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Question 1
Correct
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A patient presents to the Emergency Department following a fracture dislocation of his ankle after a night out drinking vodka red-bulls. His blood pressure is low at 90/50 mmHg. He insists that it is never normally that low.
Which one of these is a possible cause for this reading?Your Answer: Incorrect cuff size (cuff too large)
Explanation:Common Factors Affecting Blood Pressure Readings
Blood pressure readings can be affected by various factors, including cuff size, alcohol and caffeine consumption, white coat hypertension, pain, and more. It is important to be aware of these factors to ensure accurate readings.
Incorrect Cuff Size:
Using a cuff that is too large can result in an underestimation of blood pressure, while a cuff that is too small can cause a falsely elevated reading.Alcohol and Caffeine:
Both alcohol and caffeine can cause a temporary increase in blood pressure.White Coat Hypertension:
Many patients experience elevated blood pressure in medical settings due to anxiety. To obtain an accurate reading, blood pressure should be measured repeatedly on separate occasions.Pain:
Pain is a common cause of blood pressure increase and should be taken into consideration during medical procedures. A significant rise in blood pressure during a procedure may indicate inadequate anesthesia.Factors Affecting Blood Pressure Readings
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman from India visits the general practice clinic, reporting fatigue and tiredness after completing household tasks. During the examination, the physician observes periodic involuntary contractions of her left arm and multiple lumps beneath the skin. The doctor inquires about the patient's medical history and asks if she had any childhood illnesses. The patient discloses that she had a severe throat infection in India as a child but did not receive any treatment.
What is the most frequent abnormality that can be detected by listening to the heart during auscultation?Your Answer: A high-pitched ‘blowing’ diastolic decrescendo murmur
Correct Answer: An opening snap after S2, followed by a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur
Explanation:Common Heart Murmurs and their Association with Rheumatic Heart Disease
Rheumatic heart disease (RHD) is a condition resulting from untreated pharyngitis caused by group A beta-haemolytic streptococcal infection. RHD can lead to heart valve dysfunction, most commonly the mitral valve, resulting in mitral stenosis. The characteristic murmur of mitral stenosis is a mid-diastolic rumbling murmur that follows an opening snap after S2. Aortic stenosis can also be present in RHD but is less prevalent. Other heart murmurs associated with RHD include a high-pitched blowing diastolic decrescendo murmur, which is associated with aortic regurgitation, and a continuous machine-like murmur that is loudest at S2, consistent with patent ductus arteriosus. A late systolic crescendo murmur with a mid-systolic click is seen in mitral valve prolapse. A crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur following an ejection click describes the murmur heard in aortic stenosis. It is important to recognize these murmurs and their association with RHD for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea that has lasted for four days. He has been unable to keep down any fluids and is dehydrated, so he is started on an intravenous infusion. Upon investigation, his potassium level is found to be 2.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9). What ECG abnormality would you anticipate?
Your Answer: S-T segment depression
Explanation:Hypokalaemia and Hyperkalaemia
Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. This can be caused by excess loss of potassium from the gastrointestinal or renal tract, decreased oral intake of potassium, alkalosis, or insulin excess. Additionally, hypokalaemia can be seen if blood is taken from an arm in which IV fluid is being run. The characteristic ECG changes associated with hypokalaemia include S-T segment depression, U-waves, inverted T waves, and prolonged P-R interval.
On the other hand, hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. This can be caused by kidney failure, medications, or other medical conditions. The changes that may be seen with hyperkalaemia include tall, tented T-waves, wide QRS complexes, and small P waves.
It is important to understand the causes and symptoms of both hypokalaemia and hyperkalaemia in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions. Regular monitoring of potassium levels and ECG changes can help in the management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 72-year-old man is admitted to hospital with exertional chest pain. He reports that this has only begun in the past few days, particularly when climbing hills. The pain is not present when he is at rest.
What is the gold standard test that you will request for this patient from the following tests?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) coronary angiogram
Explanation:Investigating Cardiac Chest Pain: Recommended Tests
When a patient presents with cardiac chest pain, it is important to conduct appropriate investigations to determine the underlying cause. The following tests are recommended:
Computed Tomography (CT) Coronary Angiogram: This non-invasive test uses CT scanning to detect any evidence of coronary artery disease and determine its extent. It is considered the gold standard test for investigating cardiac chest pain.
Angiogram: Before undergoing an angiogram, the patient should first have an exercise tolerance test (ETT) to assess real-time cardiac function during exertion. If the patient experiences ischaemic changes and reduced exercise tolerance, an angiogram may be necessary.
Chest X-ray: A chest X-ray is not a priority investigation for cardiac chest pain, as it does not aid in diagnosis unless there is evidence of associated heart failure or pleural effusions.
Full Blood Count: While anaemia could contribute to angina, a full blood count is not a first-line investigation for cardiac chest pain.
