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  • Question 1 - As a busy surgical trainee on the colorectal unit, you have been tasked...

    Incorrect

    • As a busy surgical trainee on the colorectal unit, you have been tasked with reviewing the histopathology results for colonic polyps. Which type of polyp described below poses the highest risk of malignant transformation? Please note that this question is specifically for a trainee who is slightly older and more experienced.

      Your Answer: Hamartomatous polyp

      Correct Answer: Villous adenoma

      Explanation:

      The risk of malignant transformation is highest in villous adenomas, while hyperplastic polyps pose little risk. Hamartomatous polyp syndromes may increase the risk of malignancy in patients, but the polyps themselves have low malignant potential.

      Understanding Colonic Polyps and Follow-Up Procedures

      Colonic polyps can occur in isolation or as part of polyposis syndromes, with greater than 100 polyps typically present in FAP. The risk of malignancy is related to size, with a 10% risk in a 1 cm adenoma. While isolated adenomas seldom cause symptoms, distally sited villous lesions may produce mucous and electrolyte disturbances if very large.

      Follow-up procedures for colonic polyps depend on the number and size of the polyps. Low-risk cases with 1 or 2 adenomas less than 1 cm require no follow-up or re-colonoscopy for 5 years. Moderate-risk cases with 3 or 4 small adenomas or 1 adenoma greater than 1 cm require a re-scope at 3 years. High-risk cases with more than 5 small adenomas or more than 3 with 1 of them greater than 1 cm require a re-scope at 1 year.

      Segmental resection or complete colectomy may be necessary in cases of incomplete excision of malignant polyps, malignant sessile polyps, malignant pedunculated polyps with submucosal invasion, polyps with poorly differentiated carcinoma, or familial polyposis coli. Screening from teenager up to 40 years by 2 yearly sigmoidoscopy/colonoscopy is recommended. Rectal polypoidal lesions may be treated with trans anal endoscopic microsurgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      20.7
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  • Question 2 - During an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, a 78-year-old man has two clamps placed...

    Incorrect

    • During an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, a 78-year-old man has two clamps placed on his aorta, with the inferior clamp positioned at the point of aortic bifurcation. Which vertebral body will be located posterior to the clamp at this level?

      Your Answer: T10

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      The point at which the aorta divides into two branches is known as the bifurcation, which is a crucial anatomical landmark that is frequently assessed. This bifurcation typically occurs at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebrae (L4).

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      19.2
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  • Question 3 - A 4-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain. The child is crying and mentions that she feels pain in her tummy that comes and goes in 10-minute intervals. Additionally, the mother reports that her daughter has vomited twice and that she has noticed thick blood in her stool.

      During the examination, a mass is detected in the center of the abdomen.

      A bowel ultrasound is conducted, which shows that the bowel has a doughnut-like appearance.

      Which part of the bowel is most likely affected by this condition?

      Your Answer: Ileocolic

      Explanation:

      Intussusception, a condition that causes bowel obstruction by the invagination of proximal bowel into a more distal part, is most commonly found in infants. The ileocolic type is the most frequent, although different studies may show varying degrees of frequency for the different types. The pathogenesis of intussusception is still not fully understood, but theories include involvement of lymphoid tissue, abnormalities in inhibitory neurotransmitters, and electrolyte disturbances affecting gastric motility. Ultrasound is an effective diagnostic tool, which may reveal a target, doughnut, or pseudokidney sign. Ileoileocolic and colocolic types are less common.

      Understanding Intussusception

      Intussusception is a medical condition where one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileocecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. Symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and bloodstained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.

      To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, which may show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used first-line compared to the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child has signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for intussusception is crucial for parents and healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      7
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  • Question 4 - Liam, who is also suffering from chronic pancreatitis, undergoes a distal pancreatectomy. During...

    Correct

    • Liam, who is also suffering from chronic pancreatitis, undergoes a distal pancreatectomy. During a post-surgery consultation, he expresses his concern to the doctor about the possibility of experiencing poor food digestion after the operation, as he has read about others who have had the same issue. What measures can the doctor take to prevent this from happening to Liam?

