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Question 1
Incorrect
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You review a child with a history of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) who is currently experiencing severe symptoms. He hands you a note to read that expresses his thoughts about his condition. However, you struggle to comprehend it as it is excessively verbose and highly disorganized.
Which ONE of the following cognitive impairments is he exhibiting?Your Answer: Word salad
Correct Answer: Graphorrhea
Explanation:Graphorrhoea is a communication disorder characterized by an excessive use of words and a tendency to ramble in written work. It is similar to word salad, but specifically occurs in written form. This condition is often observed in individuals with schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 37 year old male comes to the emergency department with complaints of vertigo and tinnitus on the right side for the last 3 hours. You suspect Meniere's disease. What is the most accurate description of the pathophysiology of Meniere's disease?
Your Answer: Excessive endolymphatic pressure & dilation of the membranous labyrinth
Explanation:Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is still unknown. It is believed to occur due to increased pressure and gradual enlargement of the endolymphatic system in the middle ear, also known as the membranous labyrinth.
Further Reading:
Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear that is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and low frequency hearing loss. The exact cause of the disease is unknown, but it is believed to be related to excessive pressure and dilation of the endolymphatic system in the middle ear. Meniere’s disease is more common in middle-aged adults, but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally.
The clinical features of Meniere’s disease include episodes of vertigo that can last from minutes to hours. These attacks often occur in clusters, with several episodes happening in a week. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure. Nystagmus and a positive Romberg test are common findings, and the Fukuda stepping test may also be positive. While symptoms are typically unilateral, bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests can be used to help diagnose Meniere’s disease. In Rinne’s test, air conduction should be better than bone conduction in both ears. In Weber’s test, the sound should be heard loudest in the unaffected (contralateral) side due to the sensorineural hearing loss.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms often resolve within 5-10 years, but most patients are left with some residual hearing loss. Psychological distress is common among patients with this condition.
The diagnostic criteria for Meniere’s disease include clinical features consistent with the disease, confirmed sensorineural hearing loss on audiometry, and exclusion of other possible causes.
Management of Meniere’s disease involves an ENT assessment to confirm the diagnosis and perform audiometry. Patients should be advised to inform the DVLA and may need to cease driving until their symptoms are under control. Acute attacks can be treated with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and hospital admission may be necessary in some cases. Betahistine may be beneficial for prevention of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35 year old epileptic is brought into the emergency department after experiencing a grand mal seizure. The patient is unable to close their mouth. You suspect temporomandibular joint dislocation. What is the initial imaging test recommended for diagnosing this condition?
Your Answer: Orthopantomogram
Explanation:The recommended first-line diagnostic test for TMJ dislocation is an OPG. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine suggests that an OPG is the most effective initial imaging technique for diagnosing TMJ dislocation. However, mandibular series X-ray views and CT scans can also be used as alternative imaging methods.
Further Reading:
TMJ dislocation occurs when the mandibular condyle is displaced from its normal position in the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone. The most common type of dislocation is bilateral anterior dislocation. This occurs when the mandible is dislocated forward and the masseter and pterygoid muscles spasm, locking the condyle in place.
The temporomandibular joint is unique because it has an articular disc that separates the joint into upper and lower compartments. Dislocation can be caused by trauma, such as a direct blow to the open mouth, or by traumatic events like excessive mouth opening during yawning, laughing, shouting, or eating. It can also occur during dental work.
Signs and symptoms of TMJ dislocation include difficulty fully opening or closing the mouth, pain or tenderness in the TMJ region, jaw pain, ear pain, difficulty chewing, and facial pain. Connective tissue disorders like Marfan’s and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome can increase the likelihood of dislocation.
If TMJ dislocation is suspected, X-rays may be done to confirm the diagnosis. The best initial imaging technique is an orthopantomogram (OPG) or a standard mandibular series.
Management of anterior dislocations involves reducing the dislocated mandible, which is usually done in the emergency department. Dislocations to the posterior, medial, or lateral side are usually associated with a mandibular fracture and should be referred to a maxillofacial surgeon.
Reduction of an anterior dislocation involves applying distraction forces to the mandible. This can be done by gripping the mandible externally or intra-orally. In some cases, procedural sedation or local anesthesia may be used, and in rare cases, reduction may be done under general anesthesia.
After reduction, a post-reduction X-ray is done to confirm adequate reduction and rule out any fractures caused by the procedure. Discharge advice includes following a soft diet for at least 48 hours, avoiding wide mouth opening for at least 2 weeks, and supporting the mouth with the hand during yawning or laughing. A Barton bandage may be used to support the mandible if the patient is unable to comply with the discharge advice. Referral to a maxillofacial surgeon as an outpatient is also recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old patient with a history of exhaustion and weariness has a complete blood count scheduled. The complete blood count reveals the presence of macrocytic anemia.
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Myeloproliferative disease
Explanation:Anaemia can be categorized based on the size of red blood cells. Microcytic anaemia, characterized by a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of less than 80 fl, can be caused by various factors such as iron deficiency, thalassaemia, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be normocytic), sideroblastic anaemia (which can also be normocytic), lead poisoning, and aluminium toxicity (although this is now rare and mainly affects haemodialysis patients).
On the other hand, normocytic anaemia, with an MCV ranging from 80 to 100 fl, can be attributed to conditions like haemolysis, acute haemorrhage, bone marrow failure, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be microcytic), mixed iron and folate deficiency, pregnancy, chronic renal failure, and sickle-cell disease.
Lastly, macrocytic anaemia, characterized by an MCV greater than 100 fl, can be caused by factors such as B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, hypothyroidism, reticulocytosis, liver disease, alcohol abuse, myeloproliferative disease, myelodysplastic disease, and certain drugs like methotrexate, hydroxyurea, and azathioprine.
It is important to understand the different causes of anaemia based on red cell size as this knowledge can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Correct
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You evaluate a 7-year-old boy with a 4-month history of recurring episodes of abdominal pain. The pain has typically occurred 2-3 days per week during that time. There have been no changes in bowel movements or episodes of vomiting. He has missed some school days, but his parents note that the pain has also occurred on weekends. His physical examination is unremarkable, and a colleague recently ordered a series of blood tests, which were all normal. Upon reviewing his growth chart, you observe that his weight has remained consistent on the 50th percentile.
What is the MOST likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Functional abdominal pain
Explanation:Functional abdominal pain is a common issue among children in this age group. The pain can occur in episodes or be continuous. In order to diagnose functional abdominal pain, it is important to rule out any inflammatory, anatomical, metabolic, or neoplastic causes that could explain the symptoms. The criteria for diagnosis must be met at least once a week for a minimum of two months.
If the pain is present for at least 25% of the time and there is a loss of daily functioning, it is referred to as functional abdominal pain syndrome. In this syndrome, additional somatic symptoms such as headache, limb pain, or sleep disturbance are often present.
For a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome, the pain must also improve with defecation or be associated with changes in the frequency and form of stools.
School refusal is typically not associated with pain outside of school time. Since this child is experiencing pain on weekends, it makes the diagnosis of school refusal less likely.
Abdominal migraine is characterized by intense, acute periumbilical pain that occurs in paroxysmal episodes lasting over an hour. Patients generally have periods of wellness lasting weeks to months between attacks. The pain is often accompanied by anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, photophobia, and pallor.
Based on the child’s well-being, normal examination, and blood tests, a diagnosis of coeliac disease seems unlikely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 62 year old male presents to the emergency department due to worsening abdominal distension over the past few weeks. You note the patient has a history of heavy alcohol use and continues to drink 50-100 units per week. On clinical assessment the patient's abdomen is visibly distended, nontender to palpation with shifting dullness on percussion. The patient's observations are shown below:
Blood pressure 118/78 mmHg
Pulse 86 bpm
Respiration rate 16 bpm
Temperature 36.6ºC
Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to use first line to treat this patient's condition?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Spironolactone, a potassium sparing diuretic, is the preferred initial treatment for ascites. Ascites triggers the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), causing sodium retention (Hypernatraemia) and potassium excretion (Hypokalaemia). By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone helps to counteract these effects. Other diuretics can worsen potassium deficiency, so close monitoring of electrolyte levels is necessary if they are used instead.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.
Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 7
Correct
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After reviewing the management of a pediatric patient who recently presented to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), your consultant has scheduled a teaching session to assess the trainee's understanding of DKA management. You are tasked with determining the target minimum rate of blood glucose reduction in a pediatric patient receiving fluid and insulin therapy.
Your Answer: 3 mmol/L/hr
Explanation:Patients who are being treated with insulin infusion for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) should expect their plasma glucose levels to decrease by at least 3 mmol/L per hour. The purpose of the insulin infusion is to correct both hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis. It is important to regularly review and check the insulin infusion to ensure it is working effectively. If any of the following are observed, the infusion rate should be adjusted accordingly: capillary ketones are not decreasing by at least 0.5 mmol/L per hour, venous bicarbonate is not increasing by at least 3 mmol/L per hour, or plasma glucose is not decreasing by at least 3 mmol/L per hour.
Further Reading:
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.
The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.
DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.
The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.
Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35 year old female is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a sudden and severe headache. CT scan confirms the presence of a subarachnoid hemorrhage. You are currently monitoring the patient for any signs of elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) while awaiting transfer to the neurosurgical unit. What is the typical ICP range for a supine adult?
Your Answer: 5–15 mmHg
Explanation:The normal intracranial pressure (ICP) for an adult lying down is typically between 5 and 15 mmHg.
Further Reading:
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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You receive a call from the paramedics notifying you that they are bringing a 45-year-old male patient to the emergency department (ED) who experienced a cardiac arrest. What is the survival rate to hospital discharge for patients who suffer an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest?
Your Answer: 7-8%
Explanation:The percentage of patients who survive to hospital discharge after experiencing an out of hospital cardiac arrest.
Further Reading:
Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.
After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.
Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.
Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
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Question 10
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is stabbed in the chest during a fight outside a bar. A FAST scan is conducted, revealing the presence of free fluid in the chest cavity.
Which of the following organs is most likely to be damaged in this scenario?Your Answer: Liver
Explanation:Stab wounds to the abdomen result in tissue damage through laceration and cutting. When patients experience penetrating abdominal trauma due to stab wounds, the organs that are most commonly affected include the liver (40% of cases), small bowel (30% of cases), diaphragm (20% of cases), and colon (15% of cases). These statistics are derived from the latest edition of the ATLS manual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 11
Correct
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A 15 year old female patient is brought to the emergency department after being kicked by a horse multiple times. The patient had recently started work cleaning stables and was kicked several times whilst behind one of the horses. The patients observations are shown below:
Parameter Result
Blood pressure 108/62 mmHg
Pulse rate 124 bpm
Respiration rate 30 rpm
SpO2 95% on air
On examination there is significant bruising to the right anterolateral aspect of the chest wall, the patient is clammy, there is reduced air entry with dull percussion to the right lung base and the trachea is central. What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Massive haemothorax
Explanation:Massive haemothorax is characterized by the presence of more than 1.5 litres of blood in the pleural space. The patient’s history and examination findings are indicative of haemothorax. When blood loss exceeds 1500ml, it is classified as grade 3 hypovolemic shock, which is considered severe. Symptoms such as a pulse rate over 120, respiration rate over 30, and low blood pressure align with grade 3 shock and are consistent with massive haemothorax. In the case of pneumothorax, percussion reveals a resonant or hyper-resonant sound. Chylothorax, on the other hand, is a rare condition that typically occurs due to injury to the thoracic duct.
Further Reading:
Haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity of the chest, usually resulting from chest trauma. It can be difficult to differentiate from other causes of pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Massive haemothorax refers to a large volume of blood in the pleural space, which can impair physiological function by causing blood loss, reducing lung volume for gas exchange, and compressing thoracic structures such as the heart and IVC.
The management of haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest. This is done through supplemental oxygen, IV access and cross-matching blood, IV fluid therapy, and the insertion of a chest tube. The chest tube is connected to an underwater seal and helps drain the fluid, pus, air, or blood from the pleural space. In cases where there is prompt drainage of a large amount of blood, ongoing significant blood loss, or the need for blood transfusion, thoracotomy and ligation of bleeding thoracic vessels may be necessary. It is important to have two IV accesses prior to inserting the chest drain to prevent a drop in blood pressure.
In summary, haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity due to chest trauma. Managing haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest through various interventions, including the insertion of a chest tube. Prompt intervention may be required in cases of significant blood loss or ongoing need for blood transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 12
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman with a history of chronic anemia receives a blood transfusion as part of her treatment protocol. She has a known history of heart failure, for which she takes metoprolol and hydrochlorothiazide. She becomes short of breath, volume overloaded, and edematous during the transfusion.
Which of the following tests will be most useful in confirming the diagnosis?Your Answer: BNP
Explanation:Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) is a reaction that occurs when a large volume of blood is infused rapidly. It is the second leading cause of deaths related to transfusions, accounting for about 20% of all fatalities.
TACO typically happens in patients with limited cardiac reserve or chronic anemia who receive a fast blood transfusion. Elderly individuals, infants, and severely anemic patients are particularly vulnerable.
The common signs of TACO include acute respiratory distress, rapid heartbeat, high blood pressure, the appearance of acute or worsening fluid accumulation in the lungs on a chest X-ray, and evidence of excessive fluid retention.
The B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) can be a helpful diagnostic tool for TACO. Usually, the BNP level is elevated to at least 1.5 times the baseline before the transfusion.
In many cases, simply slowing down the rate of transfusion, positioning the patient upright, and administering diuretics will be sufficient. In more severe cases, the transfusion should be stopped, and non-invasive ventilation may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 10 year old male is brought into the emergency department due to worsening fatigue, vomiting, and frequent urination over the past 48 hours. You assess for potential underlying causes, including diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA is characterized by which of the following?
Your Answer: Hyperglycaemia, acidosis and ketonaemia
Explanation:DKA is characterized by three main symptoms: high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia), an acidic pH in the body (acidosis), and an increased presence of ketones in the blood (ketonaemia).
Further Reading:
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.
The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.
DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.
The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.
Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant comes in with intense and continuous lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She describes the bleeding as lighter than her usual period. A CTG is conducted, revealing reduced variability in the fetal heart rate and late decelerations. During the examination, the uterus feels tender and firm.
What is the MOST probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Placental abruption
Explanation:Placental abruption, also known as abruptio placentae, occurs when the placental lining separates from the wall of the uterus before delivery and after 20 weeks of gestation.
In the early stages, there may be no symptoms, but typically abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding develop. Approximately 20% of patients experience a concealed placental abruption, where the haemorrhage is confined within the uterine cavity and the amount of blood loss can be significantly underestimated.
The clinical features of placental abruption include sudden onset abdominal pain (which can be severe), variable vaginal bleeding, severe or continuous contractions, abdominal tenderness, and an enlarged, tense uterus. The foetus often shows signs of distress, such as reduced movements, increased or decreased fetal heart rate, decreased variability of fetal heart rate, and late decelerations.
In contrast, placenta praevia is painless and the foetal heart is generally normal. The degree of obstetric shock is usually proportional to the amount of vaginal blood loss. Another clue that the cause of bleeding is placenta praevia rather than placental abruption is that the foetus may have an abnormal presentation or lie.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of passing fresh red blood mixed in with her last three bowel movements. She has had four bowel movements in the past 24 hours. Upon examination, she is stable with a heart rate of 80 bpm and a blood pressure of 120/77. Her abdomen is soft and nontender, and there are no visible signs of anorectal bleeding during rectal examination.
What is the shock index for this patient?Your Answer: 0.66
Explanation:The British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) has developed guidelines for evaluating cases of acute lower intestinal bleeding in a hospital setting. These guidelines are useful in determining which patients should be referred for further assessment.
When patients present with lower gastrointestinal bleeding (LGIB), they should be categorized as either unstable or stable. Unstable is defined as having a shock index greater than 1, which is calculated by dividing the heart rate by the systolic blood pressure (HR/SBP). For example, if the heart rate is 80 and the systolic blood pressure is 120, the shock index would be 0.66.
For patients with stable bleeds, they should be further classified as either major (requiring hospitalization) or minor (suitable for outpatient management) based on a risk assessment tool. The BSG recommends using the Oakland risk score, which takes into account factors such as age, hemoglobin level, and findings from a digital rectal examination.
Patients with a minor self-terminating bleed (e.g., an Oakland score of less than 8 points) and no other indications for hospital admission can be discharged with urgent follow-up for outpatient investigation.
Patients with a major bleed should be admitted to the hospital for a colonoscopy, which will be scheduled based on availability.
If a patient is hemodynamically unstable or has a shock index greater than 1 after initial resuscitation, and/or active bleeding is suspected, CT angiography (CTA) should be considered, followed by endoscopic or radiological therapy.
If no bleeding source is identified by initial CTA and the patient is stable, an upper endoscopy should be performed immediately, as LGIB associated with hemodynamic instability may indicate an upper gastrointestinal bleeding source. Gastroscopy may be the first investigation if the patient stabilizes after initial resuscitation.
If indicated, catheter angiography with the possibility of embolization should be performed as soon as possible after a positive CTA to increase the chances of success. In centers with a 24/7 interventional radiology service, this procedure should be available within 60 minutes for hemodynamically unstable patients.
Emergency laparotomy should only be considered if all efforts to locate the bleeding source using radiological and/or endoscopic methods have been exhausted, except in exceptional circumstances.
Red blood cell transfusion may be necessary. It is recommended to use restrictive blood transfusion thresholds, such as a hemoglobin trigger of 7 g/d
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 16
Correct
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You are part of the team performing CPR on a child who has gone into cardiac arrest. A healthcare assistant (HCA) takes over chest compressions from the charge nurse. You are concerned about the rate and depth of the compressions being given. You provide guidance to the HCA on the appropriate frequency and depth of chest compressions. What is the correct rate and depth of chest compression during CPR for a child?
Your Answer: 100-120 compressions per minute to a depth of 5-6 cm
Explanation:For adults, it is recommended to perform chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute. The depth of the compressions should be at least 5-6 cm.
Further Reading:
In the event of an adult experiencing cardiorespiratory arrest, it is crucial for doctors to be familiar with the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm. They should also be knowledgeable about the proper technique for chest compressions, the appropriate rhythms for defibrillation, the reversible causes of arrest, and the drugs used in advanced life support.
During chest compressions, the rate should be between 100-120 compressions per minute, with a depth of compression of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths should be 30:2. It is important to change the person giving compressions regularly to prevent fatigue.
There are two shockable ECG rhythms that doctors should be aware of: ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia (pVT). These rhythms require defibrillation.
There are four reversible causes of cardiorespiratory arrest, known as the 4 H’s and 4 T’s. The 4 H’s include hypoxia, hypovolemia, hypo or hyperkalemia or metabolic abnormalities, and hypothermia. The 4 T’s include thrombosis (coronary or pulmonary), tension pneumothorax, tamponade, and toxins. Identifying and treating these reversible causes is crucial for successful resuscitation.
When it comes to resus drugs, they are considered of secondary importance during CPR due to the lack of high-quality evidence for their efficacy. However, adrenaline (epinephrine) and amiodarone are the two drugs included in the ALS algorithm. Doctors should be familiar with the dosing, route, and timing of administration for both drugs.
Adrenaline should be administered intravenously at a concentration of 1 in 10,000 (100 micrograms/mL). It should be repeated every 3-5 minutes. Amiodarone is initially given at a dose of 300 mg, either from a pre-filled syringe or diluted in 20 mL of Glucose 5%. If required, an additional dose of 150 mg can be given by intravenous injection. This is followed by an intravenous infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours. The first dose of amiodarone is given after 3 shocks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
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Question 17
Correct
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You evaluate the airway and breathing of a patient who has been brought into the emergency department by an ambulance after being rescued from a house fire. You suspect that the patient may have an obstructed airway.
Which of the following statements about managing the airway and breathing in burn patients is NOT true?Your Answer: High tidal volumes should be used in intubated patients
Explanation:Patients who have suffered burns should receive high-flow oxygen (15 L) through a reservoir bag while their breathing is being evaluated. If intubation is necessary, it is crucial to use an appropriately sized endotracheal tube (ETT). Using a tube that is too small can make it difficult or even impossible to ventilate the patient, clear secretions, or perform bronchoscopy.
According to the ATLS guidelines, adults should be intubated using an ETT with an internal diameter (ID) of at least 7.5 mm or larger. Children, on the other hand, should have an ETT with an ID of at least 4.5 mm. Once a patient has been intubated, it is important to continue administering 100% oxygen until their carboxyhemoglobin levels drop to less than 5%.
To protect the lungs, it is recommended to use lung protective ventilation techniques. This involves using low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg) and ensuring that peak inspiratory pressures do not exceed 30 cmH2O.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 18
Correct
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A 32-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose 45 minutes ago. He is currently showing no symptoms and is stable in terms of blood flow. The attending physician recommends administering a dose of activated charcoal.
Which of the following substances or toxins is activated charcoal effective in decontaminating?Your Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Activated charcoal is a commonly used substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to adsorb the molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.
Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. It is produced by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high heat, a process known as pyrolysis, and then treating it with a zinc chloride solution to increase its concentration. This process creates a network of pores within the charcoal, giving it a large absorptive area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This allows it to effectively inhibit the absorption of toxins by up to 50%.
The usual dose of activated charcoal is 50 grams for adults and 1 gram per kilogram of body weight for children. It can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is important to administer it within one hour of ingestion, and it may be repeated after one hour if necessary.
However, there are certain situations where activated charcoal should not be used. These include cases where the patient is unconscious or in a coma, as there is a risk of aspiration. It should also be avoided if seizures are imminent, as there is a risk of aspiration. Additionally, if there is reduced gastrointestinal motility, activated charcoal should not be used to prevent the risk of obstruction.
Activated charcoal is effective in treating overdose with certain drugs and toxins, such as aspirin, paracetamol, barbiturates, tricyclic antidepressants, digoxin, amphetamines, morphine, cocaine, and phenothiazines. However, it is ineffective in cases of overdose with iron, lithium, boric acid, cyanide, ethanol, ethylene glycol, methanol, malathion, DDT, carbamate, hydrocarbon, strong acids, or alkalis.
There are potential adverse effects associated with the use of activated charcoal. These include nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, bezoar formation (a mass of undigested material that can cause blockages), bowel obstruction, pulmonary aspiration (inhalation of charcoal into the lungs), and impaired absorption of oral medications or antidotes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 19
Correct
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A 75 year old man is brought into the emergency room by ambulance. He started with a cough about a week ago but now appears somewhat confused and drowsy. His vital signs are as follows:
Temperature: 37.9ºC
Blood pressure: 98/65 mmHg
Respiration rate: 22 rpm
Pulse rate: 105 bpm
Blood glucose: 6.9 mmol/l
SpO2: 91% on air rising to 96% on 2L oxygen
Which of the above parameters, if any, would be a cause for concern indicating sepsis?Your Answer: SpO2 of 91% on air rising to 96% on 2L oxygen
Explanation:This individual’s condition should be closely monitored and they should be promptly placed on the Sepsis pathway due to the presence of red flags. Please refer to the notes below for a comprehensive list of red and amber flags.
Further Reading:
There are multiple definitions of sepsis, leading to confusion among healthcare professionals. The Sepsis 3 definition describes sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection. The Sepsis 2 definition includes infection plus two or more SIRS criteria. The NICE definition states that sepsis is a clinical syndrome triggered by the presence of infection in the blood, activating the body’s immune and coagulation systems. The Sepsis Trust defines sepsis as a dysregulated host response to infection mediated by the immune system, resulting in organ dysfunction, shock, and potentially death.
The confusion surrounding sepsis terminology is further compounded by the different versions of sepsis definitions, known as Sepsis 1, Sepsis 2, and Sepsis 3. The UK organizations RCEM and NICE have not fully adopted the changes introduced in Sepsis 3, causing additional confusion. While Sepsis 3 introduces the use of SOFA scores and abandons SIRS criteria, NICE and the Sepsis Trust have rejected the use of SOFA scores and continue to rely on SIRS criteria. This discrepancy creates challenges for emergency department doctors in both exams and daily clinical practice.
To provide some clarity, RCEM now recommends referring to national standards organizations such as NICE, SIGN, BTS, or others relevant to the area. The Sepsis Trust, in collaboration with RCEM and NICE, has published a toolkit that serves as a definitive reference point for sepsis management based on the sepsis 3 update.
There is a consensus internationally that the terms SIRS and severe sepsis are outdated and should be abandoned. Instead, the terms sepsis and septic shock should be used. NICE defines septic shock as a life-threatening condition characterized by low blood pressure despite adequate fluid replacement and organ dysfunction or failure. Sepsis 3 defines septic shock as persisting hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain a mean arterial pressure of 65 mmHg or more, along with a serum lactate level greater than 2 mmol/l despite adequate volume resuscitation.
NICE encourages clinicians to adopt an approach of considering sepsis in all patients, rather than relying solely on strict definitions. Early warning or flag systems can help identify patients with possible sepsis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Correct
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A 50-year-old carpenter comes in with a chief complaint of shoulder pain that worsens with repetitive overhead tasks. Additionally, he reports experiencing nighttime pain and difficulty in raising his arm. There is no history of any injuries.
Which muscle is most likely to be affected in this scenario?Your Answer: Supraspinatus
Explanation:The supraspinatus tendon passes through a narrow space located between the underside of the acromion and acromioclavicular joint, as well as the head of the humerus. When the tendon becomes trapped in this space, it can cause pain and restrict movement, especially during overhead activities. This condition is known as subacromial impingement.
Impingement can occur due to various factors, such as thickening of the tendon caused by partial tears, inflammation, or degeneration. It can also be a result of the space narrowing due to osteoarthritis of the acromioclavicular joint or the presence of bone spurs. Some individuals may have a naturally downward sloping acromion, which makes them more susceptible to impingement.
Certain professions that involve a significant amount of overhead work, like plasterers, builders, and decorators, are particularly prone to developing subacromial impingement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 21
Correct
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A 5 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They are worried because the child has had a high fever for the past 24 hours and has developed noisy breathing and a change in her voice in the past few hours. They inform you that the child has been refusing to drink fluids orally due to a sore throat for the past few hours as well. The parents mention that the child has never had a serious illness before. You observe that the child has not received any vaccinations as the parents have concerns about potential vaccine-related diseases later in life. During the assessment, the child is sitting upright, leaning forward on her arms, and drooling. You can hear audible stridor. The child's vital signs are as follows:
Temperature: 38.9ºC
Pulse: 155 bpm
Respiration rate: 40 bpm
Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Epiglottitis
Explanation:Epiglottitis symptoms typically appear suddenly, usually within a day. This patient’s symptoms align with those of epiglottitis and his vaccination status puts him at a higher risk. Common clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, a sore throat, a change in voice (often described as a muffled or hot potato voice), painful swallowing, a specific positioning called tripod positioning, excessive drooling, and stridor.
Further Reading:
Epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition characterized by inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis, which can lead to a complete blockage of the airway. It is more commonly seen in children between the ages of 2-6, but can also occur in adults, particularly those in their 40s and 50s. Streptococcus infections are now the most common cause of epiglottitis in the UK, although other bacterial agents, viruses, fungi, and iatrogenic causes can also be responsible.
The clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, muffled voice, stridor and difficulty breathing, drooling of saliva, irritability, and a characteristic tripod positioning with the arms forming the front two legs of the tripod. It is important for healthcare professionals to avoid examining the throat or performing any potentially upsetting procedures until the airway has been assessed and secured.
Diagnosis of epiglottitis is typically made through fibre-optic laryngoscopy, which is considered the gold standard investigation. Lateral neck X-rays may also show a characteristic thumb sign, indicating an enlarged and swollen epiglottis. Throat swabs and blood cultures may be taken once the airway is secured to identify the causative organism.
Management of epiglottitis involves assessing and securing the airway as the top priority. Intravenous or oral antibiotics are typically prescribed, and supplemental oxygen may be given if intubation or tracheostomy is planned. In severe cases where the airway is significantly compromised, intubation or tracheostomy may be necessary. Steroids may also be used, although the evidence for their benefit is limited.
Overall, epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. Prompt diagnosis, appropriate management, and securing the airway are crucial in ensuring a positive outcome for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 22
Correct
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A 9 month old male is brought to the emergency department by worried parents. They inform you that the patient has been slightly under the weather for the past couple of days with a runny nose, a slight fever, and an occasional dry cough. However, overnight, the cough has worsened and now sounds like a harsh barking cough.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Croup
Explanation:Croup is usually preceded by symptoms such as cough, runny nose, and nasal congestion. These symptoms typically occur 12 to 72 hours before the onset of a distinctive barking cough. The barking cough, which resembles the sound of a seal, is particularly severe at night. It is important to note that the cough may be preceded by prodromal upper respiratory tract symptoms, including cough, runny nose, and nasal congestion, within a timeframe of 12 to 72 hours.
Further Reading:
Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.
The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.
In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.
Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.
When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 23
Correct
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You assess a patient who is currently undergoing systemic anticancer treatment. She has been experiencing chills and feeling unwell and is worried about the potential of having an infection. She informs you that she is currently prescribed an antibiotic as a preventive measure against neutropenic sepsis.
Which of the subsequent antibiotic classes is utilized for this specific purpose?Your Answer: Fluoroquinolones
Explanation:According to the latest guidelines from NICE, it is recommended that adult patients who are undergoing treatment for acute leukaemia, stem cell transplants, or solid tumours and are expected to experience significant neutropenia as a result of chemotherapy, should be offered prophylaxis with a fluoroquinolone such as ciprofloxacin (500 mg taken orally twice daily) during the period when neutropenia is expected. This is to help prevent the occurrence of neutropenic sepsis, a serious infection that can occur in cancer patients with low levels of neutrophils.
Reference:
NICE guidance: ‘Neutropenic sepsis: prevention and management of neutropenic sepsis in cancer patients’ -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncological Emergencies
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Question 24
Correct
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A child presents with a severe acute asthma attack. After a poor response to the initial salbutamol nebulizer, you administer another nebulizer that also contains ipratropium bromide.
What is the most common side effect experienced with ipratropium bromide?Your Answer: Dry mouth
Explanation:Ipratropium bromide commonly leads to dry mouth as a side effect. Additionally, it may result in constipation, cough, sudden bronchospasm, headache, nausea, and palpitations. In patients with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder outflow obstruction, it can cause urinary retention. Furthermore, susceptible individuals may experience acute closed-angle glaucoma as a result of using this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 25
Correct
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You assess a 48-year-old woman who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction after mistakenly consuming peanuts in a dish at a Thai eatery. She has a history of hypertension, but her blood pressure is effectively managed with a daily dose of atenolol 50 mg and amlodipine 5 mg. You have given her two injections of IM adrenaline, but her condition continues to worsen.
Which of the following interventions is most likely to quickly improve her condition?Your Answer: IM glucagon
Explanation:Patients who are on beta-blockers may not respond effectively to adrenaline during anaphylaxis. Research conducted on animals and reported cases have indicated that glucagon can be utilized to counteract the effects of beta-blockade if initial adrenaline doses prove ineffective.
Although prednisolone and hydrocortisone can be beneficial later on, it typically takes 6-8 hours for them to take full effect. Therefore, they are unlikely to have any impact on the patient during the brief period it will take for the ambulance to arrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 26
Correct
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A 25-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department displaying symptoms consistent with a sexually transmitted infection.
Which of the following organisms is primarily transmitted through sexual contact?Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Chlamydia trachomatis is a type of bacteria that is accountable for causing the infection known as chlamydia. This bacterium is mainly transmitted through sexual contact.
There are various serological variants of C. trachomatis, and each variant is associated with different patterns of disease. Specifically, types D-K are responsible for causing genitourinary infections.
In the United Kingdom, chlamydia is the most commonly diagnosed sexually transmitted infection (STI). It is also the leading preventable cause of infertility worldwide. Interestingly, around 50% of men infected with chlamydia do not experience any symptoms, while at least 70% of infected women are asymptomatic.