Troponin: Troponin levels may be raised in cases of myocardial damage, but are not necessary for managing angina. The recurring pain and relief with rest indicate angina, rather than a myocardial infarction (MI), which would present with crushing chest pain and dyspnoea that is not alleviated by rest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 55-year-old man comes in with a sudden onset of severe central chest pain that has been going on for an hour. He has no significant medical history. His vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 90 bpm and blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg. An electrocardiogram reveals 5 mm of ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads (V2–V4). He was given aspirin (300 mg) and diamorphine (5 mg) in the ambulance. What is the definitive treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Percutaneous coronary intervention
Explanation:Treatment Options for ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
ST-elevation myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment to save the myocardium. The two main treatment options are primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and fibrinolysis. Primary PCI is the preferred option for patients who present within 12 hours of symptom onset and can undergo the procedure within 120 minutes of the time when fibrinolysis could have been given.
In addition to PCI or fibrinolysis, patients with acute MI should receive dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and a second anti-platelet drug, such as clopidogrel or ticagrelor, for up to 12 months. Patients undergoing PCI should also receive unfractionated heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin, such as enoxaparin.
While glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors like tirofiban may be used to reduce the risk of immediate vascular occlusion in intermediate- and high-risk patients undergoing PCI, they are not the definitive treatment. Similarly, fibrinolysis with tissue plasminogen activator should only be given if primary PCI cannot be delivered within the recommended timeframe.
Overall, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial for patients with ST-elevation myocardial infarction to improve outcomes and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman comes to you for consultation after being seen two days ago for a fall. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, bilateral knee replacements, chronic hypotension, and heart failure, which limits her mobility. Her weight is 120 kg. During her previous visit, her ECG showed that she had AF with a heart rate of 180 bpm. She was prescribed bisoprolol and advised to undergo a 48-hour ECG monitoring. Upon her return, it was discovered that she has non-paroxysmal AF.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Start her on amlodipine
Correct Answer: Start her on digoxin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation in a Patient with Heart Failure
When treating a patient with atrial fibrillation (AF) and heart failure, the aim should be rate control. While bisoprolol is a good choice, it may not be suitable for a patient with chronic low blood pressure. In this case, digoxin would be the treatment of choice. Anticoagulation with a NOAC or warfarin is also necessary. Cardioversion with amiodarone should not be the first line of treatment due to the patient’s heart failure. Increasing the dose of bisoprolol may not be the best option either. Amlodipine is not effective for rate control in AF, and calcium-channel blockers should not be used in heart failure. Electrical cardioversion is not appropriate for this patient. Overall, the treatment plan should be tailored to the patient’s individual needs and medical history.
Managing Atrial Fibrillation and Heart Failure: Treatment Options
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with chest tightness. The tightness started about a day ago, however today it is worse and associated with shortness of breath and dizziness.
Upon examination, there is a slow rising carotid pulse and systolic murmur which radiates to carotids 3/6. Examination is otherwise unremarkable without calf tenderness. The patient does not have any significant past medical history apart from type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension which are both well controlled.
What is the best diagnostic investigation?Your Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Diagnostic Investigations for Cardiac Conditions
When a patient presents with signs and symptoms of a cardiac condition, various diagnostic investigations may be performed to determine the underlying cause. In the case of a patient with chest tightness, the first-line investigation is usually an electrocardiogram (ECG) to rule out acute coronary syndrome. However, if the patient is suspected of having aortic stenosis (AS), the best diagnostic investigation is an echocardiogram and Doppler to measure the size of the aortic valve. A normal aortic valve area is more than 2 cm2, while severe AS is defined as less than 1 cm2.
Other diagnostic investigations for cardiac conditions include a coronary angiogram to assess the patency of the coronary arteries and potentially perform an angioplasty to insert a stent if any narrowing is found. Exercise tolerance tests can also be useful in monitoring patients with a cardiac history and heart failure classification. However, a D-dimer test, which is used to diagnose pulmonary embolism, would not be indicated in a patient with suspected AS unless there were additional features suggestive of a pulmonary embolism, such as calf tenderness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A fourth year medical student on a ward round with your team is inquiring about pacemakers.
Which of the following WOULD BE an indication for permanent pacemaker implantation?Your Answer: Ventricular tachycardia
Correct Answer: Third degree AV block (complete heart block)
Explanation:Understanding Indications for Permanent Pacemaker Insertion
A third degree AV block, also known as complete heart block, occurs when the atria and ventricles contract independently of each other. This can lead to syncope, chest pain, or signs of heart failure. Definitive treatment is the insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Other arrhythmias that may require permanent pacing include type 2 second-degree heart block (Mobitz II), sick sinus syndrome, and symptomatic slow atrial fibrillation. Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation are not indications for pacing. Type 1 second degree (Mobitz I) AV block is a benign condition that does not require specific treatment. It is important to understand these indications for permanent pacemaker insertion for both exam and clinical purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A woman with known angina currently managed on glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray presents to Accident and Emergency with crushing central chest pain. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST depression and flat T waves. She is managed as acute coronary syndrome without ST elevation.