      Your Answer: Prescribe pancreatic enzymes (e.g. Creon)

      Explanation:

      To aid digestion of food in patients with chronic pancreatitis, the management plan includes the replacement of pancreatic enzymes such as Creon. Inadequacy of pancreatic enzymes due to pancreatic surgery can also lead to poor digestion of food, which can be prevented by providing patients with pancreatic enzyme supplements like Creon. However, proton pump inhibitors or probiotics are not effective in replacing pancreatic enzymes. Fiona does not require a low fibre diet.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      14.9
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  • Question 5 - Sophie, a 5-year-old girl, visits her doctor with her mother, complaining of a...

    Correct

    • Sophie, a 5-year-old girl, visits her doctor with her mother, complaining of a lump in her groin that appears and disappears. The lump is easily reducible.

      The doctor suspects an indirect inguinal hernia, although it is difficult to differentiate between femoral, direct inguinal, and indirect inguinal hernias in such a young patient.

      Sophie's mother is curious about the cause of her daughter's hernia. What is the pathology of an indirect inguinal hernia?

      Your Answer: Protrusion through the failure of the processus vaginalis to regress

      Explanation:

      Indirect inguinal hernias are caused by the failure of the processus vaginalis to regress, resulting in a protrusion through the deep inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. In males, it may progress into the scrotum, while in females, it may enter the labia. This type of hernia is located lateral to the epigastric vessels.

      On the other hand, direct inguinal hernias are usually caused by weakening in the abdominal musculature, which occurs with age. The protrusion enters the inguinal canal through the posterior wall, which is medial to the epigastric vessels. It may exit through the superficial inguinal ring.

      The tunica vaginalis is a layer that surrounds the testes and contains a small amount of serous fluid, reducing friction between the scrotum and the testes. Meanwhile, the tunica albuginea is a layer of connective tissue that covers the ovaries, testicles, and corpora cavernosa of the penis.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.

      The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.

      After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department after vomiting fresh red blood....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department after vomiting fresh red blood. He reports having multiple episodes of vomiting earlier in the day after a night out with friends, but there was no blood in his vomit at that time. He denies any prior gastrointestinal symptoms. On examination, he has mild epigastric tenderness and is mildly tachycardic. His past medical history is unremarkable except for a recent ankle injury. He takes regular ibuprofen, lansoprazole, and senna as needed. He drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol per week and is a social smoker. An upper endoscopy has been scheduled.

      What findings are expected to be seen during the endoscopy?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal laceration

      Explanation:

      Severe vomiting can cause Mallory-Weiss tears, which are tears in the gastro-oesophageal area due to sudden increases in intra-abdominal pressure. This patient’s alcohol consumption likely led to a Mallory-Weiss tear.

      Although the patient drinks more than the recommended weekly allowance of alcohol, it is not enough to cause liver disease resulting in oesophageal varices, assuming he started drinking around the age of 18. The patient has multiple risk factors for gastric ulcers, such as NSAID use, alcohol consumption, and smoking, but he has been prescribed proton pump inhibitor cover for his ibuprofen and does not have a history of epigastric pain to support this diagnosis.

      Given the patient’s age and relatively inconsequential cigarette and alcohol consumption, gastric carcinoma is unlikely. The endoscopy is also unlikely to be normal given the patient’s symptoms. If the patient had a lower gastrointestinal bleed, it would more likely present with melaena than haematemesis.

      Mallory-Weiss Tear: A Common Result of Severe Vomiting

      Mallory-Weiss tears are a common occurrence after severe bouts of vomiting. This condition is characterized by the vomiting of a small amount of blood, which is usually followed by little in the way of systemic disturbance or prior symptoms. To rule out other potential causes and allow for endoscopic treatment if necessary, patients should undergo an upper endoscopy investigation.

