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Question 1
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl presents with a 3-day history of passing loose stools and non-bilious vomiting. She has passed 6 loose stools and vomited 3 times over the last 72 hours. No visible mucous or blood seen in the stool, and urine output has not changed according to her mother. She is able to tolerate oral fluid and liquid food.
She has not travelled abroad recently and there are no sick contacts. Her vaccination schedule is up-to-date and there are no concerns regarding her growth and development.
On examination, she appears well and is alert and responsive. She has warm extremities and capillary refill time is <2 seconds. Her vital signs are normal. Peripheral pulses are strong and regular. There is normal skin turgor and there are no sunken eyes.
What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Introduce oral rehydration solution (ORS)
Explanation:It is not recommended to give antidiarrhoeal medications to children under 5 years old who have diarrhoea and vomiting caused by gastroenteritis. This is because these medications do not provide any benefits and can cause side effects such as ileus, drowsiness, and nausea. It is also important to discourage the consumption of fruit juices and carbonated drinks, especially for those who are at risk of dehydration. Antibiotics are not routinely recommended for children with gastroenteritis as they do not effectively treat symptoms or prevent complications. The patient in question does not require antibiotic treatment. IV fluid therapy is not necessary as the patient is not clinically dehydrated and can be rehydrated with oral rehydration solution (ORS) and increased daily fluid intake. However, IV fluid therapy may be necessary if the patient shows signs of clinical dehydration or if they persistently vomit the ORS solution.
Understanding Diarrhoea in Children
Diarrhoea is a common condition in children that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is gastroenteritis, which is often accompanied by fever and vomiting for the first two days. The main risk associated with this condition is severe dehydration, which can be life-threatening if left untreated. The most common cause of gastroenteritis is rotavirus, and the diarrhoea may last up to a week. The treatment for this condition is rehydration.
Chronic diarrhoea is another type of diarrhoea that can affect infants and toddlers. In the developed world, the most common cause of chronic diarrhoea in infants is cow’s’ milk intolerance. Toddler diarrhoea, on the other hand, is characterized by stools that vary in consistency and often contain undigested food. Other causes of chronic diarrhoea in children include coeliac disease and post-gastroenteritis lactose intolerance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 22-month-old toddler has been hospitalized after experiencing a significant rectal hemorrhage that necessitated a blood transfusion. Despite the bleeding, the child seems calm and free of discomfort.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Meckel's diverticulum
Explanation:Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital disorder that can cause malformation in the small intestine. Although it is often asymptomatic, it can lead to acid release and ulceration of the small intestine. This condition is the most common cause of gastrointestinal bleeding requiring transfusion in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years, presenting with symptoms such as bright red rectal bleeding, constipation, nausea and vomiting, and abdominal pain.
Other conditions that can cause bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract include oesophagitis, which is typically caused by acid reflux and presents with heartburn, and anal fissures, which are often painful or itchy and commonly occur in those who have been constipated. However, these conditions are not typically associated with transfusion.
Necrotising enterocolitis is another condition that can cause gastrointestinal bleeding and severe illness, but it is more common in neonates, particularly those born prematurely. Meckel’s diverticulum remains the most common cause of painless massive GI bleeding requiring transfusion in young children.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a small pouch in the small intestine that is present from birth. It is a leftover part of the omphalomesenteric duct, which is also known as the vitellointestinal duct. The diverticulum can contain tissue from the ileum, stomach, or pancreas. This condition is relatively rare, occurring in only 2% of the population. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically located about 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is around 2 inches long.
In most cases, Meckel’s diverticulum does not cause any symptoms and is only discovered incidentally during medical tests. However, it can cause abdominal pain that is similar to appendicitis, rectal bleeding, and intestinal obstruction. In fact, it is the most common cause of painless massive gastrointestinal bleeding in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.
To diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum, doctors may perform a Meckel’s scan using a radioactive substance that has an affinity for gastric mucosa. In more severe cases, mesenteric arteriography may be necessary. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the diverticulum if it has a narrow neck or is causing symptoms. The options for surgery include wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.