If left untreated, chlamydia can lead to various complications. In women, these complications may include pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), ectopic pregnancy, and tubal infertility. Men, on the other hand, may experience complications such as proctitis, epididymitis, and epididymo-orchitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old child is brought in to the Emergency Department with a high temperature and difficulty breathing. You measure his respiratory rate and note that it is elevated.
According to the NICE guidelines, what is considered to be the threshold for tachypnoea in an infant of this age?Your Answer: RR >40 breaths/minute
Correct Answer: RR >50 breaths/minute
Explanation:According to the current NICE guidelines on febrile illness in children under the age of 5, there are certain symptoms and signs that may indicate the presence of pneumonia. These include tachypnoea, which is a rapid breathing rate. For infants aged 0-5 months, a respiratory rate (RR) of over 60 breaths per minute is considered suggestive of pneumonia. For infants aged 6-12 months, an RR of over 50 breaths per minute is indicative, and for children older than 12 months, an RR of over 40 breaths per minute may suggest pneumonia.
Other signs that may point towards pneumonia include crackles in the chest, nasal flaring, chest indrawing, and cyanosis. Crackles are abnormal sounds heard during breathing, while nasal flaring refers to the widening of the nostrils during breathing. Chest indrawing is the inward movement of the chest wall during inhalation, and cyanosis is the bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes due to inadequate oxygen supply.
Additionally, a low oxygen saturation level of less than 95% while breathing air is also considered suggestive of pneumonia. These guidelines can be found in more detail in the NICE guidelines on the assessment and initial management of fever in children under 5, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of feverish children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 28
Correct
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A 48-year-old presents to the emergency department complaining of severe headache, excessive sweating, and episodes of blurred vision. The triage observations are as follows:
Blood pressure: 234/138 mmHg
Pulse rate: 106 bpm
Respiration rate: 18 bpm
Oxygen saturations: 97% on air
Temperature: 37.3ºC
The patient informs you that they have been referred for hypertension investigation and are awaiting the results of a 24-hour urine collection. You come across a letter from one of the cardiologists who requested a 24-hour urine collection for catecholamines, metanephrines, and normetanephrines due to suspicion of phaeochromocytoma.
Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate choice to lower the blood pressure in a patient with phaeochromocytoma?Your Answer: Phentolamine
Explanation:In this scenario, a 48-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with severe headache, excessive sweating, and episodes of blurred vision. The patient’s triage observations reveal a significantly elevated blood pressure of 234/138 mmHg. The patient also mentions that they are awaiting the results of a 24-hour urine collection for hypertension investigation, specifically for catecholamines, metanephrines, and normetanephrines, as there is suspicion of phaeochromocytoma.
Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumor that arises from the adrenal glands and can cause excessive release of catecholamines, such as adrenaline and noradrenaline. This leads to symptoms like severe hypertension, headache, sweating, and palpitations.
Given the patient’s presentation and suspicion of phaeochromocytoma, the most appropriate medication choice to lower the blood pressure would be phentolamine. Phentolamine is an alpha-adrenergic antagonist that blocks the effects of catecholamines on blood vessels, resulting in vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure.
Hydralazine, magnesium sulfate, and glyceryl trinitrate are not the most appropriate choices in this scenario. Hydralazine is a direct vasodilator that acts on smooth muscle to relax blood vessels, but it does not specifically target the effects of catecholamines. Magnesium sulfate is commonly used for conditions like preeclampsia and eclampsia, but it does not directly address the underlying cause of hypertension in phaeochromocytoma. Glyceryl trinitrate, also known as nitroglycerin, is primarily used for the management of angina and does not specifically target the effects of catecholamines.
Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that has sedative and anxiolytic properties but does not directly lower blood pressure or address the underlying cause of hypertension in phaeochromocytoma.
Further Reading:
A hypertensive emergency is characterized by a significant increase in blood pressure accompanied by acute or progressive damage to organs. While there is no specific blood pressure value that defines a hypertensive emergency, systolic blood pressure is typically above 180 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure is above 120 mmHg. The most common presentations of hypertensive emergencies include cerebral infarction, pulmonary edema, encephalopathy, and congestive cardiac failure. Less common presentations include intracranial hemorrhage, aortic dissection, and pre-eclampsia/eclampsia.
The signs and symptoms of hypertensive emergencies can vary widely due to the potential dysfunction of every physiological system. Some common signs and symptoms include headache, nausea and/or vomiting, chest pain, arrhythmia, proteinuria, signs of acute kidney failure, epistaxis, dyspnea, dizziness, anxiety, confusion, paraesthesia or anesthesia, and blurred vision. Clinical assessment focuses on detecting acute or progressive damage to the cardiovascular, renal, and central nervous systems.
Investigations that are essential in evaluating hypertensive emergencies include U&Es (electrolyte levels), urinalysis, ECG, and CXR. Additional investigations may be considered depending on the suspected underlying cause, such as a CT head for encephalopathy or new onset confusion, CT thorax for suspected aortic dissection, and CT abdomen for suspected phaeochromocytoma. Plasma free metanephrines, urine total catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and metanephrine may be tested if phaeochromocytoma is suspected. Urine screening for cocaine and/or amphetamines may be appropriate in certain cases, as well as an endocrine screen for Cushing’s syndrome.
The management of hypertensive emergencies involves cautious reduction of blood pressure to avoid precipitating renal, cerebral, or coronary ischemia. Staged blood pressure reduction is typically the goal, with an initial reduction in mean arterial pressure (MAP) by no more than 25% in the first hour. Further gradual reduction to a systolic blood pressure of 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg over the next 2 to 6 hours is recommended. Initial management involves treatment with intravenous antihypertensive agents in an intensive care setting with appropriate monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 25-year-old from West Africa presents with joint pain, muscle pain, and symptoms similar to the flu. In the past day or two, he has also developed stomach pain and diarrhea. During the examination, his temperature is measured at 38.7°C, and he experiences tenderness in the upper right quadrant of his abdomen along with an enlarged liver and spleen. He remembers having an itchy rash and a few blisters on his arm after swimming in a local river a few weeks ago. Blood tests show a significant increase in eosinophils.
What is the MOST appropriate initial treatment option?Your Answer: Praziquantel
Explanation:Schistosomiasis, also known as bilharzia, is a tropical disease caused by parasitic trematodes (flukes) of the Schistosoma type. It is transmitted through contaminated water that has been contaminated with faeces or urine containing eggs. The disease requires a specific freshwater snail as an intermediate host and human contact with water inhabited by the snail. There are five species of Schistosoma that cause human disease: S. japonicum, S. mansoni, S. haematobium, S. intercalatum, and S. mekongi. Schistosomiasis is a significant public health issue, second only to malaria, with over 200 million people infected worldwide. It is prevalent in the Middle East, Africa, and parts of South America and the Caribbean. Infection can manifest as acute or chronic.
Acute schistosomiasis is characterized by the early clinical sign of swimmers itch, which causes blisters and an urticarial response in the area where the parasite enters the skin. Most acute infections are asymptomatic, but some patients may develop an acute syndrome. The most common acute syndrome is known as Katayama fever, which typically occurs in individuals with no previous exposure. It is caused by an allergic reaction to the sudden release of highly antigenic eggs and usually presents a few weeks after initial exposure to S. japonicum. Symptoms of Katayama fever include fever, flu-like illness, arthralgia, myalgia, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and cough. Patients may also experience right upper quadrant tenderness and hepatosplenomegaly. An extremely high eosinophil count is commonly observed.
Chronic schistosomiasis can manifest as intestinal or urogenital forms. Intestinal schistosomiasis occurs when adult worms migrate from the liver to the mesenteric venules, where female worms continuously lay eggs. Common symptoms include abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea. Advanced cases may present with hepatosplenomegaly and portal hypertension. Schistosomiasis is the second most common cause of oesophageal varices worldwide. Urogenital schistosomiasis occurs when adult worms migrate to the vesical plexus. The hallmark sign is haematuria. In women, it may cause genital and vaginal lesions, as well as dyspareunia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 30
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with lower abdominal pain and a small amount of rectal bleeding. On examination, she has a low-grade fever (37.8°C) and tenderness in the left iliac fossa. She has a known history of diverticular disease, and you diagnose her with acute diverticulitis.
Which of the following is NOT a reason for admitting her to the hospital?Your Answer: Symptoms persist after 24 hours despite conservative management at home
Explanation:NICE recommends considering admission for patients with acute diverticulitis if they experience pain that cannot be effectively controlled with paracetamol. Additionally, if a patient is unable to maintain hydration through oral fluids or cannot tolerate oral antibiotics, admission should be considered. Admission is also recommended for frail patients or those with significant comorbidities, particularly if they are immunosuppressed. Furthermore, admission should be considered if any of the following suspected complications arise: rectal bleeding requiring transfusion, perforation and peritonitis, intra-abdominal abscess, or fistula. Lastly, if symptoms persist after 48 hours despite conservative management at home, admission should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 31
Correct
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You are asked to review a 7-year-old girl that is feeling sick in the Paediatric Emergency Department. You observe from her urea & electrolytes that her potassium is elevated at 6.2 mmol/l.
What is the most frequent cause of hyperkalaemia in children?Your Answer: Renal failure
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by a high level of potassium in the blood, specifically a plasma potassium level greater than 5.5 mmol/l. It can be further classified into three categories based on the severity of the condition. Mild hyperkalaemia refers to a potassium level ranging from 5.5-5.9 mmol/l, while moderate hyperkalaemia is defined as a potassium level between 6.0-6.4 mmol/l. Severe hyperkalaemia is indicated by a potassium level exceeding 6.5 mmol/l.
The most common cause of hyperkalaemia in renal failure, which can occur either acutely or chronically. However, there are other factors that can contribute to this condition as well. These include acidosis, adrenal insufficiency, cell lysis, and excessive potassium intake.
Overall, hyperkalaemia is a medical condition that requires attention and management, as it can have significant implications for the body’s normal functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is given a medication during the 2nd-trimester of his partner's pregnancy. As a result, the baby is born with a neural tube defect.
Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?Your Answer: Tetracycline
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:The use of trimethoprim during the first trimester of pregnancy is linked to a higher risk of neural tube defects due to its interference with folate. If it is not possible to use an alternative antibiotic, it is recommended that pregnant women taking trimethoprim also take high-dose folic acid. However, the use of trimethoprim during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy is considered safe.
Here is a list outlining the commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:
ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimesters, they can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.
Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): They can cause ototoxicity and deafness.
Aspirin: High doses can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.
Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, they can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.
Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, they can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.
Carbamazepine: It can cause haemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.
Chloramphenicol: It can cause grey baby syndrome.
Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, they may cause orofacial clefts.
Danazol: If given in the first trimester, it can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.
Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.
Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, it may cause limb malformations. If given in the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.
Heparin: It can cause maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia.
Isoniazid: It can lead to maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 68 year old male is brought into the emergency department with burns sustained in a house fire. You evaluate the extent of the burns to the patient's body. According to the Jackson's Burn wound model, what is the term used to describe the most peripheral area of the burn?
Your Answer: Zone of coagulation
Correct Answer: Zone of hyperaemia
Explanation:The zone of hyperaemia, located at the outermost part of the burn, experiences heightened tissue perfusion. Typically, this area will return to its normal tissue state.
Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 34
Correct
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A 40-year-old man has a history of a severe headache, high fever, and worsening drowsiness. He recently had flu-like symptoms but his condition deteriorated this morning, prompting his partner to call the GP for a home visit. The man exhibits significant neck stiffness and sensitivity to light, and the GP observes the presence of a petechial rash on his arms and legs. The GP contacts you to arrange for the patient to be transferred to the Emergency Department and requests an ambulance.
What is the MOST appropriate next step for the GP to take in managing this patient?Your Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin 1.2 g
Explanation:This woman is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of meningococcal septicaemia. In the United Kingdom, the majority of cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by Neisseria meningitidis group B.
In the prehospital setting, the most suitable medication and method of administration is intramuscular benzylpenicillin 1.2 g. This medication is commonly carried by most General Practitioners and is easier to administer than an intravenous drug in these circumstances.
For close household contacts, prophylaxis can be provided in the form of oral rifampicin 600 mg twice daily for two days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Major Incident Management & PHEM
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is given carbamazepine for her epilepsy during her pregnancy. As a result of this medication, the newborn develops a defect.
What is the most probable defect that will occur as a result of using this drug during pregnancy?Your Answer: Grey baby syndrome
Correct Answer: Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn
Explanation:There is an increased risk of neural tube defects in women with epilepsy who take carbamazepine during pregnancy, ranging from 2 to 10 times higher. Additionally, there is a risk of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn associated with this medication. It is crucial to have discussions about epilepsy treatments with women of childbearing age during the planning stages so that they can start early supplementation of folic acid.
Below is a list outlining the most commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:
ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimester, these medications can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.
Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can lead to ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.
Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can cause first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.
Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, these medications can result in respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.
Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, these drugs can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.
Carbamazepine: This medication is associated with haemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.
Chloramphenicol: Use of this drug can cause grey baby syndrome in newborns.
Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, corticosteroids may cause orofacial clefts in the fetus.
Danazol: When administered in the first trimester, danazol can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.
Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride tablets. Crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development in the fetus.
Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, haloperidol may cause limb malformations. In the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.
Heparin: Use of heparin during pregnancy is associated with an acceptable bleeding rate and a low rate of thrombotic recurrence in the mother.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 36
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a ‘lump’ in her right breast. She is very worried that she may have breast cancer. On examination, she has a painless, well-defined mass that can be felt separate from the breast tissue. The mass is transilluminating.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Epididymal cyst
Explanation:Epididymal cysts are commonly observed in men who are over the age of 40. They often appear in multiple numbers and can be found on both sides. These cysts are typically well-defined, soft to the touch, and can be illuminated when light is passed through them. Since they develop in the epididymis, they can be felt as separate from the testis, which helps to differentiate them from hydroceles. In most cases, these cysts cause no significant issues and do not require any treatment. However, larger cysts can become bothersome and may need to be drained or surgically removed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 45-year-old female patient is known to have Parkinson’s disease. She complains of recent excessive sleepiness, increased anxiety, and uncontrolled jerky movements in her lower limbs.
Which SINGLE medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?Your Answer: Co-beneldopa
Explanation:Co-beneldopa, such as Madopar®, is a medication that combines levodopa and benserazide, a dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor. Levodopa is a precursor of dopamine and has been the primary treatment for Parkinson’s disease since the 1970s. To minimize the side effects of levodopa, it is administered with a dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor (DDI) to reduce its availability in the peripheral system. However, patients may still experience adverse effects like nausea, dizziness, sleepiness, dyskinesia, mood changes, confusion, hallucinations, and delusions.
None of the other combination medications mentioned in this question cause the listed side effects.
Co-dydramol is a pain reliever that contains dihydrocodeine tartrate and paracetamol.
Co-flumactone is a medication that combines spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, and hydroflumethiazide, a type of thiazide diuretic used for managing congestive cardiac failure.
Co-tenidone is a combination of atenolol and chlorthalidone, primarily used for treating hypertension.
Co-simalcite, also known as Altacite plus, is an antacid that contains two main ingredients: hydrotalcite and activated dimeticone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 38
Correct
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You are managing a 35-year-old male who has ingested an excessive amount of medication. You intend to administer N-acetylcysteine (NAC). The patient inquires about the likelihood of experiencing any side effects. What proportion of patients experience adverse reactions to NAC?
Your Answer: 20%
Explanation:Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.
Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.
The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.
In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.
The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 39
Correct
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A 4 year old child is brought to the emergency department by worried parents. The parents inform you that the patient had a slight fever and a runny nose for 2 days before they observed a barking cough. What would be the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer: Oral dexamethasone
Explanation:Corticosteroids are the primary treatment for croup, a condition characterized by a barking cough in infants. To address this, oral dexamethasone is administered at a dosage of 0.15mg/kg. In cases of severe croup, nebulized adrenaline is utilized.
Further Reading:
Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.
The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.
In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.
Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.
When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 40
Correct
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You evaluate a 50-year-old woman with recent-onset carpal tunnel syndrome after injuring her wrist.
Which of the following hand muscles is the LEAST likely to be impacted in this patient?Your Answer: Abductor digiti minimi
Explanation:Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition where the median nerve becomes trapped, resulting in nerve damage. This can lead to weakness and abnormal sensations in the areas supplied by the median nerve. To remember the muscles that are innervated by the median nerve, you can use the acronym ‘LOAF’: L for the lateral two lumbricals, O for the Opponens pollicis, A for the Abductor pollicis, and F for the Flexor pollicis brevis. It’s important to note that the abductor digiti minimi is not affected by carpal tunnel syndrome as it is innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old individual is brought to the emergency room after a car accident. They present with a fracture in the middle of their left femur and complain of abdominal pain. The patient appears restless. The following are their vital signs:
Blood pressure: 112/94 mmHg
Pulse rate: 102 bpm
Respiration rate: 21 rpm
SpO2: 97% on room air
Temperature: 36 ºC
Considering the possibility of significant blood loss, what grade of hypovolemic shock would you assign to this patient?Your Answer: Grade 1
Correct Answer: Grade 2
Explanation:Grade 2 shock is characterized by a pulse rate of 100 to 120 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 20 to 30 breaths per minute. These clinical features align with the symptoms of grade 2 hypovolemic shock, as indicated in the below notes.
Further Reading:
Shock is a condition characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion due to circulatory insufficiency. It can be caused by fluid loss or redistribution, as well as impaired cardiac output. The main causes of shock include haemorrhage, diarrhoea and vomiting, burns, diuresis, sepsis, neurogenic shock, anaphylaxis, massive pulmonary embolism, tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, myocardial infarction, and myocarditis.
One common cause of shock is haemorrhage, which is frequently encountered in the emergency department. Haemorrhagic shock can be classified into different types based on the amount of blood loss. Type 1 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 15% or less, with less than 750 ml of blood loss. Patients with type 1 shock may have normal blood pressure and heart rate, with a respiratory rate of 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
Type 2 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 15 to 30%, with 750 to 1500 ml of blood loss. Patients with type 2 shock may have a pulse rate of 100 to 120 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 20 to 30 breaths per minute. Blood pressure is typically normal in type 2 shock.
Type 3 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 30 to 40%, with 1.5 to 2 litres of blood loss. Patients with type 3 shock may have a pulse rate of 120 to 140 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of more than 30 breaths per minute. Urine output is decreased to 5-15 mls per hour.
Type 4 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of more than 40%, with more than 2 litres of blood loss. Patients with type 4 shock may have a pulse rate of more than 140 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of more than 35 breaths per minute. They may also be drowsy, confused, and possibly experience loss of consciousness. Urine output may be minimal or absent.
In summary, shock is a condition characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion. Haemorrhage is a common cause of shock, and it can be classified into different types based on the amount of blood loss. Prompt recognition and management of shock are crucial in order to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 42
Correct
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A child with a history of repeated episodes of painless rectal bleeding is found to have a Meckel’s diverticulum during a colonoscopy.
What is the most frequently observed type of ectopic mucosa in Meckel’s diverticulum?Your Answer: Gastric
Explanation:A Meckel’s diverticulum is a leftover part of the vitellointestinal duct, which is no longer needed in the body. It is the most common abnormality in the gastrointestinal tract, found in about 2% of people. Interestingly, it is twice as likely to occur in men compared to women.
When a Meckel’s diverticulum is present, it is usually located in the lower part of the small intestine, specifically within 60-100 cm (2 feet) of the ileocaecal valve. These diverticula are typically 3-6 cm (approximately 2 inches) long and may have a larger opening than the ileum.
Meckel’s diverticula are often discovered incidentally, especially during an appendectomy. Most of the time, they do not cause any symptoms. However, they can lead to complications such as bleeding (25-50% of cases), intestinal blockage (10-40% of cases), diverticulitis, or perforation.
These diverticula run in the opposite direction of the intestine’s natural folds but receive their blood supply from the ileum mesentery. They can be identified by a specific blood vessel called the vitelline artery. Typically, they are lined with the same type of tissue as the ileum, but they often contain abnormal tissue, with gastric tissue being the most common (50%) and pancreatic tissue being the second most common (5%). In rare cases, colonic or jejunal tissue may be present.
To remember some key facts about Meckel’s diverticulum, the rule of 2s can be helpful:
– It is found in 2% of the population.
– It is more common in men, with a ratio of 2:1 compared to women.
– It is located 2 feet away from the ileocaecal valve.
– It is approximately 2 inches long.
– It often contains two types of abnormal tissue: gastric and pancreatic.
– The most common age for clinical presentation is 2 years old. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 43
Correct
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A 5 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by worried parents. The child's parents inform you that the patient has had a cough and a runny nose for about 2-3 days, but in the past 24 hours, he has developed a fever and started coughing up large quantities of green mucus. You suspect bacterial tracheitis. What is the most probable causative agent?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.
The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.
In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.
Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.
When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 44
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation (AF) is found to have an INR of 7.3 during a routine check. He is feeling fine and does not have any signs of bleeding.
What is the most suitable approach to reverse the effects of warfarin in this patient?Your Answer: Withhold 1-2 doses of warfarin and reduce subsequent maintenance dose
Explanation:The current recommendations from NICE for managing warfarin in the presence of bleeding or an abnormal INR are as follows:
In cases of major active bleeding, regardless of the INR level, the first step is to stop administering warfarin. Next, 5 mg of vitamin K (phytomenadione) should be given intravenously. Additionally, dried prothrombin complex concentrate, which contains factors II, VII, IX, and X, should be administered. If dried prothrombin complex is not available, fresh frozen plasma can be given at a dose of 15 ml/kg.
If the INR is greater than 8.0 and there is minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped. Slow injection of 1-3 mg of vitamin K can be given, and this dose can be repeated after 24 hours if the INR remains high. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is less than 5.0.
If the INR is greater than 8.0 with no bleeding, warfarin should be stopped. Oral administration of 1-5 mg of vitamin K can be given, and this dose can be repeated after 24 hours if the INR remains high. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is less than 5.0.
If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped. Slow injection of 1-3 mg of vitamin K can be given, and warfarin can be restarted once the INR is less than 5.0.
If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 with no bleeding, one or two doses of warfarin should be withheld, and the subsequent maintenance dose should be reduced.
For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of warfarin therapy and the BNF guidance on the use of phytomenadione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old with a history of bipolar disorder is brought into the emergency department after intentionally taking an excessive amount of lithium. What acid-base disturbances would you anticipate in a patient who has overdosed on lithium?
Your Answer: High anion gap acidosis
Correct Answer: Low anion gap acidosis
Explanation:Excessive intake of lithium is linked to the development of low anion gap acidosis. In cases of lithium overdose, a common outcome is the occurrence of low anion gap acidosis.
Further Reading:
Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.
To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for co-lateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.
Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.
The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.
The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.
The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.
Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.
The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 46
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with severe and persistent back pain a few days after spinal surgery. She has a temperature of 38.4°C and is highly sensitive over the area where the surgery was performed. On examination, she has weakness of left knee extension and foot dorsiflexion.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Discitis
Explanation:Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in certain cases, especially in immunocompromised individuals and intravenous drug users. Gram-negative organisms like Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis, particularly in cases of Pott’s disease.
There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in about 1-2% of patients post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.
The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, a refusal to walk may also be a symptom.
When diagnosing discitis, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. Computed tomography (CT) scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.
Treatment for discitis involves hospital admission for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is recommended to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a C-reactive protein (CRP) test, to the laboratory.
A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis would include intravenous flucloxacillin 2 g every 6 hours as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy. Intravenous vancomycin may be used if the infection was acquired in the hospital, if there is a high risk of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection, or if there is a documented penicillin allergy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 47
Correct
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A 65 year old female is brought into the emergency department by her husband following a fall. The patient seems unsure about how the fall occurred. The patient's husband takes you aside to express his growing concern about the patient's memory and overall functioning in the past year. He has previously suggested visiting the doctor about it, but the patient has consistently refused, claiming to be perfectly fine. The patient's husband is worried that the patient might be suffering from dementia. What is the leading cause of dementia?
Your Answer: Alzheimer's disease
Explanation:Dementia is a condition characterized by a decline in cognitive abilities, such as memory, thinking, and reasoning, that is severe enough to interfere with daily functioning. There are several different causes of dementia, but the leading cause is Alzheimer’s disease. Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive brain disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. It is the most common cause of dementia, accounting for approximately 60-80% of cases.
Further Reading:
Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.
To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.
The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.
There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.
Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.
Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.
Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.
In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 48
Correct
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A 72 year old female is brought into the emergency department due to near-fainting. Whilst in the department the patient loses consciousness and on examination there is no detectable pulse. You begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). What is the ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths used during CPR?
Your Answer: 30:2
Explanation:The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths during CPR is now 30:2. Prior to 2005, the ratio used was 15:2.
Further Reading:
In the event of an adult experiencing cardiorespiratory arrest, it is crucial for doctors to be familiar with the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm. They should also be knowledgeable about the proper technique for chest compressions, the appropriate rhythms for defibrillation, the reversible causes of arrest, and the drugs used in advanced life support.
During chest compressions, the rate should be between 100-120 compressions per minute, with a depth of compression of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths should be 30:2. It is important to change the person giving compressions regularly to prevent fatigue.
There are two shockable ECG rhythms that doctors should be aware of: ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia (pVT). These rhythms require defibrillation.
There are four reversible causes of cardiorespiratory arrest, known as the 4 H’s and 4 T’s. The 4 H’s include hypoxia, hypovolemia, hypo or hyperkalemia or metabolic abnormalities, and hypothermia. The 4 T’s include thrombosis (coronary or pulmonary), tension pneumothorax, tamponade, and toxins. Identifying and treating these reversible causes is crucial for successful resuscitation.
When it comes to resus drugs, they are considered of secondary importance during CPR due to the lack of high-quality evidence for their efficacy. However, adrenaline (epinephrine) and amiodarone are the two drugs included in the ALS algorithm. Doctors should be familiar with the dosing, route, and timing of administration for both drugs.
Adrenaline should be administered intravenously at a concentration of 1 in 10,000 (100 micrograms/mL). It should be repeated every 3-5 minutes. Amiodarone is initially given at a dose of 300 mg, either from a pre-filled syringe or diluted in 20 mL of Glucose 5%. If required, an additional dose of 150 mg can be given by intravenous injection. This is followed by an intravenous infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours. The first dose of amiodarone is given after 3 shocks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
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Question 49
Correct
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A 42 year old patient visits the emergency department after a SCUBA dive. He reports feeling disoriented and lightheaded during the last part of his descent. The symptoms got better as he ascended. You suspect nitrogen narcosis and explain to the patient how the quantity of nitrogen dissolved in the bloodstream rises under pressure. Which gas law describes the correlation between the quantity of dissolved gas in a liquid and its partial pressure above the liquid?
Your Answer: Henry’s law
Explanation:Henry’s law describes the correlation between the quantity of dissolved gas in a liquid and its partial pressure above the liquid. According to Henry’s law, the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas above the liquid. In the case of nitrogen narcosis, as the patient descends deeper into the water, the pressure increases, causing more nitrogen to dissolve in the bloodstream. As the patient ascends, the pressure decreases, leading to a decrease in the amount of dissolved nitrogen and improvement in symptoms.
Further Reading:
Decompression illness (DCI) is a term that encompasses both decompression sickness (DCS) and arterial gas embolism (AGE). When diving underwater, the increasing pressure causes gases to become more soluble and reduces the size of gas bubbles. As a diver ascends, nitrogen can come out of solution and form gas bubbles, leading to decompression sickness or the bends. Boyle’s and Henry’s gas laws help explain the changes in gases during changing pressure.
Henry’s law states that the amount of gas that dissolves in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas. Divers often use atmospheres (ATM) as a measure of pressure, with 1 ATM being the pressure at sea level. Boyle’s law states that the volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure. As pressure increases, volume decreases.
Decompression sickness occurs when nitrogen comes out of solution as a diver ascends. The evolved gas can physically damage tissue by stretching or tearing it as bubbles expand, or by provoking an inflammatory response. Joints and spinal nervous tissue are commonly affected. Symptoms of primary damage usually appear immediately or soon after a dive, while secondary damage may present hours or days later.
Arterial gas embolism occurs when nitrogen bubbles escape into the arterial circulation and cause distal ischemia. The consequences depend on where the embolism lodges, ranging from tissue ischemia to stroke if it lodges in the cerebral arterial circulation. Mechanisms for distal embolism include pulmonary barotrauma, right to left shunt, and pulmonary filter overload.
Clinical features of decompression illness vary, but symptoms often appear within six hours of a dive. These can include joint pain, neurological symptoms, chest pain or breathing difficulties, rash, vestibular problems, and constitutional symptoms. Factors that increase the risk of DCI include diving at greater depth, longer duration, multiple dives close together, problems with ascent, closed rebreather circuits, flying shortly after diving, exercise shortly after diving, dehydration, and alcohol use.
Diagnosis of DCI is clinical, and investigations depend on the presentation. All patients should receive high flow oxygen, and a low threshold for ordering a chest X-ray should be maintained. Hydration is important, and IV fluids may be necessary. Definitive treatment is recompression therapy in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber, which should be arranged as soon as possible. Entonox should not be given, as it will increase the pressure effect in air spaces.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 50
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with flashing lights. She has been in a car accident and has sustained severe burns. You examine her airway and have concerns about potential airway blockage. Your plan is to intubate the patient and begin preparing the required equipment.
As per the ATLS guidelines, what is the minimum internal diameter of the endotracheal tube that should be utilized?Your Answer: 7.5 mm
Explanation:Patients who have suffered burns should receive high-flow oxygen (15 L) through a reservoir bag while their breathing is being evaluated. If intubation is necessary, it is crucial to use an appropriately sized endotracheal tube (ETT). Using a tube that is too small can make it difficult or even impossible to ventilate the patient, clear secretions, or perform bronchoscopy.
According to the ATLS guidelines, adults should be intubated using an ETT with an internal diameter (ID) of at least 7.5 mm or larger. Children, on the other hand, should have an ETT with an ID of at least 4.5 mm. Once a patient has been intubated, it is important to continue administering 100% oxygen until their carboxyhemoglobin levels drop to less than 5%.
To protect the lungs, it is recommended to use lung protective ventilation techniques. This involves using low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg) and ensuring that peak inspiratory pressures do not exceed 30 cmH2O.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 51
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman with a longstanding history of heavy tobacco use and lung cancer presents with cough, chest pain, worsening shortness of breath, and fatigue.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Explanation:Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a sudden bacterial infection of the fluid in the abdomen. It typically occurs in patients with high blood pressure in the portal vein, and about 70% of patients are classified as Child-Pugh class C. In any given year, around 30% of patients with ascites, a condition characterized by fluid buildup in the abdomen, will develop SBP.
SBP can present with a wide range of symptoms, so it’s important to be vigilant when caring for patients with ascites, especially if there is a sudden decline in their condition. Some patients may not show any symptoms at all.
Common clinical features of SBP include fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, tenderness, worsening ascites, general malaise, and hepatic encephalopathy. Certain factors can increase the risk of developing SBP, such as severe liver disease, gastrointestinal bleeding, urinary tract infection, intestinal bacterial overgrowth, indwelling lines (e.g., central venous catheters or urinary catheters), previous episodes of SBP, and low levels of protein in the ascitic fluid.
To diagnose SBP, an abdominal paracentesis, also known as an ascitic tap, is performed. This involves locating the area of dullness on the flank, next to the rectus abdominis muscle, and performing the tap about 5 cm above and towards the midline from the anterior superior iliac spines.
Certain features on the analysis of the peritoneal fluid strongly suggest SBP, including a total white cell count in the ascitic fluid of more than 500 cells/µL, a total neutrophil count of more than 250 cells/µL, a lactate level in the ascitic fluid of more than 25 mg/dL, a pH of less than 7.35, and the presence of bacteria on Gram-stain.
