon examination, she appears to be breathing heavily and experiencing some discomfort. The cardiotocography is normal and progressing smoothly. During a vaginal examination, her cervix is estimated to be dilated at 2 cm. What phase of labour is she currently in?

      Your Answer: Latent 1st stage

      Explanation:

      The correct stage of labour for a woman with a cervix that is just beginning to ripen and dilate is the latent phase of the 1st stage. This stage is characterized by a cervix dilation of 0-3 cm. The active phase of the 1st stage, which is characterized by a cervix dilation of 3-10 cm and more regular contractions, is not applicable in this scenario. The active 2nd stage is also not a descriptive stage of labour, as it only refers to the general stage that ends with the expulsion of the foetus.

      Labour is divided into three stages, with the first stage beginning from the onset of true labour until the cervix is fully dilated. This stage is further divided into two phases: the latent phase and the active phase. The latent phase involves dilation of the cervix from 0-3 cm and typically lasts around 6 hours. The active phase involves dilation from 3-10 cm and progresses at a rate of approximately 1 cm per hour. In primigravidas, this stage can last between 10-16 hours.

      During this stage, the baby’s presentation is important to note. Approximately 90% of babies present in the vertex position, with the head entering the pelvis in an occipito-lateral position. The head typically delivers in an occipito-anterior position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of yellow vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of yellow vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal odor, vulvar itching, and pain while urinating. During the examination, the PCP notices a purulent discharge and a patchy erythematous lesion on the cervix. The PCP suspects Trichomonas vaginalis as the possible diagnosis. What would be the most suitable investigation to assist in the diagnosis of T. vaginalis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Wet mount and high vaginal swab

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Testing for Trichomoniasis: A Common STD

      Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted disease caused by the protozoan parasite T. vaginalis. While both men and women can be affected, women are more likely to experience symptoms. Diagnosis of trichomoniasis is typically made through wet mount microscopy and direct visualisation, with DNA amplification techniques offering higher sensitivity. Urine testing is not considered the gold standard, and cervical swabs are not sensitive enough. Treatment involves a single dose of metronidazole, and sexual partners should be treated simultaneously. Trichomoniasis may increase susceptibility to HIV infection and transmission. Symptoms in women include a yellow-green vaginal discharge with a strong odour, dysuria, pain on intercourse, and vaginal itching. Men may experience penile irritation, mild discharge, dysuria, or pain after ejaculation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A frequent contributor complains of yellowing of the eyes and fever after donating...

    Correct

    • A frequent contributor complains of yellowing of the eyes and fever after donating blood for five days.
      What should be the subsequent suitable step for the medical officer in charge of the blood bank?

      Your Answer: Recall blood products from this donor and arrange for retesting of this donor

      Explanation:

      Managing Donor Complications and Blood Products

      When a donor develops complications, it is important to assess how to manage both the donor and the blood products from the donation. In such cases, the blood products should be recalled until further testing and clarification of the donor’s illness. It is crucial to prevent the release of any of the blood products. However, the donor should not be immediately struck off the register until further testing results are available. It is important to take these precautions to ensure the safety of the blood supply and prevent any potential harm to recipients. Proper management of donor complications and blood products is essential to maintain the integrity of the blood donation system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old male presents in clinic, insisting that you diagnose his colon issues....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents in clinic, insisting that you diagnose his colon issues. He describes experiencing vague sensations of incomplete stool passage and is worried that he may have a tumor causing obstruction. He reports regular bowel movements and denies any episodes of diarrhea or constipation. There is no history of blood in his stool, unintentional weight loss, or loss of appetite. He has no family history of cancer. After discussing your negative findings, he abruptly leaves the office, stating, You're just like the other four doctors I've seen, all incompetent and willing to let me die.

      What is the most accurate description of his gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms?

      Your Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Correct Answer: Hypochondriasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypochondriasis: A Case Study

      A 21-year-old man is convinced that he has an occult GI malignancy, despite having no signs, symptoms, or family history of such a problem. He has seen three doctors who have told him otherwise, but he persists in his belief and is now doctor shopping by seeing four doctors for the same issue. This behavior is a classic sign of hypochondria.

      Hypochondriasis is a condition where a person is excessively worried about having a serious illness, despite having no or minimal symptoms. The fear and anxiety associated with this condition can be debilitating and can interfere with a person’s daily life. In this case, the patient’s fixation on a particular disease is causing him distress and leading him to seek out multiple doctors for reassurance.