      Mallory-Weiss tears are typically caused by the forceful contraction of the abdominal muscles during vomiting, which can lead to a tear in the lining of the esophagus. While this condition can be alarming, it is usually not serious and can be treated effectively with endoscopic therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      17.9
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  • Question 7 - A 10-year-old girl is undergoing investigation for coeliac disease and has recently undergone...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl is undergoing investigation for coeliac disease and has recently undergone biopsies of both the small and large intestinal linings.

      What can be found in the lining of the small intestine but not in that of the large intestine during a normal biopsy?

      Your Answer: Villi

      Explanation:

      The basic structure of the linings in the small and large intestines is similar, consisting of mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa. Both intestines have muscularis mucosae within the mucosa, myenteric nerve plexus innervating the muscularis externa, columnar epithelial cells lining the mucosa, and goblet cells that secrete mucins. However, each intestine has specialized functions. The small intestine is responsible for digesting and absorbing nutrients, which is facilitated by the presence of villi and microvilli on its epithelium, providing a large surface area. These structures are not present in the large intestine.

      Layers of the Gastrointestinal Tract and Their Functions

      The gastrointestinal (GI) tract is composed of four layers, each with its own unique function. The innermost layer is the mucosa, which can be further divided into three sublayers: the epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosae. The epithelium is responsible for absorbing nutrients and secreting mucus, while the lamina propria contains blood vessels and immune cells. The muscularis mucosae helps to move food along the GI tract.

      The submucosa is the layer that lies beneath the mucosa and contains Meissner’s plexus, which is responsible for regulating secretion and blood flow. The muscularis externa is the layer that lies beneath the submucosa and contains Auerbach’s plexus, which controls the motility of GI smooth muscle. Finally, the outermost layer of the GI tract is either the serosa or adventitia, depending on whether the organ is intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal. The serosa is responsible for secreting fluid to lubricate the organs, while the adventitia provides support and protection. Understanding the functions of each layer is important for understanding the overall function of the GI tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      15.3
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  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of vomiting and a...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of vomiting and a severe headache that developed after experiencing blurred vision. The physician prescribes an antiemetic. Which of the following antiemetics aids in gastric emptying?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      The effectiveness of antiemetics depends on their ability to interact with different receptors to varying degrees. Therefore, the selection of an antiemetic will be based on the patient’s condition and the underlying cause of their nausea.

      Metoclopramide functions as a dopamine antagonist, but it also has an agonistic impact on peripheral 5HT3 receptors and an antagonistic effect on muscarinic receptors, which helps to facilitate gastric emptying.

      Understanding the Mechanism and Uses of Metoclopramide

      Metoclopramide is a medication primarily used to manage nausea, but it also has other uses such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis secondary to diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics for the treatment of migraines. However, it is important to note that metoclopramide has adverse effects such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. It should also be avoided in bowel obstruction but may be helpful in paralytic ileus.

      The mechanism of action of metoclopramide is quite complicated. It is primarily a D2 receptor antagonist, but it also has mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Its antiemetic action is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, and at higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist also has an effect. The gastroprokinetic activity is mediated by D2 receptor antagonist activity and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity.

      In summary, metoclopramide is a medication with multiple uses, but it also has adverse effects that should be considered. Its mechanism of action is complex, involving both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Understanding the uses and mechanism of action of metoclopramide is important for its safe and effective use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      12.7
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  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old African American male presents to his physician with complaints of epigastric...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old African American male presents to his physician with complaints of epigastric pain occurring a few hours after eating. He reports experiencing this for several months but denies any weight loss, loss of appetite, or night sweats. He does not smoke or drink alcohol and maintains a healthy diet. He denies excessive use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. A Helicobacter pylori stool antigen test comes back negative, and he is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor. After three months, he reports no relief of symptoms and has been experiencing severe diarrhea.