Meckel’s diverticulum is caused by a failure of the attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac to disappear during fetal development. The diverticulum is typically lined with ileal mucosa, but it can also contain ectopic gastric, pancreatic, or jejunal mucosa. This can increase the risk of peptic ulceration and other complications. Meckel’s diverticulum is often associated with other conditions such as enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphalocele fistulas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A toddler girl is brought to the emergency room with her abdominal contents protruding from the abdominal cavity. The contents are lined by the peritoneum. Her parents did not seek any prenatal scans during pregnancy.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Omphalocele
Explanation:Common Congenital Abnormalities: An Overview
Congenital abnormalities are defects present at birth, which can affect various parts of the body. Here are some common congenital abnormalities and their characteristics:
Omphalocele: This condition occurs when a baby’s abdominal contents protrude outside the abdominal cavity, covered by the sac (amnion). It is associated with other anomalies and requires surgical closure.
Gastroschisis: In this condition, organs herniate in the abdominal wall, but they are not covered by the peritoneum. It is not associated with other anomalies and has a good prognosis.
Tracheoesophageal fistula (TOF): TOF refers to a communication between the trachea and oesophagus, usually associated with oesophageal atresia. It can cause choking, coughing, and cyanosis during feeding, and is often accompanied by other congenital anomalies.
Myelomeningocele: This is a type of spina bifida where the spinal cord and meninges herniate through a hole in the spinal vertebra. It can cause paralysis, incontinence, and other complications, and requires surgical closure and hydrocephalus drainage.
Meningocele: This is another type of spina bifida where the meninges and fluid herniate through an opening in the vertebral bodies with skin covering. It has a good prognosis and requires surgical closure.
Understanding these congenital abnormalities can help parents and healthcare providers identify and manage them early on, improving outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl visits the doctor with her father. She has been skipping dance practice for the past few weeks and avoiding social events. This is unusual for her, as she was previously very active in her dance group and enjoyed spending time with her friends.
What is the recommended treatment for social anxiety in adolescents?Your Answer: Group or individual cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Effective Treatments for Social Anxiety in Children
When it comes to treating social anxiety in children, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is the recommended approach. It may also be helpful to involve parents or carers in the therapy process, especially for younger children. However, medication such as fluoxetine or sertraline is not advised for children with social anxiety. Mindfulness-based interventions are also not recommended as the initial treatment, as CBT should be prioritized based on the child’s cognitive and emotional maturity. It’s important to note that over-the-counter remedies like St John’s wort should also be avoided. By following these guidelines, children with social anxiety can receive effective treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A father brings his 15-month-old daughter into surgery. Since yesterday she seems to be straining whilst passing stools. He describes her screaming, appearing to be in pain and pulling her knees up towards her chest. These episodes are now occurring every 15-20 minutes. This morning he noted a small amount of blood in her nappy. She is taking around 60% of her normal feeds and vomiting 'green fluid' every hour. On examination, she appears irritable and lethargic but is well hydrated and apyrexial. On examination, her abdomen seems distended but no discrete mass is found.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Understanding Intussusception
Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.
To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.
In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 6-day-old baby who is 39+6 weeks’ gestation on the Neonatal Unit develops jaundice with a conjugated fraction of 42% (reference < 20%). The baby has feeding difficulty and so is being fed through a nasogastric tube. Investigations are being completed into a diagnosis of conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. The baby is currently under single phototherapy for his jaundice.
What is the most suitable course of treatment?Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Treatment Options for Conjugated Hyperbilirubinaemia in Neonates
Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia in neonates can be caused by various factors, including biliary atresia and choledochal cysts. Ursodeoxycholic acid is a commonly used treatment option for reducing serum bilirubin levels by decreasing bile flow, intestinal absorption of bile acids, and bilirubin concentration. On the other hand, caffeine is given to preterm neonates to improve their cardiac drive and apnoea but is not used for hyperbilirubinaemia. Phototherapy is the first-line treatment for jaundice, but increasing light concentration does not target the conjugated fraction. Milk fortifier may be useful for poor growth or meeting gestational criteria, but it has no place in the treatment of hyperbilirubinaemia. Omeprazole is given for reflux but does not aid in the management of hyperbilirubinaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You are working as a Foundation Year 2 in a GP surgery. A mother brings her 4-year-old girl to see you with a cough. You notice an alert on her notes that states she is on a child protection plan.
Which of the following is true regarding a child protection plan?Your Answer: They are devised for children in need of extra support for health, safety ± developmental issues
Correct Answer: They are devised for children at risk of significant harm
Explanation:Understanding Child Protection Plans and Child in Need Plans
Child protection plans and child in need plans are two different interventions designed to support children who may be at risk of harm or in need of extra support. It is important to understand the differences between these plans and how they are implemented.
