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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man falls and injures his thumb while skiing. On examination, there is significant pain and laxity of the thumb on valgus stress and weakness of the pinch grasp.
Which one of the following is the most likely injury?Your Answer: Scaphoid fracture
Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament tear
Explanation:There are several injuries that can affect the thumb and wrist. One common injury is a tear of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL), also known as skier’s thumb. This injury can cause pain and weakness in grasping or pinching movements. Another ligament that can be injured is the radial collateral ligament (RCL), which is important for pinch. RCL injuries typically occur during sports or after a fall onto the radial aspect of the thumb and hand.
A Bennett fracture is another serious injury that can affect the thumb. This is an oblique fracture of the base of the first metacarpal, often caused by a blow on a partially flexed first metacarpal. It can cause severe pain and swelling, and usually requires surgical intervention.
De Quervain tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the sheath of the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus muscles. This can cause pain, tenderness, and swelling over the thumb side of the wrist, as well as difficulty gripping. Corticosteroid injections are often used to manage this condition.
Finally, a scaphoid fracture can occur from a fall onto an outstretched hand, causing pain and tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox on the radial aspect of the dorsum of the wrist. Treatment typically involves a scaphoid cast to immobilize the wrist and prevent complications such as avascular necrosis, non-union, and arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of wrist pain on the dorsoradial side that has been bothering her for the past year and a half. She is an avid tennis player. During the examination, the doctor notices tenderness in the same area and crepitus when the thumb is moved passively. Finkelstein's test yields a positive result. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis
Explanation:De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that is commonly associated with overuse and is often seen in individuals who play golf or racquet sports. It is more prevalent in women aged between 30 and 50 years. The condition is characterized by pain and swelling in the wrist and thumb area, which can make it difficult to perform everyday tasks.
One of the most effective ways to diagnose De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is through Finkelstein’s test. This involves flexing the thumb into the palm, making a fist over the thumb, and then deviating the wrist towards the ulnar side. If this causes pain in the first dorsal extensor compartment, it is likely that the individual has De Quervain’s tenosynovitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 3
Correct
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A 9-month-old male is found unresponsive by his father at home. The father immediately calls for emergency services and begins to assess his son's condition. One of the first things the father does is check his son's pulse.
Where should the father check for the pulse during this assessment?Your Answer: Brachial and femoral
Explanation:When assessing for a pulse in infants, the recommended areas to check are the femoral and brachial arteries. This is because the carotid pulse may be difficult to palpate due to the short neck of infants. Checking for a central pulse is important as peripheral pulses may be weaker and harder to feel, especially in unwell patients with peripheral shutdown. It is important to note that according to BLS guidelines, the carotid pulse may only be used in children over 12 months old, making it an inappropriate option for an 8-month-old infant. Therefore, options including the carotid pulse are incorrect.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a history of diarrhoea lasting for 2 weeks. Upon examination, he is found to be dehydrated. Further investigations reveal hypernatraemia. What signs are most likely to be observed during the physical examination?
Your Answer: Decreased muscle tone
Correct Answer: Jittery movements
Explanation:Signs indicating hypernatraemic dehydration include tremulous movements, heightened muscle tension, exaggerated reflexes, seizures, and lethargy or unconsciousness.
Managing Diarrhoea and Vomiting in Children
Diarrhoea and vomiting are common in young children, with rotavirus being the most common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. According to the 2009 NICE guidelines, diarrhoea usually lasts for 5-7 days and stops within 2 weeks, while vomiting usually lasts for 1-2 days and stops within 3 days. When assessing hydration status, NICE recommends using normal, dehydrated, or shocked categories instead of the traditional mild, moderate, or severe categories.
Children younger than 1 year, especially those younger than 6 months, infants who were of low birth weight, and those who have passed six or more diarrhoeal stools in the past 24 hours or vomited three times or more in the past 24 hours are at an increased risk of dehydration. Additionally, children who have not been offered or have not been able to tolerate supplementary fluids before presentation, infants who have stopped breastfeeding during the illness, and those with signs of malnutrition are also at risk.
If clinical shock is suspected, children should be admitted for intravenous rehydration. For children without evidence of dehydration, it is recommended to continue breastfeeding and other milk feeds, encourage fluid intake, and discourage fruit juices and carbonated drinks. If dehydration is suspected, give 50 ml/kg low osmolarity oral rehydration solution (ORS) solution over 4 hours, plus ORS solution for maintenance, often and in small amounts. It is also important to continue breastfeeding and consider supplementing with usual fluids, including milk feeds or water, but not fruit juices or carbonated drinks.
In terms of diagnosis, NICE suggests doing a stool culture in certain situations, such as when septicaemia is suspected, there is blood and/or mucous in the stool, or the child is immunocompromised. A stool culture should also be considered if the child has recently been abroad, the diarrhoea has not improved by day 7, or there is uncertainty about the diagnosis of gastroenteritis. Features suggestive of hypernatraemic dehydration include jittery movements, increased muscle tone, hyperreflexia, convulsions, and drowsiness or coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a recent chest infection arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe pain in his right knee. Upon conducting a joint aspirate, analysis of the synovial fluid reveals the presence of positively birefringent crystals. The patient is currently undergoing treatment with desferrioxamine for his iron overload. What would be the most suitable initial management for his musculoskeletal symptoms?