Which one of the following options is most likely to be used in her immediate management?Your Answer: Simvastatin
Correct Answer: Fondaparinux
Explanation:Medications for Acute Coronary Syndrome: Indications and Uses
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a medical emergency that requires prompt and appropriate treatment to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. The management of ACS involves a combination of medications and interventions, depending on the type and severity of the condition. Here are some commonly used medications for ACS and their indications:
1. Fondaparinux: This medication is a factor Xa inhibitor that is used for anticoagulation in ACS without ST-segment elevation. It is usually given along with other drugs such as aspirin, clopidogrel, and nitrates to prevent blood clots and reduce the risk of future cardiovascular events.
2. Warfarin: This medication is used for the treatment and prevention of venous thrombosis and thromboembolism. It is not indicated for the immediate management of ACS.
3. Furosemide: This medication is a diuretic that is used to treat pulmonary edema in patients with heart failure. It is not indicated for ACS as it may cause dehydration.
4. Paracetamol: This medication is not effective as an analgesic option for ACS. Morphine is commonly used for pain relief in ACS.
5. Simvastatin: This medication is a statin that is used for the long-term management of high cholesterol levels. It is not indicated for the initial management of ACS.
In summary, the management of ACS involves a combination of medications and interventions that are tailored to the individual patient’s needs. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help improve outcomes and reduce the risk of future cardiovascular events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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During a routine GP check-up, a 33-year-old woman is found to have a mid-diastolic rumbling murmur accompanied by a loud first heart sound. What valvular abnormality is likely causing this?
Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Valvular Murmurs
Valvular murmurs are a common topic in medical exams, and it is crucial to have a good of them. The easiest way to approach them is by classifying them into systolic and diastolic murmurs. If the arterial valves, such as the aortic or pulmonary valves, are narrowed, ventricular contraction will cause turbulent flow, resulting in a systolic murmur. On the other hand, if these valves are incompetent, blood will leak back through the valve during diastole, causing a diastolic murmur.
Similarly, the atrioventricular valves, such as the mitral and tricuspid valves, can be thought of in the same way. If these valves are leaky, blood will be forced back into the atria during systole, causing a systolic murmur. If they are narrowed, blood will not flow freely from the atria to the ventricles during diastole, causing a diastolic murmur.
Therefore, a diastolic murmur indicates either aortic/pulmonary regurgitation or mitral/tricuspid stenosis. The loud first heart sound is due to increased force in closing the mitral or tricuspid valve, which suggests stenosis. the different types of valvular murmurs and their causes is essential for medical professionals to diagnose and treat patients accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the options below is not a cause of mid-diastolic murmur?
Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Causes of Heart Murmurs
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat. Aortic stenosis, a condition where the aortic valve narrows, causes an ejection systolic murmur. On the other hand, left atrial myxomas and right atrial myxomas, which are rare tumors, can cause a mid-diastolic murmur by blocking the valve orifice during diastole. Mitral stenosis, which is often the result of rheumatic fever or a congenital defect, causes mid-diastolic murmurs. Lastly, tricuspid stenosis, which is also commonly caused by rheumatic fever, can cause a mid-diastolic murmur. the causes of heart murmurs is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of palpitations. Upon examination, her pulse rate is found to be 180 bpm and she appears warm and well perfused. Her blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg, respiratory rate is 20/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on air. Chest auscultation reveals no signs of cardiac failure, but an ECG shows a narrow complex tachycardia. Despite attempts at carotid massage and Valsalva manoeuvre, the rhythm disturbance persists. What is the appropriate initial management?
Your Answer: IV digoxin
Correct Answer: IV adenosine
Explanation:Management of Narrow Complex Supraventricular Tachycardia
When a patient presents with narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia, the initial management would be to administer IV adenosine, provided there are no contraindications such as asthma. This medication creates a transient conduction delay, which may terminate the tachycardia or slow down the heart rate enough to identify the underlying rhythm. This information is crucial in determining the optimal antiarrhythmic therapy for the patient.
However, if the patient experiences chest pain, hypotension, SBP <90 mmHg, or evidence of cardiac failure, then DC cardioversion would be necessary. It is important to note that if the patient is not haemodynamically compromised, IV adenosine is the preferred initial management for narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage this condition and provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Correct
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Which statement about congenital heart disease is accurate?
Your Answer: In Down's syndrome with an endocardial cushion defect, irreversible pulmonary hypertension occurs earlier than in children with normal chromosomes
Explanation:Common Congenital Heart Defects and their Characteristics
An endocardial cushion defect, also known as an AVSD, is the most prevalent cardiac malformation in individuals with Down Syndrome. This defect can lead to irreversible pulmonary hypertension, which is known as Eisenmenger’s syndrome. It is unclear why children with Down Syndrome tend to have more severe cardiac disease than unaffected children with the same abnormality.
ASDs, or atrial septal defects, may close on their own, and the likelihood of spontaneous closure is related to the size of the defect. If the defect is between 5-8 mm, there is an 80% chance of closure, but if it is larger than 8 mm, the chance of closure is minimal.