      It is important to note that hypochondriasis is not the same as somatisation disorder, which refers to patients with a constellation of physical complaints that cannot be explained by a somatic process. While the patient in this case is fixated on a particular disease, he does not fit the criteria for somatisation.

      It is also important to rule out other conditions, such as acute stress disorder or conversion disorder, which can present with similar symptoms. Acute stress disorder is an anxiety condition that is precipitated by an acute stressor and resolves within a month. Conversion disorder is a neurological deficit in the absence of a somatic cause and is usually preceded by a psychosocial stressor.

      In conclusion, understanding hypochondriasis and its symptoms is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients who may be suffering from this condition. It is important to approach these patients with empathy and understanding, while also ruling out other potential conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old computer programmer had been experiencing increasing right-hand pain during the last...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old computer programmer had been experiencing increasing right-hand pain during the last 3 months, accompanied by loss of strength in his thumb. He was referred to a neurologist who ordered radiographic studies.
      Which condition does this man most likely have?

      Your Answer: Wrist drop

      Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Hand and Arm Conditions: Symptoms and Treatments

      Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: This condition is caused by repetitive stress on the tendons in the wrist, leading to inflammation in the carpal tunnel and compression of the median nerve. Symptoms include atrophy of the muscles in the thenar eminence, particularly the flexor pollicis brevis, resulting in weakened thumb flexion. Treatment options include anti-inflammatory drugs and wrist splints, with surgery as a last resort.

      Dupuytren’s Contracture: This condition causes fixed flexion of the hand due to palmar fibromatosis, typically affecting the ring and little fingers. The index finger and thumb are usually not involved.

      Erb’s Palsy: This condition is characterized by paralysis of the arm due to damage to the brachial plexus, often caused by shoulder dystocia during difficult labor.

      Pronator Syndrome: This condition is caused by compression of the median nerve and results in pain and weakness in the hand, as well as loss of sensation in the thumb and first three fingers.

      Wrist Drop: Also known as radial nerve palsy, this condition causes an inability to extend the wrist and can be caused by stab wounds in the chest or fractures of the humerus. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old lady comes to the doctor with a gradual onset of bradykinesia,...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old lady comes to the doctor with a gradual onset of bradykinesia, rigidity and tremor.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parkinson’s disease

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Parkinson’s Disease from Other Neurological Disorders

      Parkinson’s disease is characterized by a classical triad of symptoms, including tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Other symptoms may include truncal instability, stooped posture, and shuffling gait. The disease is caused by a decrease in dopamine production from the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia. While there is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, medications such as levodopa can help improve movement disorders by increasing dopamine levels.

      It is important to distinguish Parkinson’s disease from other neurological disorders that may present with similar symptoms. A cerebral tumor could potentially cause similar symptoms, but this is much less common than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease. Lewy body dementia is characterized by cognitive impairment and visual hallucinations, which are not present in Parkinson’s disease. Benign essential tremor causes an intention tremor, while Parkinson’s disease is characterized by a resting, pill-rolling tremor. Alzheimer’s disease presents with progressive cognitive impairment, rather than the movement disorders seen in Parkinson’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old man with metastatic cancer of the prostate is experiencing breakthrough pain...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man with metastatic cancer of the prostate is experiencing breakthrough pain in between his oral morphine doses. The Palliative Care team is consulted to evaluate the patient and modify or supplement his medications to improve pain management.
      What is the analgesic with the longest duration of action?

      Your Answer: Fentanyl transdermal

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Duration of Analgesic Effects of Different Opioids

      When it comes to managing pain, opioids are often prescribed. However, different opioids have varying durations of analgesic effects. Here is a comparison of the duration of analgesic effects of some commonly used opioids:

      – Transdermal fentanyl: This option has the longest duration of analgesic effect, lasting for 48-72 hours.
      – Oral Oramorph® SR: This slow-release option has an effect that lasts for 8-12 hours.
      – Oral oxycodone: This option has an effect that lasts for 3-6 hours.
      – Oral hydromorphone: This option has a duration of action of 3-6 hours.
      – Oral methadone: This option has an effect that lasts for 3-8 hours.

      It is important to note that the duration of analgesic effect can vary depending on factors such as the individual’s metabolism and the dosage prescribed. It is crucial to follow the prescribing physician’s instructions and to report any adverse effects or concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which patient has an elevated PTH level that is indicative of primary hyperparathyroidism?...

    Incorrect

    • Which patient has an elevated PTH level that is indicative of primary hyperparathyroidism?