      The patient's special laboratory investigations reveal negative stool ova and parasites, with normal levels of sodium, potassium, bicarbonate, and urea. His creatinine levels are within the normal range, but his fasting serum gastrin levels are significantly elevated at 1200 pg/mL (normal range: 0-125). Additionally, his gastric pH is measured at 1.2, which is lower than the normal range of >2.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Zollinger- Ellison syndrome

      Explanation:

      Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) is the most likely diagnosis for the patient due to their persistent epigastric pain, diarrhea, and high levels of serum gastrin, which cannot be explained by peptic ulcer disease alone. ZES is caused by a gastrin-secreting tumor in the pancreas or duodenum, and is often associated with MEN 1. Diagnosis is confirmed by elevated serum gastrin levels at least 10 times the upper limit of normal, reduced gastric pH, and a secretin stimulation test if necessary.

      Carcinoid syndrome is an incorrect diagnosis as it presents with different symptoms such as diarrhea, wheezing, flushing, and valvular lesions due to serotonin secretion.

      Although celiac disease can cause epigastric pain and diarrhea, the elevated gastrin levels make ZES a more likely diagnosis. Celiac disease is diagnosed by measuring levels of anti-TTG and anti-endomysial IgA.

      Gastric carcinoma is unlikely as there are no risk factors, constitutional symptoms, or elevated fasting gastrin levels.

      H. pylori infection has been ruled out by a negative stool antigen test.

      Understanding Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

      Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a medical condition that is caused by the overproduction of gastrin, which is usually due to a tumor in the pancreas or duodenum. This condition is often associated with MEN type I syndrome, which affects around 30% of cases. The symptoms of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome include multiple gastroduodenal ulcers, diarrhea, and malabsorption.

      To diagnose Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, doctors typically perform a fasting gastrin level test, which is considered the best screening test. Additionally, a secretin stimulation test may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis. With early diagnosis and treatment, the symptoms of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can be managed effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      49.5
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  • Question 10 - Which one of the following structures is located most posteriorly at the porta...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures is located most posteriorly at the porta hepatis?

      Your Answer: Common hepatic artery

      Correct Answer: Portal vein

      Explanation:

      At the porta hepatis, the most posterior structure is the portal vein, while the common bile duct is created by the merging of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct. The common hepatic duct extends and becomes the common bile duct.

      Structure and Relations of the Liver

      The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.

      The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.

      The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      11
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  • Question 11 - A 58-year-old male patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal pain, weight...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old male patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal pain, weight loss, and diarrhoea for the past 6 months. During gastroscopy, a gastrinoma is discovered in the antrum of his stomach. What is the purpose of the hormone produced by this tumor?

      Your Answer: It increases HCL production and increases gastric motility

      Explanation:

      A tumor that secretes gastrin is known as a gastrinoma, which leads to an increase in both gastrointestinal motility and HCL production. It should be noted that while gastrin does increase gastric motility, it does not have an effect on the secretion of pancreatic fluid. This is instead regulated by hormones such as VIP, CCK, and secretin.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old man and his wife visit their primary care physician. The man's...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man and his wife visit their primary care physician. The man's wife has noticed a change in the size of his chest and suspects he may be developing breast tissue. She mentions that his nipples appear larger and more prominent when he wears tight-fitting shirts. The man seems unconcerned. He has been generally healthy, with a medical history of knee osteoarthritis, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and gastroesophageal reflux disease. He cannot recall the names of his medications and has left the list at home.

      Which medication is most likely responsible for his gynecomastia?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Ranitidine

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia can be caused by H2 receptor antagonists like ranitidine, which is a known drug-induced side effect. Clomiphene, an anti-oestrogen, is not used in the treatment of gynaecomastia. Danazol, a synthetic derivative of testosterone, can inhibit pituitary secretion of LH and FSH, leading to a decrease in estrogen synthesis from the testicles. In some cases, complete resolution of breast enlargement has been reported with the use of danazol.

      Histamine-2 Receptor Antagonists and their Withdrawal from the Market

      Histamine-2 (H2) receptor antagonists are medications used to treat dyspepsia, which includes conditions such as gastritis and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. They were previously considered a first-line treatment option, but have since been replaced by more effective proton pump inhibitors. One example of an H2 receptor antagonist is ranitidine.