Child protection plans are devised for children who are at risk of significant harm. The aim of these plans is to ensure the child’s safety, promote their health and development, and support the family in safeguarding and promoting the child’s welfare. Child protection plans are not voluntary and involve a team of professionals working together to ensure the child’s safety.
On the other hand, child in need plans are voluntary and are designed to support children who may need extra help with their health, safety, or development. These plans identify a lead professional and outline the resources and services needed to achieve the planned outcomes within a specific timeframe.
It is important to note that both plans involve consultation with parents, wider family members, and relevant agencies. Additionally, child protection plans are regularly reviewed to ensure that the child’s safety and well-being are being maintained.
In summary, child protection plans and child in need plans are interventions designed to support children in different ways. Understanding the differences between these plans can help ensure that children receive the appropriate support and interventions they need to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 9-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with a three day history of limping. She has been experiencing illness recently. Upon examination, she has no fever and shows discomfort when moving her hip. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:Transient Synovitis in Childhood: the Causes and Diagnosis
Transient synovitis is a prevalent cause of hip pain in children, but it is crucial to rule out other more severe causes before diagnosing it. The exact cause of this condition is still unknown, but it is believed to be associated with viral infections, allergic reactions, or trauma.
Transient synovitis is a self-limiting condition that typically resolves within a few days to weeks. However, it is essential to differentiate it from other conditions that may require urgent medical attention, such as septic arthritis or Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. Therefore, a thorough medical history, physical examination, and imaging studies are necessary to make an accurate diagnosis.
In conclusion, transient synovitis is a common cause of hip pain in childhood, but it is crucial to exclude other more serious conditions before diagnosing it. Parents should seek medical attention if their child experiences hip pain, limping, or difficulty walking to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child presents with the classic murmur of a patent ductus arteriosus. The child is underweight for their age but is otherwise in good health.
What course of action would you suggest for this patient?Your Answer: Review the child frequently, expecting spontaneous closure within the next five years
Correct Answer: Early operative closure
Explanation:Recommendations for Operative Closure and Antibiotic Use in Persistent Defects
Early operative closure is advised for patients with defects that have not resolved by 6 months of age. It is important to address these defects promptly to prevent complications and improve outcomes. However, prophylactic antibiotics are no longer recommended for dental and other invasive procedures in these patients. This change in practice is due to concerns about antibiotic resistance and the potential for adverse effects. Instead, careful monitoring and prompt treatment of any infections or complications that arise is recommended. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure the best possible outcomes for patients with persistent defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician complaining of a dry cough that has been bothering him for the past three days. The child has been experiencing intense coughing spells that make him turn blue and vomit. He had previously suffered from a cold with fever, sore throat, and a runny nose. The doctor diagnoses him with pertussis and prescribes a course of clarithromycin.
What guidance should be provided regarding the child's return to school?Your Answer: Exclusion from school for 48 hours
Explanation:If a child has whooping cough, they must stay away from school for 48 hours after starting antibiotics. This is because whooping cough is contagious, and it is important to prevent the spread of the disease. Additionally, during this time, the child should avoid contact with infants who have not been vaccinated.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenzae requires exclusion until the child has recovered. The official advice regarding school exclusion for chickenpox has varied, but the most recent guidance suggests that all lesions should be crusted over before children return to school.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 10-day old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother due to poor feeding and drinking for the past 48 hours. The mother is concerned about the baby's weight gain and has noticed pale stools. During the examination, the baby appears jaundiced and has an enlarged liver. The medical team performs a newborn jaundice screen and considers biliary atresia as a possible diagnosis. What clinical finding would be most indicative of biliary atresia?
Your Answer: Raised level of conjugated bilirubin
Explanation:Elevated conjugated bilirubin is a characteristic feature of biliary atresia. This condition is often associated with prolonged jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, abnormal growth, and cardiac murmurs in the presence of cardiac abnormalities. While liver transaminases and bile acids may also be elevated in biliary atresia, they are not specific to this condition and cannot distinguish it from other causes of neonatal cholestasis. Poor feeding and drinking are not helpful in making a diagnosis, as they can occur in many different conditions. While the age of presentation may suggest biliary atresia, there are several other potential causes of neonatal jaundice in a 15-day old infant, including congenital infections, urinary tract infections, breast milk jaundice, and hypothyroidism. Elevated unconjugated bilirubin is not a typical finding in biliary atresia, but may be seen in cases of hypothyroidism.
Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children
Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.