      Patient A:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L
      PTH - 8.09 pmol/L
      Urea - 7.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 132 μmol/L
      Albumin - 36 g/L

      Patient B:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L
      PTH - 7.2 pmol/L
      Urea - 5 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 140 μmol/L
      Albumin - 38 g/L

      Patient C:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L
      PTH - 12.53 pmol/L
      Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 540 μmol/L
      Albumin - 28 g/L

      Patient D:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L
      PTH - 2.05 pmol/L
      Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 190 μmol/L
      Albumin - 40 g/L

      Patient E:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L
      PTH - 5.88 pmol/L
      Urea - 4.6 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 81 μmol/L
      Albumin - 18 g/L

      Your Answer: Patient C

      Correct Answer: Patient B

      Explanation:

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism and its Complications

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to elevated calcium levels and low serum phosphate. This condition can go undiagnosed for years, with an incidental finding of elevated calcium often being the first clue. However, complications can arise from longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism, including osteoporosis, renal calculi, and renal calcification.

      Osteoporosis occurs due to increased bone resorption under the influence of high levels of PTH. Renal calculi are also a common complication, as high levels of phosphate excretion and calcium availability can lead to the development of calcium phosphate renal stones. Additionally, calcium deposition in the renal parenchyma can cause renal impairment, which can develop gradually over time.

      Patients with longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism are at risk of impaired renal function, which is less common in patients with chronic kidney disease of other causes. While both conditions may have elevated PTH levels, hypocalcaemia is more common in chronic kidney disease due to impaired hydroxylation of vitamin D. the complications of primary hyperparathyroidism is crucial for early diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      52.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 36-year-old patient with breast carcinoma is discovered to have a 1.5 cm...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old patient with breast carcinoma is discovered to have a 1.5 cm tumour in the upper outer quadrant (OUQ) of her left breast. One local axillary node is positive, and no metastases are detected on imaging.
      What is the accurate TNM (Tumour, Nodes, and Metastases) staging for her?

      Your Answer: T1, N1, M0

      Explanation:

      TNM Staging and Examples

      TNM staging is a system used to describe the extent of cancer in a patient’s body. It takes into account the size of the tumor (T), whether it has spread to nearby lymph nodes (N), and whether it has metastasized to distant organs (M). The categories are further subdivided to provide more detailed information. Based on the TNM categories, cancers are grouped into stages, which help determine the most appropriate treatment options.

      Examples of TNM staging include:

      – T1, N1, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), one local axillary node is positive (N1), and there are no distant metastases (M0).
      – T0, Nx, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), and there was one positive axillary lymph node (N1). Nx would mean that spread to local lymph nodes was not assessed.
      – T1, N0, M1: There was one positive axillary lymph node (N1), and there are no distant metastases (M0).
      – T2, N1, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), and there was one positive axillary lymph node (N1).
      – T1, N1, Mx: There are no distant metastases (M0).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Sophie is a 32-year-old cyclist who fell off her bike two days ago...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 32-year-old cyclist who fell off her bike two days ago and landed on her outstretched hands. She did not hit her head. Today, she visited the emergency department complaining of pain in her right hand. She denies pain in other parts of her body.

      Upon examination, her right hand is mildly swollen, but there is no visible deformity. She experiences tenderness when palpated around her wrist dorsally and is particularly sensitive in the anatomical snuffbox area. Although the range of active movement of her wrist is limited due to pain and swelling, she was able to demonstrate thumb and wrist extension.

      After undergoing a standard x-ray series of her hand, wrist, and forearm, no fractures were detected. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Extensor pollicis longus tendon rupture

      Correct Answer: Scaphoid fracture

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scaphoid Fractures

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.

      Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 21-year-old male presents to the medical assessment unit with a 6-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old male presents to the medical assessment unit with a 6-week history of increasing frequency of diarrhoea and abdominal pain. The patient is now opening his bowels up to eight times a day, and he is also needing to get up during the night to pass motions. He describes the stool as watery, with some mucous and blood. He is also suffering with intermittent cramping abdominal pain. He has had no recent foreign travel, and no other contacts have been unwell with similar symptoms. He has lost almost 6 kg in weight. He has no other past medical history of note.
      Inflammatory bowel disease is high on the list of differentials.
      Which one of the following is most commonly associated with Ulcerative colitis (UC)?

      Your Answer: Transmural inflammation

      Correct Answer: Rectal involvement

      Explanation:

      Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn’s colitis are two types of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that affect the colon and rectum. However, there are several differences between the two conditions.

      Rectal Involvement
      UC usually originates in the rectum and progresses proximally, while Crohn’s colitis can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, including the duodenum.