Tetralogy of Fallot, a cyanotic congenital heart disease, typically presents after three months of age. The murmur of VSD, or ventricular septal defect, becomes more pronounced after one month of life. Overall, the characteristics of these common congenital heart defects is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old woman attends her general practice for a medication review. She is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin, atenolol, captopril and furosemide. The general practitioner (GP) performs an examination and notes an irregular pulse with a rate of 100 bpm. The GP makes a referral to the Cardiology Department with a view to establishing whether this woman’s atrial fibrillation (AF) is permanent or paroxysmal and to obtaining the appropriate treatment for her.
Which of the following is the most recognised risk factor for the development of AF?Your Answer: Smoking
Correct Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:Understanding Risk Factors for Atrial Fibrillation
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, shortness of breath, and fatigue. It is most commonly associated with alcohol consumption, chest disease, and hyperthyroidism. Other risk factors include hypertension, pericardial disease, congenital heart disease, cardiomyopathy, valvular heart disease, and coronary heart disease. AF can be classified as paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent, and may be diagnosed incidentally through an electrocardiogram (ECG) finding.
Once diagnosed, management includes investigating with a 12-lead ECG, echocardiogram, and thyroid function tests. The main objectives are rate control, rhythm control, and reducing the risk of thromboembolic disease. Rhythm control can be achieved through electrical cardioversion or drug therapy, while rate control is managed using medications such as digoxin, β-blockers, or rate-limiting calcium antagonists. Warfarin is indicated for patients with risk factors for stroke, and the risk of ischaemic stroke is calculated using the CHADS2vasc scoring system. Novel oral anticoagulants are also available as an alternative to warfarin in certain patients.
While hyperthyroidism is a recognized risk factor for AF, obesity and smoking are also associated with an increased risk of developing the condition. Pneumothorax, however, is not a recognized risk factor for AF. Understanding these risk factors can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk of developing AF and manage the condition if diagnosed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 63-year-old diabetic woman presents with general malaise and epigastric pain of 2 hours’ duration. She is hypotensive (blood pressure 90/55) and has jugular venous distension. Cardiac workup reveals ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V5 and V6. A diagnosis of high lateral myocardial infarction is made, and the patient is prepared for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
Blockage of which of the following arteries is most likely to lead to this type of infarction?Your Answer: Left (obtuse) marginal artery
Explanation:Coronary Arteries and their Associated ECG Changes
The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries, and blockages in these arteries can lead to myocardial infarction (heart attack). Different coronary arteries supply blood to different parts of the heart, and the location of the blockage can be identified by changes in the electrocardiogram (ECG) readings.
Left (obtuse) Marginal Artery: This artery supplies the lateral wall of the left ventricle. Blockages in this artery can cause changes in ECG leads I, aVL, V2, V5, and V6, with reciprocal changes in the inferior leads.
Anterior Interventricular (Left Anterior Descending) Artery: This artery supplies the anterior walls of both ventricles and the anterior part of the interventricular septum. Blockages in this artery can cause changes in ECG leads V2-V4, sometimes extending to V1 and V5.
Posterior Interventricular Artery: This artery is a branch of the right coronary artery and supplies the posterior walls of both ventricles. ECG changes associated with blockages in this artery are not specific.
Right (Acute) Marginal Artery: This artery supplies the right ventricle. Blockages in this artery can cause changes in ECG leads II, III, aVF, and sometimes V1.
Right Mainstem Coronary Artery: Inferior myocardial infarction is most commonly associated with blockages in this artery (80% of cases) or the left circumflex artery (20% of cases). ECG changes in this type of infarct are seen in leads II, III, and aVF.
Understanding Coronary Arteries and ECG Changes in Myocardial Infarction
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Correct
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An ECG shows small T-waves, ST depression, and prominent U-waves in a patient who is likely to be experiencing what condition?
Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Electrocardiogram Changes and Symptoms Associated with Electrolyte Imbalances
Electrolyte imbalances can cause various changes in the electrocardiogram (ECG) and present with specific symptoms. Here are some of the common electrolyte imbalances and their associated ECG changes and symptoms:
Hypokalaemia:
– ECG changes: small T-waves, ST depression, prolonged QT interval, prominent U-waves
– Symptoms: generalised weakness, lack of energy, muscle pain, constipation
– Treatment: potassium replacement with iv infusion of potassium chloride (rate of infusion should not exceed 10 mmol of potassium an hour)Hyponatraemia:
– ECG changes: ST elevation
– Symptoms: headaches, nausea, vomiting, lethargy
– Treatment: depends on the underlying causeHypocalcaemia:
– ECG changes: prolongation of the QT interval
– Symptoms: paraesthesia, muscle cramps, tetany
– Treatment: calcium replacementHyperkalaemia:
– ECG changes: tall tented T-waves, widened QRS, absent P-waves, sine wave appearance
– Symptoms: weakness, fatigue
– Treatment: depends on the severity of hyperkalaemiaHypercalcaemia:
– ECG changes: shortening of the QT interval
– Symptoms: moans (nausea, constipation), stones (kidney stones, flank pain), groans (confusion, depression), bones (bone pain)
– Treatment: depends on the underlying causeIt is important to recognise and treat electrolyte imbalances promptly to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of headaches, particularly during times of stress or physical activity. She has no significant medical history. During her neurological exam, no abnormalities are found. However, a systolic murmur is heard along the length of her left sternal edge and spine. Her chest is clear and her blood pressure is 156/88 mmHg in her left arm and 104/68 mmHg in her left leg. An ECG reveals sinus rhythm with evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hypertrophic occlusive cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Coarctation of the Aorta and its Interventions
Coarctation of the aorta is a condition where the aorta narrows, usually distal to the left subclavian artery. This can cause an asymptomatic difference in upper and lower body blood pressures and can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy. The severity of the restriction varies, with severe cases presenting early with cardiac failure, while less severe cases can go undiagnosed into later childhood.