To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.
Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old primigravida is scheduled for induction at 38 weeks due to intrauterine growth restriction. Following a brief labor, a baby girl is born vaginally. The infant has a low birth weight and is diagnosed with microcephaly, moderate hepatosplenomegaly, and a petechial rash upon examination. She experiences a seizure shortly after being admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit. The mother had an uneventful pregnancy, has no medical history, takes no medications, and has received all of her vaccinations. What infection is the baby likely to have been exposed to in utero?
Your Answer: Rubella
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Hepatomegaly is a possible but uncommon finding in infants with haemolytic anaemia, but microcephaly and seizures would not be expected. Congenital rubella syndrome can occur if the mother contracts rubella during the first trimester of pregnancy, and may present with low birth weight, microcephaly, seizures, and a purpuric rash. However, the classic triad of symptoms includes sensorineural deafness, eye abnormalities, and congenital heart disease, which are not present in this case. Additionally, if the mother has been fully vaccinated against rubella, CMV is a more likely diagnosis. Congenital varicella syndrome can occur if the mother is not immune to varicella-zoster and is infected during the first or second trimester, and may present with microcephaly and seizures, as well as hypertrophic scars, limb defects, and ocular defects. However, there is no history of the mother developing chickenpox during pregnancy, making this diagnosis unlikely.
Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus
Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three major congenital infections that are commonly encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
Each of these infections has characteristic features that can help with diagnosis. Rubella can cause congenital cataracts, sensorineural deafness, and congenital heart disease, among other things. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, cerebral palsy, and visual impairment, among other things. Cytomegalovirus can cause microcephaly, cerebral calcification, and chorioretinitis, among other things.
It is important to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent or minimize health problems for the newborn.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A child is born at 28 weeks gestation and is transferred to the neonatal unit. After a few hours, the child shows signs of nasal flaring, chest wall indrawing, and appears to have jaundice. The observations show a heart rate of 75/min, a respiratory rate of 68/min, and a temperature of 38.2ÂşC. What is the most common organism responsible for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Group B streptococcus
Explanation:The leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK is infection by group B streptococcus.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A paediatrician is conducting a ward round and comes across a 20-hour-old neonate without apparent issues. During the round, the mother expresses concern about her child's hearing, citing her own deafness as a potential risk factor. Which screening tool would be most suitable for this patient?
Your Answer: Otoacoustic emission test
Explanation:The otoacoustic emission test is commonly used for screening hearing problems in newborns. In the UK, it is a routine test and if a newborn fails, they are referred for impedance audiometry testing. However, there is no 6-month speech and language assessment as babies are not yet talking at this stage. Impedance audiometry testing is not routine and is only done if a newborn fails the otoacoustic emission test. It would not be appropriate to ask if the patient failed this test before determining if they had it or not. Pure tone audiometry is an adult hearing test and is only done when necessary. Weber’s and Rinne’s tests are screening tools used by clinicians to assess hearing loss in adults, but they may not be suitable for children who may not comply with the test.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Correct
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Which condition is frequently associated with plethoric lung fields on radiological imaging?
Your Answer: A large ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Explanation:Types of Congenital Heart Defects and Pulmonary Blood Flow
Congenital heart defects can be classified into different types based on their effects on pulmonary blood flow. Coarctation is a type of defect that is associated with normal pulmonary blood flow. On the other hand, most other types of defects, such as tetralogy of Fallot, pulmonary atresia, and tricuspid atresia, are associated with reduced pulmonary blood flow. The only exception to this is a large ventricular septal defect (VSD), which can also be associated with normal pulmonary blood flow. the different types of congenital heart defects and their effects on pulmonary blood flow is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Proper management of these defects can help improve the quality of life and outcomes for individuals with congenital heart defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 2-year-old boy is admitted to the ward with difficulty breathing. His mother reports a 3-day illness with cough and cold symptoms, low-grade fever and increasing difficulty breathing this morning. He has had no similar episodes. The family are all non-smokers and there is no history of atopy. His immunisations are up-to-date and he is otherwise growing and developing normally.