      However, in 2020, ranitidine was withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of small amounts of the carcinogen N-nitrosodimethylamine (NDMA) in products from multiple manufacturers. This led to concerns about the safety of the medication and its potential to cause cancer. As a result, patients who were taking ranitidine were advised to speak with their healthcare provider about alternative treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      705
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  • Question 13 - A 2-year-old boy with no significant medical history is brought to the ER...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy with no significant medical history is brought to the ER by his mother due to a week-long crying spell and passing bright red stools. The patient cries loudly upon palpation of the right lower quadrant. Meckel's diverticulum is confirmed through a positive technetium-99m scan. What is the embryological source of this abnormality?

      Your Answer: Processus vaginalis

      Correct Answer: Omphalomesenteric duct

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is omphalomesenteric duct, which is the precursor to Meckel’s diverticulum. Meckel’s diverticulum is a true diverticulum that forms due to the persistence of this duct and may contain gastric or pancreatic tissue. It is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract and can present with various symptoms.

      Auerbach plexus is an incorrect answer. Its absence is associated with Hirschsprung disease or achalasia.

      Fetal umbilical vein is also incorrect. It becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis within the falciform ligament of the liver.

      Pleuroperitoneal membrane is another incorrect answer. A congenital defect in this structure can lead to a left-sided diaphragmatic hernia in infants.

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine that is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. It occurs in 2% of the population, is 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve, and is 2 inches long. It is usually asymptomatic but can present with abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. Investigation includes a Meckel’s scan or mesenteric arteriography. Management involves removal if narrow neck or symptomatic, with options between wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically lined by ileal mucosa but ectopic gastric, pancreatic, and jejunal mucosa can also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      22
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  • Question 14 - A 59-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and swelling in the central abdomen.

      During his last visit to his family doctor two weeks ago, he experienced colicky abdominal pain and was diagnosed with gallstones after further testing. He was scheduled for an elective cholecystectomy in 8 weeks.

      The patient is administered pain relief and scheduled for an urgent abdominal X-ray (AXR).

      What is the most probable finding on the AXR that indicates a cholecystoenteric fistula?

      Your Answer: Air in the fundus of the stomach

      Correct Answer: Pneumobilia

      Explanation:

      The presence of air in the gallbladder and biliary tree on an abdominal X-ray is most likely caused by a cholecystoenteric fistula. This is a serious complication of gallstones, particularly those larger than 2 cm, and can result in symptoms of small bowel obstruction such as severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and abdominal distension. While pneumoperitoneum may also be present in cases of cholecystoenteric fistula, it is not a specific finding and can be caused by other factors that weaken or tear hollow viscus organs. On the other hand, the presence of an appendicolith, a small calcified stone in the appendix, is highly indicative of appendicitis in patients with right iliac fossa pain and other associated symptoms, but is not seen in cases of cholecystoenteric fistula on an abdominal X-ray.

      Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis is usually made through abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm suspected bile duct stones. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and surgical management for stones in the common bile duct. ERCP may be used to remove bile duct stones, but carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following genes is not involved in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following genes is not involved in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer: src

      Explanation:

      Additional genes implicated include MCC, DCC, c-yes, and bcl-2.

      Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of cancer-related deaths. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      5.2
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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old male patient is diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. What is the...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male patient is diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. What is the source of gastric acid secretion?

      Your Answer: Parietal cells

      Explanation:

      Gastric acid is released by parietal cells, while Brunner’s glands are located in the duodenum.

      Understanding Gastric Secretions for Surgical Procedures

      A basic understanding of gastric secretions is crucial for surgeons, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Gastric acid, produced by the parietal cells in the stomach, has a pH of around 2 and is maintained by the H+/K+ ATPase pump. Sodium and chloride ions are actively secreted from the parietal cell into the canaliculus, creating a negative potential across the membrane. Carbonic anhydrase forms carbonic acid, which dissociates, and the hydrogen ions formed by dissociation leave the cell via the H+/K+ antiporter pump. This leaves hydrogen and chloride ions in the canaliculus, which mix and are secreted into the lumen of the oxyntic gland.