Interventions for coarctation of the aorta include stenting, excision and graft placement, and using the left subclavian artery to bypass the coarctation. An atrial septal defect and hypertrophic occlusive cardiomyopathy would not cause a blood pressure difference between the upper and lower body. Stress headaches and a flow murmur are not appropriate diagnoses for a child with hypertension, which should be thoroughly investigated for an underlying cause.
In contrast, transposition of the great arteries is a major cyanotic cardiac abnormality that presents in infancy. It is important to diagnose and treat coarctation of the aorta to prevent complications such as left ventricular hypertrophy and cardiac failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraception options, specifically the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has no medical history, is a non-smoker, and reports no health concerns. During her check-up, her GP measures her blood pressure and finds it to be 168/96 mmHg, which is consistent on repeat testing and in both arms. Upon examination, her BMI is 24 kg/m2, her pulse is 70 bpm, femoral pulses are palpable, and there is an audible renal bruit. Urinalysis is normal, and blood tests reveal no abnormalities in full blood count, urea, creatinine, electrolytes, or thyroid function. What is the most conclusive test to determine the underlying cause of her hypertension?
Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium contrast of renal arteries
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
Secondary hypertension is a condition where high blood pressure is caused by an underlying medical condition. To diagnose the cause of secondary hypertension, various diagnostic tests are available. Here are some of the tests that can be done:
Magnetic Resonance Imaging with Gadolinium Contrast of Renal Arteries
This test is used to diagnose renal artery stenosis, which is the most common cause of secondary hypertension in young people, especially young women. It is done when a renal bruit is detected. Fibromuscular dysplasia, a vascular disorder that affects the renal arteries, is one of the most common causes of renal artery stenosis in young adults, particularly women.Echocardiogram
While an echocardiogram can assess for end-organ damage resulting from hypertension, it cannot provide the actual cause of hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta is unlikely if there is no blood pressure differential between arms.24-Hour Urine Cortisol
This test is done to diagnose Cushing syndrome, which is unlikely in this case. The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is exogenous steroid use, which the patient does not have. In addition, the patient has a normal BMI and does not have a cushingoid appearance on examination.Plasma Metanephrines
This test is done to diagnose phaeochromocytoma, which is unlikely in this case. The patient does not have symptoms suggestive of it, such as sweating, headache, palpitations, and syncope. Phaeochromocytoma is also a rare tumour, causing less than 1% of cases of secondary hypertension.Renal Ultrasound
This test is a less accurate method for assessing the renal arteries. Renal parenchymal disease is unlikely in this case as urinalysis, urea, and creatinine are normal.Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of flu-like symptoms. He reports experiencing sharp central chest pain that worsens with coughing and improves when he sits forwards. Upon examination, he is found to be tachycardic and has a temperature of 39 °C. A third heart sound is heard upon auscultation. What is the most probable cause of this patient's chest pain?
Your Answer: Oesophageal reflux
Correct Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Chest Pain: Pericarditis, Aortic Dissection, Myocardial Ischaemia, Oesophageal Reflux, and Pneumonia
Chest pain is a common presenting symptom in clinical practice. It can be caused by a variety of conditions, including pericarditis, aortic dissection, myocardial ischaemia, oesophageal reflux, and pneumonia.
Pericarditis is an acute inflammation of the pericardial sac, which contains the heart. It typically presents with central or left-sided chest pain that is relieved by sitting forwards and worsened by coughing and lying flat. Other signs include tachycardia, raised temperature, and pericardial friction rub. Investigations include blood tests, electrocardiography, chest X-ray, and echocardiography. Treatment aims to address the underlying cause and manage symptoms, such as analgesia and bed rest.
Aortic dissection is characterized by central chest or epigastric pain radiating to the back. It is associated with Marfan syndrome, and symptoms of this condition should be sought when assessing patients.
Myocardial ischaemia is unlikely in a 35-year-old patient without risk factors such as illegal drug use or family history. Ischaemic pain is typically central and heavy/’crushing’ in character, with radiation to the jaw or arm.
Oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) typically presents with chest pain associated with reflux after eating. Patients do not typically have a fever or history of recent illness.
Pneumonia is a possible cause of chest pain, but it is unlikely in the absence of a productive cough. Pleuritic chest pain associated with pneumonia is also unlikely to be relieved by sitting forward, which is a classical sign of pericarditis.
In conclusion, a thorough history and examination, along with appropriate investigations, are necessary to differentiate between the various causes of chest pain and provide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Correct
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Various cardiac diseases necessitate the use of pacemakers to maintain regular heartbeats and sustain the patient's life. The following are three types of pacemakers, labeled 1-3: AAI, VVI, and DDD. Can you correctly match each pacemaker to the condition it is typically used to treat?
Your Answer: AAI – sinus node dysfunction; VVI – AF; DDD – second-degree heart block
Explanation:Understanding Pacemaker Coding and Indications
Pacemakers are electronic devices that are implanted in the chest to regulate the heartbeat. They are used to treat a variety of heart conditions, including sinus node dysfunction, atrial fibrillation (AF), and heart block. Pacemakers are coded based on the chambers they pace, sense, and respond to, as well as their ability to modulate heart rate and provide multisite pacing.
AAI pacemakers are used to pace the atria in patients with sinus node dysfunction and intact AV conduction. VVI pacemakers are used in patients with chronic atrial impairment, such as AF. DDD pacemakers are used to pace both the atria and ventricles in patients with second-degree heart block.
It is important to note that AAI pacemakers would not be effective in treating ventricular systolic dysfunction, and DDD pacemakers cannot be used in the treatment of long QT syndrome. However, pacemakers can be used in long QT syndrome if clinically necessary, and DDD pacing may be appropriate for some patients with first-degree heart block.
In summary, understanding pacemaker coding and indications is crucial for selecting the appropriate device for each patient’s unique heart condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 50-year-old man undergoes a workplace medical and has an ECG performed. What is the electrophysiological basis of the T wave on a typical ECG?
Your Answer: Ventricular repolarisation
Explanation:The T wave on an ECG indicates ventricular repolarisation and is typically positive in all leads except AvR and V1. Abnormal T wave findings may suggest strain, bundle branch block, ischaemia/infarction, hyperkalaemia, Prinzmetal angina, or early STEMI. The P wave represents atrial depolarisation, while atrial repolarisation is hidden by the QRS complex. The PR interval is determined by the duration of conduction delay through the atrioventricular node. Finally, the QRS complex indicates ventricular depolarisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraception options, specifically the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has no medical history, is a non-smoker, and reports no symptoms of ill-health. During her check-up, her GP measures her blood pressure and finds it to be 168/96 mmHg, which is consistent on repeat testing and in both arms. Upon examination, her BMI is 24 kg/m2, her pulse is 70 bpm, femoral pulses are palpable, and there is an audible renal bruit. Urinalysis is normal, and blood tests reveal no abnormalities in full blood count, urea, creatinine, electrolytes, or thyroid function. What is the most conclusive test to determine the underlying cause of her hypertension?
Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium contrast of renal arteries
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
Secondary hypertension is a condition where high blood pressure is caused by an underlying medical condition. To diagnose the cause of secondary hypertension, various diagnostic tests are available. Here are some of the tests that can be done:
Magnetic Resonance Imaging with Gadolinium Contrast of Renal Arteries
This test is used to diagnose renal artery stenosis, which is the most common cause of secondary hypertension in young people, especially young women. It is done when a renal bruit is detected. Fibromuscular dysplasia, a vascular disorder that affects the renal arteries, is one of the most common causes of renal artery stenosis in young adults, particularly women.Echocardiogram
While an echocardiogram can assess for end-organ damage resulting from hypertension, it cannot provide the actual cause of hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta is unlikely if there is no blood pressure differential between arms.24-Hour Urine Cortisol
This test is done to diagnose Cushing syndrome, which is unlikely in this case. The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is exogenous steroid use, which the patient does not have. In addition, the patient has a normal BMI and does not have a cushingoid appearance on examination.Plasma Metanephrines
This test is done to diagnose phaeochromocytoma, which is unlikely in this case. The patient does not have symptoms suggestive of it, such as sweating, headache, palpitations, and syncope. Phaeochromocytoma is also a rare tumour, causing less than 1% of cases of secondary hypertension.Renal Ultrasound
This test is a less accurate method for assessing the renal arteries. Renal parenchymal disease is unlikely in this case as urinalysis, urea, and creatinine are normal.Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus presented to the Emergency Department with diaphoresis, severe central chest pain, and breathlessness. An ECG showed ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Where is the probable location of the responsible arterial stenosis?
Your Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:Coronary Arteries and Their Associated Leads
The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries. Each artery supplies a specific area of the heart and can be identified by the leads on an electrocardiogram (ECG).
