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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old man is hospitalized with acute coronary syndrome and is diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is hospitalized with acute coronary syndrome and is diagnosed with a heart attack. After four days, he experiences another episode of chest pain with non-specific ST-T wave changes on the ECG. Which cardiac enzyme would be the most suitable for determining if this second episode was another heart attack?

      Your Answer: Troponin T

      Correct Answer: CK-MB

      Explanation:

      Evaluating Chest Pain after an MI

      When a patient experiences chest pain within ten days of a previous myocardial infarction (MI), it is important to evaluate the situation carefully. Troponin T levels remain elevated for ten days following an MI, which can make it difficult to determine if a second episode of chest pain is related to the previous event. To make a diagnosis, doctors will need to evaluate the patient’s creatine kinase (CK)-myoglobin (MB) levels. These markers rise over three days and can help form a diagnostic profile that can help determine if the chest pain is related to a new MI or another condition. By carefully evaluating these markers, doctors can provide the best possible care for patients who are experiencing chest pain after an MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      57.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 52-year-old female visits her GP complaining of hot flashes, irritability, and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old female visits her GP complaining of hot flashes, irritability, and a 7-month history of lighter periods that have become more irregular. The GP diagnoses her as perimenopausal and prescribes Elleste duet tablets (estradiol + norethisterone) as sequential combined HRT since she has not had a total abdominal hysterectomy. The GP discusses the potential risks with the patient. What is the most crucial risk to mention regarding the norethisterone component?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of headaches

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      The risk of breast cancer is increased when progesterone is added to HRT. However, it is important to note that the risk is minimal and patients should be informed of this. According to the Women Health Institute, if 1000 women on HRT for 5 years were compared to 1000 women not on HRT for 5 years, there would only be 4 more cases of breast cancer. Women who start HRT under the age of 60 are not at an increased risk of dying from cardiovascular disease. Norethisterone, a progesterone, reduces the risk of endometrial carcinoma, so women with a uterus are always started on combined HRT. Women without a uterus are started on unopposed oestrogen. While HRT may increase the risk of headaches, this is less important to mention compared to the risk of breast cancer.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      58.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being discovered...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being discovered unconscious in his apartment by his girlfriend. The patient had phoned his girlfriend to inform her that he had consumed a significant amount of different tablets but now regrets doing so. The type of tablets ingested is unknown.
      Which of the following toxic drugs is correctly matched with its antidote?

      Your Answer: Beta-blockers and adrenaline

      Correct Answer: Ethylene glycol and fomepizole

      Explanation:

      Antidotes for Common Drug Overdoses

      In cases of drug overdose, specific antidotes can be administered to counteract the toxic effects of the drug. Here are some examples:

      Ethylene glycol and fomepizole: Fomepizole is the preferred treatment for ethylene glycol and methanol poisoning. Ethylene glycol is broken down by alcohol dehydrogenase, but if this enzyme is overwhelmed, toxic metabolites can form. Fomepizole blocks alcohol dehydrogenase, preventing the formation of toxic metabolites.

      Paracetamol and bicarbonate: N-Acetylcysteine is used to treat paracetamol overdose, while sodium bicarbonate is used for tricyclic antidepressant overdose.

      Benzodiazepines and naloxone: Naloxone is the antidote for opiate overdose, while flumazenil can reverse the effects of benzodiazepines.

      Digoxin and calcium: Digoxin antibodies (Digibind®) can be used in severe cases of digoxin overdose.

      Beta-blockers and adrenaline: Glucagon and cardiac pacing are used to treat beta-blocker overdose.

      Knowing the appropriate antidote for a specific drug overdose can be life-saving. It is important to seek medical attention immediately in cases of suspected overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      40.9
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of numbness in his lower extremities. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of numbness in his lower extremities. He has no significant medical history. Upon physical examination, there is a loss of proprioception on his left side below the umbilical line, and complete loss of sensation at the umbilical line. Furthermore, there is a loss of thermal and pain sensation in the groin area and below, on the right side. Radiological imaging reveals a mass on the spine. What is the most likely location of the mass?