      Transmural Inflammation
      Crohn’s colitis involves transmural inflammation, while UC typically affects only the submucosa or mucosa.

      Anal Fistulae and Abscesses
      Crohn’s colitis is more likely to cause anal fistulae and abscesses due to its transmural inflammation, while UC is less prone to these complications.

      Duodenal Involvement
      UC usually affects only the colon, while Crohn’s colitis can involve the duodenum. As a result, colectomy is often curative in UC but not in Crohn’s disease.

      Symptoms and Severity
      Both conditions can cause bloody diarrhea, weight loss, and abdominal pain. However, the severity of UC is measured by the number of bowel movements per day, abdominal pain and distension, signs of toxicity, blood loss and anemia, and colon dilation.

      Understanding the Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden painless loss...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden painless loss of vision in his left eye. He has noticed a decline in his vision over the past few months, but attributed it to his age. He has a history of smoking 30 cigarettes daily for the last 45 years and well-controlled hypertension. The left eye has a visual acuity of 6/30, while the right eye has a visual acuity of 6/12. A central scotoma is evident on visual field testing. Fundus examination is being conducted after administering mydriatic eye drops. What is the most specific finding for the underlying cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer: Optic disc cupping

      Correct Answer: Choroidal neovascularisation

      Explanation:

      The patient’s acute onset painless visual loss, along with their chronic visual loss, distorted vision, age, and smoking history, suggest a diagnosis of age-related macular degeneration (AMD). Since the vision loss was sudden, wet AMD is more likely than dry AMD. Choroidal neovascularisation is a hallmark feature of wet AMD, as new blood vessels formed are weak and unstable, leading to intraretinal or subretinal fluid leakage or haemorrhage.

      Blurring of the optic disc margins is not a feature of AMD, but rather papilloedema, which is associated with increased intracranial pressure and typically presents with progressive and positional headaches, nausea, and vomiting.

      Cotton-wool exudates are not commonly seen in AMD, but rather in hypertensive and diabetic retinopathy. Although the patient has hypertension, it is well-controlled, and hypertensive retinopathy tends to present with slow and progressive visual loss.

      Geographic atrophy may be seen in the late stages of both forms of AMD, but the presence of choroidal neovascularisation is the key differentiating feature between the two.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of frequent urination and dribbling....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of frequent urination and dribbling. He reports going to the bathroom six times per hour and waking up multiple times at night to urinate. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia, and is currently taking finasteride and tamsulosin. On physical examination, the doctor notes an enlarged, symmetrical, firm, and non-tender prostate. The patient denies any changes in weight, fever, or appetite. His International Prostate Symptom Score is 20. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Stop tamsulosin and start darifenacin

      Correct Answer: Add tolterodine

      Explanation:

      Tolterodine should be added to the management plan for patients with an overactive bladder, particularly those with voiding and storage symptoms such as dribbling, frequency, and nocturia, which are commonly caused by benign prostatic hyperplasia in men. If alpha-blockers like tamsulosin are not effective, antimuscarinic agents can be added according to NICE guidelines. Adding alfuzosin or sildenafil would be inappropriate, and changing the alpha-blocker is not recommended.

      Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a urinalysis to check for infection and haematuria, perform a digital rectal examination to assess the size and consistency of the prostate, and possibly conduct a PSA test after proper counselling. Patients should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.

      For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be offered. If there are mixed symptoms of voiding and storage not responding to an alpha-blocker, an antimuscarinic drug may be added. For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered, and antimuscarinic drugs may be prescribed if symptoms persist. Mirabegron may be considered if first-line drugs fail. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night, furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon, and desmopressin may be helpful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 26-year-old woman weighing 70kg is brought to the emergency department with burns...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman weighing 70kg is brought to the emergency department with burns covering 25% of her body surface area.

      Using the Parkland formula, calculate the volume of Hartmann's solution that is recommended to be given in the first 8 hours after the burn.

      Your Answer: 3.5L

      Explanation:

      To calculate the amount of Hartmann’s solution to be administered in the first 24 hours after a burn, multiply the body surface area by the weight in kilograms. For example, if the body surface area is 4 and the weight is 70 kg, the calculation would be 4 x 25 x 70 = 7000 ml. Half of this amount should be given within the first 8 hours after the burn, which equals 3.5 liters.

      Fluid Resuscitation for Burns

      Fluid resuscitation is necessary for patients with burns that cover more than 15% of their total body area (10% for children). The primary goal of resuscitation is to prevent the burn from deepening. Most fluid is lost within the first 24 hours after injury, and during the first 8-12 hours, fluid shifts from the intravascular to the interstitial fluid compartments, which can compromise circulatory volume. However, fluid resuscitation causes more fluid to enter the interstitial compartment, especially colloid, which should be avoided in the first 8-24 hours. Protein loss also occurs.