Patients diagnosed with SBP should be admitted to the hospital and given broad-spectrum antibiotics. The preferred choice is an intravenous 3rd generation cephalosporin, such as ceftriaxone. If the patient is allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics, ciprofloxacin can be considered as an alternative. Administering intravenous albumin can help reduce the risk of kidney failure and mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 52
Correct
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A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with flashing lights. He has been in a building fire and has sustained severe burns. You examine his airway and have concerns about the potential for airway blockage.
Which of the following is NOT a notable factor that increases the risk of airway obstruction in a patient with significant burns?Your Answer: A carboxyhaemoglobin level of 8%
Explanation:Early assessment of the airway is a critical aspect of managing a patient who has suffered burns. Airway blockage can occur rapidly due to direct injury, such as inhalation injury, or as a result of swelling caused by the burn. If there is a history of trauma, the airway should be evaluated and treated while maintaining control of the cervical spine.
Signs of airway obstruction may not be immediately apparent, as swelling typically does not occur right away. Children with thermal burns are at a higher risk of airway obstruction compared to adults due to their smaller airway size, so they require careful observation.
There are several risk factors for airway obstruction in burned patients, including inhalation injury, the presence of soot in the mouth or nostrils, singed nasal hairs, burns to the head, face, or neck, burns inside the mouth, a large burn area with increasing depth, and associated trauma. A carboxyhemoglobin level above 10% is also suggestive of an inhalation injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car crash and sustains severe facial injuries. Facial X-rays and CT scans show the presence of a Le Fort III fracture.
What is the most probable cause of this injury?Your Answer: A force through the lower maxilla
Correct Answer: A force through the nasal bridge and upper part of the maxilla
Explanation:Le Fort fractures are intricate fractures of the midface, which involve the maxillary bone and the surrounding structures. These fractures can occur in a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. The distinguishing feature of Le Fort fractures is the separation of the pterygomaxillary due to trauma. They make up approximately 10% to 20% of all facial fractures and can have severe consequences, both in terms of potential life-threatening situations and disfigurement.
The causes of Le Fort fractures vary depending on the type of fracture. Common mechanisms include motor vehicle accidents, sports injuries, assaults, and falls from significant heights. Patients with Le Fort fractures often have concurrent head and cervical spine injuries. Additionally, they frequently experience other facial fractures, as well as neuromuscular injuries and dental avulsions.
The specific type of fracture sustained is determined by the direction of the force applied to the face. Le Fort type I fractures typically occur when a force is directed downward against the upper teeth. Le Fort type II fractures are usually the result of a force applied to the lower or mid maxilla. Lastly, Le Fort type III fractures are typically caused by a force applied to the nasal bridge and upper part of the maxilla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 54
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a history of progressively worsening weakness in her right arm. She denies any history of speech difficulties, neck pain, or issues with hand coordination. On examination, there is noticeable muscle wasting in her right upper limb with an upward plantar response. Fasciculations are also observed in her right forearm. There is no apparent sensory loss.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)
Explanation:Motor Neuron Disease (MND) is a group of degenerative diseases that primarily involve the loss of specific neurons in the motor cortex, cranial nerve nuclei, and anterior horn cells. Both upper and lower motor neurons are affected in this condition. It is important to note that MND does not cause any sensory or sphincter disturbances, and it does not affect eye movements.
MND is relatively uncommon, with a prevalence of approximately 5-7 cases per 100,000 individuals. The median age of onset in the United Kingdom is 60 years, and unfortunately, it often leads to fatality within 2 to 4 years of diagnosis. The treatment for MND mainly focuses on providing supportive care through a multidisciplinary approach.
There are four distinct clinical patterns observed in MND. The first pattern, known as Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS), accounts for up to 50% of MND cases. It involves the loss of motor neurons in both the motor cortex and the anterior horn of the spinal cord. Clinically, individuals with ALS experience weakness and exhibit signs of both upper and lower motor neuron involvement.
The second pattern, called Progressive Bulbar Palsy, occurs in up to 10% of MND cases. This condition specifically affects cranial nerves IX-XII, resulting in Bulbar and pseudobulbar palsy.
Progressive Muscular Atrophy is the third pattern, also seen in up to 10% of MND cases. It primarily affects the anterior horn cells, leading to the presence of only lower motor neuron signs.
Lastly, Primary Lateral Sclerosis involves the loss of Betz cells in the motor cortex. Clinically, individuals with this pattern exhibit upper motor neuron signs, including marked spastic leg weakness and pseudobulbar palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 55
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman with a history of congestive cardiac failure is experiencing severe central chest pain when reclining. The pain is relieved by assuming an upright position. She has a documented history of severe coronary artery disease.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Decubitus angina
Explanation:Decubitus angina typically occurs in individuals who have congestive heart failure and significant coronary artery disease. When the patient assumes a lying position, the heightened volume of blood within the blood vessels puts stress on the heart, leading to episodes of chest pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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You are asked to help with a 68-year-old patient who initially arrived at the emergency department complaining of chest discomfort and was found to have a slow heart rate before experiencing a cardiac arrest. Which of the following statements about medications used during cardiac arrest and peri-arrest is accurate?
Your Answer: Amiodarone shortens repolarisation time increasing myocardial excitability
Correct Answer: Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
Explanation:Atropine acts as a blocker for muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, making it an antagonist. It is commonly administered during peri-arrest bradycardia. In adults, a dose of 500 mcg is given every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum total dose of 3mg. On the other hand, the initial intravenous dose of amiodarone is 300 mg. Amiodarone works by prolonging repolarization and decreasing myocardial excitability. Additionally, lidocaine functions by blocking sodium channels.
Further Reading:
In the management of respiratory and cardiac arrest, several drugs are commonly used to help restore normal function and improve outcomes. Adrenaline is a non-selective agonist of adrenergic receptors and is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg every 3-5 minutes. It works by causing vasoconstriction, increasing systemic vascular resistance (SVR), and improving cardiac output by increasing the force of heart contraction. Adrenaline also has bronchodilatory effects.
Amiodarone is another drug used in cardiac arrest situations. It blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, which prolongs repolarization and reduces myocardial excitability. The initial dose of amiodarone is 300 mg intravenously after 3 shocks, followed by a dose of 150 mg after 5 shocks.
Lidocaine is an alternative to amiodarone in cardiac arrest situations. It works by blocking sodium channels and decreasing heart rate. The recommended dose is 1 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection, with a repeat half of the initial dose after 5 minutes. The maximum total dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg.
Magnesium sulfate is used to reverse myocardial hyperexcitability associated with hypomagnesemia. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 2 g over 10-15 minutes. An additional dose may be given if necessary, but the maximum total dose should not exceed 3 g.
Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and is used to counteract the slowing of heart rate caused by the parasympathetic nervous system. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 500 mcg every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3 mg.
Naloxone is a competitive antagonist for opioid receptors and is used in cases of respiratory arrest caused by opioid overdose. It has a short duration of action, so careful monitoring is necessary. The initial dose of naloxone is 400 micrograms, followed by 800 mcg after 1 minute. The dose can be gradually escalated up to 2 mg per dose if there is no response to the preceding dose.
It is important for healthcare professionals to have knowledge of the pharmacology and dosing schedules of these drugs in order to effectively manage respiratory and cardiac arrest situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 57
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient comes in after a chronic overdose of digoxin. She complains of nausea, extreme fatigue, and overall feeling unwell.
What is the indication for using DigiFab in this patient?Your Answer: Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
Explanation:Digoxin-specific antibody (DigiFab) is an antidote used to counteract digoxin overdose. It is a purified and sterile preparation of digoxin-immune ovine Fab immunoglobulin fragments. These fragments are derived from healthy sheep that have been immunized with a digoxin derivative called digoxin-dicarboxymethoxylamine (DDMA). DDMA is a digoxin analogue that contains the essential cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene: lactone ring moiety coupled to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH).
DigiFab has a higher affinity for digoxin compared to the affinity of digoxin for its sodium pump receptor, which is believed to be the receptor responsible for its therapeutic and toxic effects. When administered to a patient who has overdosed on digoxin, DigiFab binds to digoxin molecules, reducing the levels of free digoxin in the body. This shift in equilibrium away from binding to the receptors helps to reduce the cardiotoxic effects of digoxin. The Fab-digoxin complexes are then eliminated from the body through the kidney and reticuloendothelial system.
The indications for using DigiFab in cases of acute and chronic digoxin toxicity are summarized below:
Acute digoxin toxicity:
– Cardiac arrest
– Life-threatening arrhythmia
– Potassium level >5 mmol/l
– Ingestion of >10 mg of digoxin (in adults)
– Ingestion of >4 mg of digoxin (in children)
– Digoxin level >12 ng/mlChronic digoxin toxicity:
– Cardiac arrest
– Life-threatening arrhythmia
– Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
– Symptoms of digoxin toxicity in the presence of renal failure -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 58
Correct
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A 67 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned neighbors. They inform you that the patient is frequently intoxicated, but this morning they discovered him wandering in the street and he appeared extremely disoriented and unstable, which is out of character for him. Upon reviewing the patient's medical records, you observe that he has been experiencing abnormal liver function tests for several years and a history of alcohol abuse has been documented. You suspect that the underlying cause of his condition is Wernicke's encephalopathy.
Your Answer: Vitamin B1 deficiency
Explanation:Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a sudden neurological condition that occurs due to a lack of thiamine (vitamin B1). It is characterized by symptoms such as confusion, difficulty with coordination, low body temperature, low blood pressure, involuntary eye movements, and vomiting.
Further Reading:
Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a spectrum of disease that ranges from fatty liver at one end to alcoholic cirrhosis at the other. Fatty liver is generally benign and reversible with alcohol abstinence, while alcoholic cirrhosis is a more advanced and irreversible form of the disease. Alcoholic hepatitis, which involves inflammation of the liver, can lead to the development of fibrotic tissue and cirrhosis.
Several factors can increase the risk of progression of ALD, including female sex, genetics, advanced age, induction of liver enzymes by drugs, and co-existent viral hepatitis, especially hepatitis C.
The development of ALD is multifactorial and involves the metabolism of alcohol in the liver. Alcohol is metabolized to acetaldehyde and then acetate, which can result in the production of damaging reactive oxygen species. Genetic polymorphisms and co-existing hepatitis C infection can enhance the pathological effects of alcohol metabolism.
Patients with ALD may be asymptomatic or present with non-specific symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, vomiting, or anxiety. Those with alcoholic hepatitis may have fever, anorexia, and deranged liver function tests. Advanced liver disease can manifest with signs of portal hypertension and cirrhosis, such as ascites, varices, jaundice, and encephalopathy.
Screening tools such as the AUDIT questionnaire can be used to assess alcohol consumption and identify hazardous or harmful drinking patterns. Liver function tests, FBC, and imaging studies such as ultrasound or liver biopsy may be performed to evaluate liver damage.
Management of ALD involves providing advice on reducing alcohol intake, administering thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and addressing withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines. Complications of ALD, such as intoxication, encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, ascites, hypoglycemia, and coagulopathy, require specialized interventions.
Heavy alcohol use can also lead to thiamine deficiency and the development of Wernicke Korsakoff’s syndrome, characterized by confusion, ataxia, hypothermia, hypotension, nystagmus, and vomiting. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s psychosis.
In summary, alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of disease that can range from benign fatty liver to irreversible cirrhosis. Risk factors for progression include female sex, genetics, advanced age, drug-induced liver enzyme induction, and co-existing liver conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 65 year old female is brought into the emergency department with a one week history of worsening nausea, muscle cramps, fatigue, and weakness. You send urine and blood samples for analysis. The patient's observations and investigation results are shown below:
Na+ 120 mmol/l
K+ 5.3 mmol/l
Urea 6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 87 µmol/l
Glucose 5.5 mmol/l
Urine osmolality 365 mosmol/kg
Blood pressure 138/78 mmHg
Pulse 82 bpm
Respiration rate 18 bpm
Oxygen saturations 97% on air
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Addison's disease
Correct Answer: SIADH
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of nausea, muscle cramps, fatigue, and weakness are consistent with hyponatremia, which is a low sodium level in the blood. The blood test results show a low sodium level (Na+ 120 mmol/l) and normal potassium level (K+ 5.3 mmol/l), which is commonly seen in SIADH.
Additionally, the urine osmolality of 365 mosmol/kg indicates concentrated urine, which is contrary to what would be expected in diabetes insipidus. In diabetes insipidus, the urine would be dilute due to the inability to concentrate urine properly.
The patient’s blood pressure, pulse, respiration rate, and oxygen saturations are within normal range, which does not suggest a diagnosis of Addison’s disease or Conn’s syndrome.
Therefore, based on the symptoms, laboratory results, and urine osmolality, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is SIADH.
Further Reading:
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels in the blood due to excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH, also known as arginine vasopressin (AVP), is responsible for promoting water and sodium reabsorption in the body. SIADH occurs when there is impaired free water excretion, leading to euvolemic (normal fluid volume) hypotonic hyponatremia.
There are various causes of SIADH, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, stomach cancer, and prostate cancer, as well as neurological conditions like stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and meningitis. Infections such as tuberculosis and pneumonia, as well as certain medications like thiazide diuretics and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can also contribute to SIADH.
The diagnostic features of SIADH include low plasma osmolality, inappropriately elevated urine osmolality, urinary sodium levels above 30 mmol/L, and euvolemic. Symptoms of hyponatremia, which is a common consequence of SIADH, include nausea, vomiting, headache, confusion, lethargy, muscle weakness, seizures, and coma.
Management of SIADH involves correcting hyponatremia slowly to avoid complications such as central pontine myelinolysis. The underlying cause of SIADH should be treated if possible, such as discontinuing causative medications. Fluid restriction is typically recommended, with a daily limit of around 1000 ml for adults. In severe cases with neurological symptoms, intravenous hypertonic saline may be used. Medications like demeclocycline, which blocks ADH receptors, or ADH receptor antagonists like tolvaptan may also be considered.
It is important to monitor serum sodium levels closely during treatment, especially if using hypertonic saline, to prevent rapid correction that can lead to central pontine myelinolysis. Osmolality abnormalities can help determine the underlying cause of hyponatremia, with increased urine osmolality indicating dehydration or renal disease, and decreased urine osmolality suggesting SIADH or overhydration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is admitted to the department after ingesting an excessive amount of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) four hours ago.
Which of the following ECG findings is most frequently observed in cases of TCA overdose?Your Answer: Broadening of the QRS complex
Correct Answer: Sinus tachycardia
Explanation:The most commonly observed change in the electrocardiogram (ECG) during a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is sinus tachycardia. Additionally, other ECG changes that can be seen in TCA overdose include prolongation of the PR interval, broadening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and the occurrence of ventricular arrhythmias in cases of severe toxicity. The cardiotoxic effects of TCAs are caused by the blocking of sodium channels, which leads to broadening of the QRS complex, and the blocking of potassium channels, which results in prolongation of the QT interval. The severity of the QRS broadening is associated with adverse events: a QRS duration greater than 100 ms is predictive of seizures, while a QRS duration greater than 160 ms is predictive of ventricular arrhythmias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 61
Correct
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A 42 year old male attends the emergency department having been found hypothermic and intoxicated due to alcohol. Following initial treatment and a period of observation the patient is deemed safe for discharge. You inform the patient that their weekly alcohol consumption meets the criteria of harmful drinking (high risk drinking) and you recommend the patient takes measures to decrease their alcohol intake.
Harmful drinking in men is defined as alcohol consumption greater than or equal to how many units per week?Your Answer: 35
Explanation:Harmful drinking is when a person consumes at least 35 units of alcohol per week if they are a woman, or at least 50 units per week if they are a man. This level of drinking can lead to negative consequences for their mental and physical health.
Hazardous drinking, also known as increasing risk drinking, refers to a pattern of alcohol consumption that raises the likelihood of harm. For women, this means drinking more than 14 units but less than 35 units per week, while for men it means drinking more than 14 units but less than 50 units per week.
High-risk drinking, or harmful drinking, is a pattern of alcohol consumption that causes mental or physical damage. This occurs when a woman drinks 35 units or more per week, or when a man drinks 50 units or more per week.
Further Reading:
Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a spectrum of disease that ranges from fatty liver at one end to alcoholic cirrhosis at the other. Fatty liver is generally benign and reversible with alcohol abstinence, while alcoholic cirrhosis is a more advanced and irreversible form of the disease. Alcoholic hepatitis, which involves inflammation of the liver, can lead to the development of fibrotic tissue and cirrhosis.
Several factors can increase the risk of progression of ALD, including female sex, genetics, advanced age, induction of liver enzymes by drugs, and co-existent viral hepatitis, especially hepatitis C.
The development of ALD is multifactorial and involves the metabolism of alcohol in the liver. Alcohol is metabolized to acetaldehyde and then acetate, which can result in the production of damaging reactive oxygen species. Genetic polymorphisms and co-existing hepatitis C infection can enhance the pathological effects of alcohol metabolism.
Patients with ALD may be asymptomatic or present with non-specific symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, vomiting, or anxiety. Those with alcoholic hepatitis may have fever, anorexia, and deranged liver function tests. Advanced liver disease can manifest with signs of portal hypertension and cirrhosis, such as ascites, varices, jaundice, and encephalopathy.
Screening tools such as the AUDIT questionnaire can be used to assess alcohol consumption and identify hazardous or harmful drinking patterns. Liver function tests, FBC, and imaging studies such as ultrasound or liver biopsy may be performed to evaluate liver damage.
Management of ALD involves providing advice on reducing alcohol intake, administering thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and addressing withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines. Complications of ALD, such as intoxication, encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, ascites, hypoglycemia, and coagulopathy, require specialized interventions.
Heavy alcohol use can also lead to thiamine deficiency and the development of Wernicke Korsakoff’s syndrome, characterized by confusion, ataxia, hypothermia, hypotension, nystagmus, and vomiting. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s psychosis.
In summary, alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of disease that can range from benign fatty liver to irreversible cirrhosis. Risk factors for progression include female sex, genetics, advanced age, drug-induced liver enzyme induction, and co-existing liver conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with a lengthy history of depression arrives at the Emergency Department after intentionally overdosing on the medication she takes for her heart condition. She informs you that she consumed verapamil immediate-release 240 mg tablets approximately 30 minutes ago. However, her spouse promptly discovered her and brought her to the hospital. Currently, she shows no signs of symptoms. Typically, how much time passes before symptoms manifest in cases of this overdose?
Your Answer: 12-16 hours
Correct Answer: 1-2 hours
Explanation:Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious condition that should always be taken seriously as it can be potentially life-threatening. The two most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into the cells. These channels play a crucial role in the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.
Significant toxicity can occur with the ingestion of more than 10 tablets of verapamil (160 mg or 240 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules) or diltiazem (180 mg, 240 mg or 360 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules). In children, even 1-2 tablets of immediate or sustained-release verapamil or diltiazem can be harmful. Symptoms usually appear within 1-2 hours of taking standard preparations, but with slow-release versions, the onset of severe toxicity may be delayed by 12-16 hours, with peak effects occurring after 24 hours.
The main clinical manifestations of calcium-channel blocker overdose include nausea and vomiting, low blood pressure, slow heart rate and first-degree heart block, heart muscle ischemia and stroke, kidney failure, pulmonary edema, and high blood sugar levels.
When managing a patient with calcium-channel blocker overdose, certain bedside investigations are crucial. These include checking blood glucose levels, performing an electrocardiogram (ECG), and obtaining an arterial blood gas sample. Additional investigations that can provide helpful information include assessing urea and electrolyte levels, conducting a chest X-ray to check for pulmonary edema, and performing an echocardiography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being found disoriented and lethargic by a family member. The family member informs you that the patient has a history of depression and that there were multiple empty bottles of aspirin at the patient's residence. Initial tests are conducted, including a salicylate level.
What is the plasma salicylate concentration threshold for initiating urinary alkalinization in adult patients?Your Answer: >150 mg/L
Correct Answer: > 500 mg/L
Explanation:In adults, urinary alkalinisation is initiated when the salicylate level exceeds 500 mg/L (>3.6 mmol/L). For children, the threshold is set at a salicylate concentration of > 350 mg/L (2.5 mmol/L).
Further Reading:
Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.
The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.
To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.
Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.
In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 64
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of severe chest pain, difficulty breathing, and feeling nauseous for the past hour. The ECG reveals ST-segment elevation in the anterolateral leads. After starting treatment, her condition improves, and the ECG changes indicate signs of resolution.
Which medication is responsible for the rapid restoration of blood flow in this patient?Your Answer: Tenecteplase
Explanation:Tenecteplase is a medication known as a tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). Its main mechanism of action involves binding specifically to fibrin and converting plasminogen into plasmin. This process leads to the breakdown of the fibrin matrix and promotes reperfusion at the affected site. Among the options provided, Tenecteplase is the sole drug that primarily acts by facilitating reperfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 65
Correct
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You review a middle-aged man on the Clinical Decision Unit (CDU) who has presented following a car accident. He is accompanied by his close friend of many years, who is very concerned about him and his safety on the road. The friend is concerned as he has noticed that his friend has been forgetting important appointments and seems to be more absent-minded lately. You suspect that the patient may have cognitive impairment.
Which of the following is also most likely to be present in the history?Your Answer: She becomes agitated when taken to new surroundings
Explanation:Dementia is a collection of symptoms caused by a pathological process that leads to significant cognitive impairment, surpassing what is typically expected for a person’s age. The most prevalent form of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease.
The symptoms of dementia are diverse and encompass various aspects. These include memory loss, particularly in the short-term. Additionally, individuals with dementia may experience fluctuations in mood, which are typically responsive to external stimuli and support. It is important to note that thoughts about death are infrequent in individuals with dementia.
Furthermore, changes in personality may occur as a result of dementia. Individuals may struggle to find the right words when communicating and face difficulties in completing complex tasks. In later stages, urinary incontinence may become a concern, along with a loss of appetite and subsequent weight loss. Additionally, individuals with dementia may exhibit agitation when placed in unfamiliar settings.
Overall, dementia is characterized by a range of symptoms that significantly impact cognitive functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 66
Correct
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A 32-year-old construction worker complains of lower back pain and stiffness. He experiences the most discomfort while sitting at his desk and also feels very stiff in the mornings. You decide to evaluate him using a widely recognized risk stratification tool for back pain.
Which risk stratification tool does the current NICE guidance support?Your Answer: Keele STarT Back risk assessment tool
Explanation:NICE recommends the use of a risk stratification tool at the first point of contact with a healthcare professional for new episodes of low back pain, whether with or without sciatica. The specific tool mentioned in the current NICE guidelines is the Keele STarT Back risk assessment tool.
The Keele STarT Back Screening Tool (SBST) is a short questionnaire designed to guide initial treatment for low back pain in primary care. It consists of nine items that assess both physical (such as leg pain, comorbid pain, and disability) and psychosocial factors (such as bothersomeness, catastrophising, fear, anxiety, and depression) that have been identified as strong indicators of poor prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 67
Correct
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You are caring for a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury. The FAST scan shows cardiac tamponade. If left untreated, expanding cardiac tamponade can lead to which of the following arrhythmias?
Your Answer: Pulseless electrical activity
Explanation:If a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury has an expanding cardiac tamponade that is left untreated, it can potentially lead to pulseless electrical activity.
Further Reading:
Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.
Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.
Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.
It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 68
Correct
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A 15 year old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents and reveals that she ingested 36 paracetamol tablets 6 hours ago. What is the most accurate explanation for how an overdose of paracetamol leads to liver damage?
Your Answer: N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine binds to and denatures hepatocytes
Explanation:Liver damage occurs as a result of an overdose of paracetamol due to the formation of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). When the normal pathways for metabolizing paracetamol are overwhelmed, NAPQI is produced. This toxic metabolite depletes the protective glutathione in the liver, which is usually responsible for neutralizing harmful substances. As a result, there is an insufficient amount of glutathione available to conjugate the excess NAPQI. Consequently, NAPQI binds to hepatocytes, causing their denaturation and ultimately leading to cell death.
Further Reading:
Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.
Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.
The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.
In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.
The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 69
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl was cycling down a hill when a car backed up in front of her, resulting in a collision. She visits the emergency department, reporting upper abdominal pain caused by the handlebars. You determine that a FAST scan is necessary. What is the main objective of performing a FAST scan for blunt abdominal trauma?
Your Answer: Detect the presence of intraperitoneal fluid
Explanation:The primary goal of performing a FAST scan in cases of blunt abdominal trauma is to identify the existence of intraperitoneal fluid. According to the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM), the purpose of using ultrasound in the initial evaluation of abdominal trauma is specifically to confirm the presence of fluid within the peritoneal cavity, with the assumption that it is blood. However, it is important to note that ultrasound is not reliable for diagnosing injuries to solid organs or hollow viscus.
Further Reading:
Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.
When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.
In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.
In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the Emergency Department by his father with a high temperature. NICE suggests using the traffic light system to evaluate the likelihood of a severe illness in children under 3 with a fever.
Based on the NICE traffic light system, which of the subsequent symptoms or signs indicate a low risk of a serious illness?Your Answer: Poor feeding
Correct Answer: Not crying
Explanation:The traffic light system is a useful tool for evaluating the potential risk of serious illness in children. This system categorizes clinical features into three groups based on severity: red (high-risk), amber (intermediate-risk), and green (low-risk).
Children displaying any of the following symptoms or signs fall into the high-risk group for serious illness: pale/mottled/ashen/blue skin, lips or tongue; lack of response to social cues; appearing unwell to a healthcare professional; inability to wake or stay awake when roused; weak, high-pitched, or continuous cry; grunting; respiratory rate exceeding 60 breaths per minute; moderate or severe chest indrawing; reduced skin turgor; and bulging fontanelle.
Children exhibiting any of the following symptoms or signs are considered at least intermediate-risk for serious illness: pallor of skin, lips or tongue reported by parent or caregiver; abnormal response to social cues; absence of a smile; waking only with prolonged stimulation; decreased activity; nasal flaring; dry mucous membranes; poor feeding in infants; reduced urine output; and rigors.
Children displaying any of the following symptoms or signs are classified as low-risk for serious illness: normal color of skin, lips, and tongue; normal response to social cues; contentment and smiles; staying awake or quickly awakening; strong normal cry or absence of crying; normal skin and eyes; and moist mucous membranes.
To summarize, children with fever and any symptoms or signs in the red column are considered high-risk, while those with fever and any symptoms or signs in the amber column (but none in the red column) are considered intermediate-risk. Children with symptoms and signs in the green column (and none in the amber or red columns) are classified as low-risk.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and initial management of fever in children under 5, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of feverish children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 71
Correct
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John is a 68-year-old man with a history of memory impairment and signs of cognitive decline.
Which ONE of the following signs is MOST indicative of a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease rather than vascular dementia?Your Answer: Early loss of insight
Explanation:Vascular dementia is not as common as Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for about 20% of dementia cases compared to 50% for Alzheimer’s. Most individuals with vascular dementia have a history of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease and/or hypertension.
There are notable differences in how these two diseases present themselves. Vascular dementia often has a sudden onset, while Alzheimer’s disease has a slower onset. The progression of vascular dementia tends to be stepwise, with periods of stability followed by sudden declines, whereas Alzheimer’s disease has a more gradual decline. The course of vascular dementia can also fluctuate, while Alzheimer’s disease shows a steady decline over time.
In terms of personality and insight, individuals with vascular dementia tend to have relatively preserved personality and insight in the early stages, whereas those with Alzheimer’s disease may experience early changes and loss in these areas. Gait is also affected differently, with individuals with vascular dementia taking small steps (known as marche a petit pas), while those with Alzheimer’s disease have a normal gait.
Sleep disturbance is less common in vascular dementia compared to Alzheimer’s disease, which commonly presents with sleep disturbances. Focal neurological signs, such as sensory and motor deficits and pseudobulbar palsy, are more common in vascular dementia, while they are uncommon in Alzheimer’s disease.
To differentiate between Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia, the modified Hachinski ischemia scale can be used. This scale assigns scores based on various features, such as abrupt onset, stepwise deterioration, fluctuating course, nocturnal confusion, preservation of personality, depression, somatic complaints, emotional incontinence, history of hypertension, history of strokes, evidence of associated atherosclerosis, focal neurological symptoms, and focal neurological signs. A score of 2 or greater suggests vascular dementia.
Overall, understanding the differences in presentation and using tools like the modified Hachinski ischemia scale can help in distinguishing between Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 72
Correct
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You assess a 27-year-old patient who is 10-weeks pregnant. She is concerned as she had contact with someone with chickenpox two days ago. She is unsure if she had chickenpox in her childhood.
What is the MOST suitable initial course of action?Your Answer: She should have a blood test to check for varicella zoster immunity
Explanation:Varicella can have serious consequences for pregnant women. If a woman contracts varicella during the first 28 weeks of pregnancy, there is a 1% chance that the fetus will be affected and develop foetal varicella syndrome (FVS). FVS is characterized by eye defects, limb underdevelopment, skin scarring, and neurological abnormalities.
Pregnant women who have not had chickenpox or who test negative for VZV IgG should be advised to minimize contact with individuals who have chickenpox or shingles. If they are exposed, they should seek immediate medical help.
If a pregnant woman is exposed to varicella, the first step is to perform a blood test to check for VZV immunity. If she is not immune and the exposure is significant, she should be given VZV immunoglobulin as soon as possible. This treatment is effective within 10 days of exposure.
If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, she should urgently seek medical assistance. There is an increased risk of pneumonia, encephalitis, and hepatitis for the mother, as well as a 1% risk of the fetus developing FVS.
Acyclovir should be used cautiously before 20 weeks of gestation but is recommended after 20 weeks if the woman seeks medical help within 24 hours of the rash appearing.
If a woman develops any complications of varicella, she must be referred to a hospital. Additionally, she should be referred to a specialized center five weeks after the infection for a detailed ultrasound scan to determine if FVS has occurred.
For more information, refer to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists green-top guidelines for the management of VZV exposure and infection in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 73
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman has developed a thick cord of tissue on the sole of her left foot. She has developed a flexion deformity with her toes curled downwards. She is unable to straighten them. She has a history of epilepsy, which is well managed with her current anticonvulsant medication. A picture of her foot deformity is displayed below:
What is the MOST LIKELY anticonvulsant that is responsible for this deformity?Your Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:This individual has developed Dupuytren’s contracture, which is a hand deformity characterized by a fixed flexion caused by palmar fibromatosis. The only anticonvulsant treatment believed to be connected to the development of Dupuytren’s contracture is phenytoin. Additionally, other conditions associated with its occurrence include liver cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, alcoholism, and trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 74
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with meningococcal sepsis. An arterial blood gas is performed, and lactic acidosis is detected.
What type of acid-base disorder would you anticipate in a patient with sepsis-induced lactic acidosis?Your Answer: Raised anion gap metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.
Respiratory acidosis is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or life-threatening asthma. Other causes include pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or certain medications.
Metabolic alkalosis can occur due to vomiting, potassium depletion (often caused by diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.
Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can be caused by conditions like lactic acidosis (which can result from hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction) or ketoacidosis (commonly seen in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess). Other causes include renal failure or poisoning (such as late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol, or ethylene glycol).
Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be attributed to conditions like renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 75
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease comes in with a fever, abdominal pain, ascites, and worsening hepatic encephalopathy. The doctor suspects spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Which ONE statement is correct regarding this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Patients should be administered broad-spectrum antibiotics
Explanation:Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a sudden bacterial infection of the fluid in the abdomen. It typically occurs in patients with high blood pressure in the portal vein, and about 70% of cases are seen in patients with severe liver disease. In any given year, around 30% of patients with fluid buildup in the abdomen will develop SBP.