In the Emergency Department, he was given burst therapy and is now on one-hourly salbutamol inhalers. On examination, he is alert and playing. Heart rate (HR) 150 bpm, respiratory rate (RR) 40 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 94% on air. There is mild subcostal recession, and his chest shows good air entry bilaterally, with mild wheeze throughout.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Stretch to 2-hourly salbutamol and add 10 mg soluble prednisone for 3 days
Explanation:Management of Viral-Induced Wheeze in Children: Treatment Options and Considerations
Viral-induced wheeze is a common presentation of wheeze in preschool children, typically associated with a viral infection. Inhaled b2 agonists are the first line of treatment, given hourly during acute episodes. However, for children with mild symptoms and maintaining saturations above 92%, reducing the frequency of salbutamol to 2-hourly and gradually weaning off may be appropriate. Steroid tablet therapy is recommended for use in hospital settings and early management of asthma symptoms in this age group. It is important to establish a personal and family history of atopy, as a wheeze is more likely to be induced by asthma if it occurs when the child is otherwise well. Oxygen via nasal cannulae is not necessary for mild symptoms. Prednisolone may be added for 3 days with a strong history of atopy, while montelukast is given for 5 days to settle inflammation in children without atopy. Atrovent® nebulisers are not typically used in the treatment of viral-induced wheeze but may be useful in children with atopy history where salbutamol fails to reduce symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 36-month-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic. She is an orphaned refugee who recently arrived in the United Kingdom and has no medical history.
Her foster parents have brought her to the clinic as they have noticed that she becomes easily breathless on exertion or after a bath and squats down to catch her breath. During these times, they notice that her lips turn blue.
Upon examination, you find that she is on the 10th centile for height and weight, her lips are slightly dusky, she has good air entry bilaterally in her chest, and she has a normal heart rate at rest with a loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge with an associated thrill.
A chest x-ray reveals decreased vascular markings and a normal-sized heart. Electrocardiography (ECG) shows sinus rhythm with right axis deviation and deep S waves in V5 and V6.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Isolated pulmonary stenosis
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a common cyanotic congenital heart condition characterized by four abnormalities. Symptoms are determined by the degree of shunting of deoxygenated blood from right to left, which is influenced by the degree of right ventricular outflow tract obstruction (RVOTO) and other ways blood can get to the lungs. Squatting can relieve cyanotic episodes by increasing peripheral vascular resistance. The child in question has a loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge in keeping with the turbulent flow of blood across the stenosed RVOT. Isolated pulmonary stenosis is a possible differential diagnosis, but the history of squatting is highly suggestive of TOF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery during an asthma attack. According to the British Thoracic Society guidelines, what finding would classify the asthma attack as life-threatening instead of just severe?
Your Answer: Use of accessory neck muscles
Correct Answer: Peak flow 30% of best
Explanation:Assessing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children
When assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children, the 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines recommend using specific criteria. These criteria can help determine whether the attack is severe or life-threatening. For a severe attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% of their best or predicted, and may be too breathless to talk or feed. Additionally, their heart rate may be over 125 (for children over 5 years old) or over 140 (for children between 1-5 years old), and their respiratory rate may be over 30 breaths per minute (for children over 5 years old) or over 40 (for children between 1-5 years old). They may also be using accessory neck muscles to breathe.
For a life-threatening attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% of their best or predicted, and may have a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, or cyanosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these criteria and to take appropriate action to manage the child’s asthma attack. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that children with asthma receive the appropriate care and treatment they need during an acute attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl comes to the doctor's office complaining of nightly coughing fits over the past 2 weeks. She has an inspiratory whoop and noisy breathing, but no signs of cyanosis or other abnormalities during the physical exam. The doctor diagnoses her with whooping cough. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Ceftriaxone
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, if a patient has developed a cough within the last 21 days and does not require hospitalization, macrolide antibiotics such as azithromycin or clarithromycin should be prescribed for children over 1 month old and non-pregnant adults. In this case, the patient does not meet the criteria for hospitalization due to their age, breathing difficulties, or complications. Along with antibiotics, patients should be advised to rest, stay hydrated, and use pain relievers like paracetamol or ibuprofen for symptom relief.
Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.
Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.
Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.
To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.
Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.
Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A father brings his 2-day-old son to the pediatrician for a routine check-up. During the examination, the pediatrician notices that the baby's skin has a yellowish tint. The pediatrician suspects that the baby has jaundice and investigates further.