      Your Answer: Thoracic level 11 on the right side

      Correct Answer: Thoracic level 10 on the right side

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensory Loss in Spinal Lesions at Different Levels

      Spinal lesions can cause a range of sensory deficits depending on the level of the injury. For example, a lesion at the right tenth thoracic level can result in Brown-Séquard syndrome, with loss of tactile discrimination and vibratory and proprioceptive sensations on the ipsilateral side below the lesion, and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the contralateral side 2-3 levels below the lesion. However, a lesion at lumbar level 1 on the left side would cause sensory loss on the opposite side, around the level of the anterior superior iliac spines. It’s important to note that the umbilical line is innervated by T10, so a lesion at T11 on either side would spare sensation at this level. Understanding these patterns of sensory loss can aid in diagnosing and treating spinal lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      78.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of early satiety, nausea and abdominal fullness....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of early satiety, nausea and abdominal fullness. He has lost 6 kg in weight over the past 3 months. There is no other past medical history of note. On examination, he looks very thin and there is a palpable epigastric mass.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 101 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 140 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 170 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 35 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 68 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals a smooth mass in the body of the stomach with normal-looking mucosa overlying it. Multiple biopsies: spindle cell tissue, cells undergoing multiple mitoses.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal stromal tumour (GIST)

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumours (GISTs) vs Other Gastric Conditions

      Gastrointestinal stromal tumours (GISTs) are the most common tumours of mesenchymal origin in the gastrointestinal tract, with approximately 50-70% occurring in the stomach. They are histologically characterized by spindle cells, epithelioid-like cells, or mixed spindle-epithelioid cells. GISTs tend to occur in individuals above the age of 40 and are equally common in men and women. Biopsy specimens are stained with DOG1 for identification, and surgical resection is the preferred treatment option. Systemic chemotherapy with imatinib is an alternative for patients who cannot undergo complete surgical resection. Disease survival rates at the 5-year stage range from 30-60%.

      Other gastric conditions, such as gastric carcinoma, Helicobacter pylori gastritis, gastric leiomyosarcoma, and gastric lipoma, may present with similar symptoms but have different endoscopic and histological findings. Gastric carcinomas are most often adenocarcinomas, while Helicobacter pylori gastritis is the most common cause of gastritis worldwide. Gastric leiomyosarcoma is a differential diagnosis for GISTs, but GISTs are more common. Gastric lipomas would not present with the same combination of findings seen in GISTs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her gynaecologist with vaginal irritation and itching. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her gynaecologist with vaginal irritation and itching. On examination, the clinician notes a 3 cm by 2 cm lump extending from the left side of the vulva. A biopsy of the lump is taken for histological diagnosis.
      Which of the following is the most common vulval carcinoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinomas

      Explanation:

      Types of Vulval Cancers and Their Characteristics

      Vulval cancers are rare gynaecological malignancies that primarily affect elderly women. The most common type of vulval cancer is squamous cell carcinoma, which typically presents as a growth on the inner surface of the labia minora. Symptoms include vulval discomfort, itching, discharge, and bleeding. Biopsy and histological investigation are necessary to diagnose vulval lumps, and treatment involves vulvectomy and dissection of inguinal glands. Malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinomas, Bartholin’s gland cancer, and sarcoma are other types of vulval cancers, each with their own unique characteristics and rarity. Early detection and treatment are crucial for a positive prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with vague, crampy central abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with vague, crampy central abdominal ‘discomfort’ for the last three days. He was recently prescribed codeine phosphate for knee pain, which is secondary to osteoarthritis. He has never had this type of abdominal discomfort before. He last moved his bowels three days ago but denies nausea and vomiting. His past medical history is significant for hypertension. He has a 40-pack-year smoking history and denies any history of alcohol use. He has had no previous surgery.
      His physical examination is normal. His observations and blood test results are shown below.
      Temperature 36.3°C
      Blood pressure 145/88 mmHg
      Respiratory rate 15 breaths/min
      Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 99% (room air)
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 5.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 1.5 mg/dl 0–10 mg/l
      Total bilirubin 5.0 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      The Emergency doctor performs an abdominal ultrasound to examine for an abdominal aortic aneurysm. During this process, he also performs an ultrasound scan of the right upper quadrant, which shows several gallstones in a thin-walled gallbladder. The abdominal aorta is visualised and has a diameter of 2.3 cm. The patient’s abdominal pain is thought to be due to constipation.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient’s gallstones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No intervention required

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Management Options for Gallstone Disease

      Gallstone disease is a common condition that can present with a variety of symptoms. The management of this condition depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the severity of their disease. Here are some differentiating management options for gallstone disease:

      No Intervention Required:
      If a patient presents with vague abdominal pain after taking codeine phosphate, it is important to exclude the possibility of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. However, if the patient has asymptomatic gallstone disease, no intervention is required, and they can be managed expectantly.

      Elective Cholecystectomy:
      For patients with asymptomatic gallstone disease, prophylactic cholecystectomy is not indicated unless there is a high risk of life-threatening complications. However, if the patient has symptomatic gallstone disease, such as colicky right upper quadrant pain, elective cholecystectomy may be necessary.

      Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP):
      ERCP is indicated for patients with common duct bile stones or if stenting of benign or malignant strictures is required. However, if the patient has asymptomatic gallstone disease, ERCP is not necessary.