SBP can present with a wide range of symptoms, so it’s important to be vigilant when caring for patients with fluid buildup in the abdomen, especially if there is a sudden decline in their condition. Some patients may not show any symptoms at all.
Common clinical features of SBP include fever (80% of cases), abdominal pain (70% of cases), worsening or unexplained confusion due to liver dysfunction, diarrhea, nausea and vomiting, and bowel obstruction.
There are several factors that increase the risk of developing SBP, including severe liver disease (Child-Pugh class C), gastrointestinal bleeding, urinary tract infection, excessive growth of bacteria in the intestines, presence of indwelling lines such as central venous catheters or urinary catheters, previous episodes of SBP, and low levels of protein in the fluid buildup in the abdomen.
To diagnose SBP, a procedure called abdominal paracentesis is performed to collect fluid from the abdomen. The following findings on fluid analysis strongly suggest SBP: total white blood cell count in the fluid greater than 500 cells/µL, total neutrophil count in the fluid greater than 250 cells/µL, lactate level in the fluid higher than 25 mg/dL, pH of the fluid below 7.35, and presence of bacteria on Gram-stain.
Patients with SBP should be admitted to the hospital and treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics. The preferred antibiotic is an intravenous third-generation cephalosporin, such as Ceftriaxone. If the patient is allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics, ciprofloxacin can be considered as an alternative. Administration of intravenous albumin has been shown to reduce the risk of kidney failure and death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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You review a patient with sickle-cell disease and a history of multiple previous painful episodes. The patient informs you that two other individuals in his family also have sickle-cell disease.
What is the mode of inheritance for sickle-cell disease?Your Answer: X-linked dominant
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Sickle-cell disease is a blood disorder that is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. It is characterized by the production of abnormal red blood cells that have a sickle shape. These abnormal cells are triggered by various factors such as low oxygen levels, dehydration, stress, and infection. The disease is caused by a specific mutation in the beta-globin chain of hemoglobin, resulting in the substitution of glutamic acid with valine at the sixth position. The gene responsible for this mutation is located on chromosome 11.
On the other hand, sickle-cell trait refers to the carrier state of the disease. Individuals with sickle-cell trait have one normal allele and one abnormal allele. Both alleles are co-dominant, meaning that both normal and abnormal hemoglobin are produced. As a result, individuals with sickle-cell trait do not experience the same severity of symptoms as those with sickle-cell disease.
When both parents are carriers of the sickle-cell trait, there is a 50% chance that their child will also be an unaffected carrier, a 25% chance that the child will be unaffected, and a 25% chance that the child will develop sickle-cell disease. This is because the inheritance of the disease follows the principles of autosomal recessive inheritance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 77
Correct
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A female trauma victim that has experienced substantial blood loss is estimated to have experienced a grade III haemorrhage. The patient's weight is approximately 60 kg.
Which of the following physiological indicators aligns with a diagnosis of grade III haemorrhage?Your Answer: Urine output of 10 ml/hr
Explanation:Recognizing the extent of blood loss based on vital sign and mental status abnormalities is a crucial skill. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for hemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy individual weighing 70 kg. In terms of body weight, the total circulating blood volume accounts for approximately 7%, which is roughly equivalent to five liters in an average 70 kg male patient.
The ATLS classification for hemorrhagic shock is as follows:
CLASS I:
– Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
– Pulse rate: Less than 100 beats per minute (bpm)
– Systolic blood pressure: Normal
– Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
– Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
– Urine output: Greater than 30 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Slightly anxiousCLASS II:
– Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
– Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
– Systolic blood pressure: Normal
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
– Urine output: 20-30 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Mildly anxiousCLASS III:
– Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
– Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
– Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
– Urine output: 5-15 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Anxious, confusedCLASS IV:
– Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
– Pulse rate: More than 140 bpm
– Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
– Urine output: Negligible
– CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 78
Correct
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You are called into the emergency room to assist with multiple trauma patients after a car accident. The patient you are assigned to has significant bruising on their chest, muffled heart sounds, and low blood pressure despite receiving fluids. During an ultrasound scan, a large buildup of fluid around the heart is observed. Due to the high number of injured individuals, the cardiac surgery team is unable to immediately take the patient to the operating room. You are given the task of performing a pericardiocentesis. Which of the following changes in the patient's electrocardiogram (ECG) would indicate that the needle has been successfully inserted into the ventricle?
Your Answer: ST elevation
Explanation:ST elevation and ventricular ectopics indicate that the needle has made contact with the ventricle. In such cases, it is recommended to retract the needle until the ECG pattern returns to its normal baseline.
Further Reading:
Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.
Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.
Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.
It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department acutely ill with abdominal and lower limb pain. He had a syncopal episode in the department and was transferred to the resuscitation area.
His initial blood results are as follows:
Na+: 114 mmol/l
K+: 7.1 mmol/l
Urea: 17.6 mmol/l
Creatinine: 150 mmol/l
What is the most frequent cause of the underlying diagnosis in this scenario?Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: Autoimmune adrenalitis
Explanation:Acute adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addisonian crisis, is a rare condition that can have catastrophic consequences if not diagnosed in a timely manner. It is more prevalent in women and typically occurs between the ages of 30 and 50.
Addison’s disease is caused by a deficiency in the production of steroid hormones by the adrenal glands, affecting glucocorticoid, mineralocorticoid, and sex steroid production. The main causes of Addison’s disease include autoimmune adrenalitis, bilateral adrenalectomy, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome, tuberculosis, and congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
An Addisonian crisis can be triggered by the intentional or accidental withdrawal of steroid therapy, as well as factors such as infection, trauma, myocardial infarction, cerebral infarction, asthma, hypothermia, and alcohol abuse.
The clinical features of Addison’s disease include weakness, lethargy, hypotension (especially orthostatic hypotension), nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reduced axillary and pubic hair, depression, and hyperpigmentation in areas such as palmar creases, buccal mucosa, and exposed skin.
During an Addisonian crisis, the main symptoms are usually hypoglycemia and shock, characterized by tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, hypotension, altered consciousness, and even coma.
Biochemical features that can confirm the diagnosis of Addison’s disease include increased ACTH levels, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. Diagnostic investigations may involve the Synacthen test, plasma ACTH level measurement, plasma renin level measurement, and adrenocortical antibody testing.
Management of Addison’s disease should be overseen by an Endocrinologist. Treatment typically involves the administration of hydrocortisone, fludrocortisone, and dehydroepiandrosterone. Some patients may also require thyroxine if there is hypothalamic-pituitary disease present. Treatment is lifelong, and patients should carry a steroid card and MedicAlert bracelet to alert healthcare professionals of their condition and the potential for an Addisonian crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 80
Correct
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You are requested to evaluate a 5-year-old girl who was administered her first dose of amoxicillin for the management of a respiratory tract infection. Her mother observed her face beginning to swell shortly after and her breathing becoming noisy. You determine that she is experiencing anaphylaxis. What would be the most suitable initial treatment?
Your Answer: Adrenaline 300 mcg IM
Explanation:Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is the most crucial medication for treating anaphylaxis. It should be administered promptly to individuals experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. The preferred method of treatment is early administration of intramuscular adrenaline. It is important to be familiar with the appropriate dosage for different age groups.
Further Reading:
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It is characterized by a rapid onset and can lead to difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, and loss of consciousness. In paediatrics, anaphylaxis is often caused by food allergies, with nuts being the most common trigger. Other causes include drugs and insect venom, such as from a wasp sting.
When treating anaphylaxis, time is of the essence and there may not be enough time to look up medication doses. Adrenaline is the most important drug in managing anaphylaxis and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary based on the age of the child. For children under 6 months, the dose is 150 micrograms, while for children between 6 months and 6 years, the dose remains the same. For children between 6 and 12 years, the dose is increased to 300 micrograms, and for adults and children over 12 years, the dose is 500 micrograms. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary.
The preferred site for administering adrenaline is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. This ensures quick absorption and effectiveness of the medication. It is important to follow the Resuscitation Council guidelines for anaphylaxis management, as they have recently been updated.
In some cases, it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis. This can help confirm the diagnosis and guide further management.
Overall, prompt recognition and administration of adrenaline are crucial in managing anaphylaxis in paediatrics. Following the recommended doses and guidelines can help ensure the best outcomes for patients experiencing this severe allergic reaction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 81
Correct
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A 68 year old is brought into the emergency department after being bitten on the leg by a patient with Alzheimer's disease at a nearby nursing home. The bite wound seems to have only punctured the skin without any ongoing bleeding or signs of infection such as redness, swelling, or discharge. Despite the absence of current infection, you decide to administer prophylactic antibiotics. What is the recommended length of time for prophylactic antibiotics in a non-infected human bite wound?
Your Answer: 3 days
Explanation:In cases of human bite wounds where the skin is broken but no blood is drawn, it is recommended to consider antibiotic prophylaxis, especially if the bite occurs in a high-risk area like the hands. According to NICE guidelines, a 3-day course of antibiotics is usually sufficient for prophylaxis in bite wounds. However, if the bite wound becomes infected, a 5-day course of antibiotics is advised for treatment.
Further Reading:
Bite wounds from animals and humans can cause significant injury and infection. It is important to properly assess and manage these wounds to prevent complications. In human bites, both the biter and the injured person are at risk of infection transmission, although the risk is generally low.
Bite wounds can take various forms, including lacerations, abrasions, puncture wounds, avulsions, and crush or degloving injuries. The most common mammalian bites are associated with dogs, cats, and humans.
When assessing a human bite, it is important to gather information about how and when the bite occurred, who was involved, whether the skin was broken or blood was involved, and the nature of the bite. The examination should include vital sign monitoring if the bite is particularly traumatic or sepsis is suspected. The location, size, and depth of the wound should be documented, along with any functional loss or signs of infection. It is also important to check for the presence of foreign bodies in the wound.
Factors that increase the risk of infection in bite wounds include the nature of the bite, high-risk sites of injury (such as the hands, feet, face, genitals, or areas of poor perfusion), wounds penetrating bone or joints, delayed presentation, immunocompromised patients, and extremes of age.
The management of bite wounds involves wound care, assessment and administration of prophylactic antibiotics if indicated, assessment and administration of tetanus prophylaxis if indicated, and assessment and administration of antiviral prophylaxis if indicated. For initial wound management, any foreign bodies should be removed, the wound should be encouraged to bleed if fresh, and thorough irrigation with warm, running water or normal saline should be performed. Debridement of necrotic tissue may be necessary. Bite wounds are usually not appropriate for primary closure.
Prophylactic antibiotics should be considered for human bites that have broken the skin and drawn blood, especially if they involve high-risk areas or the patient is immunocompromised. Co-amoxiclav is the first-line choice for prophylaxis, but alternative antibiotics may be used in penicillin-allergic patients. Antibiotics for wound infection should be based on wound swab culture and sensitivities.
Tetanus prophylaxis should be administered based on the cleanliness and risk level of the wound, as well as the patient’s vaccination status. Blood-borne virus risk should also be assessed, and testing for hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV should be done.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 82
Correct
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A 3-year-old child is brought to the emergency department by concerned parents. The parents inform you that the patient had a slight fever, a runny nose, and a decreased appetite for 2 days before developing a barking cough, which seems to have worsened overnight. Upon examination, the child presents with a seal-like barking cough accompanied by stridor and mild sternal recession at rest. The child appears alert and not agitated. Oxygen saturation levels are 96% on room air, and mild bilateral decreased air entry is noted upon chest auscultation. The child's mother inquires if this could be croup.
What is the most appropriate evaluation?Your Answer: Moderate croup
Explanation:A person’s level of consciousness is determined by their alertness. In this case, the score for alertness is 0, indicating that the person is not alert. Based on the scoring system, a total score of 4 suggests a moderate case of croup. Moderate croup is typically diagnosed when the scores range from 3 to 5.
Further Reading:
Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.
The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.
In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.
Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.
When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 83
Correct
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A 25-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department in evident distress. He woke up this morning with sudden and intense pain in his right testicle. He also experiences some discomfort in his right iliac fossa. He reports feeling nauseous and has vomited twice while waiting. Upon examination, his right testicle is firm, highly sensitive, and positioned slightly higher than the left side.
What is the MOST probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Testicular torsion is a condition where the spermatic cord twists, leading to a lack of blood flow to the testis. It is a surgical emergency and prompt action is necessary to save the testis. It is most commonly seen in individuals aged 15-30 years.
Varicocele refers to the presence of varicose veins in the pampiniform plexus of the cord and scrotum. It is more frequently observed in the left testis and may be associated with infertility. This is believed to be due to the increased temperature caused by the varicose veins. Symptoms include a dull ache in the testis, which is often worse after exercise or at the end of the day. Standing examination can reveal the presence of Varicocele. Treatment is usually conservative, with surgery reserved for severe cases.
Hydrocoele can occur at any age and is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the tunica vaginalis. It presents as scrotal swelling, which can be palpated above. The surface of the hydrocoele is smooth and it can be transilluminated. The testis is contained within the swelling and cannot be felt separately. Primary or secondary causes can lead to hydrocoele, and in adults, an ultrasound is performed to rule out underlying pathology such as tumors. Conservative management is often sufficient unless the hydrocoele is large.
Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men aged 20-34 years. Awareness campaigns have emphasized the importance of self-examination for early detection. Risk factors include undescended testes, which increase the risk by 10-fold if bilateral. A previous history of testicular cancer carries a 4% risk of developing a second cancer. The usual presentation is a painless lump in the testis, which can also manifest as a secondary hydrocoele. Seminomas account for 60% of cases and are slow-growing, usually confined to the testis upon diagnosis. Stage 1 seminomas have a 98% 5-year survival rate. Teratomas, which can grow faster, make up 40% of cases and can occur within seminomas. Mixed type tumors are treated as teratomas due to their more aggressive nature. Surgical treatment, with or without chemotherapy and radiotherapy, is the primary approach.
Epididymo-orchitis is inflammation of the testis and epididymis caused by infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 84
Correct
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You assess a patient who has a confirmed diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. She has been living with the disease for several years and is currently in the advanced stages of the condition.
Which of the following clinical manifestations is typically observed only in the later stages of Parkinson's disease?Your Answer: Cognitive impairment
Explanation:Patients with Parkinson’s disease (PD) typically exhibit the following clinical features:
– Hypokinesia (reduced movement)
– Bradykinesia (slow movement)
– Rest tremor (usually occurring at a rate of 4-6 cycles per second)
– Rigidity (increased muscle tone and ‘cogwheel rigidity’)Other commonly observed clinical features include:
– Gait disturbance (characterized by a shuffling gait and loss of arm swing)
– Loss of facial expression
– Monotonous, slurred speech
– Micrographia (small, cramped handwriting)
– Increased salivation and dribbling
– Difficulty with fine movementsInitially, these signs are typically seen on one side of the body at the time of diagnosis, but they progressively worsen and may eventually affect both sides. In later stages of the disease, additional clinical features may become evident, including:
– Postural instability
– Cognitive impairment
– Orthostatic hypotensionAlthough PD primarily affects movement, patients often experience psychiatric issues such as depression and dementia. Autonomic disturbances and pain can also occur, leading to significant disability and reduced quality of life for the affected individual. Additionally, family members and caregivers may also be indirectly affected by the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 85
Correct
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You evaluate a 32-year-old man with a previous history of intravenous drug use. He acknowledges sharing needles in the past. Currently, he presents with symptoms resembling the flu and a skin rash. You suspect that he might be going through an HIV seroconversion illness.
Choose from the following options the test that can provide the most accurate diagnosis of HIV during this stage.Your Answer: p24 antigen test
Explanation:ELISA and other antibody tests are highly sensitive methods for detecting the presence of HIV. However, they cannot be used in the early stages of the disease. There is usually a window period of 6-12 weeks before antibodies are produced, and these tests will yield negative results during a seroconversion illness.
The p24 antigen, which is the viral protein that forms the majority of the HIV core, is present in high concentrations in the first few weeks after infection. Therefore, the p24 antigen test is a valuable tool for diagnosing very early infections, such as those occurring during a seroconversion illness.
During the early stages of HIV infection, CD4 and CD8 counts are typically within the normal range and cannot be used for diagnosis in such cases.
The ‘rapid HIV test’ is an antibody test for HIV. Consequently, it will also yield negative results during the early ‘window period’. This test is referred to as ‘rapid’ because it can detect antibodies in blood or saliva much faster than other antibody tests, with results often available within 20 minutes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman experiences a stroke. Her primary symptoms include weakness in her right limbs, difficulty with coordination in her right arm, and difficulty speaking.
Which of the following blood vessels is most likely to be impacted?Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery
Correct Answer: Anterior cerebral artery
Explanation:The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:
Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.
Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.
Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.
It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 87
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman comes in with a nosebleed that began after blowing her nose an hour ago. You assessed her when she arrived 30 minutes ago and recommended that she try to stop the bleeding by pinching the soft, cartilaginous part of her nose. She has been doing this since then, but her nose is still bleeding. During the examination, you can see bleeding points in both nostrils. What is the most suitable next step to take?
Your Answer: Pack the nose with nasal tampons, e.g. Rapid Rhinos
Explanation:When assessing a patient with epistaxis (nosebleed), it is important to start with a standard ABC assessment, focusing on the airway and hemodynamic status. Even if the bleeding appears to have stopped, it is crucial to evaluate the patient’s condition. If active bleeding is still present and there are signs of hemodynamic compromise, immediate resuscitative and first aid measures should be initiated.
Epistaxis should be treated as a circulatory emergency, especially in elderly patients, those with clotting disorders or bleeding tendencies, and individuals taking anticoagulants. In these cases, it is necessary to establish intravenous access using at least an 18-gauge (green) cannula. Blood samples, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, clotting profile, and group and save (depending on the amount of blood loss), should be sent for analysis. Patients should be assigned to a majors or closely observed area, as dislodgement of a blood clot can lead to severe bleeding.
First aid measures to control bleeding include the following steps:
1. The patient should be seated upright with their body tilted forward and their mouth open. Lying down should be avoided, unless the patient feels faint or there is evidence of hemodynamic compromise. Leaning forward helps reduce the flow of blood into the nasopharynx.
2. The patient should be encouraged to spit out any blood that enters the throat and advised not to swallow it.
3. Firmly pinch the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose, compressing the nostrils for 10-15 minutes. Pressure should not be released, and the patient should breathe through their mouth.
4. If the patient is unable to comply, an alternative technique is to ask a relative, staff member, or use an external pressure device like a swimmer’s nose clip.
5. It is important to dispel the misconception that compressing the bones will help stop the bleeding. Applying ice to the neck or forehead does not influence nasal blood flow. However, sucking on an ice cube or applying an ice pack directly to the nose may reduce nasal blood flow.If bleeding stops with first aid measures, it is recommended to apply a topical antiseptic preparation to reduce crusting and vestibulitis. Naseptin cream (containing chlorhexidine and neomycin) is commonly used and should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 88
Correct
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You are overseeing the care of a 25-year-old male who has sustained a stab wound to the chest. During your examination, you observe air bubbling from the wound, indicating a potential sucking chest wound. What is the primary intervention that should be prioritized in managing this injury?
Your Answer: Application of an occlusive dressing with one side left open
Explanation:Dressings that function as flutter valves are beneficial in the initial treatment of open pneumothorax. The first step involves applying an occlusive dressing that covers the wound, with one side intentionally left open to create a flutter-valve effect. Alternatively, a chest seal device can be used. The occlusive dressing should be square or rectangular in shape, with three sides securely sealed and one side left unsealed. When the patient inhales, the dressing is drawn against the chest wall, preventing air from entering the chest cavity. However, during exhalation, air can still escape through the open side of the dressing. Another option is to use a chest seal device that includes a built-in one-way (flutter) valve. Definitive management typically involves surgical intervention to repair the defect and address any other injuries. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) also recommends surgery as the definitive treatment, as inserting a chest drain may disrupt tissues that could otherwise be used to cover the defect with muscle flaps.
Further Reading:
An open pneumothorax, also known as a sucking chest wound, occurs when air enters the pleural space due to an open chest wound or physical defect. This can lead to ineffective ventilation, causing hypoxia and hypercarbia. Air can enter the pleural cavity passively or be sucked in during inspiration, leading to lung collapse on that side. Sucking wounds can be heard audibly as air passes through the chest defect, and entry wounds are usually visible.
To manage an open pneumothorax, respiratory compromise can be alleviated by covering the wound with a dressing or using a chest seal device. It is important to ensure that one side of the dressing is not occluded, allowing the dressing to function as a flutter valve and prevent significant air ingress during inspiration while allowing air to escape the pleural cavity. If tension pneumothorax is suspected after applying a dressing, the dressing may need to be temporarily removed for decompression.
Intubation and intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) can be used to ventilate the patient and alleviate respiratory distress. Definitive management involves either inserting a chest drain or surgically repairing the defect. Surgical repair is typically preferred, especially for large wounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 89
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman presents with a persistent cough and increasing difficulty breathing. She also complains of muscle aches and occasional joint pain, particularly in her knees and hips. She has a 40-pack-year smoking history. During the examination, you observe fine crackling sounds in the lower parts of her lungs when she exhales. Lung function testing reveals a decrease in the forced vital capacity (FVC) and the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), but a preserved FEV1/FVC ratio. A photo of her hands is provided below:
What is the SINGLE most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:This patient’s clinical presentation is consistent with a diagnosis of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. The typical symptoms of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis include a dry cough, progressive breathlessness, arthralgia and muscle pain, finger clubbing (seen in 50% of cases), cyanosis, fine end-expiratory bibasal crepitations, and right heart failure and cor pulmonale in later stages.
Finger clubbing, which is prominent in this patient, can also be caused by bronchiectasis and tuberculosis. However, these conditions would not result in a raised FEV1/FVC ratio, which is a characteristic feature of a restrictive lung disorder.
In restrictive lung disease, the FEV1/FVC ratio is typically normal, around 70% predicted, while the FVC is reduced to less than 80% predicted. Both the FVC and FEV1 are generally reduced in this condition. The ratio can also be elevated if the FVC is reduced to a greater extent.
It is important to note that smoking is a risk factor for developing idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, particularly in individuals with a history of smoking greater than 20 pack-years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 90
Correct
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You review a patient with a history of renal failure that has presented to the Emergency Department with problems relating to their renal replacement therapy. You note that they are currently receiving peritoneal dialysis.
In which of the following patient groups with end-stage renal failure should peritoneal dialysis be considered as the initial treatment option, instead of hemodialysis?Your Answer: Children aged two years old or younger
Explanation:All individuals diagnosed with stage 5 chronic kidney disease should be given the option to choose between haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis. Peritoneal dialysis should be prioritized as the preferred treatment for the following groups of patients: those who still have some remaining kidney function, adult patients without major additional health conditions, and children who are two years old or younger.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 91
Correct
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You review a 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation, who is currently on the clinical decision unit (CDU). His most recent blood results reveal significant renal impairment.
His current medications are as follows:
Digoxin 250 mcg once daily
Atenolol 50 mg once daily
Aspirin 75 mg once daily
What is the SINGLE most suitable medication adjustment to initiate for this patient?Your Answer: Reduce dose of digoxin
Explanation:Digoxin is eliminated through the kidneys, and if renal function is compromised, it can lead to elevated levels of digoxin and potential toxicity. To address this issue, it is necessary to decrease the patient’s digoxin dosage and closely monitor their digoxin levels and electrolyte levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 92
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman comes in with a gout flare-up after starting a new antihypertensive medication prescribed by her doctor. Which of the following antihypertensives is the LEAST likely to be the cause?
Your Answer: Losartan
Explanation:Thiazide diuretics, like bendroflumethiazide and hydrochlorothiazide, have the potential to raise levels of uric acid in the blood, which can worsen gout symptoms in individuals who are susceptible to the condition.
Other medications, such as diuretics, beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and non-losartan ARBs, are also linked to an increased risk of gout.
On the other hand, calcium-channel blockers like amlodipine and verapamil, as well as losartan, have been found to lower uric acid levels and are associated with a reduced risk of gout.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 93
Correct
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You are managing a 32-year-old type 1 diabetic patient who presented feeling generally unwell with a blood glucose of 27 mmol/l. The patient is currently being treated for diabetic ketoacidosis. The patient weighs 70kg and is currently receiving the following:
0.9% sodium chloride 1L with 40 mmol/l potassium chloride over 4 hours
3 units Actrapid® insulin / hour.
Monitoring bloods are taken and the results are shown below:
glucose 12.8 mmol/l
potassium 3.7 mmol/l
sodium 145 mmol/l
pH 7.2
What is the most appropriate action to take for this patient?Your Answer: Start 10% glucose infusion at a rate of 125 mL/hour in addition to existing treatment
Explanation:The healthcare provider should also assess the insulin infusion rate. It is important to note that the recommended minimum rate is 0.05 units per kilogram per hour. In this case, the patient weighs 60 kilograms and is currently receiving 3 units of Actrapid® insulin per hour, which is equivalent to 0.05 units per kilogram per hour. Therefore, the patient is already on the lowest possible dose. However, if the patient was on a higher dose of 0.1 units per kilogram per hour, it can be reduced once the glucose level falls below 14 mmol/l.
Further Reading:
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.
The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.
DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.
The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.
Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl from an Irish Traveller community presents with a history of a persistent cough that has been present for the past two weeks. The cough occurs in short bursts with an inhalation followed by a series of hacking coughs. She has never received any immunizations.
What is the MOST suitable test to perform?Your Answer: Serology for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels
Correct Answer: Culture of nasopharyngeal aspirate
Explanation:This presentation strongly suggests a diagnosis of whooping cough, which is an infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. The disease is highly contagious and is transmitted through respiratory droplets. The incubation period is typically 7-21 days, and it is estimated that about 90% of close household contacts will become infected.
The clinical course of whooping cough can be divided into two stages. The first stage, known as the catarrhal stage, is similar to a mild respiratory infection with symptoms such as low-grade fever and a runny nose. A cough may be present, but it is usually mild compared to the second stage. This phase typically lasts about a week.
The second stage, called the paroxysmal stage, is characterized by the development of a distinctive cough. The coughing occurs in spasms, often preceded by an inspiratory whoop sound. These spasms are followed by a series of rapid, hacking coughs. Patients may experience vomiting and may develop subconjunctival hemorrhages and petechiae. Between spasms, patients generally feel well and there are usually no abnormal chest findings. This stage can last up to 3 months, with a gradual recovery over this period. The later stages of this phase are sometimes referred to as the convalescent stage.
Complications of whooping cough can include secondary pneumonia, rib fractures, pneumothorax, hernias, syncopal episodes, encephalopathy, and seizures.
Public Health England (PHE) provides recommendations for testing for whooping cough based on the age of the patient, time since onset of illness, and severity of presentation. For infants under 12 months of age, hospitalised patients should undergo PCR testing, while non-hospitalised patients within two weeks of onset should be tested using culture of a nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate. Non-hospitalised patients presenting over two weeks after onset should be investigated with serology for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels.
For children over 12 months of age and adults, patients within two weeks of onset should be tested using culture of a nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate. Patients aged 5 to 16 who have not received the vaccine within the last year and present over two weeks after onset should have oral fluid testing for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 95
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a two-week history of increasing abdominal swelling and discomfort. Over the past few days, she has also been experiencing nausea. The patient has no regular medications and no significant medical history. Upon examination, abdominal distension with shifting dullness to percussion and a demonstrable fluid wave are noted. After discussing the findings with your consultant, it is suggested to perform paracentesis and calculate the serum ascites albumin gradient (SAAG).
The SAAG is calculated as 1.3 g/dL (13g/L). Which underlying cause is most consistent with this finding?Your Answer: Portal hypertension
Explanation:If the serum ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is greater than 1.1 g/dL (or >11 g/L), it means that the ascites is caused by portal hypertension. On the other hand, a low gradient SAAG (< 1.1 g/dL or <11 g/L) indicates that the ascites is not associated with increased portal pressure and may be caused by conditions such as tuberculosis, pancreatitis, infections, serositis, various types of peritoneal cancers (peritoneal carcinomatosis), and pulmonary infarcts. Further Reading: Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present. Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions. The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis. Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications. Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases. Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies. Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 96
Correct
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You are managing a 65 year old male who has presented to the emergency department with a 3 hour history of epistaxis. On examination there is significant bleeding from both nostrils and you are unable to identify a bleeding point. Your consultant asks if you are concerned about a posterior bleed.
Posterior epistaxis is most commonly associated with bleeding from which of the following?Your Answer: Sphenopalatine artery
Explanation:Posterior epistaxis, which is bleeding from the back of the nose, is typically caused by bleeding from the sphenopalatine artery or its branches. The most common surgical treatment for posterior epistaxis involves tying off the sphenopalatine artery. It is important to note that there is some disagreement in the literature regarding the exact location of the bleeding, with some sources referring to Woodruff’s plexus. However, cadaveric studies suggest that Woodruff’s plexus is more likely a venous anastomosis rather than an arterial one involving branches of the sphenopalatine artery.
Further Reading:
Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.
The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.
If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.
Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.
In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 97
Correct
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A 5 year old male is brought to the emergency department as his parents are worried about his intermittent headache and fever for 2 days and the recent appearance of a rash. Upon examining the rash (shown below), you diagnose the patient with chickenpox. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Discharge with self care advice
Explanation:Chickenpox in children is usually managed conservatively. In this case, the patient has chickenpox but does not show any signs of serious illness. The parents should be given advice on keeping the child out of school, ensuring they stay hydrated, and providing relief for their symptoms. It is important to provide appropriate safety measures in case the child’s condition worsens. Admission to the hospital is not recommended for uncomplicated chickenpox as it could spread the infection to other children, especially those who may have a weakened immune system. Aciclovir should not be used for uncomplicated chickenpox in children. VZIG is given as a preventive measure for infection, mainly for pregnant women without immunity, and is not a treatment for those already infected. There is no need to check both parents’ IgG levels unless the mother is pregnant and has no history of chickenpox or shingles, in which case testing may be appropriate.
Further Reading:
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella zoster virus (VZV) and is highly infectious. It is spread through droplets in the air, primarily through respiratory routes. It can also be caught from someone with shingles. The infectivity period lasts from 4 days before the rash appears until 5 days after the rash first appeared. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days.
Clinical features of chickenpox include mild symptoms that are self-limiting. However, older children and adults may experience more severe symptoms. The infection usually starts with a fever and is followed by an itchy rash that begins on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash starts as macular, then becomes papular, and finally vesicular. Systemic upset is usually mild.
Management of chickenpox is typically supportive. Measures such as keeping cool and trimming nails can help alleviate symptoms. Calamine lotion can be used to soothe the rash. People with chickenpox should avoid contact with others for at least 5 days from the onset of the rash until all blisters have crusted over. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV aciclovir should be considered. Aciclovir may be prescribed for immunocompetent, non-pregnant adults or adolescents with severe chickenpox or those at increased risk of complications. However, it is not recommended for otherwise healthy children with uncomplicated chickenpox.
Complications of chickenpox can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, and rare conditions such as arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.
Shingles is the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus that remains dormant in the nervous system after primary infection with chickenpox. It typically presents with signs of nerve irritation before the eruption of a rash within the dermatomal distribution of the affected nerve. Patients may feel unwell with malaise, myalgia, headache, and fever prior to the rash appearing. The rash appears as erythema with small vesicles that may keep forming for up to 7 days. It usually takes 2-3 weeks for the rash to resolve.
Management of shingles involves keeping the vesicles covered and dry to prevent secondary bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 98
Correct
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A 48-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and noticeable abdominal distension. Upon examination, you discover that the patient has a longstanding history of alcohol abuse. After conducting a thorough clinical assessment, you diagnose the patient with significant ascites, most likely caused by alcoholic liver disease. In terms of liver damage resulting from alcohol abuse, which of the following enzymes is primarily responsible for the oxidative metabolism of alcohol (ethanol) in the liver?
