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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man with a history of metastatic lung cancer presents to the oncology clinic for follow-up. Despite multiple rounds of radiotherapy, there has been no improvement in his condition and he is now receiving palliative care. During the visit, he mentions that his daughter has noticed a change in his facial appearance. Upon examination, the physician observes drooping of the right eyelid and a smaller right pupil. What other symptom is indicative of Horner's syndrome?
Your Answer: Supraclavicular mass
Correct Answer: Ipsilateral loss of sweating of the face
Explanation:The answer is the loss of sweating on the same side of the face as the affected eye. This could indicate Horner’s syndrome, which is often caused by a Pancoast’s tumor. Horner’s syndrome is characterized by a drooping eyelid, a constricted pupil, sunken eyes, and a lack of sweating on one side of the face. Although a tumor that causes damage to the brachial plexus and results in arm nerve function loss may be present, it is not a symptom of Horner’s syndrome.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 35-year-old married woman with two children. She comes to you in distress and expresses suicidal thoughts, stating that she has considered taking an overdose. She has no history of self-harm or suicide attempts, and no psychiatric background. Despite having a loving family and enjoying her job, she is struggling. What is a risk factor for suicide in this case?
Your Answer: Female gender
Correct Answer: Male gender
Explanation:Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors
Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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A 26-year-old female student presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain that started suddenly while she was shopping 3 hours ago. She reports not having her periods for 8 weeks and being sexually active. She also has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease 4 years ago. On examination, there is generalised guarding and signs of peritonism. An urgent ultrasound scan reveals free fluid in the pouch of Douglas with an empty uterine cavity, and a positive urine βhCG. Basic bloods are sent. Suddenly, her condition deteriorates, and her vital signs are BP 85/50 mmHg, HR 122/min, RR 20/min, and O2 saturation 94%.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Resuscitate and arrange for emergency laparotomy
Explanation:There is a strong indication of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy based on the clinical presentation. The patient’s condition has deteriorated significantly, with symptoms of shock and a systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg. Due to her unstable cardiovascular state, urgent consideration must be given to performing an emergency laparotomy.
Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.
During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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As an FY2 doctor in the Emergency Department, you are attending to a patient who is experiencing severe abdominal pain. The patient is unable to localise the pain, and reports feeling faint. Upon examination, you observe a pulsatile expansile mass above their umbilicus, along with generalised abdominal tenderness. The patient's blood pressure is 95/51 mmHg, and their pulse is 114 bpm. While awaiting a surgical review, the patient is receiving fluid resuscitation for their low blood pressure. In this scenario, which of the following would provide the most useful information for planning the patient's management?
Your Answer: Ultrasound
Correct Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) scan
Explanation:Imaging Options for Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Clinical diagnosis may be possible based on the presence of a pulsatile expansile mass and severe shock, but a computerised tomography (CT) scan is needed to assess the dimensions and anatomical relations of the aneurysm. This information is crucial in determining the most suitable type of surgical repair, such as endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR).
X-rays are not useful for visualising soft tissue structures, while intravenous arteriograms are completely inappropriate as the contrast can cause peritonitis and worsen the patient’s condition. Ultrasound scans are good for confirming suspected AAAs in stable patients, but they cannot provide accurate information for surgical planning.
In summary, a CT scan is the most appropriate imaging option for diagnosing and planning treatment for AAA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old man provides his general practitioner with a semen specimen, as part of an investigation for failure to conceive over a 2-year period.
In semen analysis, which of the following is incompatible with normal fertility?Your Answer: Sperm count of 5 million per ml of ejaculate
Explanation:Understanding Semen Analysis: Normal Values for Sperm Count, Volume, pH, Viability, and Motility
Semen analysis is a crucial test to evaluate male fertility. The World Health Organisation (WHO) has established reference values for semen parameters, including sperm count, volume, pH, viability, and motility.
The normal sperm count is 15 million per ml of ejaculate, and a sample should be submitted to the lab within an hour of collection for accurate results. A sperm count of 5 million per ml of ejaculate is considered low and may indicate infertility.
The semen volume should be 1.5 ml or more, and a volume of 3 ml per ejaculation is considered normal. The ejaculate pH should be 7.2 or more, and a pH below 7.0 may indicate an infection or obstruction in the reproductive tract.
Sperm viability refers to the percentage of live sperm in the sample. The normal viability is 58% or more live sperm, and a lower percentage may indicate poor sperm quality or function.
Sperm motility refers to the ability of sperm to move and swim towards the egg. The normal sperm should be 40% or more motile, and 32% or more should have progressive motility. A motility of 55% four hours after ejaculation is considered normal.
