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  • Question 1 - A 14-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a cut sustained while...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a cut sustained while helping her mother with gardening. The wound appears superficial and is closed with skin glue. During examination, her vital signs are recorded as a temperature of 36.9ºC, heart rate of 86 bpm, blood pressure of 115/87 mmHg, respiratory rate of 16/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. The patient's mother is concerned about the need for a tetanus booster as she cannot recall if her daughter received the full course of vaccinations during childhood. How should the patient be managed?

      Your Answer: Oral antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Tetanus booster vaccine and immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s tetanus vaccination history is uncertain and the wound is not minor and less than 6 hours old, they should receive a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin. In this case, the patient is 13 years old and should have received 4 or 5 vaccinations against tetanus under the standard UK vaccination schedule. Antibiotics are not necessary if the wound is clean and not deep. It is more efficient to administer the booster while the patient is in the department rather than asking the GP to follow up, which could result in the patient being lost to follow up. The term tetanus level is incorrect as there is no such test.

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

      Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      570.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - As a junior doctor on the neonatal ward, you are called to a...

    Correct

    • As a junior doctor on the neonatal ward, you are called to a forceps delivery. During the delivery, the midwives notice shoulder dystocia in a newborn. What is the initial management approach for shoulder dystocia in a neonate?

      Your Answer: McRoberts manoeuvre (hyperflexion of the legs)

      Explanation:

      The McRoberts maneuver involves hyperflexing the legs.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      4.9
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  • Question 3 - A 57-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder, which is well controlled...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder, which is well controlled with lithium, presents with a 2-day history of confusion, diarrhoea and tremors. He takes regular analgesia for chronic back pain and has been feeling unwell recently.
      A blood test shows:
      Value Reference
      Lithium (serum) 4.2 mmol/L (0.6 - 1)
      What is the probable reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs can cause lithium toxicity by reducing renal excretion of lithium and increasing plasma levels. Therefore, routine monitoring of serum lithium levels is necessary, especially after initiation and dose changes. ACE-I and diuretics should not be used with lithium due to the risk of renal dysfunction. Abruptly stopping lithium does not cause toxicity, but reducing caffeine intake can lead to toxicity by reducing lithium clearance. Cranberry juice does not interact with lithium, but it increases the risk of rhabdomyolysis when taken with statins. Dehydration, not excessive water intake, increases the risk of lithium toxicity by reducing lithium excretion.

      Understanding Lithium Toxicity

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.

      Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.

      In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      17.4
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  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a high stoma output...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a high stoma output from his ileostomy. He had a colectomy 8 years ago due to severe ulcerative colitis. He complains of leg cramps and occasional palpitations, and feels weak. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft with slight tenderness throughout. His blood work reveals a sodium level of 138 mmol/l, potassium level of 2.2 mmol/l, urea level of 13.3 mmol/l, and creatinine level of 150 µmol/l. An ECG shows flattened T waves and U waves. He is admitted to the medical admission unit. How should his electrolyte imbalance be managed?

      Your Answer: Transfer to high care area with cardiac monitoring, 3 x 1litre bags of 0.9% saline with 40mmol KCL per bag over 24 hours.

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypokalaemia and its Features

      Hypokalaemia is a medical condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. It can lead to various symptoms, including muscle weakness and hypotonia. Patients with hypokalaemia who are also taking diuretics should be monitored closely for digoxin toxicity.

      One of the most significant concerns with hypokalaemia is its impact on the heart. ECG features associated with hypokalaemia include U waves, small or absent T waves, prolonged PR interval, and ST depression. These changes can increase the risk of arrhythmias and other cardiac complications.

      It is essential to recognize the signs and symptoms of hypokalaemia promptly. Treatment may involve potassium supplements or addressing the underlying cause of the condition. With proper management, patients with hypokalaemia can avoid complications and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      30.9
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  • Question 5 - A 64-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of pain when swallowing for...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of pain when swallowing for the past 2 months. He works as a construction worker and has had two colds in the past 2 months since the new building project started - despite his cold symptoms resolving, he reports an ongoing painful swallow. He has noticed some hoarseness in his voice, but attributes this to drinking less water than usual due to his painful swallow. He has no past medical history. He has a 25 pack-year smoking history and does not drink alcohol.
      What should be the GP's next course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for barium swallow

      Correct Answer: Refer for upper GI endoscopy

      Explanation:

      The presence of odynophagia in a patient with risk factors such as smoking and age is a concerning symptom that may indicate oesophageal cancer. In this case, the patient should be referred for a 2 week wait upper GI endoscopy and questioned about other symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, reflux, weight loss, and nausea. It would be inappropriate to reassure the patient and advise over-the-counter medications without further investigation. A chest x-ray is unlikely to show any clear oesophageal pathologies and a barium swallow is only useful if a benign pathology is suspected. As the patient has two features of oesophageal cancer and a smoking history, she should be worked up as a potential cancer patient. There are no emergency symptoms that warrant referral to the emergency department for same-day investigation and blood tests are unlikely to indicate malignancy in a clear and obvious manner.

      Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.

      Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.

      The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.

      Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.

      Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.

      Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      14.7
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  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old man with a family history of adult polycystic kidney disease approaches...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man with a family history of adult polycystic kidney disease approaches his GP for screening. What would be the most suitable screening test?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound abdomen

      Explanation:

      The recommended screening test for adult polycystic kidney disease is ultrasound, while genetic testing is not yet routinely advised for screening relatives.

      Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a prevalent genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 1,000 Caucasians. The disease is caused by mutations in two genes, PKD1 and PKD2, which produce polycystin-1 and polycystin-2, respectively. ADPKD type 1 accounts for 85% of cases, while ADPKD type 2 accounts for the remaining 15%. Individuals with ADPKD develop multiple fluid-filled cysts in their kidneys, which can lead to renal failure.

      To diagnose ADPKD in individuals with a positive family history, an abdominal ultrasound is typically performed. The diagnostic criteria for ultrasound include the presence of two cysts, either unilateral or bilateral, in individuals under 30 years of age, two cysts in both kidneys for those aged 30-59 years, and four cysts in both kidneys for those over 60 years of age.

      Management of ADPKD may involve the use of tolvaptan, a vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist, for select patients. Tolvaptan has been recommended by NICE as an option for treating ADPKD in adults with chronic kidney disease stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment, evidence of rapidly progressing disease, and if the company provides it with the agreed discount in the patient access scheme. The goal of treatment is to slow the progression of cyst development and renal insufficiency. An enlarged kidney with extensive cysts is a common finding in individuals with ADPKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      55.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 21-year-old female presents for a follow-up after a medical termination of pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old female presents for a follow-up after a medical termination of pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation. She is considering getting a Nexplanon implant. When is it appropriate to insert Nexplanon in this situation?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a complaint of feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a complaint of feeling tired and lethargic for the past six months. She also reports a weight gain of approximately 10 kg during this time. Upon conducting a blood test, the following results were obtained: Hb 141 g/l, Na+ 141 mmol/l, Bilirubin 7 µmol/l, Platelets 331 * 109/l, K+ 4.1 mmol/l, ALP 71 u/l, WBC 4.6 * 109/l, Urea 3.9 mmol/l, ALT 31 u/l, Neuts 3.1 * 109/l, Creatinine 86 µmol/l, γGT 51 u/l, Lymphs 1.2 * 109/l, TSH 0.1 mu/l, Albumin 41 g/l, Eosin 0.2 * 109/l, free-T4 3 nmol/l, and CRP 4.1 mg/l. What would be the most appropriate next investigation to determine the cause of her fatigue?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune and lupus antibody screen

      Correct Answer: MRI brain and pituitary

      Explanation:

      When a patient has normal blood tests except for low thyroid function, which is indicated by low TSH and low free-T4, and presents with symptoms of hypothyroidism, it may be a case of secondary hypothyroidism caused by pituitary failure. This is a rare condition that requires imaging of the pituitary gland to rule out any anatomical or vascular causes, such as a tumor.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.

      In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      58.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 78-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left-sided...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left-sided weakness, facial droop, and dysphasia that started 3 hours ago. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus, and asthma.

      Upon examination, his pulse is regular at 88 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 15 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. His temperature is 37.4ºC, blood pressure is 215/120 mmHg, and blood sugar is 6.8mmol/L. Heart sounds are normal, lungs are clear, and abdomen is soft and nontender. Neurological examination reveals left hemianopia and 0/5 power in the left upper and lower limbs.

      Before considering thrombolysis, what additional steps should be taken based on the patient's examination findings?

      Your Answer: Prescribe labetalol

      Explanation:

      Before considering thrombolysis for a patient, it is crucial to ensure that their blood pressure is well-controlled. If the patient’s blood pressure is above 200/120mmHg, thrombolysis cannot be performed. In such cases, medications like Labetalol are administered to rapidly lower the blood pressure. The other options mentioned are not suitable as the patient’s chest and BM examinations were normal. Additionally, statins do not play a role in the acute management of stroke.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 12-year-old girl comes to her GP with a complaint of amenorrhoea. Her...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl comes to her GP with a complaint of amenorrhoea. Her parents inform the doctor that she requires extra support at school due to learning difficulties. During the examination, the doctor observes sparse breast development, broad shoulders, a wide neck, and elevated blood pressure. What is the most probable chromosomal abnormality in this patient?

      Your Answer: 45 XO

      Explanation:

      Common Chromosomal Abnormalities and Their Associated Conditions

      45 XO is a chromosomal abnormality associated with Turner syndrome, which is characterized by sparse breast development, broad shoulders, high blood pressure, and a wide neck.

      46 XY is the normal karyotype for men, but genetic abnormalities involving other chromosomes can still occur.

      46 XX is the normal karyotype for women, but genetic abnormalities involving other chromosomes can still occur.

      47 XXX is the chromosomal abnormality associated with triple X syndrome, which can be asymptomatic or result in learning difficulties, tall stature, or microcephaly.

      47 XXY is the chromosomal abnormality associated with Klinefelter syndrome, which is characterized by tall stature, gynaecomastia, and infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      6.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/1) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (0/1) 0%
Reproductive Medicine (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
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