Your Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase
Explanation:The primary route of ethanol oxidation in the liver is through the alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) pathway. Additionally, the accessory pathways of cytochrome P450 2E1 (CYP2E1) and catalase also play a role in the oxidative metabolism of alcohol.
Further Reading:
Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a spectrum of disease that ranges from fatty liver at one end to alcoholic cirrhosis at the other. Fatty liver is generally benign and reversible with alcohol abstinence, while alcoholic cirrhosis is a more advanced and irreversible form of the disease. Alcoholic hepatitis, which involves inflammation of the liver, can lead to the development of fibrotic tissue and cirrhosis.
Several factors can increase the risk of progression of ALD, including female sex, genetics, advanced age, induction of liver enzymes by drugs, and co-existent viral hepatitis, especially hepatitis C.
The development of ALD is multifactorial and involves the metabolism of alcohol in the liver. Alcohol is metabolized to acetaldehyde and then acetate, which can result in the production of damaging reactive oxygen species. Genetic polymorphisms and co-existing hepatitis C infection can enhance the pathological effects of alcohol metabolism.
Patients with ALD may be asymptomatic or present with non-specific symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, vomiting, or anxiety. Those with alcoholic hepatitis may have fever, anorexia, and deranged liver function tests. Advanced liver disease can manifest with signs of portal hypertension and cirrhosis, such as ascites, varices, jaundice, and encephalopathy.
Screening tools such as the AUDIT questionnaire can be used to assess alcohol consumption and identify hazardous or harmful drinking patterns. Liver function tests, FBC, and imaging studies such as ultrasound or liver biopsy may be performed to evaluate liver damage.
Management of ALD involves providing advice on reducing alcohol intake, administering thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and addressing withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines. Complications of ALD, such as intoxication, encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, ascites, hypoglycemia, and coagulopathy, require specialized interventions.
Heavy alcohol use can also lead to thiamine deficiency and the development of Wernicke Korsakoff’s syndrome, characterized by confusion, ataxia, hypothermia, hypotension, nystagmus, and vomiting. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s psychosis.
In summary, alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of disease that can range from benign fatty liver to irreversible cirrhosis. Risk factors for progression include female sex, genetics, advanced age, drug-induced liver enzyme induction, and co-existing liver conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 99
Correct
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A 35-year-old weightlifter who acknowledges frequent use of anabolic steroids presents with extremely severe acne. He has numerous disfiguring, ulcerated, nodular lesions covering his face, back, and chest. Many of the lesions have bleeding crusts, and he has significant scarring present. Several have also connected and formed sinuses. He is also experiencing overall discomfort with joint pains and a sensation of fever. You measure his temperature, and it is currently 39°C.
What is the MOST LIKELY single diagnosis?Your Answer: Acne fulminans
Explanation:Acne conglobata is an extremely severe form of acne where acne nodules come together and create sinuses. Acne fulminans, on the other hand, is a rare and severe complication of acne conglobata that is accompanied by systemic symptoms. It is linked to elevated levels of androgenic hormones, specific autoimmune conditions, and a genetic predisposition.
The typical clinical characteristics of acne fulminans are as follows:
– Sudden and abrupt onset
– Inflammatory and ulcerated nodular acne primarily found on the chest and back
– Often painful lesions
– Ulcers on the upper trunk covered with bleeding crusts
– Severe acne scarring
– Fluctuating fever
– Painful joints and arthropathy
– General feeling of illness (malaise)
– Loss of appetite and weight loss
– Enlarged liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly)It is crucial to refer patients immediately for a specialist evaluation and hospital admission. Treatment options for acne fulminans include systemic corticosteroids, dapsone, ciclosporin, and high-dose intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A one-week-old infant presents with eyelid swelling and a mucopurulent discharge from both eyes shortly after birth. The diagnosis of ophthalmia neonatorum is made. What is the most probable causative organism in this case?
Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoea
Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Ophthalmia neonatorum refers to any cause of conjunctivitis during the newborn period, regardless of the specific organism responsible.
Conjunctivitis is the most frequent occurrence of Chlamydia trachomatis infection in newborns. Chlamydia is now the leading cause, accounting for up to 40% of cases. Neisseria gonorrhoea, on the other hand, only accounts for less than 1% of reported cases. The remaining cases are caused by non-sexually transmitted bacteria like Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Haemophilus species, and viruses.
Gonorrhoeal ophthalmia neonatorum typically presents within 1 to 5 days after birth. It is characterized by intense redness and swelling of the conjunctiva, eyelid swelling, and a severe discharge of pus. Corneal ulceration and perforation may also be present.
Chlamydial ophthalmia neonatorum, on the other hand, usually appears between 5 to 14 days after birth. It is characterized by a gradually increasing watery discharge that eventually becomes purulent. The inflammation in the eyes is usually less severe compared to gonococcal infection, and there is a lower risk of corneal ulceration and perforation.
The second most common manifestation of Chlamydia trachomatis infection in newborns is pneumonia. Approximately 5-30% of infected neonates will develop pneumonia. About half of these infants will also have a history of ophthalmia neonatorum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car crash and sustains severe facial injuries. Facial X-rays and CT scans show the presence of a Le Fort I fracture.
What is the most probable cause of this injury?Your Answer: A force through the lower maxilla
Correct Answer: A force directed in a downward direction against the upper teeth
Explanation:Le Fort fractures are intricate fractures of the midface, which involve the maxillary bone and the surrounding structures. These fractures can occur in a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. The distinguishing feature of Le Fort fractures is the separation of the pterygomaxillary due to trauma. They make up approximately 10% to 20% of all facial fractures and can have severe consequences, both in terms of potential life-threatening situations and disfigurement.
The causes of Le Fort fractures vary depending on the type of fracture. Common mechanisms include motor vehicle accidents, sports injuries, assaults, and falls from significant heights. Patients with Le Fort fractures often have concurrent head and cervical spine injuries. Additionally, they frequently experience other facial fractures, as well as neuromuscular injuries and dental avulsions.
The specific type of fracture sustained is determined by the direction of the force applied to the face. Le Fort type I fractures typically occur when a force is directed downward against the upper teeth. Le Fort type II fractures are usually the result of a force applied to the lower or mid maxilla. Lastly, Le Fort type III fractures are typically caused by a force applied to the nasal bridge and upper part of the maxilla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 102
Correct
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A patient has been diagnosed with septic arthritis in their left knee. The joint aspirate reveals the presence of Escherichia coli.
Which of the following patient populations is at the highest risk for developing septic arthritis caused by Escherichia coli?Your Answer: Intravenous drug users
Explanation:Septic arthritis occurs when an infectious agent invades a joint, causing it to become purulent. The main symptoms of septic arthritis include pain in the affected joint, redness, warmth, and swelling of the joint, and difficulty moving the joint. Patients may also experience fever and systemic upset. The most common cause of septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus, but other bacteria such as Streptococcus spp., Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria gonorrhoea, and Escherichia coli can also be responsible.
According to the current recommendations by NICE and the BNF, the initial treatment for septic arthritis is flucloxacillin. However, if a patient is allergic to penicillin, clindamycin can be used instead. If there is a suspicion of MRSA infection, vancomycin is the recommended choice. In cases where gonococcal arthritis or a Gram-negative infection is suspected, cefotaxime is the preferred treatment. The suggested duration of treatment is typically 4-6 weeks, although it may be longer if the infection is complicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 25 year old college student is brought into the ER after being discovered in a collapsed state with decreased consciousness in the early morning hours. You have concerns about the patient's airway and opt to insert an oropharyngeal airway. How would you determine the appropriate size for an oropharyngeal airway?
Your Answer: Distance between the patient's incisors and the tragus
Correct Answer: Distance between the patient's incisors and the angle of their mandible
Explanation:The size of an oropharyngeal airway (OPA or Guedel) can be determined by measuring the distance between the patient’s incisors and the angle of their mandible. To ensure proper fit, the OPA should be approximately the same length as this measurement. Please refer to the image in the notes for visual guidance.
Further Reading:
Techniques to keep the airway open:
1. Suction: Used to remove obstructing material such as blood, vomit, secretions, and food debris from the oral cavity.
2. Chin lift manoeuvres: Involves lifting the head off the floor and lifting the chin to extend the head in relation to the neck. Improves alignment of the pharyngeal, laryngeal, and oral axes.
3. Jaw thrust: Used in trauma patients with cervical spine injury concerns. Fingers are placed under the mandible and gently pushed upward.
Airway adjuncts:
1. Oropharyngeal airway (OPA): Prevents the tongue from occluding the airway. Sized according to the patient by measuring from the incisor teeth to the angle of the mandible. Inserted with the tip facing backwards and rotated 180 degrees once it touches the back of the palate or oropharynx.
2. Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA): Useful when it is difficult to open the mouth or in semi-conscious patients. Sized by length (distance between nostril and tragus of the ear) and diameter (roughly that of the patient’s little finger). Contraindicated in basal skull and midface fractures.
Laryngeal mask airway (LMA):
– Supraglottic airway device used as a first line or rescue airway.
– Easy to insert, sized according to patient’s bodyweight.
– Advantages: Easy insertion, effective ventilation, some protection from aspiration.
– Disadvantages: Risk of hypoventilation, greater gastric inflation than endotracheal tube (ETT), risk of aspiration and laryngospasm.Note: Proper training and assessment of the patient’s condition are essential for airway management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 104
Correct
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You assess a patient who came in with chest discomfort and difficulty breathing. They have been diagnosed with a spontaneous pneumothorax and their initial attempt at pleural aspiration was unsuccessful. The pneumothorax is still significant in size, and the patient continues to experience breathlessness. You get ready to insert a Seldinger chest drain into the 'safe triangle'.
What is the lower boundary of the 'safe triangle'?Your Answer: 5th intercostal space
Explanation:The British Thoracic Society (BTS) advises that chest drains should be inserted within the safe triangle to minimize the risk of harm to underlying structures and prevent damage to muscle and breast tissue, which can result in unsightly scarring. The safe triangle is defined by the base of the axilla, the lateral border of the latissimus dorsi, the lateral border of the pectoralis major, and the 5th intercostal space.
There are several potential complications associated with the insertion of small-bore chest drains. These include puncture of the intercostal artery, accidental perforation of organs due to over-introduction of the dilator into the chest cavity, hospital-acquired pleural infection caused by a non-aseptic technique, inadequate stay suture that may lead to the chest tube falling out, and tube blockage, which may occur more frequently compared to larger bore Argyle drains.
For more information on this topic, please refer to the British Thoracic Society pleural disease guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man receives a blood transfusion. Shortly after the transfusion is started, he experiences chills and shivering. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 116 beats per minute, blood pressure of 80/48, temperature of 40°C, and oxygen saturation of 97% on room air.
Which of the following transfusion reactions is most likely to have happened?Your Answer: Allergic reaction
Correct Answer: Bacterial contamination
Explanation:Transfusion transmitted bacterial infection is a rare complication that can occur during blood transfusion. It is more commonly associated with platelet transfusion, as platelets are stored at room temperature. Additionally, previously frozen components that are thawed using a water bath and red cell components stored for several weeks are also at a higher risk for bacterial infection.
Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria have been implicated in transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection, but Gram-negative bacteria are known to cause more severe illness and have higher rates of morbidity and mortality. Among the bacterial organisms, Yersinia enterocolitica is the most commonly associated with this type of infection. This particular organism is able to multiply at low temperatures and utilizes iron as a nutrient, making it well-suited for proliferation in blood stores.
The clinical features of transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection typically manifest shortly after the transfusion begins. These features include a high fever, chills and rigors, nausea and vomiting, tachycardia, hypotension, and even circulatory collapse.
If there is suspicion of a transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection, it is crucial to immediately stop the transfusion. Blood cultures and a Gram-stain should be requested to identify the specific bacteria causing the infection. Broad-spectrum antibiotics should be initiated promptly. Furthermore, the blood pack should be returned to the blood bank urgently for culture and Gram-stain analysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 106
Correct
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A 37 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath and chest pain in the center of her chest. Upon further questioning, the patient reveals that she experienced muscle pain, gastrointestinal issues, a mild fever, and fatigue for approximately three days about a week ago. She informs you that she is typically in good health and regularly runs 5-10km two to three times per week. The patient has no significant medical history, does not take any medications on a regular basis, has never smoked, and does not consume alcohol. Given the patient's symptoms, you suspect the possibility of myocarditis. Which of the following sets of blood test results would be expected in a patient with myocarditis?
Your Answer: creatine kinase: elevated, troponin I: elevated, BNP: elevated
Explanation:In cases of myocarditis, levels of cardiac muscle enzymes (CK-MB, Troponin I, and Troponin T) and B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) are usually elevated. It is important to note that CK-MB is a subtype of CK, so an increase in CK-MB will also result in an increase in total CK levels. This poses a challenge in differentiating myocarditis from coronary artery disease in the emergency department. Typically, a definitive diagnosis is not made until the patient undergoes additional tests such as angiography and possibly endomyocardial biopsy (EMB).
Further Reading:
Myocarditis is inflammation of the myocardium, the middle layer of the heart wall, that is not caused by a blockage in the coronary arteries. It can be caused by various factors, including infections (such as viruses, bacteria, parasites, and fungi), immune reactions, toxins, physical injury, and certain medications or vaccines. Coxsackie virus is the most common cause of myocarditis in Europe and the USA, while globally, Trypanosoma cruzi, which causes Chagas disease, is the most common cause.
The symptoms of myocarditis can vary widely and often resemble those of heart failure or coronary heart disease. Common symptoms include chest pain, palpitations, breathlessness, fatigue, and swelling. The clinical presentation can also be influenced by the underlying cause of the inflammation. Diagnosis of myocarditis is challenging as there is no specific clinical presentation, and the gold standard test, endomyocardial biopsy, is not readily available in emergency departments.
Various tests can be performed to aid in the diagnosis of myocarditis, including electrocardiogram (ECG), chest X-ray, cardiac enzymes (such as troponin or CK-MB), brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels, and echocardiogram. These tests may show non-specific abnormalities, such as ST-segment and T-wave abnormalities on ECG, bilateral pulmonary infiltrates on chest X-ray, elevated cardiac enzymes and BNP levels, and left ventricular motion abnormalities on echocardiogram.
Management of myocarditis is primarily supportive, focusing on treating cardiac failure and addressing the underlying cause. Supportive care and conventional heart failure therapy, such as ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers, vasodilators, beta-blockers, and diuretics, may be used to improve cardiac function and reduce symptoms. Treatment of the underlying cause, such as antiparasitic agents for Chagas disease or antibiotics for bacterial infections, may also be necessary. In severe cases leading to cardiogenic shock, more aggressive treatment with invasive monitoring, inotropes, vasopressors, and potentially heart transplantation may be required.
In summary, myocarditis is inflammation of the myocardium that can be caused by various factors. It presents with a wide range of symptoms and can be challenging to diagnose. Management involves supportive care, treatment of cardiac failure, and addressing the underlying cause. Severe cases may require more aggressive treatment and potentially heart transplantation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 107
Correct
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A 68 year old female visits the emergency department with complaints of lower abdominal pain and a strong urge to urinate but an inability to do so. Upon examination, the patient's bladder is easily palpable and a diagnosis of acute urinary retention is made. To determine if any medications may be contributing to the condition, you inquire about the patient's drug history. Which of the following drug classes is NOT known to cause urinary retention?
Your Answer: 5α-reductase inhibitors
Explanation:Urinary retention can be caused by various drug classes. One such class is 5α-reductase inhibitors like finasteride, which are prescribed to alleviate obstructive symptoms caused by an enlarged prostate. Some commonly known drugs that can lead to urinary retention include alcohol, anticholinergics, decongestants (such as phenylephrine and pseudoephedrine), disopyramide, antihistamines (like diphenhydramine and phenergan), and amphetamines.
Further Reading:
Urinary retention is the inability to completely or partially empty the bladder. It is commonly seen in elderly males with prostate enlargement and acute retention. Symptoms of acute urinary retention include the inability to void, inability to empty the bladder, overflow incontinence, and suprapubic discomfort. Chronic urinary retention, on the other hand, is typically painless but can lead to complications such as hydronephrosis and renal impairment.
There are various causes of urinary retention, including anatomical factors such as urethral stricture, bladder neck contracture, and prostate enlargement. Functional causes can include neurogenic bladder, neurological diseases like multiple sclerosis and Parkinson’s, and spinal cord injury. Certain drugs can also contribute to urinary retention, such as anticholinergics, opioids, and tricyclic antidepressants. In female patients, specific causes like organ prolapse, pelvic mass, and gravid uterus should be considered.
The pathophysiology of acute urinary retention can involve factors like increased resistance to flow, detrusor muscle dysfunction, bladder overdistension, and drugs that affect bladder tone. The primary management intervention for acute urinary retention is the insertion of a urinary catheter. If a catheter cannot be passed through the urethra, a suprapubic catheter can be inserted. Post-catheterization residual volume should be measured, and renal function should be assessed through U&Es and urine culture. Further evaluation and follow-up with a urologist are typically arranged, and additional tests like ultrasound may be performed if necessary. It is important to note that PSA testing is often deferred for at least two weeks after catheter insertion and female patients with retention should also be referred to urology for investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 108
Correct
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A 6-month-old infant develops jaundice and is found to have a diagnosis of haemolytic disease of infancy.
Which immunoglobulins mediate haemolytic disease of infancy?Your Answer: IgG
Explanation:Haemolytic disease of the newborn is a condition that occurs in the fetus when IgG antibodies from the mother pass through the placenta. This is classified as a type II hypersensitivity reaction, also known as cytotoxic hypersensitivity. In this type of reaction, antibodies produced by the immune response attach to antigens on the patient’s own cell surfaces.
The rhesus gene is composed of three parts, which can be C or c, D or d, and E or e. Approximately 15% of the population consists of rhesus negative women who are homozygous for d. When rhesus-positive fetal cells enter the bloodstream of a rhesus-negative mother, maternal anti-D IgG antibodies may be produced. This commonly occurs during delivery, but can also happen after fetal-maternal hemorrhage and certain medical procedures.
Some other examples of type II hypersensitivity reactions include autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ANCA-associated vasculitides, Goodpasture’s syndrome, myasthenia gravis, and rhesus incompatibility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 109
Correct
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A 45-year-old man comes in with sudden onset of severe lower back pain. Upon evaluation, you determine that prescribing ibuprofen and codeine phosphate would be appropriate. The patient has a history of depression and is currently taking fluoxetine. In which ONE situation would you consider adding a PPI to provide gastro-protection?
Your Answer: Co-prescription of fluoxetine
Explanation:According to the current recommendations by NICE, it is advised to consider gastro-protection for patients who meet more than one of the following criteria: using the highest recommended dose of an NSAID, being 65 years or older, having a history of peptic ulcer or gastrointestinal bleeding, taking medications that increase the risk, using low dose aspirin, anticoagulants, corticosteroids, or anti-depressants including SSRIs and SNRIs, requiring prolonged NSAID usage, having osteoarthritis or rheumatoid arthritis at any age, or experiencing long-term back pain if older than 45.
If gastro-protection is necessary, it is recommended to choose either omeprazole 20 mg daily or lansoprazole 15-30 mg daily as the preferred PPIs.
In the case of this patient, they are currently taking 400 mg of ibuprofen three times a day, which is within the maximum recommended dose of 2.4 g daily. Therefore, there is no need for gastro-protection based on the dosage of ibuprofen alone. Additionally, factors such as co-prescription of codeine, a raised BMI, and a family history of peptic ulceration would also not warrant the need for gastro-protection.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on prescribing issues with NSAIDs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 110
Correct
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A 40-year-old carpenter comes in with a few weeks of persistent lower back pain. Despite taking the maximum dose of ibuprofen, the pain continues to be significant. What would be the most suitable course of treatment? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer: Low-dose codeine phosphate
Explanation:The current guidelines from NICE provide recommendations for managing low back pain. It is suggested to consider using oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, while taking into account the potential risks of gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity, as well as the person’s individual risk factors and age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs, it is important to conduct appropriate clinical assessments, monitor risk factors regularly, and consider the use of gastroprotective treatment. It is advised to prescribe the lowest effective dose of oral NSAIDs for the shortest duration possible. In cases where NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated, or ineffective, weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) may be considered for managing acute low back pain. However, NICE does not recommend the use of paracetamol alone, opioids for chronic low back pain, serotonin reuptake inhibitors, serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants for non-neuropathic pain, anticonvulsants, or benzodiazepines for muscle spasm associated with acute low back pain. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on low back pain and sciatica in individuals over 16 years old, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on low back pain without radiculopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 111
Correct
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A 45-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents having ingested an excessive amount of his lithium medication. You measure his lithium level.
At what level are toxic effects typically observed?Your Answer: 1.5 mmol/l
Explanation:The therapeutic range for lithium typically falls between 0.4-0.8 mmol/l, although this range may differ depending on the laboratory. In general, the lower end of the range is the desired level for maintenance therapy and treatment in older individuals. Toxic effects are typically observed when levels exceed 1.5 mmol/l.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 112
Correct
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A 58 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of palpitations, swollen legs, and excessive sweating. Thyroid function tests are requested and reveal low TSH and elevated free T4 levels. Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Amiodarone, a medication used to treat heart rhythm problems, can have effects on the thyroid gland. It can either cause hypothyroidism (low thyroid hormone levels) or hyperthyroidism (high thyroid hormone levels). Amiodarone is a highly fat-soluble drug that accumulates in various tissues, including the thyroid. Even after stopping the medication, its effects can still be seen due to its long elimination half-life of around 100 days.
The reason behind amiodarone impact on the thyroid is believed to be its high iodine content. In patients with sufficient iodine levels, amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism is more likely to occur. On the other hand, in populations with low iodine levels, amiodarone can lead to a condition called iodine-induced thyrotoxicosis, which is characterized by hyperthyroidism.
The mechanism of amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism involves the release of iodide from the drug, which blocks the uptake of further iodide by the thyroid gland and hampers the production of thyroid hormones. Additionally, amiodarone inhibits the conversion of the inactive thyroid hormone T4 to the active form T3.
Amiodarone-induced hyperthyroidism, on the other hand, is thought to occur in individuals with abnormal thyroid glands, such as those with nodular goiters, autonomous nodules, or latent Graves’ disease. In these cases, the excess iodine from amiodarone overwhelms the thyroid’s normal regulatory mechanisms, leading to hyperthyroidism.
Further Reading:
The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.
The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.
Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.
Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma. hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old right-handed woman experiences a stroke. During examination, it is observed that she has weakness in her left arm and neglect on the left side of her body. Which blood vessel is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Anterior cerebral artery
Correct Answer: Middle cerebral artery
Explanation:The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:
Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.
Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.
Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.
It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 114
Correct
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You are participating in an expedition medicine training program organized by your emergency department. The training session is centered around identifying and treating altitude illnesses. When it comes to acute mountain sickness (AMS), which of the following instruments is recommended for evaluating the severity of AMS?
Your Answer: Lake Louise score
Explanation:The Lake Louise score is widely accepted as the standard method for evaluating the seriousness of Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS). The scoring system, outlined below, is used to determine the severity of AMS. A score of 3 or higher is indicative of AMS.
Further Reading:
High Altitude Illnesses
Altitude & Hypoxia:
– As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases and inspired oxygen pressure falls.
– Hypoxia occurs at altitude due to decreased inspired oxygen.
– At 5500m, inspired oxygen is approximately half that at sea level, and at 8900m, it is less than a third.Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS):
– AMS is a clinical syndrome caused by hypoxia at altitude.
– Symptoms include headache, anorexia, sleep disturbance, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, malaise, and shortness of breath.
– Symptoms usually occur after 6-12 hours above 2500m.
– Risk factors for AMS include previous AMS, fast ascent, sleeping at altitude, and age <50 years old.
– The Lake Louise AMS score is used to assess the severity of AMS.
– Treatment involves stopping ascent, maintaining hydration, and using medication for symptom relief.
– Medications for moderate to severe symptoms include dexamethasone and acetazolamide.
– Gradual ascent, hydration, and avoiding alcohol can help prevent AMS.High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE):
– HAPE is a progression of AMS but can occur without AMS symptoms.
– It is the leading cause of death related to altitude illness.
– Risk factors for HAPE include rate of ascent, intensity of exercise, absolute altitude, and individual susceptibility.
– Symptoms include dyspnea, cough, chest tightness, poor exercise tolerance, cyanosis, low oxygen saturations, tachycardia, tachypnea, crepitations, and orthopnea.
– Management involves immediate descent, supplemental oxygen, keeping warm, and medication such as nifedipine.High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE):
– HACE is thought to result from vasogenic edema and increased vascular pressure.
– It occurs 2-4 days after ascent and is associated with moderate to severe AMS symptoms.
– Symptoms include headache, hallucinations, disorientation, confusion, ataxia, drowsiness, seizures, and manifestations of raised intracranial pressure.
– Immediate descent is crucial for management, and portable hyperbaric therapy may be used if descent is not possible.
– Medication for treatment includes dexamethasone and supplemental oxygen. Acetazolamide is typically used for prophylaxis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 115
Correct
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You assess a patient who is currently undergoing systemic anticancer treatment. She presents with a high fever, and you have concerns about the potential occurrence of neutropenic sepsis.
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding neutropenic sepsis?Your Answer: Specialist management in an acute hospital setting involves implementing the standard UK Sepsis Trust 'Sepsis Six' bundle
Explanation:Neutropenic sepsis is a serious complication that can occur in individuals with low neutrophil counts, known as neutropenia. There are several potential causes of neutropenia, including certain medications like chemotherapy and immunosuppressive drugs, stem cell transplantation, infections, bone marrow disorders, and nutritional deficiencies. In adults, mortality rates as high as 20% have been reported.
To diagnose neutropenic sepsis, doctors look for a neutrophil count of 0.5 x 109 per litre or lower in patients undergoing cancer treatment. Additionally, patients must have either a temperature higher than 38°C or other signs and symptoms consistent with significant sepsis. Cancer treatments can suppress the bone marrow ability to respond to infections, making neutropenic sepsis more likely. This is most commonly seen with systemic chemotherapy but can also occur after radiotherapy.
According to the current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), adult patients with acute leukemia, stem cell transplants, or solid tumors who are expected to experience significant neutropenia due to chemotherapy should be offered prophylaxis with a fluoroquinolone antibiotic, such as ciprofloxacin. This should be taken during the expected period of neutropenia.
When managing neutropenic sepsis, it is important to promptly implement the UK Sepsis Trust Sepsis Six bundle within the first hour of recognizing sepsis. This involves specialist assessment and management in an acute hospital setting.
The NICE guidelines recommend using piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) as the initial empiric antibiotic therapy for patients suspected of having neutropenic sepsis. It is advised not to use an aminoglycoside, either alone or in combination therapy, unless there are specific patient-related or local microbiological indications.
Reference:
NICE guidance: ‘Neutropenic sepsis: prevention and management of neutropenic sepsis in cancer patients’ -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncological Emergencies
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Question 116
Correct
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You review a child with a history of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) who is currently experiencing hyperactive symptoms. During the evaluation, you observe that he is constantly repeating words. The repetitions do not appear to have any meaningful connection, but the words have similar sounds.
Which ONE of the following symptoms is he displaying?Your Answer: Clang association
Explanation:Clang associations refer to the grouping of words, typically rhyming words, that share similar sounds but lack any logical connection. These associations are commonly observed in individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia and bipolar disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 117
Correct
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You review a child with hypocalcaemia with your consultant. She performs an examination and taps along the course of the facial nerve as part of this. This causes contraction of the muscles of the eye, mouth, and nose on the same side.
Which SINGLE sign has the consultant demonstrated?Your Answer: Chvostek’s sign
Explanation:Chvostek’s sign is an indication of latent tetany and is observed in individuals with hypocalcaemia. When the angle of the jaw is tapped, the facial muscles on the same side of the face will momentarily contract.
Trousseau’s sign is another indication of latent tetany seen in hypocalcaemia. To test for this sign, a blood pressure cuff is placed around the subject’s arm and inflated to 20 mmHg above systolic blood pressure. This occludes arterial blood flow to the hand for a period of 3 to 5 minutes. In the presence of hypocalcaemia, carpopedal spasm will occur, characterized by flexion at the wrist and MCP joints, extension of the IP joints, and adduction of the thumb and fingers.
Blumberg’s sign is a diagnostic tool for peritonitis. It is considered positive when rebound tenderness is felt in the abdominal wall upon slow compression and rapid release.
Froment’s sign is a test used to assess ulnar nerve palsy, specifically evaluating the action of the adductor pollicis muscle. The patient is instructed to hold a piece of paper between their thumb and index finger. The examiner then attempts to pull the paper from between the thumb and index finger. A patient with ulnar nerve palsy will struggle to maintain a grip and may compensate by flexing the flexor pollicis longus muscle to sustain the pinching effect.
Gower’s sign is observed in children with Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy. When attempting to stand up from the ground, these children will start with both hands and feet on the floor and gradually use their hands to work up their legs until they achieve an upright posture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 118
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman comes in with central chest pain that is spreading to her left arm for the past 30 minutes. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 80 beats per minute, blood pressure of 118/72, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. The ECG shows the following findings:
ST depression in leads V1-V4 and aVR
ST elevation in V5-V6, II, III, and aVF
Positive R wave in V1 and V2
What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Acute inferoposterior myocardial infarction
Explanation:The ECG shows the following findings:
– There is ST depression in leads V1-V4 and aVR.
– There is ST elevation in leads V5-V6, II, III, and aVF.
– There is a positive R wave in leads V1 and V2, which indicates a reverse Q wave.
These ECG changes indicate that there is an acute inferoposterior myocardial infarction. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 119
Correct
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A 35 year old homeless patient presents with blistered and discolored feet after spending multiple days on the streets during freezing temperatures. Frostbite is diagnosed, and the plan is to initiate Rewarming of the affected area. Which of the following statements about frostbite is accurate?
Your Answer: Reperfusion is usually very painful
Explanation:Reperfusion after a frostbite injury can be extremely painful, so it is important to provide strong pain relief. If there are clear blisters, they should be opened and aloe vera should be applied every 6 hours. However, if there are blisters with blood, they should not be opened, but aloe vera can still be used topically. Taking 400 mg of ibuprofen orally, if there are no contraindications, can help reduce inflammation and improve the outcome of frostbite. Technetium-99m pertechnetate scintigraphy is the preferred method for assessing blood flow in the affected area. To treat frostbite, it is recommended to re-warm the affected areas by immersing them in warm water.
Further Reading:
Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.
In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.
Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.
Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old office worker comes in with a few weeks of persistent lower back pain. The pain is severe and has greatly affected their ability to move. You discuss the available treatment options.
Which of the following medication treatments is NOT recommended according to the current NICE guidelines? Choose ONE option.Your Answer: Opioids for acute back pain
Correct Answer: Paracetamol alone
Explanation:The current guidelines from NICE provide recommendations for managing low back pain. It is suggested to consider using oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, while taking into account the potential risks of gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity, as well as the person’s individual risk factors and age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs, it is important to conduct appropriate clinical assessments, monitor risk factors regularly, and consider the use of gastroprotective treatment. It is advised to prescribe the lowest effective dose of oral NSAIDs for the shortest duration possible. In cases where NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated, or ineffective, weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) may be considered for managing acute low back pain. However, NICE does not recommend the use of paracetamol alone, opioids for chronic low back pain, serotonin reuptake inhibitors, serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants for non-neuropathic pain, anticonvulsants, or benzodiazepines for muscle spasm associated with acute low back pain. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on low back pain and sciatica in individuals over 16 years old, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on low back pain without radiculopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 121
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy presents with a sore throat and a dry cough that has been present for five days. He has no medical history of note, takes no medication and reports no known drug allergies. On examination, he is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C and has a few tender anterior cervical lymph nodes. His throat and tonsils appear red and inflamed, and you can see copious exudate on his right tonsil.