In conclusion, understanding the normal values for semen analysis can help diagnose male infertility and guide appropriate treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, hypertension and depression has been experiencing severe pins and needles in her hands upon waking in the morning. The patient has worked as a stenographer for the last 25 years, and this sensation has been increasing in intensity over the past 7 years.
What would be the anticipated findings for this patient based on her medical history and symptoms?Your Answer: Numbness over the medial aspect of the ring finger
Correct Answer: Flattening of the thenar eminence
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Median Nerve Compression in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve is compressed within the carpal tunnel of the wrist. This can lead to a variety of symptoms, including numbness, weakness, and pain in the affected hand and fingers. Here are some common symptoms of median nerve compression in carpal tunnel syndrome and what they mean:
Flattening of the thenar eminence: The thenar eminence is the fleshy area at the base of the thumb. When the median nerve is compressed, the muscles in this area may undergo wasting, leading to a flattened appearance.
Numbness over the medial aspect of the ring finger: The median nerve supplies sensation to the lateral three and a half digits of the hand, including the ring finger. Numbness in this area may be a sign of median nerve compression.
Inability to abduct the thumb: The abductor pollicis brevis muscle, which is innervated by the median nerve, is responsible for abducting the thumb. When the median nerve is compressed, this movement may be weakened.
Numbness over the proximal palm: The median nerve gives off a palmar cutaneous branch before entering the carpal tunnel. This branch supplies sensation to the proximal palm and is therefore unaffected by median nerve compression.
Normal sensation over the radial aspect of the ring finger: Despite supplying sensation to the lateral three and a half digits of the hand, the median nerve does not supply sensation to the dorsal aspect of the interdigital web between the thumb and index finger or the radial aspect of the ring finger. Therefore, sensation in this area would not be affected by median nerve compression.
Understanding these symptoms can help individuals recognize the signs of carpal tunnel syndrome and seek appropriate treatment. Treatment options may include medication, wrist splints, and surgery to release the compressed nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for 2 years. He has a significant cardiac history, including two previous myocardial infarctions, peripheral vascular disease, and three transient ischemic attacks. He is also a non-insulin-dependent diabetic. During examination, his JVP is raised by 2 cm, and he has peripheral pitting edema to the mid-calf bilaterally and bilateral basal fine inspiratory crepitations. His last ECHO, performed 3 years ago, showed moderately impaired LV function and mitral regurgitation. He is currently taking bisoprolol, aspirin, simvastatin, furosemide, ramipril, and gliclazide. Which medication, if added, would provide prognostic benefit?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Heart Failure Medications: Prognostic and Symptomatic Benefits
Heart failure is a prevalent disease that can be managed with various medications. These medications can be divided into two categories: those with prognostic benefits and those with symptomatic benefits. Prognostic medications help improve long-term outcomes, while symptomatic medications provide relief from symptoms.
Prognostic medications include selective beta-blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin II antagonists, and spironolactone. In the RALES trial, spironolactone was shown to reduce all-cause mortality by 30% in patients with heart failure and an ejection fraction of less than 35%.
Symptomatic medications include loop diuretics, digoxin, and vasodilators such as nitrates and hydralazine. These medications provide relief from symptoms but do not improve long-term outcomes.
Other medications, such as nifedipine, sotalol, and naftidrofuryl, are used to manage other conditions such as angina, hypertension, and peripheral and cerebrovascular disorders, but are not of prognostic benefit in heart failure.
Treatment for heart failure can be tailored to each individual case, and heart transplant remains a limited option for certain patient groups. Understanding the benefits and limitations of different medications can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and nausea. She has a medical history of gallstones and alcohol dependence. Upon examination, she has a tender right epigastrium and a temperature of 38.3ºC. Despite this, she is hemodynamically stable. Her blood results show a raised white cell count and C-reactive protein, but her liver profile and serum amylase/lipase results are normal. The sepsis protocol is initiated, and she is started on intravenous antibiotics. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy once inflammation has subsided
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 1 week of diagnosis
Explanation:The recommended treatment for acute cholecystitis is intravenous antibiotics followed by laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 1 week of diagnosis. Conservative management is not recommended as it may lead to chronic disease and recurrence of infection. Delaying treatment and opting for open cholecystectomy once inflammation has subsided is also not recommended as it has been associated with increased rates of sepsis, jaundice, and cancer. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is preferred over open cholecystectomy as it is associated with lower postoperative morbidity, mortality, and reduced length of stay in the hospital.