      There are three phases of gastric secretion: the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase. The cephalic phase is stimulated by the smell or taste of food and causes 30% of acid production. The gastric phase, which is caused by stomach distension, low H+, or peptides, causes 60% of acid production. The intestinal phase, which is caused by high acidity, distension, or hypertonic solutions in the duodenum, inhibits gastric acid secretion via enterogastrones and neural reflexes.

      The regulation of gastric acid production involves various factors that increase or decrease production. Factors that increase production include vagal nerve stimulation, gastrin release, and histamine release. Factors that decrease production include somatostatin, cholecystokinin, and secretin. Understanding these factors and their associated pharmacology is essential for surgeons.

      In summary, a working knowledge of gastric secretions is crucial for surgical procedures, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Understanding the phases of gastric secretion and the regulation of gastric acid production is essential for successful surgical outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a significant swelling in...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a significant swelling in his abdomen. He confesses to consuming more alcohol since losing his job five years ago, but he has no other significant medical history.

      During the examination, the doctor observes shifting dullness. To confirm the suspicion of portal hypertension, the doctor orders liver function tests and an ascitic tap (paracentesis).

      What result from the tests would provide the strongest indication of portal hypertension?

      Your Answer: Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) of 13.1 g/L

      Explanation:

      Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the abdominal cavity. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. If the SAAG level is greater than 11g/L, it indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. Other causes of portal hypertension include cardiac conditions like right heart failure and constrictive pericarditis, as well as infections like tuberculous peritonitis. On the other hand, if the SAAG level is less than 11g/L, ascites may be caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction, and other conditions.

      The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and sometimes fluid restriction if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone are often prescribed, and loop diuretics may be added if necessary. Therapeutic abdominal paracentesis may be performed for tense ascites, and large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of complications. Prophylactic antibiotics may also be given to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In some cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the GP with a complaint of dull abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the GP with a complaint of dull abdominal pain that has been bothering her for the past 3 months. The pain is usually worse on the left side and sometimes eases after passing stool. She also reports having more diarrhea than usual. Last week, she had an episode of fresh red bleeding from the back passage. She denies any changes in her diet and has a past medical history of total abdominal hysterectomy, osteoarthritis, and basal cell carcinoma. On examination, her abdomen is mildly tender in the left iliac fossa, and rectal examination is normal. Her BMI is 27 kg/m², and she drinks a large whisky every evening. The GP urgently refers her for investigations, and she is diagnosed with diverticulosis. What feature of her history puts her at the greatest risk for diverticulosis?

      Your Answer: Previous abdominal surgery

      Correct Answer: Low-fibre diet

      Explanation:

      Intestinal diverticula are more likely to develop in individuals with a low fibre diet. This patient’s diet appears to be lacking in fruits and vegetables, which increases their risk. While smoking has been linked to diverticulosis, there is no evidence to suggest that alcohol consumption is a risk factor. Although obesity is associated with an increased risk, this patient’s BMI is not in the obese range. Diverticulosis is more prevalent in men than women, and abdominal surgery is not a known risk factor.

      Diverticulosis is a common condition where multiple outpouchings occur in the bowel wall, typically in the sigmoid colon. It is more accurate to use the term diverticulosis when referring to the presence of diverticula, while diverticular disease is reserved for symptomatic patients. Risk factors for this condition include a low-fibre diet and increasing age. Symptoms of diverticulosis can include altered bowel habits and colicky left-sided abdominal pain. A high-fibre diet is often recommended to alleviate these symptoms.