Using the FeverPAIN Score to assess his sore throat, which of the following would be the MOST APPROPRIATE management for him at this stage?Your Answer: She should be offered a 'back-up prescription' for penicillin V
Explanation:The FeverPAIN score is a scoring system recommended by the current NICE guidelines for assessing acute sore throats. It consists of five items: fever in the last 24 hours, purulence, attendance within three days, inflamed tonsils, and no cough or coryza. Based on the score, recommendations for antibiotic use are as follows: a score of 0-1 indicates an unlikely streptococcal infection, with antibiotics not recommended; a score of 2-3 suggests a 34-40% chance of streptococcus, and delayed prescribing of antibiotics may be considered; a score of 4 or higher indicates a 62-65% chance of streptococcus, and immediate antibiotic use is recommended for severe cases, or a short back-up prescription may be given for 48 hours.
The Fever PAIN score was developed through a study involving 1760 adults and children aged three and over. It was tested in a trial comparing three prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, score-directed prescribing, and a combination of the score with a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. The use of the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and reduced antibiotic prescribing by one third. The addition of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.
According to the current NICE guidelines, if antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin is recommended as the first-choice antibiotic. In cases of true penicillin allergy, clarithromycin can be used as an alternative. For pregnant women with a penicillin allergy, erythromycin is prescribed. It is important to note that the threshold for prescribing antibiotics should be lower for individuals at risk of rheumatic fever and vulnerable groups managed in primary care, such as infants, the elderly, and those who are immunosuppressed or immunocompromised. Antibiotics should not be withheld if the person has severe symptoms and there are concerns about their clinical condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child weighing 20 kg shows clinical signs of shock and is 10% dehydrated due to gastroenteritis. An initial fluid bolus of 20 ml/kg is given. How much fluid should be given in the next 24 hours?
Your Answer: 1600 ml
Correct Answer: 3100 ml
Explanation:To determine the amount of fluid that should be given to the 5-year-old child over the next 24 hours, we need to account for the following components of fluid therapy:
- Deficit Replacement: The fluid lost due to dehydration.
- Maintenance Fluid: The fluid needed for normal physiological needs.
- Ongoing Losses: Any additional fluid loss (e.g., continued diarrhea or vomiting), which may need to be estimated and added if applicable.
Calculation Steps
1. Calculate the Fluid Deficit
The child is 10% dehydrated. This means that the child has lost 10% of their body weight in fluids.
- Body Weight: 20 kg
- Percentage Dehydration: 10%
Fluid Deficit=Body Weight×Percentage Dehydration
Fluid Deficit=20 kg×0.10=2 kg=2 liters=2000 ml
2. Calculate the Maintenance Fluid Requirement
Use the standard maintenance fluid calculation for children (the Holliday-Segar method):
- First 10 kg: 100 ml/kg/day
- Next 10 kg: 50 ml/kg/day
For a 20 kg child:
- First 10 kg: 10 kg×100 ml/kg/day=1000 ml/day
- Next 10 kg: 10 kg×50 ml/kg/day=500 ml/day
Total maintenance fluid requirement:
Maintenance Fluid=1000 ml+500 ml=1500 ml/day
3. Subtract the Initial Fluid Bolus
An initial fluid bolus of 20 ml/kg was given to treat shock:
- Fluid Bolus Given: 20 ml/kg×20 kg=400 ml
This amount should be subtracted from the deficit to avoid overhydration:
Remaining Deficit=2000 ml−400 ml=1600 ml
4. Total Fluid Requirement for 24 Hours
The total fluid requirement for the next 24 hours is the sum of the remaining deficit and the maintenance fluid:
Total Fluid for 24 hours=Remaining Deficit+Maintenance Fluid
Total Fluid for 24 hours=1600 ml+1500 ml=3100 ml
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 67 year old female attends the emergency department complaining of palpitations. The patient reports experiencing brief episodes of palpitations over the past few weeks, but they usually resolve themselves after 5-10 minutes. However, today's episode has been ongoing for 30 minutes. The patient denies any chest pain or shortness of breath. She is currently taking aspirin 75mg once daily as her only medication. Blood tests are conducted, and the results are as follows:
Hemoglobin (Hb): 115 g/l
Platelets: 155 * 109/l
White blood cells (WBC): 6.4 * 109/l
Sodium: 138 mmol/l
Potassium: 3.8 mmol/l
Urea: 4.1 mmol/l
Creatinine: 74 µmol/l
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR): 68 mL/min/1.73m2
An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed, revealing atrial fibrillation. You decide to assess the patient's bleeding risk using the ORBIT tool. What is this patient's ORBIT score?Your Answer: 2
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia, affecting around 5% of patients over the age of 70-75 years and 10% of patients aged 80-85 years. While AF can cause palpitations and inefficient cardiac function, the most important aspect of managing patients with AF is reducing the increased risk of stroke.
AF can be classified as first detected episode, paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. First detected episode refers to the initial occurrence of AF, regardless of symptoms or duration. Paroxysmal AF occurs when a patient has 2 or more self-terminating episodes lasting less than 7 days. Persistent AF refers to episodes lasting more than 7 days that do not self-terminate. Permanent AF is continuous atrial fibrillation that cannot be cardioverted or if attempts to do so are deemed inappropriate. The treatment goals for permanent AF are rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.
Symptoms of AF include palpitations, dyspnea, and chest pain. The most common sign is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is essential for diagnosing AF, as other conditions can also cause an irregular pulse.
Managing patients with AF involves two key parts: rate/rhythm control and reducing stroke risk. Rate control involves slowing down the irregular pulse to avoid negative effects on cardiac function. This is typically achieved using beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. If one drug is not effective, combination therapy may be used. Rhythm control aims to restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm through pharmacological or electrical cardioversion. However, the majority of patients are managed with a rate control strategy.
Reducing stroke risk in patients with AF is crucial. Risk stratifying tools, such as the CHA2DS2-VASc score, are used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy. Anticoagulation is recommended for patients with a score of 2 or more. Clinicians can choose between warfarin and novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) for anticoagulation.
Before starting anticoagulation, the patient’s bleeding risk should be assessed using tools like the HAS-BLED score or the ORBIT tool. These tools evaluate factors such as hypertension, abnormal renal or liver function, history of bleeding, age, and use of drugs that predispose to bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 124
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG is performed, which shows ST elevation in the anterolateral leads. She was given aspirin and morphine upon arrival. Her observations are as follows: SaO2 99% on air, HR 89 bpm, and BP 149/87 mmHg. Upon discussion with the cardiology team, a decision is made to perform an urgent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
Which of the following medications could you also consider administering to this patient?Your Answer: Bivalirudin
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of an acute myocardial infarction. It is important to provide pain relief as soon as possible. One option for pain relief is GTN, which can be taken sublingually or buccally. However, if there is suspicion of an acute myocardial infarction, it is recommended to offer intravenous opioids such as morphine.
Aspirin should be offered to all patients with unstable angina or NSTEMI as soon as possible and should be continued indefinitely, unless there are contraindications such as a bleeding risk or aspirin hypersensitivity. A loading dose of 300 mg should be administered promptly after presentation.
For patients without a high bleeding risk who do not have coronary angiography planned within 24 hours of admission, fondaparinux should be administered. However, for patients who are likely to undergo coronary angiography within 24 hours, unfractionated heparin can be offered as an alternative to fondaparinux. In cases of significant renal impairment (creatinine above 265 micromoles per litre), unfractionated heparin with dose adjustment guided by clotting function monitoring can also be considered as an alternative to fondaparinux.
Routine administration of oxygen is no longer recommended, but it is important to monitor oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry as soon as possible, preferably before hospital admission. Supplemental oxygen should only be offered to individuals with an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of less than 94% who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, with a target SpO2 range of 94-98%. For individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who are at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, a target SpO2 range of 88-92% should be aimed for until blood gas analysis is available.
Bivalirudin, a specific and reversible direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI), is recommended by NICE as a possible treatment for adults with STEMI who are undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.
For more information, please refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and diagnosis of chest pain of recent onset.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 125
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl presents with a sudden onset of a painful throat that has been bothering her for the past day. She has no history of a cough and no symptoms of a cold. During the examination, her temperature is measured at 38.5°C, and there is clear evidence of pus on her right tonsil, which also appears to be swollen and red. No swollen lymph nodes are felt in the front of her neck.
Based on the FeverPAIN Score used to evaluate her sore throat, what is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Treat immediately with empiric antibiotics
Explanation:Two scoring systems are suggested by NICE to aid in the evaluation of sore throat: The Centor Clinical Prediction Score and The FeverPAIN Score.
The FeverPAIN score was developed from a study involving 1760 adults and children aged three and above. The score was tested in a trial that compared three prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, using the score to guide prescribing, or a combination of the score with the use of a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. Utilizing the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and a reduction in the prescription of antibiotics (both reduced by one third). The inclusion of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.
The score comprises of five factors, each of which is assigned one point: Fever (Temp >38°C) in the last 24 hours, Purulence, Attended rapidly in under three days, Inflamed tonsils, and No cough or coryza.
Based on the score, the recommendations are as follows:
– Score 0-1 = 13-18% likelihood of streptococcus infection, antibiotics are not recommended.
– Score 2-3 = 34-40% likelihood of streptococcus infection, consider delayed prescribing of antibiotics (3-5 day ‘backup prescription’).
– Score 4-5 = 62-65% likelihood of streptococcus infection, use immediate antibiotics if severe, or a 48-hour short ‘backup prescription.’ -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 126
Correct
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A 62 year old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of abrupt tearing chest pain that extends to the throat and back. The possibility of aortic dissection is being considered. What is the primary location for dissection?
Your Answer: Ascending aorta
Explanation:The primary location for aortic dissection, which is being considered in this case, is the ascending aorta.
Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.
The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.
Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.
Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 127
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman has been involved in a physical altercation outside a bar. She has been hit multiple times in the face and has a noticeable swelling on her right cheek. Her facial X-ray shows a zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture but no other injuries.
Which of the following will NOT be visible on her X-ray?Your Answer: Fracture of the superior orbital rim
Explanation:Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures, also known as quadramalar or tripod fractures, make up around 40% of all midface fractures and are the second most common facial bone fractures after nasal bone fractures.
These injuries typically occur when a direct blow is delivered to the malar eminence of the cheek. They consist of four components:
1. Widening of the zygomaticofrontal suture
2. Fracture of the zygomatic arch
3. Fracture of the inferior orbital rim and the walls of the anterior and posterior maxillary sinuses
4. Fracture of the lateral orbital rim. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 128
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) presents with a condition associated with IBD.
Which of the following conditions is NOT linked to Crohn's disease?Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that affects the bile ducts, causing inflammation and blockage over time. This leads to recurrent episodes of cholangitis and progressive scarring of the bile ducts. Ultimately, PSC can result in liver cirrhosis, liver failure, and even hepatocellular carcinoma. It is commonly associated with ulcerative colitis, with more than 80% of PSC patients also having ulcerative colitis. However, there is no association between PSC and Crohn’s disease.
On the other hand, Crohn’s disease has its own set of recognized associations. For instance, there is an increased incidence of Crohn’s disease among smokers, with approximately 50-60% of Crohn’s patients being smokers. Other associations include the presence of aphthous ulcers, uveitis and episcleritis (eye inflammation), seronegative spondyloarthropathies (inflammatory joint diseases), erythema nodosum (painful skin nodules), pyoderma gangrenosum (skin ulceration), finger clubbing, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, cholelithiasis (gallstones), and osteoporosis.
It is important to note the distinct associations and characteristics of these two conditions, as they have different implications for diagnosis, treatment, and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 129
Correct
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A 62 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned family members. They inform you that the patient is a heavy drinker but appeared very confused and disoriented, which is unusual for him. The patient scores 4/10 on the abbreviated mental test score (AMTS). Upon examination, you observe that the patient has yellowing of the eyes, shifting dullness on abdominal palpation, dilated abdominal veins, and asterixis. The patient's vital signs and initial blood tests are as follows:
Blood pressure: 122/80 mmHg
Pulse: 92 bpm
Respiration rate: 18 bpm
Temperature: 37.7ºC
Bilirubin: 68 µmol/l
ALP: 198 u/l
ALT: 274 u/l
Albumin: 26 g/l
INR: 1.7
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hepatic encephalopathy
Explanation:Hepatic encephalopathy occurs when a person with liver disease experiences an episode where their brain function is affected. This happens because the liver is unable to properly process waste products, leading to an accumulation of nitrogenous waste in the body. These waste products then cross into the brain, where they cause changes in the brain’s osmotic pressure and disrupt neurotransmitter function. As a result, individuals may experience altered consciousness, behavior, and personality. Symptoms can range from confusion and forgetfulness to coma, and signs such as slurred speech and increased muscle tone may also be present. Hepatic encephalopathy is often triggered by factors like gastrointestinal bleeding, infections, or certain medications.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.
Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 130
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman has been involved in a car accident. She needs a blood transfusion as part of her treatment and experiences a transfusion reaction.
What is the most frequent type of transfusion reaction?Your Answer: Febrile transfusion reaction
Explanation:Febrile transfusion reactions, also known as non-haemolytic transfusion reactions, occur when there is an unexpected increase in body temperature (≥ 38ºC or ≥ 1ºC above the baseline, if the baseline is ≥ 37ºC) during or shortly after a blood transfusion. This temperature rise is usually the only symptom, although sometimes it may be accompanied by chills.
Febrile transfusion reactions are the most common type of transfusion reaction, happening in approximately 1 out of every 8 transfusions.
The main cause of febrile transfusion reactions is believed to be the accumulation of cytokines during the storage of blood components, particularly in platelet units. Cytokines are substances released by white blood cells, and the risk of symptoms can be reduced by removing these cells before storage.
In addition to cytokine accumulation, febrile transfusion reactions can also be triggered by recipient antibodies that have been produced as a result of previous transfusions or pregnancies. These antibodies react to specific antigens, such as human leukocyte antigen (HLA), found on the donor’s lymphocytes, granulocytes, or platelets.
Treatment for febrile transfusion reactions is mainly supportive. Other potential causes of fever should be ruled out, and antipyretic medications like paracetamol can be used to reduce the fever. If another cause is suspected, the transfusion should be temporarily stopped, but it can be resumed at a slower rate once other potential causes of fever have been ruled out.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 131
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided with a tree at a high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel of her car. She has bruising over her anterior chest wall and is experiencing chest pain. A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest reveals a traumatic aortic injury.
Where is her injury most likely to have occurred anatomically?Your Answer: Proximal descending aorta
Explanation:Traumatic aortic rupture, also known as traumatic aortic disruption or transection, occurs when the aorta is torn or ruptured due to physical trauma. This condition often leads to sudden death because of severe bleeding. Motor vehicle accidents and falls from great heights are the most common causes of this injury.
The patients with the highest chances of survival are those who have an incomplete tear near the ligamentum arteriosum of the proximal descending aorta, close to where the left subclavian artery branches off. The presence of an intact adventitial layer or contained mediastinal hematoma helps maintain continuity and prevents immediate bleeding and death. If promptly identified and treated, survivors of these injuries can recover. In cases where traumatic aortic rupture leads to sudden death, approximately 50% of patients have damage at the aortic isthmus, while around 15% have damage in either the ascending aorta or the aortic arch.
Initial chest X-rays may show signs consistent with a traumatic aortic injury. However, false-positive and false-negative results can occur, and sometimes there may be no abnormalities visible on the X-ray. Some of the possible X-ray findings include a widened mediastinum, hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus or NG tube to the right.
A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest is the preferred initial investigation for suspected blunt aortic injury. It has proven to be highly accurate, with close to 100% sensitivity and specificity. CT scanning should be performed liberally, as chest X-ray findings can be unreliable. However, hemodynamically unstable patients should not be placed in a CT scanner. If the CT results are inconclusive, aortography or trans-oesophageal echo can be performed for further evaluation.
Immediate surgical intervention is necessary for these injuries. Endovascular repair is the most common method used and has excellent short-term outcomes. Open repair may also be performed depending on the circumstances. It is important to control heart rate and blood pressure during stabilization to reduce the risk of rupture. Pain should be managed with appropriate analgesic
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 132
Correct
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You evaluate a 65-year-old woman with a diagnosis of breast cancer. She presents with right arm swelling, redness, and pain. You order an ultrasound scan of her arm, which reveals a significant proximal deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She has no prior history of venous thromboembolism and has no significant medical history.
What is the MOST suitable anticoagulant option for this patient?Your Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant
Explanation:Patients with active cancer and a confirmed deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) should be considered for treatment with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban. If a DOAC is not suitable for the patient, alternative options should be offered. One option is the use of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) alone. Another option is the combination of LMWH and a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) like warfarin, which should be given for at least 5 days or until the international normalized ratio (INR) reaches at least 2.0 on 2 consecutive readings. After achieving the desired INR, the patient can continue with a VKA alone. It is important to note that anticoagulation treatment should be offered for a period of 3-6 months. to the NICE guidance on the diagnosis and management of venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 133
Correct
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A 65-year-old diabetic man presents with a gradual decrease in consciousness and confusion over the past week. His diabetes is typically controlled with metformin 500 mg twice daily. He recently received treatment for a urinary tract infection from his primary care physician, and his family reports that he has been experiencing excessive thirst. He has vomited multiple times today. A urine dipstick test shows a small amount of white blood cells and 1+ ketones. The results of his arterial blood gas analysis are as follows:
pH: 7.29
pO2: 11.1 kPa
pCO2: 4.6 kPa
HCO3-: 22 mmol/l
Na+: 154 mmol/l
K+: 3.2 mmol/l
Cl-: 100 mmol/l
Urea: 17.6 mmol/l
Glucose: 32 mmol/l
Which SINGLE statement is true regarding this case?Your Answer: Anticoagulation should be given
Explanation:In an elderly patient with a history of gradual decline accompanied by high blood sugar levels, excessive thirst, and recent infection, the most likely diagnosis is hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). This condition can be life-threatening, with a mortality rate of approximately 50%. Common symptoms include dehydration, elevated blood sugar levels, altered mental status, and electrolyte imbalances. About half of the patients with HHS also experience hypernatremia.
To calculate the serum osmolality, the formula is 2(K+ + Na+) + urea + glucose. In this case, the serum osmolality is 364 mmol/l, indicating a high level. It is important to discontinue the use of metformin in this patient due to the risk of metformin-associated lactic acidosis (MALA). Additionally, an intravenous infusion of insulin should be initiated.
The treatment goals for HHS are to address the underlying cause and gradually and safely:
– Normalize the osmolality
– Replace fluid and electrolyte losses
– Normalize blood glucose levelsIf significant ketonaemia is present (3β-hydroxybutyrate is more than 1 mmol/L), it indicates a relative lack of insulin, and insulin should be administered immediately. However, if significant ketonaemia is not present, insulin should not be started.
Patients with HHS are at a high risk of thromboembolism, and it is recommended to routinely administer low molecular weight heparin. In cases where the serum osmolality exceeds 350 mmol/l, full heparinization should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 7 year old girl is brought into the emergency department with a 24 hour history of vomiting and becoming increasingly tired. A capillary blood glucose is taken and the result is shown as 25 mmol/l. You suspect diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following is included in the diagnostic criteria for DKA?
Your Answer: Blood pH <7.3 or bicarbonate <15 mmol/L
Correct Answer:
Explanation:To diagnose diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), all three of the following criteria must be present: ketonaemia (≥3 mmol/L) or ketonuria (> 2+ on urine dipstick), blood glucose > 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and blood pH <7.3 or bicarbonate < 15 mmol/L. It is important to note that plasma osmolality and anion gap, although typically elevated in DKA, are not included in the diagnostic criteria. Further Reading: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia. The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis. DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain. The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels. Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L. Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 135
Correct
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A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath. The patient has had a tracheostomy for several years after being on a ventilator for an extended period of time due to a severe head injury. You provide high flow oxygen and remove the inner tube of the tracheostomy. However, there is no improvement in the patient's condition. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Pass suction catheter
Explanation:If a patient with breathing difficulty does not show improvement after removing the inner tracheostomy tube, it is recommended to use a suction catheter to remove any secretions. This can help clear any blockage caused by secretions or debris in or near the tube. If this does not improve the situation, the next step would be to deflate the cuff. If deflating the cuff stabilizes or improves the patient’s condition, it suggests that air can flow around the tube within the airway, indicating that the tracheostomy tube may be obstructed or displaced.
Further Reading:
Patients with tracheostomies may experience emergencies such as tube displacement, tube obstruction, and bleeding. Tube displacement can occur due to accidental dislodgement, migration, or erosion into tissues. Tube obstruction can be caused by secretions, lodged foreign bodies, or malfunctioning humidification devices. Bleeding from a tracheostomy can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue.
When assessing a patient with a tracheostomy, an ABCDE approach should be used, with attention to red flags indicating a tracheostomy or laryngectomy emergency. These red flags include audible air leaks or bubbles of saliva indicating gas escaping past the cuff, grunting, snoring, stridor, difficulty breathing, accessory muscle use, tachypnea, hypoxia, visibly displaced tracheostomy tube, blood or blood-stained secretions around the tube, increased discomfort or pain, increased air required to keep the cuff inflated, tachycardia, hypotension or hypertension, decreased level of consciousness, and anxiety, restlessness, agitation, and confusion.
Algorithms are available for managing tracheostomy emergencies, including obstruction or displaced tube. Oxygen should be delivered to the face and stoma or tracheostomy tube if there is uncertainty about whether the patient has had a laryngectomy. Tracheostomy bleeding can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue. Tracheo-innominate fistula (TIF) is a rare but life-threatening complication that occurs when the tracheostomy tube erodes into the innominate artery. Urgent surgical intervention is required for TIF, and management includes general resuscitation measures and specific measures such as bronchoscopy and applying direct digital pressure to the innominate artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 136
Correct
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A 65 year old type 2 diabetic with recently diagnosed dementia is brought into the emergency department by the caregiver from her assisted living facility due to concern that her foot ulcer is worsening. The doctor had started antibiotics a week earlier as an ulcer to the big toe appeared infected. An X-ray reveals bone erosion and reactive bone sclerosis consistent with osteomyelitis. You refer the patient to the orthopedic resident on-call. You overhear the resident discussing toe amputation and requesting the patient sign a consent form. You are worried because you are unsure if the patient has the capacity to give consent. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria a patient must meet to be considered to have capacity?
Your Answer: Patient must be adequately informed about the proposed treatment
Explanation:In order for a patient to be considered to have capacity, they must meet four criteria. Firstly, they must be able to comprehend the decision that needs to be made and understand the information that has been provided to them. Secondly, they should be able to retain the information in order to make an informed decision. Thirdly, they must demonstrate the ability to evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of the decision at hand. Lastly, they should be able to effectively communicate their decision.
Further Reading:
Patients have the right to determine what happens to their own bodies, and for consent to be valid, certain criteria must be met. These criteria include the person being informed about the intervention, having the capacity to consent, and giving consent voluntarily and freely without any pressure or undue influence.
In order for a person to be deemed to have capacity to make a decision on a medical intervention, they must be able to understand the decision and the information provided, retain that information, weigh up the pros and cons, and communicate their decision.
Valid consent can only be provided by adults, either by the patient themselves, a person authorized under a Lasting Power of Attorney, or someone with the authority to make treatment decisions, such as a court-appointed deputy or a guardian with welfare powers.
In the UK, patients aged 16 and over are assumed to have the capacity to consent. If a patient is under 18 and appears to lack capacity, parental consent may be accepted. However, a young person of any age may consent to treatment if they are considered competent to make the decision, known as Gillick competence. Parental consent may also be given by those with parental responsibility.
The Fraser guidelines apply to the prescription of contraception to under 16’s without parental involvement. These guidelines allow doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent if certain criteria are met, including the young person understanding the advice, being unable to be persuaded to inform their parents, and their best interests requiring them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment.
Competent adults have the right to refuse consent, even if it is deemed unwise or likely to result in harm. However, there are exceptions to this, such as compulsory treatment authorized by the mental health act or if the patient is under 18 and refusing treatment would put their health at serious risk.
In emergency situations where a patient is unable to give consent, treatment may be provided without consent if it is immediately necessary to save their life or prevent a serious deterioration of their condition. Any treatment decision made without consent must be in the patient’s best interests, and if a decision is time-critical and the patient is unlikely to regain capacity in time, a best interest decision should be made. The treatment provided should be the least restrictive on the patient’s future choices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 137
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with a history of feeling generally unwell and having experienced fevers at home. He has a history of lung cancer for which he is currently receiving radiation therapy. His observations are as follows: HR 92 bpm, BP 130/80, SaO2 98% on air, temperature 38.9°C. A diagnosis of neutropenic sepsis is suspected.
According to the current NICE guidelines what is the cut off point for the neutrophil count for a diagnosis of neutropenic sepsis to be made?Your Answer: 0.5 x 109 per litre or lower
Explanation:Neutropenic sepsis is a serious complication that can arise when a person has low levels of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell. This condition can be life-threatening and is commonly seen in individuals undergoing treatments such as cytotoxic chemotherapy or taking immunosuppressive drugs. Other causes of neutropenia include infections, bone marrow disorders like aplastic anemia and myelodysplastic syndromes, as well as nutritional deficiencies.
To diagnose neutropenic sepsis, doctors look for specific criteria in patients receiving anticancer treatment. These criteria include having a neutrophil count of 0.5 x 109 per liter or lower, along with either a body temperature higher than 38°C or other signs and symptoms that indicate a clinically significant sepsis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncological Emergencies
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Question 138
Correct
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A 30 year old male with a history of hereditary angioedema (HAE) presents to the emergency department with sudden facial swelling. What is the most suitable management for an acute exacerbation of hereditary angioedema?
Your Answer: Icatibant acetate
Explanation:In the UK, the most commonly used treatment for acute exacerbations of hereditary angioedema (HAE) in emergency departments is C1-Esterase inhibitor. However, there are alternative options available. Icatibant acetate, sold under the brand name Firazyr®, is a bradykinin receptor antagonist that is licensed in the UK and Europe and can be used as an alternative treatment. Another alternative is the transfusion of fresh frozen plasma.
Further Reading:
Angioedema and urticaria are related conditions that involve swelling in different layers of tissue. Angioedema refers to swelling in the deeper layers of tissue, such as the lips and eyelids, while urticaria, also known as hives, refers to swelling in the epidermal skin layers, resulting in raised red areas of skin with itching. These conditions often coexist and may have a common underlying cause.
Angioedema can be classified into allergic and non-allergic types. Allergic angioedema is the most common type and is usually triggered by an allergic reaction, such as to certain medications like penicillins and NSAIDs. Non-allergic angioedema has multiple subtypes and can be caused by factors such as certain medications, including ACE inhibitors, or underlying conditions like hereditary angioedema (HAE) or acquired angioedema.
HAE is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. It typically presents in childhood and can be inherited or acquired as a result of certain disorders like lymphoma or systemic lupus erythematosus. Acquired angioedema may have similar clinical features to HAE but is caused by acquired deficiencies of C1 esterase inhibitor due to autoimmune or lymphoproliferative disorders.
The management of urticaria and allergic angioedema focuses on ensuring the airway remains open and addressing any identifiable triggers. In mild cases without airway compromise, patients may be advised that symptoms will resolve without treatment. Non-sedating antihistamines can be used for up to 6 weeks to relieve symptoms. Severe cases of urticaria may require systemic corticosteroids in addition to antihistamines. In moderate to severe attacks of allergic angioedema, intramuscular epinephrine may be considered.
The management of HAE involves treating the underlying deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. This can be done through the administration of C1 esterase inhibitor, bradykinin receptor antagonists, or fresh frozen plasma transfusion, which contains C1 inhibitor.
In summary, angioedema and urticaria are related conditions involving swelling in different layers of tissue. They can coexist and may have a common underlying cause. Management involves addressing triggers, using antihistamines, and in severe cases, systemic corticosteroids or other specific treatments for HAE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 139
Correct
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A patient in their late 40s has sustained an injury to their right upper limb and is now experiencing peripheral neuropathy as a result. During the examination, it is observed that their hand is clawed, with the metacarpophalangeal joints hyperextended and the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the little and ring fingers flexed. Additionally, there is a slight weakness in wrist flexion, which is accompanied by abduction. The patient also reports sensory loss over the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial one and a half fingers, as well as the corresponding area of the palm.
Which nerve has been affected in this case?Your Answer: Ulnar nerve at the elbow
Explanation:The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8-T1 nerve roots. It may also carry fibers from C7 on occasion. This nerve has both motor and sensory functions.
In terms of motor function, the ulnar nerve innervates the muscles of the hand, excluding the thenar muscles and the lateral two lumbricals (which are supplied by the median nerve). It also innervates two muscles in the anterior forearm: the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus.
Regarding sensory function, the ulnar nerve provides innervation to the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial one and a half fingers, as well as the associated palm and dorsal hand area. There are three sensory branches responsible for the cutaneous innervation of the ulnar nerve. Two of these branches arise in the forearm and travel into the hand: the palmar cutaneous branch, which innervates the skin of the medial half of the palm, and the dorsal cutaneous branch, which innervates the dorsal skin of the medial one and a half fingers and the associated dorsal hand. The third branch arises in the hand and is called the superficial branch, which innervates the palmar surface of the medial one and a half fingers.
When the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles in the anterior forearm will be spared. However, if the ulnar nerve is injured at the wrist, these muscles will be affected. Additionally, when the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, flexion of the wrist can still occur due to the intact median nerve, but it will be accompanied by abduction as the flexor carpi ulnaris adducts the hand. On the other hand, wrist flexion will be unaffected when the ulnar nerve is damaged at the wrist.
The sensory function also differs depending on the site of damage. When the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, all three cutaneous branches will be affected, resulting in complete sensory loss in the areas innervated by the ulnar nerve. However, if the damage occurs at the wrist, the two branches that arise in the forearm may be spared.
Damage to the ulnar nerve at either the elbow or wrist leads to a characteristic claw hand appearance, characterized by hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion of the distal and proximal interphalangeal joint of the little and ring fingers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 140
Correct
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You are following up on a 62 year old patient who had been referred to the medical team for investigation of electrolyte imbalances and unexplained symptoms. You observe that the patient has undergone a water deprivation test and the results are as follows:
Serum osmolality after fluid deprivation: 348 mOSm/Kg
Urine osmolality after fluid deprivation
but before desmopressin: 188 mOSm/Kg
Urine osmolality after desmopressin: 824 mOSm/Kg
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cranial diabetes insipidus
Explanation:After the fluid restriction period, the urine is checked to determine if it remains relatively dilute (less than 600 mOsm/kg). If it does, desmopressin is administered and the urine is rechecked to see if it responds and becomes more concentrated.
If the urine osmolality significantly increases after desmopressin, it indicates that the kidneys have responded appropriately to the medication and the urine has concentrated. This suggests that the patient is not producing ADH in response to water loss, indicating cranial DI.
It is important to note that some units may use a lower cut-off of greater than 600 mOsm/kg instead of 800 mOsm/kg.
Further Reading:
Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition characterized by either a decrease in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (cranial DI) or insensitivity to antidiuretic hormone (nephrogenic DI). Antidiuretic hormone, also known as arginine vasopressin, is produced in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary. The typical biochemical disturbances seen in DI include elevated plasma osmolality, low urine osmolality, polyuria, and hypernatraemia.
Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, CNS infections, pituitary tumors, and pituitary surgery. Nephrogenic DI, on the other hand, can be genetic or result from electrolyte disturbances or the use of certain drugs. Symptoms of DI include polyuria, polydipsia, nocturia, signs of dehydration, and in children, irritability, failure to thrive, and fatigue.
To diagnose DI, a 24-hour urine collection is done to confirm polyuria, and U&Es will typically show hypernatraemia. High plasma osmolality with low urine osmolality is also observed. Imaging studies such as MRI of the pituitary, hypothalamus, and surrounding tissues may be done, as well as a fluid deprivation test to evaluate the response to desmopressin.