The right coronary artery supplies the inferior part of the left ventricle, interventricular septum, and right ventricle. The circumflex artery predominantly supplies the left free wall of the left ventricle and would be picked up by leads I, aVL, and V5–6. The left anterior descending artery supplies the septum, apex, and anterior wall of the left ventricle and would be picked up by leads V1–4.
Proximal aortic stenosis is very rare and would cause problems of perfusion in distal organs before reducing enough blood supply to the heart to cause a myocardial infarction. The left main stem splits into both the circumflex and left anterior descending arteries. Acute occlusion at this location would be catastrophic and a person is unlikely to survive to hospital. It would be picked up by leads V1–6, I, and aVL.
Understanding the specific areas of the heart supplied by each coronary artery and their associated leads on an ECG can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
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A 67-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital after collapsing while shopping. During her inpatient investigations, she underwent cardiac catheterisation. The results of the procedure are listed below, including oxygen saturation levels, pressure measurements, and end systolic/end diastolic readings at various anatomical sites.
- Superior vena cava: 75% oxygen saturation, no pressure measurement available
- Right atrium: 73% oxygen saturation, 6 mmHg pressure
- Right ventricle: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/8 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Pulmonary artery: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/12 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 18 mmHg
- Left ventricle: 98% oxygen saturation, 219/18 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Aorta: 99% oxygen saturation, 138/80 mmHg pressure
Based on these results, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Aortic Stenosis
There is a significant difference in pressure (81 mmHg) between the left ventricle and the aortic valve, indicating a critical case of aortic stenosis. Although hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) can also cause similar pressure differences, the patient’s age and clinical information suggest that aortic stenosis is more likely.
To determine the severity of aortic stenosis, the valve area and mean gradient are measured. A valve area greater than 1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient less than 25 mmHg indicate mild aortic stenosis. A valve area between 1.0-1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient between 25-50 mmHg indicate moderate aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 1.0 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 50 mmHg indicate severe aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 0.7 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 80 mmHg indicate critical aortic stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old man passed away from a massive middle cerebral artery stroke. He had no previous medical issues. Upon autopsy, it was discovered that his heart weighed 400 g and had normal valves and coronary arteries. The atria and ventricles were not enlarged. The right ventricular walls were normal, while the left ventricular wall was uniformly hypertrophied to 20-mm thickness. What is the probable reason for these autopsy results?
Your Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: Essential hypertension
Explanation:Differentiating Cardiac Conditions: Causes and Risks
Cardiac conditions can have varying causes and risks, making it important to differentiate between them. Essential hypertension, for example, is characterized by uniform left ventricular hypertrophy and is a major risk factor for stroke. On the other hand, atrial fibrillation is a common cause of stroke but does not cause left ventricular hypertrophy and is rarer with normal atrial size. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, which is more common in men and often has a familial tendency, typically causes asymmetric hypertrophy of the septum and apex and can lead to arrhythmogenic or unexplained sudden cardiac death. Dilated cardiomyopathies, such as idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy, often have no clear precipitant but cause a dilated left ventricular size, increasing the risk for a mural thrombus and an embolic risk. Finally, tuberculous pericarditis is difficult to diagnose due to non-specific features such as cough, dyspnoea, sweats, and weight loss, with typical constrictive pericarditis findings being very late features with fluid overload and severe dyspnoea. Understanding the causes and risks associated with these cardiac conditions can aid in their proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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The cardiologist is examining a 48-year-old man with chest pain and is using his stethoscope to listen to the heart. Which part of the chest is most likely to correspond to the location of the heart's apex?
Your Answer: Right fifth intercostal space
Correct Answer: Left fifth intercostal space
Explanation:Anatomy of the Heart: Intercostal Spaces and Auscultation Positions
The human heart is a vital organ responsible for pumping blood throughout the body. Understanding its anatomy is crucial for medical professionals to diagnose and treat various heart conditions. In this article, we will discuss the intercostal spaces and auscultation positions related to the heart.
Left Fifth Intercostal Space: Apex of the Heart
The apex of the heart is located deep to the left fifth intercostal space, approximately 8-9 cm from the mid-sternal line. This is an important landmark for cardiac examination and procedures.Left Fourth Intercostal Space: Left Ventricle
The left ventricle, one of the four chambers of the heart, is located superior to the apex and can be auscultated in the left fourth intercostal space.Right Fourth Intercostal Space: Right Atrium
The right atrium, another chamber of the heart, is located immediately lateral to the right sternal margin at the right fourth intercostal space.Left Second Intercostal Space: Pulmonary Valve
The pulmonary valve, which regulates blood flow from the right ventricle to the lungs, can be auscultated in the left second intercostal space, immediately lateral to the left sternal margin.Right Fifth Intercostal Space: Incorrect Location
The right fifth intercostal space is an incorrect location for cardiac examination because the apex of the heart is located on the left side.In conclusion, understanding the intercostal spaces and auscultation positions related to the heart is essential for medical professionals to accurately diagnose and treat various heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A patient in their 60s was diagnosed with disease of a heart valve located between the left ventricle and the ascending aorta. Which of the following is most likely to describe the cusps that comprise this heart valve?
