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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old primiparous female is at 39 weeks gestation. Upon examination by a midwife, her Bishop score is determined to be 4. What is the significance of this score?
Your Answer: Labour is unlikely to start spontaneously
Explanation:To determine if induction is necessary, the Bishop scoring system evaluates cervical characteristics such as position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and foetal station. If the score is less than 5, induction is likely required. However, if the score is above 9, spontaneous labour is expected.
Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.
Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.
The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation to see the clinician. Her risk of developing Down syndrome was calculated as 1 in 8, and she was offered a diagnostic test. Amniocentesis confirms Down syndrome. Following long discussions with her and her partner, she decides on termination of the pregnancy.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for this patient?Your Answer: Oral mifepristone
Correct Answer: Oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol as an inpatient
Explanation:Medical and Surgical Management of Termination of Pregnancy
Medical and surgical management are two options for termination of pregnancy. Medical management involves the use of oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol. This method is recommended for termination of pregnancy before 13 weeks’ gestation and can be performed in an inpatient setting. The patient is administered the medication in hospital and will stay in the clinic or hospital to pass the pregnancy. Appropriate analgesia and antiemetics are given to take home, as required. The patient should be advised that there is a possibility medical management will fail and surgical management will need to take place.
Mifepristone is a competitive antagonist of progesterone for the progesterone receptor. It promotes degradation of the decidualised endometrium, cervical ripening and dilation, as well as increases the sensitivity of the myometrium to the effect of prostaglandins. Misoprostol, a synthetic prostaglandin E1, in turn, binds avidly to myometrial cells, promoting contraction of the uterus, and therefore expulsion of the products of conception. If this fails to empty the uterus, then a surgical procedure to manually evacuate the uterus is the next appropriate step in the patient’s management.
Surgical termination of pregnancy is first line for women presenting after 14 weeks’ gestation, women who have a preference over medical management and patients where medical termination has failed.
In cases where the patient has decided to proceed with termination of pregnancy, delaying the procedure is unethical and does not benefit the patient in any way. The patient should be fully informed of the risks associated with the procedure and given the necessary support.
Vaginal misoprostol can also be used in conjunction with mifepristone for medical termination of pregnancy or as monotherapy in medical management of miscarriage or induction of labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 28-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with epilepsy and is currently taking carbamazepine. She has just given birth to a baby boy and is uncertain about breastfeeding. Samantha is worried that her medication may harm her baby if she continues to breastfeed. What guidance would you offer Samantha regarding her antiepileptic medication and breastfeeding?
Your Answer: Switch to lamotrigine, continue breastfeeding
Correct Answer: Continue carbamazepine, continue breastfeeding
Explanation:Mothers often have concerns about the use of antiepileptic medication during and after pregnancy, particularly when it comes to breastfeeding. However, according to a comprehensive document released by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, nearly all antiepileptic drugs are safe to use while breastfeeding. This is because only negligible amounts of the medication are passed to the baby through breast milk, and studies have not shown any negative impact on the child’s cognitive development. Therefore, it is recommended that mothers continue their current antiepileptic regime and are encouraged to breastfeed. It is important to note that stopping the medication without consulting a neurologist can lead to further seizures.
Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important for women to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, but this risk is still relatively low. It is recommended to aim for monotherapy and there is no need to monitor drug levels. Sodium valproate is associated with neural tube defects, while carbamazepine is considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics. Phenytoin is associated with cleft palate, and lamotrigine may require a dose increase during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Pregnant women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn.
A warning has been issued about the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age. New evidence suggests a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of this medication. Therefore, it should only be used if clearly necessary and under specialist neurological or psychiatric advice. It is important for women with epilepsy to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and make informed decisions about their treatment during pregnancy and breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes for her first trimester scan at 12 weeks’ gestation. She reports no vaginal bleeding and is feeling well. The ultrasound shows an intrauterine gestational sac with a fetal pole that corresponds to nine weeks’ gestation, but no fetal heart rate is detected. The patient had a stillbirth in her previous pregnancy at 27 weeks, and she underwent an extended course of psychotherapy to cope with the aftermath. What is the most suitable initial management for this patient?