Management of cranial DI involves supplementation with desmopressin, a synthetic form of arginine vasopressin. However, hyponatraemia is a common side effect that needs to be monitored. In nephrogenic DI, desmopressin supplementation is usually not effective, and management focuses on ensuring adequate fluid intake to offset water loss and monitoring electrolyte levels. Causative drugs need to be stopped, and there is a risk of developing complications such as hydroureteronephrosis and an overdistended bladder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 141
Correct
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You assess a patient with a confirmed diagnosis of von Willebrand’s disease (vWD) who is scheduled for a surgical procedure. He wishes to have a conversation about how his condition will affect his surgery.
Which ONE statement about vWD is accurate?Your Answer: It causes a prolongation of the APTT
Explanation:Von Willebrand disease (vWD) is a common hereditary coagulation disorder that affects approximately 1 in 100 individuals. It occurs due to a deficiency in Von Willebrand factor (vWF), which plays a crucial role in blood clotting. vWF not only binds to factor VIII to protect it from rapid breakdown, but it is also necessary for proper platelet adhesion. When vWF is lacking, both factor VIII levels and platelet function are affected, leading to prolonged APTT and bleeding time. However, the platelet count and thrombin time remain unaffected.
While some individuals with vWD may not experience any symptoms and are diagnosed incidentally during a clotting profile check, others may present with easy bruising, nosebleeds (epistaxis), and heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia). In severe cases, more significant bleeding and joint bleeding (haemarthrosis) can occur.
For mild cases of von Willebrand disease, bleeding can be managed with desmopressin. This medication works by stimulating the release of vWF stored in the Weibel-Palade bodies, which are storage granules found in the endothelial cells lining the blood vessels and heart. By increasing the patient’s own levels of vWF, desmopressin helps improve clotting. In more severe cases, replacement therapy is necessary. This involves infusing cryoprecipitate or Factor VIII concentrate to provide the missing vWF. Replacement therapy is particularly recommended for patients with severe von Willebrand’s disease who are undergoing moderate or major surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 142
Correct
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You are requested to evaluate a 7-year-old girl who is feeling sick in the Pediatric Emergency Department. Upon reviewing her urea & electrolytes, you observe that her potassium level is elevated at 6.7 mmol/l. She is experiencing occasional palpitations.
As per the APLS guidelines, which medication should be administered promptly when an arrhythmia is present in a child with notable hyperkalemia?Your Answer: Calcium chloride
Explanation:Hyperkalemia is a condition where the level of potassium in the blood is higher than normal, specifically greater than 5.5 mmol/l. It can be categorized as mild, moderate, or severe depending on the potassium level. Mild hyperkalemia is when the potassium level is between 5.5-5.9 mmol/l, moderate hyperkalemia is between 6.0-6.4 mmol/l, and severe hyperkalemia is above 6.5 mmol/l. The most common cause of hyperkalemia is renal failure, which can be acute or chronic. Other causes include acidosis, adrenal insufficiency, cell lysis, and excessive potassium intake.
In the treatment of hyperkalemia, calcium plays a crucial role. It works by counteracting the harmful effects of high potassium levels on the heart by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane. Calcium acts quickly, with its effects seen within 15 minutes, but its effects are relatively short-lived. It is considered a first-line treatment for arrhythmias and significant ECG abnormalities caused by hyperkalemia. However, it is rare to see arrhythmias occur at potassium levels below 7.5 mmol/l.
It’s important to note that calcium does not lower the serum level of potassium. Therefore, when administering calcium, other therapies that actually help lower potassium levels, such as insulin and salbutamol, should also be used. Insulin and salbutamol are effective in reducing serum potassium levels.
When choosing between calcium chloride and calcium gluconate, calcium chloride is preferred when hyperkalemia is accompanied by hemodynamic compromise. This is because calcium chloride contains three times more elemental calcium than an equal volume of calcium gluconate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Wernicke's encephalopathy. You have been requested to assess the patient.
Which of the following symptoms is MOST LIKELY to be observed?Your Answer: Disordered time appreciation
Correct Answer: Ataxia
Explanation:Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is characterized by a classic triad of symptoms, including acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination). Additional possible features of this condition may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. The majority of cases also experience peripheral neuropathy, which typically affects the legs.
The condition is marked by acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis (increase in the number of astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized using MRI scanning, while CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.
If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (loss of memory for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia), an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).
When Wernicke’s encephalopathy is suspected, it is crucial to administer parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for at least 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be continued.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 144
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents with decreased visual acuity and 'floaters' in his right eye. You conduct a fundoscopy and observe a sheet of sensory retina bulging towards the center of the eye. A diagnosis of retinal detachment is made.
Which of the following statements about retinal detachment is NOT true?Your Answer: Hypermetropia is a significant risk factor
Explanation:Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina separates from the retinal pigment epithelium, resulting in a fluid-filled space between them. This case presents a classic description of retinal detachment. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including myopia, being male, having a family history of retinal detachment, previous episodes of retinal detachment, blunt ocular trauma, previous cataract surgery, diabetes mellitus (especially if proliferative retinopathy is present), glaucoma, and cataracts.
The clinical features commonly associated with retinal detachment include flashes of light, particularly at the edges of vision (known as photopsia), a dense shadow in the peripheral vision that spreads towards the center, a sensation of a curtain drawing across the eye, and central visual loss. Fundoscopy, a procedure to examine the back of the eye, reveals a sheet of sensory retina billowing towards the center of the eye. Additionally, a positive Amsler grid test, where straight lines appear curved or wavy, may indicate retinal detachment.
Other possible causes of floaters include posterior vitreous detachment, retinal tears, vitreous hemorrhage, and migraine with aura. However, in this case, the retinal appearance described is consistent with retinal detachment.
It is crucial to arrange an urgent same-day ophthalmology referral for this patient. Fortunately, approximately 90% of retinal detachments can be successfully repaired with one operation, and an additional 6% can be salvaged with subsequent procedures. If the retina remains fixed six months after surgery, the likelihood of it becoming detached again is low.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 145
Correct
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A 10 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her father due to frequent nosebleeds from the left nostril. The father informs you that this is the fourth nosebleed in the past week. After removing blood-soaked tissue paper from the left nostril, you observe clotted blood on the septum and floor of the left nostril. The right nostril appears normal.
What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Discharge with prescription for Naseptin cream to be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days and give written epistaxis advice
Explanation:Naseptin, a topical antiseptic cream containing chlorhexidine and neomycin, has been found to be just as effective as silver nitrate cautery in treating recurrent nosebleeds in children. This means that using Naseptin can help prevent future nosebleeds in children with this condition. It is important to note that silver nitrate cautery can cause more pain and should only be used if a specific bleeding vessel can be identified.
Further Reading:
Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.
The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.
If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.
Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.
In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 4 year old girl is brought into the emergency department with a 1 day history of feeling unwell and being tired. She is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis based on her urine dipstick and venous blood sample (results shown below):
pH 7.15
bicarbonate 11 mmol/l
glucose 28 mmol/ll
The parents inform you that the patient weighs around 20 kg. You determine that the patient is not in shock but needs a fluid bolus due to dehydration. You prescribe a 200 ml bolus to be given over 30 minutes. What is the correct rate for the patient's ongoing intravenous fluid requirements after the bolus?Your Answer: 160 ml/hr
Correct Answer: 79 ml/hr
Explanation:To calculate the overall rate of fluid administration for a patient, we need to consider both the deficit and maintenance requirements. The deficit is determined by the weight of the patient, with a 1kg deficit equaling 1000ml. However, we also need to subtract the 200 ml bolus from the deficit calculation. So, the deficit is 1000 ml – 200 ml = 800 ml.
The deficit calculation is for the next 48 hours, while maintenance is calculated per day. For maintenance, we use the Holliday-Segar formula based on the patient’s weight. For this patient, the formula is as follows:
– 100 ml/kg/day for the first 10 kg of body weight = 10 x 100 = 1000 ml
– 50 ml/kg/day for the next 10 to 20 kg = 50 x 10 = 500 ml
– 20 ml/kg/day for each additional kilogram above 20 kg = 0 (as the patient only weighs 20kg)So, the total maintenance requirement is 1500 ml per day (over 24 hours), which equals 62 ml/hour.
To determine the overall rate, we add the maintenance requirement (62 ml/hr) to the deficit requirement (17 ml/hr). Therefore, the overall rate of fluid administration for this patient is 79 ml/hr.
Further Reading:
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.
The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.
DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.
The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.
Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 147
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a history of severe migraines. This morning's episode was similar to previous ones in that it occurred around her right temple and was so intense that she felt like hitting her head to try and distract from the pain. Further questioning and examination lead you to conclude that she is suffering from cluster headaches.
Which of the following is NOT an effective treatment for cluster headaches?Your Answer: Oral codeine phosphate
Explanation:Standard pain relievers are generally not effective in treating cluster headaches. They take too long to work, and by the time they start to relieve the pain, the headache has usually already gone away. It is not recommended to use opioids for cluster headaches as they may actually make the headaches worse, and using them for a long time can lead to dependency.
However, there are other options that can be effective in treating cluster headaches. One option is to use subcutaneous sumatriptan, which is a medication that works by stimulating a specific receptor in the brain. This can help reduce the inflammation in the blood vessels that is associated with migraines and cluster headaches. Most people find that subcutaneous sumatriptan starts to work within 10-15 minutes of being administered.
Another option is to use zolmitriptan nasal spray, which is also a medication that works in a similar way to sumatriptan. However, it may take a bit longer for the nasal spray to start working compared to the subcutaneous injection.
In addition to medication, high-flow oxygen can also be used as an alternative therapy for cluster headaches. This involves breathing in oxygen at a high flow rate, which can help relieve the pain and other symptoms of a cluster headache.
Lastly, octreotide can be administered subcutaneously and has been shown to be more effective than a placebo in treating acute cluster headache attacks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 148
Correct
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A 48 year old welder is admitted to the emergency department with burns to the chest after sparks from the welding machine ignited some gasoline-soaked rags that were nearby on the ground, causing his T-shirt to catch fire. Upon examination, the patient presents with full thickness burns encircling the chest. What would be the primary complication you would be most worried about in this case?
Your Answer: Impaired ventilation
Explanation:Circumferential burns on the thorax can limit the expansion of the chest and hinder proper ventilation. When burns penetrate deeply, they can cause the formation of dead tissue called eschar, which is usually white or black in color. This eschar is contracted and inflexible compared to healthy tissue, leading to restricted movement and impaired breathing. In some cases, burns on the thorax can result in respiratory failure. Marjolin’s ulcer, a rare condition, refers to the development of squamous cell carcinoma in burnt or scarred tissue. Burn injuries often lead to the release of excess potassium into the bloodstream, which can cause hyperkalemia. Carbon monoxide poisoning typically occurs when someone inhales CO over a prolonged period, usually due to incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons. However, the history provided in this case does not align with prolonged exposure to carbon monoxide.
Further Reading:
Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is given a medication for a medical ailment during the 2nd-trimester of his partner's pregnancy. As a result, the newborn experiences cataracts, optic atrophy, and microphthalmia.
Which of the following medications is the most probable culprit for these abnormalities?Your Answer: Doxycycline
Correct Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:During the first trimester of pregnancy, the use of warfarin can lead to a condition known as fetal warfarin syndrome. This condition is characterized by nasal hypoplasia, bone stippling, bilateral optic atrophy, and intellectual disability in the baby. However, if warfarin is taken during the second or third trimester, it can cause optic atrophy, cataracts, microcephaly, microphthalmia, intellectual disability, and both fetal and maternal hemorrhage.
There are several other drugs that can have adverse effects during pregnancy. For example, ACE inhibitors like ramipril can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence if taken during the second and third trimesters. Aminoglycosides such as gentamicin can lead to ototoxicity and deafness in the baby. High doses of aspirin can result in first trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses of aspirin (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.
Benzodiazepines like diazepam, when taken late in pregnancy, can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome. Calcium-channel blockers, if taken during the first trimester, can cause phalangeal abnormalities, while their use in the second and third trimesters can lead to fetal growth retardation. Carbamazepine can result in hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects. Chloramphenicol can cause gray baby syndrome. Corticosteroids, if taken during the first trimester, may cause orofacial clefts.
Danazol, if taken during the first trimester, can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals. Finasteride should not be handled by pregnant women as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development. Haloperidol, if taken during the first trimester, may cause limb malformations, while its use in the third trimester increases the risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the newborn.
Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia. Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the baby. Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations and spontaneous abortion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 150
Correct
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A 25-year-old presents to the emergency department with a complaint of haematemesis and haemoptysis that started 45 minutes ago. The patient had a tonsillectomy 5 days ago. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 120/70 mmHg
Pulse: 80 bpm
Respiration rate: 16 bpm
Temperature: 36.8ºC
During the examination, fresh clotted blood is observed in the left tonsillar fossa, but there is no active bleeding. The patient reports that they no longer feel blood dripping down their throat and does not cough up any blood in the next 45 minutes. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Admit under ENT
Explanation:Patients who experience post-tonsillectomy bleeding, even if it stops, should be closely monitored and assessed by an ear, nose, and throat specialist before being discharged. It is important to note that minor bleeding episodes may occur before a more severe hemorrhage. Therefore, patients with post-tonsillectomy bleeds, even if they seem to have resolved, should be admitted to the hospital under the care of an ENT specialist.
Further Reading:
Tonsillectomy is a common procedure performed by ENT surgeons in the UK, with over 50,000 surgeries performed each year. While it is considered routine, there are risks of serious complications, including post-tonsillectomy bleeding. Approximately 5% of patients experience bleeding after the procedure, with most cases being self-limiting. However, severe bleeding can lead to hypovolemia and airway obstruction from clots, which can be life-threatening.
Post-tonsillectomy bleeding can be classified as primary (reactive) or secondary (delayed). Primary bleeding occurs within 24 hours of the procedure, while secondary bleeding occurs more than 24 hours post-procedure. Secondary bleeding is often caused by factors such as sloughing of eschar, trauma from solid food ingestion, tonsil bed infection, postoperative NSAID usage, or unknown causes.
Patients may present with symptoms such as vomiting blood, coughing up blood, tasting blood in the throat, finding blood on pillows or bed sheets, or excessive swallowing (especially in children). It is important for clinicians to assess the severity of blood loss, although it can be challenging to accurately estimate in children.
The ABCDE approach should be used to assess patients, with a focus on airway compromise, hemodynamic instability, and evidence of bleeding. Clinicians may use a head torch to identify any bleeding points, which may be actively bleeding or appear as fresh red clots. It is important to note that the tonsillar fossa may appear white or yellow, which is a normal postoperative finding.
Investigations such as a full blood count, coagulation profile, group and save, and venous blood gas may be performed to assess the patient’s condition. Senior support from ENT or anesthesiology should be called if there is active bleeding.
Management of post-tonsillectomy bleeding includes positioning the patient upright and keeping them calm, establishing intravenous access, administering fluids and blood products as needed, and administering tranexamic acid to stop bleeding. Bleeding points may require gentle suction removal of fresh clots, and topical medications such as Co-phenylcaine spray or topical adrenaline may be applied to the oropharynx. All patients with post-tonsillectomy bleeding should be assessed by ENT and observed for a prolonged period, typically 12-24 hours.
If bleeding remains uncontrolled, the patient should be kept nil by mouth in preparation for surgery, and early intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 151
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes in with symptoms of anaphylaxis. You provide initial treatment, but there is no improvement in her symptoms. What condition might this indicate?
Your Answer: C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency
Explanation:Anaphylaxis caused by a lack of C1 esterase inhibitor is not effectively treated with adrenaline, steroids, or antihistamines. Instead, treatment requires the use of C1 esterase inhibitor concentrate or fresh frozen plasma.
Further Reading:
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It is characterized by a rapid onset and can lead to difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, and loss of consciousness. In paediatrics, anaphylaxis is often caused by food allergies, with nuts being the most common trigger. Other causes include drugs and insect venom, such as from a wasp sting.
When treating anaphylaxis, time is of the essence and there may not be enough time to look up medication doses. Adrenaline is the most important drug in managing anaphylaxis and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary based on the age of the child. For children under 6 months, the dose is 150 micrograms, while for children between 6 months and 6 years, the dose remains the same. For children between 6 and 12 years, the dose is increased to 300 micrograms, and for adults and children over 12 years, the dose is 500 micrograms. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary.
The preferred site for administering adrenaline is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. This ensures quick absorption and effectiveness of the medication. It is important to follow the Resuscitation Council guidelines for anaphylaxis management, as they have recently been updated.
In some cases, it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis. This can help confirm the diagnosis and guide further management.
Overall, prompt recognition and administration of adrenaline are crucial in managing anaphylaxis in paediatrics. Following the recommended doses and guidelines can help ensure the best outcomes for patients experiencing this severe allergic reaction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 152
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic bowel cancer is experiencing symptoms of bowel obstruction and is currently suffering from nausea and vomiting. The patient has been informed that she has only a few days left to live. Upon examination, her abdomen is found to be tender and distended.
What is the most suitable course of action to address her nausea and vomiting in this situation?Your Answer: Hyoscine butylbromide
Explanation:According to NICE, hyoscine butylbromide is recommended as the initial medication for managing nausea and vomiting in individuals with obstructive bowel disorders who are in the last days of life. NICE provides guidance on how to handle these symptoms in the final days of life, which includes assessing the potential causes of nausea and vomiting in the dying person. This may involve considering factors such as certain medications, recent chemotherapy or radiotherapy, psychological causes, biochemical causes like hypercalcemia, raised intracranial pressure, gastrointestinal motility disorder, ileus, or bowel obstruction.
It is important to discuss the available options for treating nausea and vomiting with the dying person and their loved ones. Non-pharmacological methods should also be considered when managing these symptoms in someone in the last days of life. When selecting medications for nausea and vomiting, factors such as the likely cause and reversibility of the symptoms, potential side effects (including sedation), other symptoms the person may be experiencing, and the desired balancing of effects when managing other symptoms should be taken into account. Additionally, compatibility and potential drug interactions with other medications the person is taking should be considered.
For individuals in the last days of life with obstructive bowel disorders who have nausea or vomiting, hyoscine butylbromide is recommended as the first-line pharmacological treatment. If the symptoms do not improve within 24 hours of starting treatment with hyoscine butylbromide, octreotide may be considered as an alternative option.
For more information, refer to the NICE guidance on the care of dying adults in the last days of life. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng31
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative & End Of Life Care
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Question 153
Correct
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A 35-year-old patient with a history of schizophrenia comes in with side effects from a medication that he recently began taking for this condition. Upon examination, you observe that he is experiencing severe muscular rigidity, a decreased level of consciousness, and a body temperature of 40ºC.
Which of the following medications is most likely causing these symptoms?Your Answer: Chlorpromazine
Explanation:First-generation antipsychotics, also known as conventional or typical antipsychotics, are potent blockers of dopamine D2 receptors. However, these drugs also have varying effects on other receptors such as serotonin type 2 (5-HT2), alpha1, histaminic, and muscarinic receptors.
One of the major drawbacks of first-generation antipsychotics is their high incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. These include rigidity, bradykinesia, dystonias, tremor, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. Additionally, there is a rare but life-threatening reaction called neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) that can occur with these medications. NMS is characterized by fever, muscle rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. It typically occurs shortly after starting or increasing the dose of a neuroleptic medication.
In contrast, second-generation antipsychotics, also known as novel or atypical antipsychotics, have a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects and NMS compared to their first-generation counterparts. However, they are associated with higher rates of metabolic effects and weight gain.
It is important to differentiate serotonin syndrome from NMS as they share similar features. Serotonin syndrome is most commonly caused by serotonin-specific reuptake inhibitors.
Here are some commonly encountered examples of first- and second-generation antipsychotics:
First-generation:
– Chlopromazine
– Haloperidol
– Fluphenazine
– TrifluoperazineSecond-generation:
– Clozapine
– Olanzapine
– Quetiapine
– Risperidone
– Aripiprazole -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 154
Correct
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You are caring for an elderly patient with chronic kidney disease who has been ordered intravenous fluids containing potassium chloride. You are closely observing the patient for the development of hyperkalemia. What is the initial ECG change typically observed in patients with hyperkalemia?
Your Answer: Tall Tented T-waves
Explanation:The earliest ECG change typically observed in hyperkalemia is the presence of tall tented T-waves.
Further Reading:
Vasoactive drugs can be classified into three categories: inotropes, vasopressors, and unclassified. Inotropes are drugs that alter the force of muscular contraction, particularly in the heart. They primarily stimulate adrenergic receptors and increase myocardial contractility. Commonly used inotropes include adrenaline, dobutamine, dopamine, isoprenaline, and ephedrine.
Vasopressors, on the other hand, increase systemic vascular resistance (SVR) by stimulating alpha-1 receptors, causing vasoconstriction. This leads to an increase in blood pressure. Commonly used vasopressors include norepinephrine, metaraminol, phenylephrine, and vasopressin.
Electrolytes, such as potassium, are essential for proper bodily function. Solutions containing potassium are often given to patients to prevent or treat hypokalemia (low potassium levels). However, administering too much potassium can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), which can cause dangerous arrhythmias. It is important to monitor potassium levels and administer it at a controlled rate to avoid complications.
Hyperkalemia can be caused by various factors, including excessive potassium intake, decreased renal excretion, endocrine disorders, certain medications, metabolic acidosis, tissue destruction, and massive blood transfusion. It can present with cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and neuromuscular symptoms. ECG changes, such as tall tented T-waves, prolonged PR interval, flat P-waves, widened QRS complex, and sine wave, are also characteristic of hyperkalemia.
In summary, vasoactive drugs can be categorized as inotropes, vasopressors, or unclassified. Inotropes increase myocardial contractility, while vasopressors increase systemic vascular resistance. Electrolytes, particularly potassium, are important for bodily function, but administering too much can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and ECG changes is crucial in managing hyperkalemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 155
Correct
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A child develops pain, swelling, induration, and a rash following a tetanus vaccination. The child is subsequently discovered to have suffered the Arthus reaction.
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction has occurred in this case?Your Answer: Type III hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:The Arthus reaction is a response that occurs when antigen/antibody complexes are formed in the skin after an antigen is injected. Although rare, these reactions can happen after receiving vaccines that contain tetanus toxoid or diphtheria toxoid. They are classified as a type III hypersensitivity reaction.
Arthus reactions are characterized by pain, swelling, induration, hemorrhage, and sometimes necrosis. Typically, these symptoms appear 4-12 hours after vaccination.
Type III hypersensitivity reactions occur when insoluble antigen-antibody complexes accumulate in different tissues and are not effectively cleared by the body’s innate immune cells. This leads to an inflammatory response in the affected tissues.
Some other examples of type III hypersensitivity reactions include immune complex glomerulonephritis, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, serum sickness, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 156
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes in with a foul-smelling vaginal discharge and itching in the vulva area. She also experiences pain during urination but does not have an increased need to urinate. She has a 4-week-old baby whom she is currently nursing.
What is the most suitable treatment for her condition?Your Answer: Topical clotrimazole
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is vaginal thrush. Vaginal thrush is characterized by symptoms such as vulval irritation and itching, vulval redness, and a discharge that is often described as cheesy. Some women may also experience dysuria, which is pain or discomfort during urination, but without an increase in frequency or urgency. The recommended treatment for vaginal thrush is the use of antifungal agents, with topical azoles like clotrimazole or miconazole being commonly prescribed. It is important to note that breastfeeding patients should avoid taking oral terbinafine as it can pass into breast milk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of sudden right-sided scrotal pain and high fever. On examination, the epididymis is tender and swollen, and the overlying scrotal skin is red and warm to the touch. Lifting the scrotum provides relief from the pain. He has a history of epilepsy and takes phenytoin for it. He has no other significant medical history and no known allergies to medications.
What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.
The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.
Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.
While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.
Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.
The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 158
Correct
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A 52 year old male is brought to the emergency department with severe head and chest injuries. As his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) continues to decline, it is determined that intubation is necessary. You begin preparing for rapid sequence induction (RSI). Before administering sodium thiopentone, the patient's blood pressure is measured and found to be 88/58 mmHg. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Use half normal dose
Explanation:In patients with pre-existing hypovolaemia, the amount of sodium thiopentone administered should be reduced by half. This is because sodium thiopentone can cause venodilation and myocardial depression, which can result in significant hypovolaemia. Alternatively, an induction agent that does not cause hypotension, such as Etomidate, can be used instead. It is important to note that both propofol and thiopentone are known to cause hypotension.
Further Reading:
There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.
Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.
Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.
Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.
Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 159
Correct
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A 62-year-old man presents with severe otalgia in his right ear that has been gradually worsening over the past few weeks. He describes the pain as being ‘constant’ and he has been unable to sleep for several nights. His family have noticed that the right side of his face appears to be ‘drooping’. His past medical history includes poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. On examination, he has a right-sided lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy. His right ear canal is very swollen and purulent exudate is visible.
What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism?Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:Malignant otitis externa (MOE), also known as necrotizing otitis externa, is a rare form of ear canal infection that primarily affects elderly diabetic patients, particularly those with poorly controlled diabetes.
MOE initially infects the ear canal and gradually spreads to the surrounding bony structures and soft tissues. In 98% of cases, the responsible pathogen is Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Typically, MOE presents with severe and unrelenting ear pain, which tends to worsen at night. Even after the swelling of the ear canal subsides with topical antibiotics, the pain may persist. Other symptoms may include pus drainage from the ear and temporal headaches. Approximately 50% of patients also experience facial nerve paralysis, and cranial nerves IX to XII may be affected as well.
To confirm the diagnosis, technetium scanning and contrast-enhanced CT scanning are usually performed to detect any extension of the infection into the surrounding bony structures.
If left untreated, MOE can be life-threatening and may lead to serious complications such as skull base osteomyelitis, subdural empyema, and cerebral abscess.
Treatment typically involves long-term administration of intravenous antibiotics. While surgical intervention is not effective for MOE, exploratory surgery may be necessary to obtain cultures of unusual organisms that are not responding adequately to intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 160
Correct
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A 37 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset headache, tremor, and palpitations. During triage, his blood pressure is measured at 220/110 mmHg. You start considering the likelihood of secondary causes of hypertension, including the possibility of extra-adrenal phaeochromocytoma. What percentage of phaeochromocytoma cases are extra-adrenal?
Your Answer: 10-15%
Explanation:The correct answer is 10-15%. This means that out of all phaeochromocytoma cases, approximately 10-15% occur outside of the adrenal glands.
Further Reading:
Phaeochromocytoma is a rare neuroendocrine tumor that secretes catecholamines. It typically arises from chromaffin tissue in the adrenal medulla, but can also occur in extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue. The majority of cases are spontaneous and occur in individuals aged 40-50 years. However, up to 30% of cases are hereditary and associated with genetic mutations. About 10% of phaeochromocytomas are metastatic, with extra-adrenal tumors more likely to be metastatic.
The clinical features of phaeochromocytoma are a result of excessive catecholamine production. Symptoms are typically paroxysmal and include hypertension, headaches, palpitations, sweating, anxiety, tremor, abdominal and flank pain, and nausea. Catecholamines have various metabolic effects, including glycogenolysis, mobilization of free fatty acids, increased serum lactate, increased metabolic rate, increased myocardial force and rate of contraction, and decreased systemic vascular resistance.
Diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma involves measuring plasma and urine levels of metanephrines, catecholamines, and urine vanillylmandelic acid. Imaging studies such as abdominal CT or MRI are used to determine the location of the tumor. If these fail to find the site, a scan with metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) labeled with radioactive iodine is performed. The highest sensitivity and specificity for diagnosis is achieved with plasma metanephrine assay.
The definitive treatment for phaeochromocytoma is surgery. However, before surgery, the patient must be stabilized with medical management. This typically involves alpha-blockade with medications such as phenoxybenzamine or phentolamine, followed by beta-blockade with medications like propranolol. Alpha blockade is started before beta blockade to allow for expansion of blood volume and to prevent a hypertensive crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 161
Correct
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A 40-year-old patient with asthma comes to the Emergency Department for an unrelated medical issue. While reviewing their medications, you find out that they are taking theophylline as part of their asthma treatment.
Which ONE of the following medications should be avoided?Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin is known to inhibit the activity of cytochrome P450 enzymes, which can lead to increased levels of theophylline in the blood. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid prescribing ciprofloxacin and theophylline together. For more information on the interactions between these two medications, you can refer to the relevant section on theophylline interactions in the British National Formulary (BNF).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 162
Correct
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A 35-year-old patient with a history of exhaustion and weariness has a complete blood count scheduled. The complete blood count reveals the presence of macrocytic anemia.
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Liver disease
Explanation:Anaemia can be categorized based on the size of red blood cells. Microcytic anaemia, characterized by a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of less than 80 fl, can be caused by various factors such as iron deficiency, thalassaemia, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be normocytic), sideroblastic anaemia (which can also be normocytic), lead poisoning, and aluminium toxicity (although this is now rare and mainly affects haemodialysis patients).
On the other hand, normocytic anaemia, with an MCV ranging from 80 to 100 fl, can be attributed to conditions like haemolysis, acute haemorrhage, bone marrow failure, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be microcytic), mixed iron and folate deficiency, pregnancy, chronic renal failure, and sickle-cell disease.
Lastly, macrocytic anaemia, characterized by an MCV greater than 100 fl, can be caused by factors such as B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, hypothyroidism, reticulocytosis, liver disease, alcohol abuse, myeloproliferative disease, myelodysplastic disease, and certain drugs like methotrexate, hydroxyurea, and azathioprine.
It is important to understand the different causes of anaemia based on red cell size as this knowledge can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 163
Correct
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A 45-year-old executive presents with a painful, swollen right calf after a recent flight from New York. You evaluate him for a potential deep vein thrombosis (DVT). As part of your evaluation, you compute a two-level Wells score, which is two points.
What would be the most suitable next course of action in his treatment?Your Answer: Proximal leg vein ultrasound scan
Explanation:The NICE guidelines for suspected DVT state that if a person scores two points or more on the DVT Wells score, they are likely to have DVT. On the other hand, if a person scores one point or less, it is unlikely that they have DVT.
For individuals who are likely to have DVT, it is recommended to offer a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan with the results available within 4 hours if possible. However, if the ultrasound scan cannot be done within 4 hours, the following steps should be taken: a D-dimer test should be offered, followed by interim therapeutic anticoagulation. It is preferable to choose an anticoagulant that can be continued if DVT is confirmed. Additionally, a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be conducted with the results available within 24 hours.
For individuals who are unlikely to have DVT, it is advised to offer a D-dimer test with the results available within 4 hours. If obtaining the results within 4 hours is not possible, interim therapeutic anticoagulation should be provided while awaiting the result. If feasible, an anticoagulant that can be continued if DVT is confirmed should be chosen.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on deep vein thrombosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 164
Correct
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A 35-year-old construction worker presents with confusion, vomiting, and complaining of a severe headache. There is currently a heatwave in the area, and he has been working outdoors in heavy protective gear. His skin feels dry and hot, he is breathing rapidly, and his core temperature is currently 41.7°C. He is extremely restless and experiencing severe shivering.
What is the most suitable initial course of treatment in this case?Your Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:Heat stroke is a condition characterized by a core temperature higher than 40.6°C, accompanied by changes in mental state and varying levels of organ dysfunction. There are two forms of heat stroke: classic non-exertional heat stroke, which occurs during high environmental temperatures and typically affects elderly patients during heat waves, and exertional heat stroke, which occurs during strenuous physical exercise in hot conditions, such as endurance athletes competing in hot weather.