Your Answer: Anterior, posterior and septal cusps
Correct Answer: Right, left and posterior cusps
Explanation:Different Cusps of Heart Valves
The heart has four valves that regulate blood flow through the chambers. Each valve is composed of cusps, which are flaps that open and close to allow blood to pass through. Here are the different cusps of each heart valve:
Aortic Valve: The aortic valve is made up of a right, left, and posterior cusp. It is located at the junction between the left ventricle and the ascending aorta.
Mitral Valve: The mitral valve is usually the only bicuspid valve and is composed of anterior and posterior cusps. It is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
Tricuspid Valve: The tricuspid valve has three cusps – anterior, posterior, and septal. It is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
Pulmonary Valve: The pulmonary valve is made up of right, left, and anterior cusps. It is located at the junction between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.
Understanding the different cusps of heart valves is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Correct
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A young marine biologist was snorkelling among giant stingrays when the tail (barb) of one of the stingrays suddenly pierced his chest. The tip of the barb pierced the right ventricle and the man instinctively removed it in the water. When he was brought onto the boat, there was absence of heart sounds, reduced cardiac output and engorged jugular veins.
What was the most likely diagnosis for the young marine biologist who was snorkelling among giant stingrays and had the tail (barb) of one of the stingrays pierce his chest, causing the tip of the barb to pierce the right ventricle? Upon being brought onto the boat, the young man exhibited absence of heart sounds, reduced cardiac output and engorged jugular veins.Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a patient with chest trauma
When evaluating a patient with chest trauma, it is important to consider various potential diagnoses based on the clinical presentation and mechanism of injury. Here are some possible explanations for different symptoms:
– Cardiac tamponade: If a projectile penetrates the fibrous pericardium, blood can accumulate in the pericardial cavity and compress the heart, leading to decreased cardiac output and potential death.
– Deep vein thrombosis: This condition involves the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, often in the leg. However, it does not typically cause the symptoms described in this case.
– Stroke: A stroke occurs when blood flow to the brain is disrupted, usually due to a blockage or rupture of an artery. This is not likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
– Pulmonary embolism: If a clot from a deep vein thrombosis travels to the lungs and obstructs blood flow, it can cause sudden death. However, given the history of trauma, other possibilities should be considered first.
– Haemothorax: This refers to the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity around a lung. While it can cause respiratory distress and chest pain, it does not typically affect jugular veins or heart sounds. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
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A 55-year-old woman has been suffering from significant pain in her lower limbs when walking more than 200 meters for the past six months. During physical examination, her legs appear pale and cool without signs of swelling or redness. The palpation of dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial pulses is not possible. The patient has a body mass index of 33 kg/m2 and has been smoking for 25 pack years. What is the most probable vascular abnormality responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Atherosclerosis
Explanation:Arteriosclerosis and Related Conditions
Arteriosclerosis is a medical condition that refers to the hardening and loss of elasticity of medium or large arteries. Atherosclerosis, on the other hand, is a specific type of arteriosclerosis that occurs when fatty materials such as cholesterol accumulate in the artery walls, causing them to thicken. This chronic inflammatory response is caused by the accumulation of macrophages and white blood cells, and is often promoted by low-density lipoproteins. The formation of multiple plaques within the arteries characterizes atherosclerosis.
Medial calcific sclerosis is another form of arteriosclerosis that occurs when calcium deposits form in the middle layer of walls of medium-sized vessels. This condition is often not clinically apparent unless it is severe, and it is more common in people over 50 years old and in diabetics. It can be seen as opaque vessels on radiographs.
Lymphatic obstruction, on the other hand, is a blockage of the lymph vessels that drain fluid from tissues throughout the body. This condition may cause lymphoedema, and the most common reason for this is the removal or enlargement of the lymph nodes.
It is important to understand these conditions and their differences to properly diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and difficulty breathing. He had been hospitalized four weeks ago for acute coronary syndrome and was discharged on bisoprolol, simvastatin, aspirin, and ramipril. During the examination, a narrow complex tachycardia is observed. What is the absolute contraindication in this scenario?
Your Answer: Adenosine
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Verapamil and Beta Blockers: A Dangerous Combination
Verapamil is a type of medication that blocks calcium channels in the heart, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and a slower heart rate. However, it also has negative effects on the heart’s ability to contract, making it a highly negatively inotropic drug. Additionally, it may impair the conduction of electrical signals between the atria and ventricles of the heart.
According to the British National Formulary (BNF), verapamil should not be given to patients who are already taking beta blockers. This is because the combination of these two drugs can lead to dangerously low blood pressure and even asystole, a condition where the heart stops beating altogether.
Therefore, it is important for healthcare professionals to carefully consider a patient’s medication history before prescribing verapamil. If a patient is already taking beta blockers, alternative treatments should be considered to avoid the potentially life-threatening consequences of combining these two drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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