      The Parkland formula is used to calculate the total fluid requirement in 24 hours, which is given as 4 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)). Fifty percent of the total fluid requirement is given in the first 8 hours, and the remaining 50% is given in the next 16 hours. The resuscitation endpoint is a urine output of 0.5-1.0 ml/kg/hour in adults, and the rate of fluid is increased to achieve this.

      It is important to note that the starting point of resuscitation is the time of injury, and fluids already given should be deducted. After 24 hours, colloid infusion is begun at a rate of 0.5 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)), and maintenance crystalloid (usually dextrose-saline) is continued at a rate of 1.5 ml x (burn area) x (body weight). Colloids used include albumin and FFP, and antioxidants such as vitamin C can be used to minimize oxidant-mediated contributions to the inflammatory cascade in burns. High tension electrical injuries and inhalation injuries require more fluid, and monitoring of packed cell volume, plasma sodium, base excess, and lactate is essential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner after suffering from several miscarriages...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner after suffering from several miscarriages and is afraid her husband will leave her. The patient gave the history of bruising even with minor injuries and several spontaneous miscarriages. On examination, the patient is noted to have a rash in a butterfly distribution on the nose and cheeks. Tests reveal 1+ proteinuria only.
      What is the most likely cause of her main concern?

      Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Antiphospholipid Syndrome (APLS) and its Link to Recurrent Spontaneous Abortions

      When a young woman experiences multiple spontaneous abortions, it may indicate an underlying disorder. One possible cause is antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS), a hypercoagulable state with autoantibodies against phospholipid components. This disorder can lead to recurrent spontaneous abortions during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, and approximately 9% of APLS patients also have renal abnormalities.

      Other potential causes of recurrent spontaneous abortions include poorly controlled diabetes, nephritic syndrome, dermatomyositis, and anatomic defects like a bicornuate uterus. However, the examination and test results in this case suggest a systemic etiology, making APLS a strong possibility.

      Diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which can also cause nephritic or nephrotic syndrome, requires meeting at least 4 out of 11 criteria established by the American Rheumatism Association (ARA).

      Understanding these potential causes and their links to recurrent spontaneous abortions can help healthcare providers identify and treat underlying disorders in women of reproductive age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 52-year-old man is shot in the abdomen and suffers a significant intra-abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man is shot in the abdomen and suffers a significant intra-abdominal injury. He undergoes a laparotomy, bowel resection, and end colostomy, and requires a 6-unit blood transfusion due to an associated vascular injury. After a prolonged recovery, he is paralyzed and ventilated for 2 weeks in the intensive care unit. He is given total parenteral nutrition and eventually weaned off the ventilator and transferred to the ward. During a routine blood test, the following results are observed:

      Full blood count
      Hb 11.3 g/dl
      Platelets 267 x 109/l
      WBC 10.1 x109/l

      Urea and electrolytes
      Na+ 131 mmol/l
      K+ 4.6 mmol/l
      Urea 2.3 mmol/l
      Creatinine 78 µmol/l

      Liver function tests
      Bilirubin 25 µmol/l
      ALP 445 u/l
      ALT 89 u/l
      γGT 103 u/l

      What is the most probable underlying cause for the noted abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Bile leak

      Correct Answer: Total parenteral nutrition

      Explanation:

      Liver function tests are often affected by TPN, which can cause cholestasis but it is unlikely to lead to the formation of gallstones as seen in the image. While blood transfusion reactions may cause hepatitis, they usually present earlier and with changes in haemoglobin, which is rare in modern times.

      Understanding Total Parenteral Nutrition

      Total parenteral nutrition is a commonly used method of providing nutrition to surgical patients who are nutritionally compromised. The bags used in this method contain a combination of glucose, lipids, and essential electrolytes, with the exact composition being determined by the patient’s nutritional requirements. While it is possible to infuse this nutrition peripherally, doing so may result in thrombophlebitis. As such, longer-term infusions should be administered into a central vein, preferably via a PICC line.

      Complications associated with total parenteral nutrition are related to sepsis, refeeding syndromes, and hepatic dysfunction. It is important to monitor patients closely for any signs of these complications and adjust the nutrition accordingly. By understanding the basics of total parenteral nutrition, healthcare professionals can provide optimal care to their patients and ensure their nutritional needs are being met.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - As the foundation year doctor in general surgery, you are called to assess...