What is a possible reason for jaundice caused by reduced bilirubin conjugation?Your Answer: Atresia of bile ducts
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Neonatal jaundice is a common condition that affects many newborns, with up to 50% of term and 80% of preterm babies experiencing it in their first week of life. It is characterized by yellow discoloration of the skin and occurs when the serum bilirubin level exceeds 85 micromoles/l. Jaundice can be either physiological or pathological, with the former resulting from increased destruction of fetal erythrocytes and decreased liver function due to immaturity. Pathological jaundice, on the other hand, can be caused by haemolytic or non-haemolytic factors, impaired bilirubin conjugation or excretion, and post-hepatic anatomical malformations. Risk factors for neonatal jaundice include Asian origin, having a sibling with a history of the condition, metabolic disorders, prematurity, low birthweight, and being male. Prompt detection and treatment of jaundice is crucial to prevent kernicterus and severe brain damage. Other conditions that can cause neonatal jaundice include intravascular haemolysis, polycythaemia, biliary atresia, and congenital bile duct cysts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of a fever and a rash.
What symptom might indicate the need for the GP to administer IM benzylpenicillin during the appointment?Your Answer: Pruritic vesicular eruptions over the trunk
Correct Answer: Coalescent purpura over the arms
Explanation:Common Paediatric Presentations and their Management
Fever with rash is a common presentation in paediatric patients, with viral infections being the most common cause. However, it is important to rule out meningococcal septicaemia, which can present with purpuric lesions and requires immediate management with IM or IV benzylpenicillin and hospital transfer. The causative agent is Neisseria meningitidis, and the features can be divided into meningitis and septic. Meningitic features include vomiting, neck stiffness, photophobia, Kernig sign, Brudzinski sign, focal neurology, and opisthotonus. Septic features include systemic illness, pyrexia, anorexia, and reduced tone.
Bilateral pustular eruptions on the fauces indicate bacterial tonsillitis, which is treated with amoxicillin. Measles can present with a maculopapular rash and white oral lesions known as Koplik spots. Varicella zoster virus infection causing chickenpox can present with pruritic vesicular eruptions over the trunk, which is treated symptomatically in immunocompetent children. A strawberry tongue is a sign of oral mucositis and can be found in scarlet fever or Kawasaki disease.
In summary, fever with rash in paediatric patients can have a wide differential diagnosis, and it is important to consider serious conditions such as meningococcal septicaemia. Proper management and treatment depend on identifying the underlying cause of the presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy, with a history of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), is admitted to the Paediatric Ward due to a fever of 38.9 °C at home. He received his last treatment 1 week ago. His parents report that he has been feeling well, without cough, cold, rash, or vomiting.
Upon examination, his vital signs are stable except for a temperature of 38.4 °C. Physical examination is unremarkable. Blood tests and blood culture are taken from the portacath, revealing a haemoglobin (Hb) level of 11.5, a white cell count (WCC) of 1.1, neutrophils of 0.2, and a C-reactive protein (CRP) level of 85.
What is the most crucial next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Start oral Augmentin®
Correct Answer: Start intravenous (iv) Tazocin®
Explanation:Management of Febrile Neutropenia in a Child with ALL Receiving Chemotherapy
Febrile neutropenia is a serious complication in cancer patients, particularly those receiving chemotherapy. It is defined as neutropenia with fever or symptoms of significant sepsis. In such cases, immediate initiation of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics is crucial to prevent mortality.
In this scenario, a child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) presents with febrile neutropenia. The first step is to start intravenous Tazocin® monotherapy, pending blood cultures and a thorough physical examination. A urine sample should also be obtained, particularly for children under the age of 5. Chest radiography is only necessary for symptomatic children.
After 48 hours, if the child shows improvement and cultures are negative, empirical antibiotic treatment can be discontinued or switched to oral antibiotics such as Augmentin®. Intravenous fluids may be necessary if the child deteriorates or becomes haemodynamically unstable.
It is also important to send urine and stool samples for microbial culture and sensitivity (MC&S) to investigate sepsis. However, initiating antibiotics should be the first priority.
In summary, febrile neutropenia in cancer patients is a medical emergency that requires prompt initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics. Close monitoring and appropriate investigations are necessary to ensure timely and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery due to persistent leg pains. Which one of the following would not be consistent with a diagnosis of 'growing pains'?
Your Answer: Present upon waking in the morning
Explanation:Understanding Growing Pains in Children
Growing pains are a common complaint among children aged 3-12 years. These pains are often attributed to ‘benign idiopathic nocturnal limb pains of childhood’ in rheumatology, as they are not necessarily related to growth. Boys and girls are equally affected by growing pains, which are characterized by intermittent pain in the legs without obvious cause.