Acute cholecystitis is a condition where the gallbladder becomes inflamed. This is usually caused by gallstones, which are present in 90% of cases. The remaining 10% of cases are known as acalculous cholecystitis and are typically seen in severely ill patients who are hospitalized. The pathophysiology of acute cholecystitis is multifactorial and can be caused by gallbladder stasis, hypoperfusion, and infection. In immunosuppressed patients, it may develop due to Cryptosporidium or cytomegalovirus. This condition is associated with high morbidity and mortality rates.
The main symptom of acute cholecystitis is right upper quadrant pain, which may radiate to the right shoulder. Patients may also experience fever and signs of systemic upset. Murphy’s sign, which is inspiratory arrest upon palpation of the right upper quadrant, may be present. Liver function tests are typically normal, but deranged LFTs may indicate Mirizzi syndrome, which is caused by a gallstone impacted in the distal cystic duct, causing extrinsic compression of the common bile duct.
Ultrasound is the first-line investigation for acute cholecystitis. If the diagnosis remains unclear, cholescintigraphy (HIDA scan) may be used. In this test, technetium-labelled HIDA is injected IV and taken up selectively by hepatocytes and excreted into bile. In acute cholecystitis, there is cystic duct obstruction, and the gallbladder will not be visualized.
The treatment for acute cholecystitis involves intravenous antibiotics and cholecystectomy. NICE now recommends early laparoscopic cholecystectomy, within 1 week of diagnosis. Previously, surgery was delayed for several weeks until the inflammation had subsided. Pregnant women should also proceed to early laparoscopic cholecystectomy to reduce the chances of maternal-fetal complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man is shot in the abdomen and suffers a significant intra-abdominal injury. He undergoes a laparotomy, bowel resection, and end colostomy, and requires a 6-unit blood transfusion due to an associated vascular injury. After a prolonged recovery, he is paralyzed and ventilated for 2 weeks in the intensive care unit. He is given total parenteral nutrition and eventually weaned off the ventilator and transferred to the ward. During a routine blood test, the following results are observed:
Full blood count
Hb 11.3 g/dl
Platelets 267 x 109/l
WBC 10.1 x109/l
Urea and electrolytes
Na+ 131 mmol/l
K+ 4.6 mmol/l
Urea 2.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 78 µmol/l
Liver function tests
Bilirubin 25 µmol/l
ALP 445 u/l
ALT 89 u/l
γGT 103 u/l
What is the most probable underlying cause for the noted abnormalities?Your Answer: Gallstones
Correct Answer: Total parenteral nutrition
Explanation:Liver function tests are often affected by TPN, which can cause cholestasis but it is unlikely to lead to the formation of gallstones as seen in the image. While blood transfusion reactions may cause hepatitis, they usually present earlier and with changes in haemoglobin, which is rare in modern times.
Understanding Total Parenteral Nutrition
Total parenteral nutrition is a commonly used method of providing nutrition to surgical patients who are nutritionally compromised. The bags used in this method contain a combination of glucose, lipids, and essential electrolytes, with the exact composition being determined by the patient’s nutritional requirements. While it is possible to infuse this nutrition peripherally, doing so may result in thrombophlebitis. As such, longer-term infusions should be administered into a central vein, preferably via a PICC line.
Complications associated with total parenteral nutrition are related to sepsis, refeeding syndromes, and hepatic dysfunction. It is important to monitor patients closely for any signs of these complications and adjust the nutrition accordingly. By understanding the basics of total parenteral nutrition, healthcare professionals can provide optimal care to their patients and ensure their nutritional needs are being met.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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In a study investigating the usefulness of serum procalcitonin level in early detection of bacteraemia, 50 febrile patients aged 60 and above were tested for both serum procalcitonin and bacterial culture. The results showed that a serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L had a sensitivity of 85% in detecting bacteraemia.
Which statement below accurately reflects the findings of the study?Your Answer: 85% of the patients who have bacteraemia would be expected to have serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L
Explanation:Sensitivity in Medical Testing
When it comes to medical testing, sensitivity is an important concept to understand. It refers to the proportion of diseased cases that are correctly identified as positive by the test. In other words, sensitivity tells us how good a test is at detecting a particular condition or disease.
For example, if we know that 85% of patients with bacteraemia have a serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L, we can say that the sensitivity of a test for bacteraemia is 85%. This means that if we were to test a group of patients for bacteraemia using this test, we would expect 85% of those who actually have the condition to test positive.
It’s important to note that sensitivity is not affected by the number of patients being tested. Whether we test 10 patients or 1000 patients, the sensitivity of the test remains the same. However, sensitivity can be influenced by other factors such as the quality of the test and the criteria used to define a positive result. By sensitivity, healthcare professionals can make more informed decisions about which tests to use and how to interpret the results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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