      Diverticulitis is a complication of diverticulosis where one of the diverticula becomes infected. The typical presentation includes left iliac fossa pain and tenderness, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and signs of infection such as pyrexia, raised WBC, and CRP. Mild attacks can be treated with oral antibiotics, while more severe episodes require hospitalization. Treatment involves nil by mouth, intravenous fluids, and intravenous antibiotics such as a cephalosporin and metronidazole. Complications of diverticulitis include abscess formation, peritonitis, obstruction, and perforation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with profuse haematemesis. Upon admission,...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with profuse haematemesis. Upon admission, his vital signs include a temperature of 36.9ºC, oxygen saturation of 94% on air, heart rate of 124 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 82/58 mmHg. An urgent endoscopy was performed to achieve haemostasis, revealing an ulcer on the posterior wall of the duodenum. Which artery is the most likely source of the gastrointestinal bleed?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      Duodenal ulcers on the posterior wall pose a risk to the gastroduodenal artery, which supplies blood to this area. The posterior wall is a common site for duodenal ulcers, and erosion of the ulcer through the duodenal wall can result in severe upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The inferior mesenteric artery, on the other hand, supplies blood to the hindgut (transverse colon, descending colon, and sigmoid colon) and does not include the duodenum. The inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery, which arises from the superior mesenteric artery, supplies the lower part of the duodenum but does not provide the majority of the blood supply to the posterior duodenal wall, which is mainly supplied by the gastroduodenal artery.

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The main symptoms include haematemesis (vomiting of blood), melena (passage of altered blood per rectum), and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The diagnosis can be determined by identifying the specific features associated with a particular condition, such as stigmata of chronic liver disease for oesophageal varices or abdominal pain for peptic ulcer disease.

      The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes. Oesophageal varices may present with a large volume of fresh blood, while gastric ulcers may cause low volume bleeds that present as iron deficiency anaemia. Duodenal ulcers are usually posteriorly sited and may erode the gastroduodenal artery. Aorto-enteric fistula is a rare but important cause of major haemorrhage associated with high mortality in patients with previous abdominal aortic aneurysm surgery.

      The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation involves ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. Treatment options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery for non-variceal bleeding, while terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients with variceal bleeding. Band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices, and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old man presents to the hepatology clinic after his general practitioner detected...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the hepatology clinic after his general practitioner detected abnormal liver function on routine blood tests. He has been experiencing intermittent pain in the right upper quadrant for the past 3 months. He denies any history of intravenous drug use or recent travel. He has a medical history of depression and takes citalopram daily.

      During the examination, the patient exhibits tenderness in the right upper quadrant. There is no visible jaundice, but he has dark rings around his iris.

      What investigation finding is associated with the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Raised free serum copper

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune hepatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the liver, which can present as acute hepatitis with symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and jaundice. Unlike other conditions such as Wilson’s disease, neuropsychiatric and eye signs are not typically observed in autoimmune hepatitis.

      Haemochromatosis, on the other hand, is an autosomal recessive disorder that results in the accumulation and deposition of iron. A raised transferrin saturation is a sign of this condition, which can cause hepatitis, liver cirrhosis, fatigue, arthralgia, and bronze-colored skin pigmentation. If psychiatric symptoms are present, Wilson’s disease may be more likely.

      α1-antitrypsin deficiency is an inherited disorder that occurs when the liver does not produce enough of the protease enzyme A1AT. This condition is primarily associated with emphysema, although liver cirrhosis may also occur. However, if there are no respiratory symptoms, α1-antitrypsin deficiency is unlikely to be the cause.

      Understanding Wilson’s Disease

      Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that causes excessive copper accumulation in the tissues due to metabolic abnormalities. It is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene located on chromosome 13. Symptoms usually appear between the ages of 10 to 25 years, with children presenting with liver disease and young adults with neurological disease.

      The disease is characterised by excessive copper deposition in the tissues, particularly in the brain, liver, and cornea. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioural problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, parkinsonism, Kayser-Fleischer rings, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails.

      To diagnose Wilson’s disease, doctors may perform a slit lamp examination for Kayser-Fleischer rings, measure serum ceruloplasmin and total serum copper (which is often reduced), and check for increased 24-hour urinary copper excretion. Genetic analysis of the ATP7B gene can confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment for Wilson’s disease typically involves chelating agents such as penicillamine or trientine hydrochloride, which help to remove excess copper from the body. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation. With proper management, individuals with Wilson’s disease can lead normal lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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