One of the key features of growing pains is that they are never present at the start of the day after the child has woken up. Additionally, there is no limp or limitation of physical activity, and the child is systemically well with normal physical examination and motor milestones. Symptoms may worsen after a day of vigorous activity.
Overall, growing pains are a benign condition that can be managed with reassurance and simple measures such as massage or heat application. However, it is important to rule out other potential causes of leg pain in children, especially if there are any worrying features present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 16-month-old boy has been diagnosed with roseola infantum. What is the most frequent complication associated with this illness?
Your Answer: Orchitis
Correct Answer: Febrile convulsions
Explanation:Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.
In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.
It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 24-month-old child is brought to see you with concerns about his development.
Which of the following sets of findings on history and examination reflects age-appropriate development for this child?Your Answer: Stands and walks confidently, bends or crouches to pick up an object, makes a tower of 2–3 blocks, scribbles, tries to sing, says six clear words, points to named pictures, plays games, enjoys sitting and looking at books, points to body parts, clothing and objects and helps with dressing
Explanation:Developmental Milestones for Children: What to Expect at Different Ages
As children grow and develop, they reach certain milestones that indicate their progress and abilities. Here are some of the expected developmental milestones for children at different ages:
9 months: At this age, a child should be able to sit unsupported, crawl, hold objects with a pincer grip, babble with two syllables, and develop stranger anxiety.
10-12 months: A child at this age should be able to walk alone, use a pincer grip, say a few words like mama and dada, and play pattercake.
18 months: By this age, a child should be able to walk confidently, build a tower of 2-3 blocks, say six clear words, and point to named pictures.
2 years: At this age, a child should be able to climb stairs, build a tower of 6-7 blocks, use a spoon, and combine 2-3 words into sentences.
3 years: By this age, a child should be able to ride a tricycle, draw a circle and a cross, use a fork and spoon, and follow three-step instructions.
These milestones are important for parents and caregivers to be aware of, as they can help identify any potential developmental delays or concerns. It’s important to remember that every child develops at their own pace, and some may reach these milestones earlier or later than others. If you have any concerns about your child’s development, it’s always best to consult with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A mother brings her 8-week-old baby to the GP clinic for their routine 7-week check-up. The baby appears happy and responsive during the assessment. During the examination, you observe weak femoral pulses on both sides. The rest of the examination is normal.
What is the most suitable course of action to take?Your Answer: Same day discussion with paediatrics
Explanation:If a baby’s femoral pulses are absent or weak during their 6-8 week check, it is important to discuss this immediately with paediatrics. Any signs of a critical or major congenital heart abnormality should also be seen urgently by a specialist. Advising the mother that these findings are normal would be inappropriate, as they are abnormal. While safety netting is important, the child should still be seen urgently by the appropriate specialist. Taking the child to the emergency department is not the best option, as they may not be equipped to deal with this issue and will likely refer to the paediatrics team themselves. Referring routinely to paediatrics or making an appointment in 2 weeks would waste valuable time in a potentially unwell child who needs urgent referral.
Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Correct
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A 4-year-old child was admitted with a high fever, cervical lymph node enlargement, conjunctival congestion, redness of lips and palms, and desquamation of fingertips. Upon examination, erythema of the oral cavity was observed. Blood tests showed a hemoglobin level of 110 g/l and a platelet count of 450,000. The symptoms resolved after two weeks, but during the third week, the child unexpectedly passed away. An autopsy revealed vasculitis of the coronary arteries and aneurysm formation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Kawasaki’s disease
Explanation:Understanding Kawasaki’s Disease and Differential Diagnosis
Kawasaki disease, also known as mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome, is a multisystem disease that primarily affects children under the age of 5. It is characterized by fever, cervical adenitis, and changes in the skin and mucous membranes. While generally benign and self-limited, it can lead to coronary artery aneurysms in 25% of cases and has a case-fatality rate of 0.5-2.8%. Treatment with high-dose intravenous globulin and aspirin has been shown to be effective in reducing the prevalence of coronary artery abnormalities.
When considering a differential diagnosis, it is important to distinguish Kawasaki disease from other conditions with similar symptoms. Scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, diphtheria, and Marfan syndrome can all present with fever and cardiovascular involvement, but each has distinct clinical features and underlying pathophysiologic mechanisms. Careful evaluation and diagnosis are essential for appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Correct
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A 4-year-old child has been referred by their GP due to chronic constipation that is not responding to treatment. What specific details in the child's medical history could suggest a possible diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease?