      Immediate Cholecystectomy:
      If a patient has acute cholecystitis (AC), immediate cholecystectomy is indicated. AC typically presents with right upper quadrant pain and elevated inflammatory markers.

      Percutaneous Cholecystectomy:
      For critically unwell patients who are poor surgical candidates, percutaneous cholecystectomy may be necessary. This procedure involves the image-guided placement of a drainage catheter into the gallbladder lumen to stabilize the patient before a more controlled surgical approach can be taken in the future.

      In summary, the management of gallstone disease depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the severity of their disease. It is important to differentiate between the different management options to provide the best possible care for each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - A 22-year-old student is hit by a bus while cycling to university at...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old student is hit by a bus while cycling to university at moderate speed. He falls and lands on the curb, hitting his left ribs. There is no loss of consciousness. He is brought into the Emergency Department, complaining of left upper quadrant (LUQ) pain. On examination, his heart rate is 120 bpm after morphine analgesia; his blood pressure is 100/65 mmHg and he is peripherally cold; the respiratory rate is 25 and saturations are 99% on room air. Chest X-ray reveals displaced left lower rib fractures, without other thoracic pathology.
      What diagnosis would you be most concerned about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splenic rupture

      Explanation:

      Assessing a Patient with Blunt Force Trauma: Suspected Splenic Rupture and Differential Diagnoses

      When evaluating a patient with blunt force trauma, it is crucial to have a good understanding of regional anatomy to assess potential damage to underlying structures. In cases where there is blunt force trauma to the left upper quadrant (LUQ) and associated tachycardia and tachypnea, suspicion of splenic rupture arises. Despite significant trauma and suspected blood loss, compensatory mechanisms such as peripheral vasoconstriction (resulting in cold peripheries) and increased cardiac output (resulting in tachycardia) may maintain an adequate blood pressure.

      The patient should be managed according to the principles of Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS), including an ABCDE assessment, wide-bore intravenous access, and blood sampling for hemoglobin level and cross-matching of blood. If stable, an urgent computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis is necessary. If unstable, an emergency laparotomy is required.

      Other potential diagnoses to consider include aspiration pneumonia, cardiac tamponade (less common with blunt force trauma), early chest infection (possible in the future due to fractured ribs), and occult pneumothorax (possible due to fractured ribs, but not likely to produce significant physiological changes).

      Evaluating a Patient with Blunt Force Trauma: Suspected Splenic Rupture and Differential Diagnoses

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old artist visits his GP complaining of anxiety related to social interactions....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old artist visits his GP complaining of anxiety related to social interactions. He prefers solitude and is hesitant to share his beliefs with others, which they find peculiar. During the consultation, the patient talks in a high-pitched voice about his fascination with horror movies and his 'spirit-guide' that protects him. However, he denies experiencing any visual or auditory hallucinations and does not display any delusional thinking. Additionally, there is no evidence of pressure of speech. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The man seeking help has social anxiety and prefers to be alone. He has an interest in paranormal phenomena and talks in a high-pitched voice when discussing his spirit guide. These symptoms suggest that he may have schizotypal personality disorder, which is characterized by magical thinking and odd speech patterns. Emotionally unstable personality disorder, histrionic personality disorder, schizoaffective disorder, and schizoid personality disorder are all incorrect diagnoses.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man visits his GP complaining of increasing pain in one leg...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his GP complaining of increasing pain in one leg over the past 6 months. He also reports mild weakness in the affected leg during any activity. The pain travels down the back of his left leg and worsens when walking, causing him to stop and rest frequently. However, the pain improves when he sits or crouches down. The patient has no history of smoking or cardiovascular issues and has a body mass index of 19.0 kg/m2. There are no abnormalities found during back and neurological examinations. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lumbar canal spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      When a patient complains of claudication, spinal stenosis should be considered as a possible cause.

      If the patient experiences leg pain on one side that improves with rest, certain factors in their medical history may indicate spinal stenosis rather than peripheral arterial disease. These factors include pain relief when sitting or crouching, leg weakness, no history of smoking, and no cardiovascular issues. Ankylosing spondylitis, which primarily causes back pain, is more common in younger patients and is unlikely to cause leg pain. Conversion disorder, a psychiatric condition that presents with unexplained musculoskeletal symptoms, is typically diagnosed after ruling out physical causes, but the patient’s history suggests spinal stenosis rather than a psychiatric cause. While peripheral arterial disease is a possible differential diagnosis, the absence of cardiac risk factors and the pain-relieving factors suggest spinal stenosis. If the patient experiences claudication pain after walking 100 meters or more, peripheral arterial disease may be more likely.

      Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.

      Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Neurosurgery (0/1) 0%
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