Your Answer: Offer mifepristone treatment
Correct Answer: Offer vaginal misoprostol
Explanation:Misoprostol is a synthetic E1 prostaglandin that can be used for various obstetric purposes, including medical termination of pregnancy, induction of labor, and medical management of miscarriage. It works by inducing contractions in the myometrium to expel the products of conception and ripening and dilating the cervix. However, it can cause side effects such as diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, flatulence, and headaches, and in rare cases, uterine rupture. In the case of a miscarriage, expectant management is the first-line option, but medical or surgical management may be necessary in certain situations. Vaginal misoprostol is the most commonly used medical management, and patients should be informed of the potential risks and given appropriate pain relief and antiemetics. Surgical management is not first-line and carries risks such as perforation of the uterus, failure of the procedure, infection, bleeding, damage to the cervix, and venous thromboembolism. Expectant management should be offered and reviewed after 7-14 days, and if bleeding and pain settle, no further treatment is necessary. Mifepristone, an antiprogesterone medication, should not be used in the management of a missed or incomplete miscarriage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 34-year-old female who is 28 weeks pregnant presents to the emergency department with severe lower abdominal pain. She is tachycardic but is otherwise stable. On examination, her uterus is tender and hard, but fetal lie is normal. Cardiotocography shows no signs of fetal distress.
What is the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer: Admit her and administer steroids
Explanation:When managing placental abruption in a case where the fetus is alive, less than 36 weeks old, and not displaying any signs of distress, the appropriate course of action is to admit the patient and administer steroids. Admitting the patient is necessary for monitoring and providing necessary care. Steroids are given to aid in the maturation of fetal lungs. It is recommended to deliver the baby at 37-38 weeks due to the increased risk of stillbirth. Tocolytics are not routinely given due to their controversial nature and potential for maternal cardiovascular side effects. Discharging the patient with safety netting is not appropriate as the patient is symptomatic. Activating the major haemorrhage protocol, calling 2222, and performing an emergency caesarean section are not the most suitable options as the patient is not hypotensive and there are no signs of fetal distress.
Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications
Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.
Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.
In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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You are a healthcare professional in obstetrics & gynaecology. A 27-year-old female patient has come to the early pregnancy assessment clinic complaining of light vaginal spotting and lower abdominal pain that has been present for 48 hours. She had taken a home pregnancy test 6 weeks ago, which was positive, and her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. A transvaginal ultrasound was performed, but no intrauterine pregnancy was detected. The serum βHCG results show a level of 3,662 IU per ml. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.
During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman has visited her doctor to discuss her plans of getting pregnant. She is seeking guidance on basic lifestyle modifications and medications she should be taking. The doctor advises her to take a high dose (5 mg) of folic acid. What is the rationale behind taking high dose folic acid?
Your Answer: Age >30
Correct Answer: BMI >30
Explanation:High dose 5mg folic acid should be prescribed to pregnant women with obesity (BMI >30 kg/m2) to reduce the risk of neural tube defects (NTD). Other factors that may require high dose folic acid include a history of NTD in a previous pregnancy or family history of NTD, as well as conditions such as antiepileptic drug use, coeliac disease, diabetes, and thalassaemia trait.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 30-year-old Caucasian woman who is 26 weeks pregnant with her first child presents to antenatal clinic. She had been invited to attend screening for gestational diabetes on account of her booking BMI, which was 32kg/m². Prior to her pregnancy, she had been healthy and had no personal or family history of diabetes mellitus. She takes no regular medications and has no known allergies.
During her antenatal visit, she undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which reveals the following results:
- Fasting glucose 6.9mmol/L
- 2-hour glucose 7.8 mmol/L
An ultrasound scan shows no fetal abnormalities or hydramnios. She is advised on diet and exercise and undergoes a repeat OGTT two weeks later. Due to persistent impaired fasting glucose, she is started on metformin.