Your Answer: Passage of meconium at day 3
Explanation:When a baby has difficulty passing stool, it may be a sign of Hirschsprung’s disease, a condition where nerve cells in the colon are missing. This disease is more common in males and can be diagnosed through a biopsy. It is important to note that not all babies with delayed passage have this disease. Hirschsprung’s disease can also present in later childhood, so it is important to ask about the timing of symptoms in children with chronic constipation or obstruction. This disease is associated with MEN 2A/B, not MEN1, and meconium ileus is a common differential. Pyloric stenosis is associated with non-bilious vomiting, while a temperature is not a factor in suggesting Hirschsprung’s disease.
Paediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders
Pyloric stenosis is more common in males and has a 5-10% chance of being inherited from parents. Symptoms include projectile vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life, and diagnosis is made through a test feed or ultrasound. Treatment involves a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, either open or laparoscopic.
Acute appendicitis is uncommon in children under 3 years old, but when it does occur, it may present atypically. Mesenteric adenitis causes central abdominal pain and URTI, and is treated conservatively.
Intussusception occurs in infants aged 6-9 months and causes colicky pain, diarrhea, vomiting, a sausage-shaped mass, and red jelly stool. Treatment involves reduction with air insufflation.
Intestinal malrotation is characterized by a high caecum at the midline and may be complicated by the development of volvulus. Diagnosis is made through an upper GI contrast study and ultrasound, and treatment involves laparotomy or a Ladd’s procedure.
Hirschsprung’s disease occurs in 1/5000 births and is characterized by delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Treatment involves rectal washouts and an anorectal pull through procedure.
Oesophageal atresia is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios, and may present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration. Meconium ileus is usually associated with cystic fibrosis and requires surgery to remove plugs. Biliary atresia causes jaundice and increased conjugated bilirubin, and requires an urgent Kasai procedure. Necrotising enterocolitis is more common in premature infants and is treated with total gut rest and TPN, with laparotomy required for perforations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which feature is not associated with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer: Increased incidence of hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Ataxic gait
Explanation:Down’s Syndrome and Cognitive Decline
Cerebellar dysfunction is not a characteristic of Down’s syndrome. However, individuals with this condition may experience a decline in memory and cognitive abilities similar to Alzheimer’s disease as they approach their mid-thirties. This syndrome is characterized by a gradual loss of cognitive function, including memory, attention, and problem-solving skills. It is important to note that this decline is not universal and may vary in severity among individuals with Down’s syndrome. Despite this, it is crucial to monitor cognitive function in individuals with Down’s syndrome to ensure early detection and intervention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a 12-hour-old neonate on the Postnatal Ward. During your examination, you notice a swelling over the occipital region of the skull. It is soft and does not appear tender. On further examination, you feel that the swelling is crossing the cranial sutures. Neurologically, the child appears normal. She was born by forceps due to failure to progress. There is no family history of note.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation?Your Answer: Cranial magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan
Correct Answer: Cranial ultrasound scan
Explanation:Investigations for Cranial Swellings in Neonates
Cranial swellings in neonates can be a cause for concern, and prompt investigation is necessary to rule out serious conditions such as subgaleal haemorrhage. The following are some common investigations used to diagnose cranial swellings in neonates:
Cranial Ultrasound Scan
This is the investigation of choice and can be done quickly and safely by Neonatal Consultants and most Paediatric Registrars on Neonatal placement. The scan can provide a significant amount of information, and the key finding to look for is whether the swelling crosses the cranial suture lines. If it does, this should be a cause for concern as it may indicate subgaleal haemorrhage.Cerebral Function Monitoring
This investigation is used to monitor a neonate’s neurological state and identify seizure activity. However, it is not necessary in cases where the baby appears neurologically normal, as in the case of cranial swellings.Cranial Computed Tomography (CT) Scan
This investigation exposes the baby to unnecessary radiation and is not recommended as the first choice. If the findings from the cranial ultrasound scan are unclear, an MRI scan is the next investigation of choice.Cranial Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) Scan
This investigation is not the first choice and is only done after a cranial ultrasound scan. It provides detailed information about the cranial swelling and can help diagnose conditions such as subgaleal haemorrhage.Liver Function Tests
Liver function tests are not part of the initial workup for cranial swellings. However, they may be done at some point during admission for other reasons, such as the risk of jaundice secondary to possible extra-/intracranial haemorrhage. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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