    Incorrect

    • As the foundation year doctor in general surgery, you are called to assess a patient who has suddenly become unresponsive at 4 am. The patient is a 45-year-old female who has been admitted for an elective cholecystectomy scheduled for 8 am.

      Upon examination, the patient appears sweaty and clammy and is hypoventilating. She is only responsive to painful stimuli.

      The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 115, blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate of 8, oxygen saturation of 99%, and blood glucose level of 1.1.

      What would be your next step in initiating drug therapy?

      Your Answer: Dextrose 50% 50 ml IV

      Correct Answer: Dextrose 20% 100 ml IV

      Explanation:

      Hypoglycaemia: The Importance of Early Recognition and Management

      Clinicians should always consider hypoglycaemia as a potential cause of acute unresponsiveness in patients. The diagnosis of hypoglycaemia is made when there is evidence of low blood sugar, associated symptoms, and resolution of symptoms with correction of hypoglycaemia. The management of hypoglycaemia should be prompt and involves administering 100 ml of 20% dextrose, as opposed to 50%, which can be too irritating to the veins. Repeat blood sugar measurements should be taken to ensure that levels remain above 3.0.

      In patients who are fasting overnight for surgery, intravenous fluids should be prescribed with close monitoring of blood sugars to determine whether slow 5% dextrose is required to maintain an acceptable blood sugar level. Glucagon and Hypostop are alternative therapies used to increase glucose levels, but they are not rapid rescue drugs for the correction of low sugars in symptomatic patients.

      To identify the cause of hypoglycaemia, the acronym EXPLAIN is used. This stands for Exogenous insulin administration, Pituitary insufficiency, Liver failure, Alcohol/Autoimmune/Addison’s, Insulinoma, and Neoplasia. All episodes of hypoglycaemia require an explanation, and further endocrine workup may be necessary if no cause is identified.

      In conclusion, early recognition and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial in preventing further deterioration of the patient’s condition. Clinicians should always consider hypoglycaemia as a potential cause of acute unresponsiveness and promptly administer appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      60.4
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  • Question 22 - You are working in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit and currently assessing a...

    Correct

    • You are working in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit and currently assessing a 3-day-old boy with respiratory distress due to meconium aspiration. The mother is visibly upset and asks if there was anything she could have done to prevent this.

      After reviewing the medical history, you find that the baby was conceived through in vitro fertilization, there were no complications during the pregnancy, but he was delivered via C-section at 41 weeks with a birth weight of 2.6kg.

      What is the most significant risk factor for meconium aspiration in this particular case?

      Your Answer: Post-term delivery

      Explanation:

      Post-term delivery is a major risk factor for meconium aspiration, which is why women are induced following term. Placental insufficiency, not low birth weight, is a consequence of meconium aspiration. The sex of the child and assisted reproduction are not considered independent risk factors. While meconium aspiration may cause distress during labor and potentially result in a Caesarean section, it is not a risk factor on its own.

      Understanding Meconium Aspiration Syndrome

      Meconium aspiration syndrome is a condition that affects newborns and causes respiratory distress due to the presence of meconium in the trachea. This condition typically occurs in the immediate neonatal period and is more common in post-term deliveries, with rates of up to 44% reported in babies born after 42 weeks. The severity of the respiratory distress can vary, but it can be quite severe in some cases.

      There are several risk factors associated with meconium aspiration syndrome, including a history of maternal hypertension, pre-eclampsia, chorioamnionitis, smoking, or substance abuse. These risk factors can increase the likelihood of a baby developing this condition. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to monitor newborns closely for signs of respiratory distress.

      Overall, meconium aspiration syndrome is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. With proper management and treatment, however, most babies are able to recover fully and go on to lead healthy lives. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with this condition, healthcare providers can help ensure that newborns receive the care they need to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      8.5
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  • Question 23 - A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with fever, rigors, breathlessness and...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with fever, rigors, breathlessness and a cough. He is producing a frothy pink/green sputum spotted with blood. On examination, you find that he is very confused, with a respiratory rate (RR) of 33 breaths per minute and blood pressure (BP) of 100/70 mmHg. Bloods reveal his urea is 3.2 mmol/l. On auscultation of the chest, you hear a pleural rub. Chest X-ray reveals multilobar consolidation.
      Which one of the following statements regarding his management is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: He needs an ABC approach with fluid resuscitation

      Explanation:

      Managing Severe Pneumonia: Key Considerations and Treatment Approaches

      Severe pneumonia requires prompt and effective management to prevent complications and improve outcomes. The following points highlight important considerations and treatment approaches for managing patients with severe pneumonia:

      – ABC approach with fluid resuscitation: The initial step in managing severe pneumonia involves assessing and addressing the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation. This may include providing oxygen therapy, administering fluids to correct hypovolemia or dehydration, and monitoring vital signs.
      – CURB 65 score: This scoring system helps to assess the severity of pneumonia and guide treatment decisions. Patients with a score of 3 or higher may require ICU referral.
      – Oxygen saturation: Low oxygen saturation levels (<95%) at presentation increase the risk of death and should be promptly addressed with oxygen therapy.
      – Analgesia for pleuritic chest pain: While analgesia may be offered to manage pleuritic chest pain, it may not be effective in all cases. Paracetamol or NSAIDs are recommended as first-line options.
      – Antibiotic therapy: Empirical antibiotics should be started promptly after appropriate resuscitation. Culture results should be obtained to confirm the causative organism and guide further treatment.

      In summary, managing severe pneumonia requires a comprehensive approach that addresses the patient’s clinical status, severity of illness, and potential complications. By following these key considerations and treatment approaches, healthcare providers can improve outcomes and reduce the risk of adverse events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of pain during bowel movements...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of pain during bowel movements for the past 4 days. Upon examination, a tender, oedematous, and purple subcutaneous mass is found at the anal margin. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stool softeners, ice packs and analgesia

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from thrombosed haemorrhoids, which is characterized by anorectal pain and a tender lump on the anal margin. Since the patient has a 4-day history, stool softeners, ice packs, and analgesia are the recommended management options. Referral for excision and analgesia would be appropriate if the history was <72 hours. However, a 2-week wait referral for suspected cancer is not necessary as the patient's symptoms and examination findings are not indicative of cancer. Although this condition typically resolves within 10 days with supportive management, reassurance alone is not enough. The patient should be given analgesia and stool softeners to alleviate the pain. Thrombosed haemorrhoids are characterized by severe pain and the presence of a tender lump. Upon examination, a purplish, swollen, and tender subcutaneous perianal mass can be observed. If the patient seeks medical attention within 72 hours of onset, referral for excision may be necessary. However, if the condition has progressed beyond this timeframe, patients can typically manage their symptoms with stool softeners, ice packs, and pain relief medication. Symptoms usually subside within 10 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man comes to see his GP for a follow-up on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to see his GP for a follow-up on his hypertension treatment, which was recently changed. Prior to the appointment, he underwent ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, which revealed an average reading of 130/78 mmHg. Despite being compliant with his medication, he has been experiencing occasional dizziness and palpitations since starting the new drug. He wants to explore other treatment options. During an episode, an ECG was performed, which showed only sinus tachycardia and no other abnormalities. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Indapamide

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Nifedipine is known to cause reflex tachycardia due to its peripheral vasodilation effects. This rapid decrease in blood pressure is perceived by the autonomic nervous system as excessive, leading to an increased heart rate to compensate. Patients may experience palpitations and dizziness as a result. Sustained-release preparations of nifedipine are less likely to cause reflex tachycardia. The BNF lists palpitations as a common or very common side effect of nifedipine.

      Indapamide, on the other hand, is a thiazide-like diuretic that reduces blood volume and pressure through sodium diuresis. It does not cause peripheral vasodilation or reflex tachycardia. Palpitations and tachycardia are not listed as side effects of indapamide on the BNF. Dehydration, postural hypotension, and dizziness are more common side effects.

      Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor that reduces blood pressure by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. It does not cause peripheral vasodilation or reflex tachycardia. Palpitations and tachycardia are not listed as side effects of ramipril on the BNF. A dry cough and angioedema are more common side effects of ACE inhibitors. Hyperkalemia, which can be associated with ACE inhibitors, may cause palpitations, but this would be evident on an ECG.

      Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers

      Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      44.4
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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman presents to a routine antenatal clinic at 16 weeks gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to a routine antenatal clinic at 16 weeks gestation. She has a history of occasional frontal headaches but no significant past medical history. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured at 148/76 mmHg. Urinalysis shows a pH of 6.5, +1 protein, 0 nitrates, 0 leucocytes, and 0 blood. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia

      Correct Answer: Chronic hypertension

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis in this case is chronic hypertension. It is unlikely that the patient has developed any pregnancy-related causes of hypertension at only 16 weeks gestation. The small amount of protein in her urine suggests that she may have had hypertension for some time. The patient’s intermittent frontal headaches are a common occurrence and do not indicate pre-eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia and gestational hypertension typically occur after 20 weeks gestation, with pre-eclampsia being associated with significant proteinuria and gestational hypertension without. Nephrotic syndrome would typically present with a larger degree of proteinuria.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 27 - A 67-year-old patient comes in with a spastic hemiparesis on the left side,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old patient comes in with a spastic hemiparesis on the left side, a positive Babinski sign on the left, and facial paralysis on the left lower two-thirds. However, the patient's speech is fluent and they have normal comprehension of verbal and written commands. Which cerebral artery is likely blocked?