Your Answer: Allopurinol
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Pseudogout, which is caused by an excess of calcium pyrophosphate levels in the body, has several risk factors including haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, hypophosphataemia, hypothyroidism, hypomagnesemia, and old age. This patient, who has haemochromatosis, is currently taking iron chelating agents to manage their iron overload. The recommended first line treatment for pseudogout is NSAIDs and colchicine. Allopurinol is not effective for pseudogout as it is not caused by uric acid overload. Methotrexate may be used for chronic pseudogout, but it is not typically the first line treatment. Sulfasalazine is not indicated for pseudogout.
Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old female patient complains of painful and heavy periods since discontinuing the combined oral contraceptive pill eight months ago. She is distressed as she desires to conceive but the pain is hindering sexual intercourse. The patient seeks to identify the underlying cause of her symptoms. During the examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without palpable masses. However, a bimanual pelvic examination is challenging due to the pain. What is the definitive diagnostic test for this patient?
Your Answer: Transvaginal and pelvic ultrasound
Correct Answer: Laparoscopy
Explanation:When it comes to patients with suspected endometriosis, laparoscopy is considered the most reliable investigation method. This is because it enables direct visualization and biopsy of the endometrial deposits. While a CT scan may also be used to detect such deposits, it is less specific compared to MRI scans. Ultrasound can be useful in detecting endometriomas, but it is important to note that a normal scan does not necessarily rule out the possibility of endometriosis.
Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of feeling weak all over. He has been experiencing difficulty standing up from his chair and climbing stairs for the past 6 months. He also reports feeling constantly tired and down, but denies any other symptoms. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. During a routine blood test, the following results were obtained: Hb 146 g/L (Male: 135-180), Platelets 268 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC 7.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), TSH 4.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5), Creatine kinase 428 U/L (35 - 250), eGFR 68 ml/min (<90), and ESR 42 mm/hr <(age / 2). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polymyositis
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, raised creatine kinase, and no rash is polymyositis. This inflammatory disease is commonly caused by Anti-Jo-1 and is more prevalent in male patients over 40 years old. The absence of a rash is a distinguishing factor from dermatomyositis, which also causes muscle weakness but presents with a rash. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not a likely diagnosis as it does not cause muscle weakness, and rhabdomyolysis is unlikely due to the chronic nature of the patient’s symptoms and mildly elevated creatine kinase levels. Treatment for polymyositis typically involves corticosteroids and/or immunosuppressants such as methotrexate.
Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness
Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.
One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.
To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.
The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Correct
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Of the following, which one is the most useful prognostic marker in aspirin overdose?
Your Answer: Prothrombin time
Explanation:Liver failure caused by paracetamol overdose can be indicated by an increased prothrombin time, which is a negative prognostic factor. Nevertheless, other factors such as arterial pH, creatinine levels, and encephalopathy can also indicate the necessity for liver transplantation.
Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with blurring of her vision and pain on eye movement. The GP suspects that she may have optic neuritis.
Which of the following signs is most likely to be present on examination?Your Answer: Cherry-red spot on fundoscopy
Correct Answer: Reduced colour vision
Explanation:Signs and Symptoms of Optic Neuritis
Optic neuritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the optic nerve, often associated with demyelinating diseases like multiple sclerosis. One of the signs of optic neuritis is reduced color vision in the affected eye. Other symptoms may include decreased pupillary light reaction, relative afferent pupillary defect, reduced visual acuity, visual field defects, swollen optic disc, and pain on eye movements. However, optic neuritis is not associated with increased intraocular pressure, erythema, or vesicles around the affected eye. It is important to differentiate optic neuritis from other eye conditions to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl, Lily, is taken to the pediatrician by her father. He is concerned about an umbilical hernia that Lily has had since birth. He was told that it would likely go away on its own, but it has not yet resolved. The pediatrician conducts an examination and finds a 1.5 cm umbilical hernia that is easily reducible. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this, according to the guidelines?
Your Answer: Delaying referral for elective outpatient surgical repair until 5 years of age, if still unresolved
Explanation:According to medical guidelines, umbilical hernias in children usually close on their own by the age of 4-5. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age or is large and causing symptoms, surgical repair is recommended. In the case of a small hernia in a 3-year-old child, observation is appropriate until the age of 5. If the hernia becomes incarcerated, it should be manually reduced and surgically repaired within 24 hours. The use of compression therapy after surgery is not recommended. Waiting for the hernia to self-resolve after the age of 5 is not advised as it is unlikely to happen and could lead to incarceration. These recommendations are based on BMJ Best Practice guidelines.
Umbilical Hernia in Children: Causes and Treatment
Umbilical hernias are a common occurrence in children and are often detected during the newborn examination. This condition is characterized by a bulge or protrusion near the belly button, caused by a weakness in the abdominal muscles. While umbilical hernias can occur in any child, they are more common in Afro-Caribbean infants and those with Down’s syndrome or mucopolysaccharide storage diseases.
Fortunately, in most cases, umbilical hernias in children do not require treatment and will resolve on their own by the age of three. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age or becomes painful, surgery may be necessary to repair the abdominal wall. It is important to monitor the hernia and seek medical attention if there are any changes in size or symptoms.
In summary, umbilical hernias are a common condition in children that typically resolve on their own without treatment. However, certain factors such as ethnicity and underlying medical conditions may increase the likelihood of developing an umbilical hernia. Parents should be aware of the signs and symptoms of umbilical hernias and seek medical attention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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