After taking metformin for two weeks, she undergoes another OGTT, with the following results:
- Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/L
- 2-hour glucose 7.2mmol/L
What is the most appropriate next step in managing her glycaemic control?Your Answer: Add insulin
Explanation:If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced. This patient was diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 25 weeks due to a fasting glucose level above 5.6mmol/L. Despite lifestyle changes and the addition of metformin, her glycaemic control has not improved, and her fasting glucose level remains above the target range. Therefore, NICE recommends adding short-acting insulin to her current treatment. Switching to modified-release metformin may help patients who experience side effects, but it would not improve glycaemic control in this case. Insulin should be added in conjunction with metformin for persistent impaired glycaemic control, rather than replacing it. Sulfonylureas like glibenclamide should only be used for patients who cannot tolerate metformin or as an adjunct for those who refuse insulin treatment, and they are not the best option for this patient.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman in her second pregnancy comes in at 11 weeks with a 1-day history of vaginal bleeding. Bleeding began as a light brown discharge while wiping and was accompanied by menstrual-like cramps. Symptoms have since subsided. During the examination, the abdomen is soft and painless, the cervical os is closed, and there is some dark brown discharge in the vaginal area.
What ultrasound results would confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Gestational sac small for dates; no fetal heart rate demonstrated
Correct Answer: Gestational sac seen within the uterus; fetal heart rate present
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Miscarriage
Miscarriage is the loss of pregnancy before 20 weeks’ gestation and can occur due to various risk factors. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and ultrasound findings.
Threatened Miscarriage: This type presents with lower abdominal pain and light brown discharge. Ultrasound reveals an intrauterine gestational sac and fetal heart rate. Patients may experience further threatened miscarriage or proceed to a complete or full-term pregnancy.
Inevitable Miscarriage: Active bleeding within the uterine cavity is suggestive of an ongoing miscarriage. The cervical os is open, and products of conception may be seen within the vagina. This type will inevitably progress to a miscarriage.
Complete Miscarriage: An empty uterus is associated with a complete miscarriage. Examination reveals a closed cervical os and may or may not be associated with vaginal bleeding.
Missed Miscarriage: A gestational sac small for dates, associated with an absent fetal heart rate, is an incidental finding. Examination is unremarkable, with a closed cervical os and no evidence of vaginal bleeding.
Incomplete Miscarriage: Products of conception are seen within the uterus, with an absent fetal heart rate. Examination reveals an open or closed cervical os and bleeding. If this miscarriage does not proceed to a complete miscarriage, it will require surgical evacuation.
Understanding the different types of miscarriage can help patients and healthcare providers manage the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a 2-day history of worsening headache despite taking painkillers. She has no significant medical history. Her pregnancy has been uneventful, but she reports increasing swelling in her hands and feet over the past week. Her blood pressure at her last prenatal visit two weeks ago was 120/80 mmHg. On examination, her blood pressure is 162/110 mmHg, heart rate 108 beats per minute, and temperature 37.2°C. Urine dipstick reveals protein ++++. What is the most appropriate medication to manage her condition?
Your Answer: Amlodipine
Correct Answer: Magnesium sulphate
Explanation:Management of Severe Pre-eclampsia: Medications to Consider and Avoid
Severe pre-eclampsia, characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria, can lead to eclamptic seizures and other complications. To prevent seizures, magnesium sulphate is administered as a loading dose followed by an infusion. Labetalol is the first-line medication for controlling blood pressure, but nifedipine and methyldopa can be used if labetalol is contraindicated. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, and amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, are not recommended in pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects. Atenolol, a beta blocker, is not the agent of choice for pre-eclampsia management. Aspirin may be given prophylactically to women at risk of pre-eclampsia. Delivery of the fetus is the only definitive treatment for severe pre-eclampsia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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