      Your Answer: Right middle cerebral

      Correct Answer: Left lenticulostriate

      Explanation:

      Pure Motor Stroke

      A pure motor stroke is a type of stroke that results in a right hemiparesis, or weakness on one side of the body. This type of stroke is caused by a lesion in the left cerebral hemisphere, which is likely to be a lacunar infarct. The symptoms of a pure motor stroke are purely motor, meaning that they only affect movement and not speech or comprehension.

      If the stroke had affected the entire territory of the left middle cerebral artery, then speech and comprehension would also be affected. However, in this case, the lesion is likely to be in the lenticulostriate artery, which has caused infarction of the internal capsule. This leads to a purely motor stroke, where the patient experiences weakness on one side of the body.

      the type of stroke a patient has is important for determining the appropriate treatment and management plan. In the case of a pure motor stroke, rehabilitation and physical therapy may be necessary to help the patient regain strength and mobility on the affected side of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - What condition increases the likelihood of developing colon cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition increases the likelihood of developing colon cancer?

      Your Answer: Diverticular disease

      Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Factors that Increase the Risk of Colonic Cancer

      Several factors can increase the risk of developing colonic cancer. These include a high-fat, low-fibre diet, being over the age of 50, having a personal history of colorectal adenoma or carcinoma (which increases the risk three-fold), having a first-degree relative with colorectal cancer (also three-fold risk), and having certain genetic conditions such as familial polyposis coli, Gardner syndrome, Turcot syndrome, Juvenile polyposis syndrome, Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, or hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer.

      In addition, individuals with ulcerative colitis have a 30% risk of developing colonic cancer after 25 years, while those with Crohn’s disease have a four- to 10-fold increased risk. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and to undergo regular screenings for colonic cancer, especially if any of these factors apply to you. By catching the cancer early, it is more likely to be treatable and curable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      13.4
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  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old male presents for a follow-up appointment after undergoing an abdominal aorta...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents for a follow-up appointment after undergoing an abdominal aorta ultrasound. The width of his aorta is measured at 4.9 cm, which is an increase from 3.5 cm during his previous free screening appointment a year ago. Despite being asymptomatic, what would be the recommended course of action for his management?

      Your Answer: Re-scan in 3 months

      Correct Answer: Refer to vascular surgery to be seen within 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Referral to vascular surgery within 2 weeks is necessary for rapidly enlarging aneurysms of any size, even if asymptomatic. In this case, the patient’s aorta width has increased by 1.4 cm in one year, which represents a high rupture risk and requires intervention. Therefore, the correct answer is to refer the patient to vascular surgery. The answer no further action necessary is incorrect as the patient’s condition requires referral. Similarly, the answers re-scan in 3 months and re-scan in 6 months are incorrect as they do not address the high rupture risk and the need for intervention.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      14.6
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  • Question 30 - A 60-year-old man has been asked to visit his GP because of abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been asked to visit his GP because of abnormal renal function tests for the past two months. His GFR reading has been consistently 35 ml/min. What stage of CKD is this patient exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Stage 3b

      Correct Answer: This patient does not meet the criteria for CKD

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease Stages

      Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is a condition that affects the kidneys and their ability to filter waste from the blood. To diagnose CKD, a patient must have a GFR (glomerular filtration rate) of less than 60 ml/min for at least three months. This is the primary criteria for CKD diagnosis.

      There are five stages of CKD, each with different GFR values and symptoms. Stage 1 CKD presents with a GFR greater than 90 ml/min and some signs of kidney damage. Stage 3a CKD presents with a GFR of 45-59 ml/min, while stage 3b CKD patients have a GFR of 30-44 ml/min. However, both stage 3a and 3b require the GFR to be present for at least three months.

      There is no stage 4a CKD. Instead, stage 4 CKD patients have a GFR of 15-29 ml/min. It is important to understand the different stages of CKD to properly diagnose and treat patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      11.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/2) 50%
Obstetrics (2/3) 67%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Palliative Care (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Surgery (2/6) 33%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Passmed