The typical clinical features of heat stroke include a core temperature greater than 40.6°C, extreme fatigue, headache, syncope, facial flushing, vomiting, and diarrhea. The skin is usually hot and dry, although sweating can occur in around 50% of cases of exertional heat stroke. The loss of the ability to sweat is a late and concerning sign. Hyperventilation is almost always present. Cardiovascular dysfunction, including arrhythmias, hypotension, and shock, as well as respiratory dysfunction, including acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), can occur. Central nervous system dysfunction, such as seizures and coma, may also be observed. If the temperature rises above 41.5°C, multi-organ failure, coagulopathy, and rhabdomyolysis can occur.
In the management of heat stroke, benzodiazepines like diazepam can be helpful in patients with agitation and/or shivering. They help reduce excessive heat production and agitation. In severe cases, patients may require paralysis. Antipyretics like paracetamol, aspirin, and NSAIDs have no role in the treatment of heat stroke. They do not work because the hypothalamus, which regulates body temperature, is healthy but overloaded in heat stroke. Moreover, antipyretics may actually be harmful in patients who develop complications like liver, blood, and kidney problems as they can worsen bleeding tendencies.
Dantrolene is commonly used in the treatment of heat stroke, although there is currently no high-level evidence to support its use. Neuroleptics, such as chlorpromazine, which were once commonly used, should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects, including lowering the seizure threshold, interfering with thermoregulation, causing anticholinergic side effects, hypotension, and hepatotoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 165
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with sirens blaring after being involved in a car accident. She was hit by a truck while crossing the street and is suspected to have a pelvic injury. Her condition is unstable, and the hospital has activated the massive transfusion protocol. You decide to also administer tranexamic acid and give an initial dose of 1 g intravenously over a period of 10 minutes.
What should be the subsequent dose of tranexamic acid and how long should it be administered for?Your Answer: 1 g IV over 8 hours
Explanation:ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.
Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 166
Correct
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A 14 year old presents to the emergency department with a 4 day history of left sided otalgia. On examination the patient's temperature is 38.5°C and there is a swollen and tender area over the mastoid process.
What is the most suitable initial approach for managing this patient?Your Answer: Intravenous ceftriaxone and metronidazole
Explanation:The first step in managing acute mastoiditis is to administer broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics. The British Society of Otology recommends using intravenous ceftriaxone once daily in combination with intravenous metronidazole three times daily as the initial treatment. However, the specific antibiotic regimen may vary depending on the local antimicrobial policy.
Further Reading:
Mastoiditis is an infection of the mastoid air cells, which are located in the mastoid process of the skull. It is usually caused by the spread of infection from the middle ear. The most common organism responsible for mastoiditis is Streptococcus pneumoniae, but other bacteria and fungi can also be involved. The infection can spread to surrounding structures, such as the meninges, causing serious complications like meningitis or cerebral abscess.
Mastoiditis can be classified as acute or chronic. Acute mastoiditis is a rare complication of acute otitis media, which is inflammation of the middle ear. It is characterized by severe ear pain, fever, swelling and redness behind the ear, and conductive deafness. Chronic mastoiditis is usually associated with chronic suppurative otitis media or cholesteatoma and presents with recurrent episodes of ear pain, headache, and fever.
Mastoiditis is more common in children, particularly those between 6 and 13 months of age. Other risk factors include immunocompromised patients, those with intellectual impairment or communication difficulties, and individuals with cholesteatoma.
Diagnosis of mastoiditis involves a physical examination, blood tests, ear swab for culture and sensitivities, and imaging studies like contrast-enhanced CT or MRI. Treatment typically involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist, broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics, pain relief, and myringotomy (a procedure to drain fluid from the middle ear).
Complications of mastoiditis are rare but can be serious. They include intracranial abscess, meningitis, subperiosteal abscess, neck abscess, venous sinus thrombosis, cranial nerve palsies, hearing loss, labyrinthitis, extension to the zygoma, and carotid artery arteritis. However, most patients with mastoiditis have a good prognosis and do not experience long-term ear problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 167
Correct
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A 45 year old visits the emergency department complaining of extreme thirst, fatigue, and disorientation that have progressively worsened over the past week. A urine dip reveals a high level of glucose. You suspect the presence of diabetes mellitus and decide to send a plasma glucose sample for further testing. What is the appropriate threshold for diagnosing diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer: Random venous plasma glucose concentration ≥ 11.1 mmol/l
Explanation:If a person has symptoms or signs that indicate diabetes, a random venous plasma glucose concentration of 11.1 mmol/l or higher is considered to be indicative of diabetes mellitus. However, it is important to note that a diagnosis should not be made based solely on one test. A second test should be conducted to confirm the diagnosis. It is also worth mentioning that temporary high blood sugar levels may occur in individuals who are experiencing acute infection, trauma, circulatory issues, or other forms of stress that are not related to diabetes.
Further Reading:
Diabetes Mellitus:
– Definition: a group of metabolic disorders characterized by persistent hyperglycemia caused by deficient insulin secretion, resistance to insulin, or both.
– Types: Type 1 diabetes (absolute insulin deficiency), Type 2 diabetes (insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency), Gestational diabetes (develops during pregnancy), Other specific types (monogenic diabetes, diabetes secondary to pancreatic or endocrine disorders, diabetes secondary to drug treatment).
– Diagnosis: Type 1 diabetes diagnosed based on clinical grounds in adults presenting with hyperglycemia. Type 2 diabetes diagnosed in patients with persistent hyperglycemia and presence of symptoms or signs of diabetes.
– Risk factors for type 2 diabetes: obesity, inactivity, family history, ethnicity, history of gestational diabetes, certain drugs, polycystic ovary syndrome, metabolic syndrome, low birth weight.Hypoglycemia:
– Definition: lower than normal blood glucose concentration.
– Diagnosis: defined by Whipple’s triad (signs and symptoms of low blood glucose, low blood plasma glucose concentration, relief of symptoms after correcting low blood glucose).
– Blood glucose level for hypoglycemia: NICE defines it as <3.5 mmol/L, but there is inconsistency across the literature.
– Signs and symptoms: adrenergic or autonomic symptoms (sweating, hunger, tremor), neuroglycopenic symptoms (confusion, coma, convulsions), non-specific symptoms (headache, nausea).
– Treatment options: oral carbohydrate, buccal glucose gel, glucagon, dextrose. Treatment should be followed by re-checking glucose levels.Treatment of neonatal hypoglycemia:
– Treat with glucose IV infusion 10% given at a rate of 5 mL/kg/hour.
– Initial stat dose of 2 mL/kg over five minutes may be required for severe hypoglycemia.
– Mild asymptomatic persistent hypoglycemia may respond to a single dose of glucagon.
– If hypoglycemia is caused by an oral anti-diabetic drug, the patient should be admitted and ongoing glucose infusion or other therapies may be required.Note: Patients who have a hypoglycemic episode with a loss of warning symptoms should not drive and should inform the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 168
Correct
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You are caring for a 68-year-old patient who has been intubated and placed on a ventilator and is not expected to recover. Consider the facilitation of organ and tissue donation. Which of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer: The emergency department doctor is not involved in gaining consent from the next of kin for tissue donation
Explanation:The emergency department doctor does not play a role in obtaining consent from the next of kin for tissue or organ donation. Instead, it is important to involve the Specialist Nurse in Organ Donation (SNOD) as early as possible. The SNOD can provide valuable support and guidance to both the medical team and the family. They will assess the patient’s suitability for organ donation and approach the next of kin for consent, if appropriate. On the other hand, for tissue donation, a referral should be made to the tissue donation national referral centre. Retrievals can take place within 24 hours after death. In the UK, referrals can be made by phone to the tissue donation national referral centre (the contact number can be found in the notes below). It is important to note that the responsibility of gaining consent from the next of kin does not fall on the emergency department doctor.
Further Reading:
Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.
After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.
Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.
Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative & End Of Life Care
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Question 169
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with painless haematuria and undergoes a flexible cystoscopy. A diagnosis of bladder cancer is made following the investigation.
Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for developing bladder cancer in the United Kingdom?Your Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Bladder cancer ranks as the seventh most prevalent form of cancer in the United Kingdom, with men outnumbering women by a ratio of 3 to 1. The primary factors that increase the risk of bladder cancer are advancing age and smoking. It is estimated that around 50% of bladder cancer cases are caused by smoking, which is believed to be influenced by the presence of aromatic amines and polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons that are eliminated through the kidneys. Smokers face a 2 to 6 times higher risk of developing bladder cancer compared to non-smokers.
Additional risk factors for bladder cancer include occupational exposure to aromatic amines found in dyes, paints, solvents, leather dust, combustion products, rubber, and textiles. Radiation therapy to the pelvic region is also considered a risk factor.
In developing nations, particularly in the Middle East, schistosomiasis is responsible for approximately 80% of bladder cancer cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 170
Correct
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You review a 82-year-old woman currently on the clinical decision unit (CDU) after presenting with mobility difficulties. Her daughter asks to have a chat with you as she concerned that her mother had lost all interest in the things she used to enjoy doing. She also mentions that her memory has not been as good as it used to be recently.
Which of the following would support a diagnosis of dementia rather than depressive disorder? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer: Urinary incontinence
Explanation:Depression and dementia are both more prevalent in the elderly population and often coexist. Diagnosing these conditions can be challenging due to the overlapping symptoms they share.
Depression is characterized by a persistent low mood throughout the day, significant unintentional weight changes, sleep disturbances, fatigue, feelings of worthlessness or guilt, difficulty concentrating, loss of interest in activities, and recurrent thoughts of death. It may also manifest as agitation or slowed movements, which can be observed by others.
Dementia, on the other hand, refers to a group of symptoms resulting from a pathological process that leads to significant cognitive impairment. This impairment is more severe than what would be expected for a person’s age. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia.
Symptoms of dementia include memory loss, particularly in the short-term, changes in mood that are usually reactive to situations and improve with support and stimulation, infrequent thoughts about death, alterations in personality, difficulty finding the right words, struggles with complex tasks, urinary incontinence, loss of appetite and weight in later stages, and agitation in unfamiliar environments.
By understanding the distinct features of depression and dementia, healthcare professionals can better identify and differentiate between these conditions in the elderly population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 171
Correct
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A 35-year-old individual presents with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the right flank and extending to the groin. They are also experiencing severe nausea and vomiting. The urine dipstick test shows the presence of blood. A CT KUB is scheduled, and a diagnosis of ureteric colic is confirmed.
What is a reason for immediate hospital admission in a patient with ureteric colic?Your Answer: Signs of systemic infection
Explanation:Renal colic, also known as ureteric colic, refers to a sudden and intense pain in the lower back caused by a blockage in the ureter, which is the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. This condition is commonly associated with the presence of a urinary tract stone.
The main symptoms of renal or ureteric colic include severe abdominal pain on one side, starting in the flank or loin area and radiating to the groin or testicle in men, or to the labia in women. The pain comes and goes in spasms, lasting for minutes to hours, with periods of no pain or a dull ache. Nausea, vomiting, and the presence of blood in the urine are often accompanying symptoms.
The pain experienced during renal or ureteric colic is often described as the most intense pain a person has ever felt, with many women comparing it to the pain of childbirth. Restlessness and an inability to find relief by lying still are common signs, which can help differentiate renal colic from peritonitis. Previous episodes of similar pain may also be reported by the individual. In cases where there is a concomitant urinary infection, fever and sweating may be present. Additionally, the person may complain of painful urination, frequent urination, and straining when the stone reaches the junction between the ureter and the bladder, as the stone irritates the detrusor muscle.
It is important to seek urgent medical attention if certain conditions are met. These include signs of systemic infection or sepsis, such as fever or sweating, or if the person is at a higher risk of acute kidney injury, such as having pre-existing chronic kidney disease, a solitary or transplanted kidney, or suspected bilateral obstructing stones. Hospital admission is also necessary if the person is dehydrated and unable to consume fluids orally due to nausea and/or vomiting. If there is uncertainty regarding the diagnosis, it is recommended to consult further resources, such as the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of renal and ureteric stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 172
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of frequent falls, difficulty with walking, and bladder control problems. After a thorough evaluation and tests, a diagnosis of normal-pressure hydrocephalus is made.
What is the most common underlying factor leading to NPH?Your Answer: Idiopathic – no cause found
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms that are characteristic of normal-pressure hydrocephalus (NPH). NPH is a type of communicating hydrocephalus where the pressure inside the skull, as measured through a lumbar puncture, is either normal or occasionally elevated. It primarily affects elderly individuals, and the likelihood of developing NPH increases with age.
Around 50% of NPH cases are considered idiopathic, meaning there is no identifiable cause. The remaining cases are secondary to various conditions such as head injury, meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, central nervous system tumors, and radiotherapy.
The typical presentation of NPH includes a classic triad of symptoms: gait disturbance (often characterized by a broad-based and shuffling gait), sphincter disturbance leading to incontinence (usually urinary incontinence), and progressive dementia with memory loss, inattention, inertia, and bradyphrenia.
Diagnosing NPH primarily relies on identifying the classic clinical triad mentioned above. Additional investigations can provide supportive evidence, including CT and MRI scans that reveal enlarged ventricles and periventricular lucency. Lumbar puncture may also be performed, with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) typically appearing normal or intermittently elevated. Intraventricular monitoring may show beta waves for more than 5% of a 24-hour period.
NPH is one of the few reversible causes of dementia, making early recognition and treatment crucial. Medical treatment options such as carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (e.g., acetazolamide) and repeated lumbar punctures can provide temporary relief. However, the definitive treatment for NPH involves surgically inserting a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) shunt. This procedure has shown lasting clinical benefits in 70% to 90% of patients compared to their pre-operative state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 173
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents with a range of neurological symptoms. He has been experiencing painless double vision over the past day and is becoming worried. Approximately six months ago, he also recalled a two-week period where he had no feeling in his right arm. When directly asked, he also confesses to feeling tired and quite depressed.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Multiple sclerosis is a condition characterized by the demyelination of nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord. It is an autoimmune disease mediated by cells and is caused by recurring inflammation. Typically, it presents in early adulthood, with a female to male ratio of 3:2.
There are several risk factors associated with multiple sclerosis, including being of Caucasian race, living at a greater distance from the equator (as the risk tends to be higher), having a family history of the disease (with 20% of MS patients having an affected relative), and smoking. Interestingly, the rates of relapse tend to decrease during pregnancy.
There are three main patterns of multiple sclerosis. The most common is relapsing and remitting MS, which is characterized by periods of no symptoms followed by relapses (this is seen in 80% of patients at the time of diagnosis). Another pattern is primary progressive MS, where symptoms develop and worsen from the beginning with few remissions (seen in 10-15% of patients at diagnosis). Lastly, there is secondary progressive MS, which occurs after relapsing/remitting MS. In this pattern, symptoms worsen with fewer remissions, and approximately 50% of those with relapsing/remitting MS will develop this within 10 years of diagnosis.
The key to diagnosing MS lies in the history of neurological symptoms that are discrete in time and location of the affected body. Patients often experience fatigue and low mood, particularly during a relapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 174
Correct
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A 2-year-old girl presents with a hoarse cough. You suspect croup as the diagnosis. She has noticeable stridor when upset but none at rest and mild chest retractions are present. Her level of consciousness is normal, and her air entry is normal on chest examination, with no evidence of any crackles. Her SaO2 is 96% on air and does not decrease when upset.
What is this child's Westley croup score?Your Answer: 2 points
Explanation:Croup, also known as laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis, is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Other viruses such as rhinovirus, influenza, and respiratory syncytial viruses can also be responsible. Before the onset of stridor, there is usually a mild cold-like illness that lasts for 1-2 days. Symptoms reach their peak at 1-3 days, with the cough often being worse at night. A milder cough may persist for another 7-10 days.
A barking cough is a characteristic symptom of croup, but it does not indicate the severity of the condition. To reduce airway swelling, dexamethasone and prednisolone are commonly used. Nebulized budesonide can be an alternative if the child is experiencing vomiting. However, it’s important to note that steroids do not shorten the duration of the illness. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline can be administered.
Hospitalization for croup is rare and typically reserved for children who are experiencing increasing respiratory distress or showing signs of drowsiness/agitation. The Westley croup score is a useful tool for assessing the child’s condition and making appropriate management decisions. Children with moderate (score 2-7) or severe croup (score >7) may require hospital admission. On the other hand, many children with mild croup (score 0-1) can be safely discharged and treated at home.
The Westley croup score is determined based on the following criteria: the presence of stridor when agitated, the severity of retractions, air entry, SaO2 levels below 92%, and the child’s conscious level. In this particular case, the child’s Westley croup score is 2 points, indicating the presence of stridor when agitated and mild retractions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 175
Correct
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A 57-year-old man comes in with a fever, difficulty breathing, and a cough with phlegm. During the examination, you notice crackling sounds in his lower left lung. You diagnose him with community-acquired pneumonia.
Which of the following statements is accurate about the CURB-65 scoring system?Your Answer: A serum urea of 7.5 mmol/l scores 1 point
Explanation:The CURB criteria, also referred to as the CURB-65 criteria, is a clinical prediction rule that has been scientifically proven to predict mortality in cases of community-acquired pneumonia. These criteria consist of five factors: confusion of new onset (AMTS <8), urea level greater than 7 mmol/l, respiratory rate exceeding 30 per minute, blood pressure below 90 mmHg systolic or 60 mmHg diastolic, and age over 65 years. Based on the score obtained from these criteria, the risk level can be determined. A score of 0-1 indicates a low-risk situation, where outpatient treatment is recommended. A score of 2-3 suggests a moderate risk, and either inpatient treatment or an ambulatory care pathway is recommended. A score of 4-5 indicates a high risk, requiring hospitalization and potentially critical care involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 176
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient presents with nausea and vomiting and decreased urine output. He has only passed a small amount of urine in the last day, and he has noticeable swelling in his ankles. His blood tests show a sudden increase in his creatinine levels in the last 48 hours, leading to a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI).
What is a potential pre-renal cause of AKI in this patient?Your Answer: Cardiac failure
Explanation:Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This results in the accumulation of waste products and disturbances in fluid and electrolyte balance. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, with approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK developing AKI.
The causes of AKI can be categorized into pre-renal, intrinsic renal, and post-renal factors. The majority of AKI cases in the community are due to pre-renal causes, accounting for 90% of cases. These are often associated with conditions such as hypotension from sepsis or fluid depletion. Medications, particularly ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs, are also frequently implicated in AKI.
The table below summarizes the most common causes of AKI:
Pre-renal:
– Volume depletion (e.g., hemorrhage, severe vomiting or diarrhea, burns)
– Oedematous states (e.g., cardiac failure, liver cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome)
– Hypotension (e.g., cardiogenic shock, sepsis, anaphylaxis)
– Cardiovascular conditions (e.g., severe cardiac failure, arrhythmias)
– Renal hypoperfusion: NSAIDs, COX-2 inhibitors, ACE inhibitors or ARBs, Abdominal aortic aneurysm
– Renal artery stenosis
– Hepatorenal syndromeIntrinsic renal:
– Glomerular disease (e.g., glomerulonephritis, thrombosis, hemolytic-uremic syndrome)
– Tubular injury: acute tubular necrosis (ATN) following prolonged ischemia
– Acute interstitial nephritis due to drugs (e.g., NSAIDs), infection, or autoimmune diseases
– Vascular disease (e.g., vasculitis, polyarteritis nodosa, thrombotic microangiopathy, cholesterol emboli, renal vein thrombosis, malignant hypertension)
– EclampsiaPost-renal:
– Renal stones
– Blood clot
– Papillary necrosis
– Urethral stricture
– Prostatic hypertrophy or malignancy
– Bladder tumor
– Radiation fibrosis
– Pelvic malignancy
– Retroperitoneal fibrosis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 177
Correct
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A 68-year-old man suffers a fractured neck of femur. He is later diagnosed with osteoporosis and is prescribed medication for the secondary prevention of osteoporotic fragility fractures.
What is the recommended initial treatment for the secondary prevention of osteoporotic fragility fractures?Your Answer: Oral bisphosphonate
Explanation:Oral bisphosphonates are the primary choice for treating osteoporotic fragility fractures in individuals who have already experienced such fractures. After a fragility fracture, it is advised to start taking a bisphosphonate, typically alendronic acid, and consider supplementing with calcium and vitamin D.
There are other treatment options available for preventing fragility fractures after an initial occurrence. These include raloxifene, teriparatide, and denosumab.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency Department. She is exhibiting signs of acute psychosis.
Which ONE of the following is acknowledged as a primary symptom of schizophrenia?Your Answer: Blunted affect
Correct Answer: Thought echo
Explanation:The first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia, as described by Kurt Schneider, include auditory hallucinations such as hearing 3rd person voices discussing the patient, experiencing thought echo, and receiving commentary on one’s actions. Additionally, passivity phenomena may occur, such as thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, and feelings of thoughts and actions being under external control. Delusions, which can be primary or secondary, are also common in schizophrenia.
On the other hand, chronic schizophrenia is characterized by negative symptoms. These include poor motivation and self-care, social withdrawal, depression, flat and blunted affect, emotional incongruity, decreased activity, and poverty of thought and speech. These negative symptoms often persist in individuals with chronic schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 179
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman is found to have 'target cells' on her peripheral blood film.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Sickle-cell disease
Explanation:Target cells, also referred to as codocytes or Mexican hat cells, are a distinct type of red blood cells that display a unique appearance resembling a shooting target with a bullseye. These cells are commonly observed in individuals with sickle-cell disease, distinguishing it from the other conditions mentioned in the provided options. Hence, sickle-cell disease is the most probable diagnosis in this case. Additionally, target cells can also be associated with other conditions such as thalassaemia, liver disease, iron-deficiency anaemia, post splenectomy, and haemoglobin C disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 180
Correct
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The charge nurse approaches you to ask you to speak to an elderly woman who is dissatisfied and would like to file a complaint. She visited the emergency department with complaints of stomach discomfort and was examined by one of the male junior doctors currently on duty in the department. She alleges that he conducted a pelvic examination without providing sufficient explanation, and she is worried that it was unnecessary. Additionally, there was no chaperone present.
How would you handle this scenario?Your Answer: Speak to the patient to find out what happened, review the notes, discuss with the nursing staff on duty. Discuss with the consultant on duty; this will need further detailed investigation.
Explanation:Managing a difficult situation that involves teamwork and patient safety can be challenging. The first priority is to ensure the patient’s safety from a clinical standpoint. It is important to promptly inform the consultant on duty about the incident and gather all relevant information.
In the meantime, it is crucial to gather information from the patient, nursing staff, and written notes to fully understand the situation. A thorough investigation will be necessary, including a discussion with the doctor involved. Complaints of this nature must be taken seriously, and it may be necessary to send the doctor home while the investigation takes place.
Additionally, it is important to escalate the matter to the hospital hierarchy to ensure appropriate action is taken. The doctor should also be directed to support services as this process is likely to be stressful for them.
For further guidance on this matter, it is recommended to refer to the GMC Guidance on Intimate Examinations and Chaperones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 181
Correct
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A 62 year old female presents to the emergency department 1 hour after experiencing intense tearing chest pain that radiates to the back. The patient reports the pain as being extremely severe, rating it as 10/10. It is noted that the patient is prescribed medication for high blood pressure but admits to rarely taking the tablets. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 188/92 mmHg
Pulse rate: 96 bpm
Respiration rate: 23 rpm
Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
Temperature: 37.1ºC
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Aortic dissection
Explanation:The majority of dissections happen in individuals between the ages of 40 and 70, with the highest occurrence observed in the age group of 50 to 65.
Further Reading:
Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.
The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.
Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.
Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 182
Correct
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You review a 65-year-old man who has presented with visual problems. He has been taking amiodarone for several years.
Which SINGLE statement regarding the effects of amiodarone on the eye is true?Your Answer: Corneal microdeposits are almost universally present in patients taking amiodarone for longer than six months
Explanation:Corneal microdeposits are found in almost all individuals (over 90%) who have been taking amiodarone for more than six months, particularly at doses higher than 400 mg/day. These deposits generally do not cause any symptoms, although approximately 10% of patients may experience a perception of a ‘bluish halo’ around objects they see.
Amiodarone can also have other effects on the eye, but these are much less common, occurring in only 1-2% of patients. These effects include optic neuropathy, nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (N-AION), optic disc swelling, and visual field defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 183
Correct
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A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency department by her son due to a two day history of increased confusion and restlessness. The son informs you that the patient had a similar episode 8 months ago that was caused by a urinary tract infection. The son also mentions that the patient is generally in good health but was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease approximately 4 months ago after experiencing a tremor and difficulties with balance. While in the ED, the patient becomes verbally aggressive towards staff and other patients. You decide to administer medication to manage her acute behavior. What is the most suitable choice?
Your Answer: Lorazepam
Explanation:Haloperidol should not be used in patients with Parkinson’s, Lewy body dementia, or prolonged QT syndrome. It is the first choice for controlling aggressive behavior in most patients with delirium, but lorazepam is preferred for patients with Parkinson’s, Lewy body dementia, prolonged QT syndrome, extrapyramidal side effects, or delirium due to alcohol withdrawal. Haloperidol can reduce the effectiveness of levodopa in Parkinson’s disease by blocking dopamine receptors in the corpus striatum, which can lead to worsened motor function, psychosis, or a combination of both.
Further Reading:
Delirium is an acute syndrome that causes disturbances in consciousness, attention, cognition, and perception. It is also known as an acute confusional state. The DSM-IV criteria for diagnosing delirium include recent onset of fluctuating awareness, impairment of memory and attention, and disorganized thinking. Delirium typically develops over hours to days and may be accompanied by behavioral changes, personality changes, and psychotic features. It often occurs in individuals with predisposing factors, such as advanced age or multiple comorbidities, when exposed to new precipitating factors, such as medications or infection. Symptoms of delirium fluctuate throughout the day, with lucid intervals occurring during the day and worse disturbances at night. Falling and loss of appetite are often warning signs of delirium.
Delirium can be classified into three subtypes based on the person’s symptoms. Hyperactive delirium is characterized by inappropriate behavior, hallucinations, and agitation. Restlessness and wandering are common in this subtype. Hypoactive delirium is characterized by lethargy, reduced concentration, and appetite. The person may appear quiet or withdrawn. Mixed delirium presents with signs and symptoms of both hyperactive and hypoactive subtypes.
The exact pathophysiology of delirium is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve multiple mechanisms, including cholinergic deficiency, dopaminergic excess, and inflammation. The cause of delirium is usually multifactorial, with predisposing factors and precipitating factors playing a role. Predisposing factors include older age, cognitive impairment, frailty, significant injuries, and iatrogenic events. Precipitating factors include infection, metabolic or electrolyte disturbances, cardiovascular disorders, respiratory disorders, neurological disorders, endocrine disorders, urological disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, severe uncontrolled pain, alcohol intoxication or withdrawal, medication use, and psychosocial factors.
Delirium is highly prevalent in hospital settings, affecting up to 50% of inpatients aged over 65 and occurring in 30% of people aged over 65 presenting to the emergency department. Complications of delirium include increased risk of death, high in-hospital mortality rates, higher mortality rates following hospital discharge, increased length of stay in hospital, nosocomial infections, increased risk of admission to long-term care or re-admission to hospital, increased incidence of dementia, increased risk of falls and associated injuries and pressure sores.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man who is currently being treated for prostate cancer presents complaining of feeling constantly thirsty. His wife is accompanying him and states he has been very sleepy and disoriented over the past few days.
Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to be present?Your Answer: Hypernatraemia
Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Thirst, drowsiness, and confusion are strong indicators of hypercalcemia. Considering the patient’s breast cancer history, it is probable that this condition is the underlying cause of the metabolic imbalance. Malignancy accounts for around 20-30% of hypercalcemia cases, and any type of solid organ malignancy can lead to hypercalcemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncological Emergencies
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Question 185
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 7-year-old girl with a rash covered in honey-colored crust on her face and diagnose her with impetigo. You prescribe a topical fusidic acid treatment. The parents of the child would like to know the duration she should be kept away from school.
What is the recommended period for keeping her away from school due to this infection?Your Answer: 24 hours after starting antibiotic therapy
Correct Answer: 48 hours after starting antibiotic therapy
Explanation:Public Health England advises that children with impetigo should not attend school, nursery, or be under the care of childminders until the sores have formed a crust or until 48 hours after starting antibiotic treatment. Antibiotics help accelerate the healing process and decrease the period of contagiousness.
For more information, please refer to the Guidance on Infection Control in Schools and other Childcare Settings.
https://www.publichealth.hscni.net/sites/default/files/Guidance_on_infection_control_in%20schools_poster.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 186
Correct
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A 47-year-old man with a past medical history of alcohol-related visits to the emergency department presents to the ED after falling while intoxicated. He has a 6 cm laceration on the occipital region of his scalp. You examine the wound under local anesthesia. As you remove the dressing and clean away a significant blood clot, you notice pulsatile bleeding from the wound. Which arteries provide blood supply to the posterior scalp?
Your Answer: External carotid
Explanation:The scalp is primarily supplied with blood from branches of the external carotid artery. The posterior half of the scalp is specifically supplied by three branches of the external carotid artery. These branches are the superficial temporal artery, which supplies blood to the frontal and temporal regions of the scalp, the posterior auricular artery, which supplies blood to the area above and behind the external ear, and the occipital artery, which supplies blood to the back of the scalp.
Further Reading:
The scalp is the area of the head that is bordered by the face in the front and the neck on the sides and back. It consists of several layers, including the skin, connective tissue, aponeurosis, loose connective tissue, and periosteum of the skull. These layers provide protection and support to the underlying structures of the head.
The blood supply to the scalp primarily comes from branches of the external carotid artery and the ophthalmic artery, which is a branch of the internal carotid artery. These arteries provide oxygen and nutrients to the scalp tissues.
The scalp also has a complex venous drainage system, which is divided into superficial and deep networks. The superficial veins correspond to the arterial branches and are responsible for draining blood from the scalp. The deep venous network is drained by the pterygoid venous plexus.
In terms of innervation, the scalp receives sensory input from branches of the trigeminal nerve and the cervical nerves. These nerves transmit sensory information from the scalp to the brain, allowing us to perceive touch, pain, and temperature in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 187
Correct
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A 42-year-old man is found to have 'Reed-Sternberg cells' on his peripheral blood smear.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma
Explanation:Reed-Sternberg cells are distinctive large cells that are typically observed in Hodgkin lymphoma. These cells are often found to have two nuclei or a nucleus with two lobes. Additionally, they possess noticeable nucleoli that resemble eosinophilic inclusion-like structures, giving them an appearance similar to that of an owl’s eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is brought in to the department, having taken an overdose of his tricyclic antidepressants 4 hours earlier.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be seen on the ECG of a patient that has taken a tricyclic antidepressant overdose?Your Answer: Prolongation of the QT interval
Correct Answer: Shortening of the PR interval
Explanation:The cardiotoxic effects of TCAs occur when they block sodium channels, leading to broadening of the QRS complex, and potassium channels, resulting in prolongation of the QT interval. The severity of adverse events is directly related to the degree of QRS broadening. If the QRS complex is greater than 100 ms, it is likely that seizures may occur. If the QRS complex exceeds 160 ms, ventricular arrhythmias may be predicted. In cases of TCA overdose, certain changes can be observed on an ECG. These include sinus tachycardia, which is very common, prolongation of the PR interval, broadening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and in severe cases, ventricular arrhythmias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 189
Correct
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A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department with burns to the face and neck. It is decided to insert a central line into the femoral vein.
What is the positioning of the femoral vein in relation to the femoral artery?Your Answer: The femoral vein lies immediately medial to the femoral artery
Explanation:A central venous catheter (CVC) is a type of catheter that is inserted into a large vein in the body, typically in the neck, chest, or groin. It has several important uses, including CVP monitoring, pulmonary artery pressure monitoring, repeated blood sampling, IV access for large volumes of fluids or drugs, TPN administration, dialysis, pacing, and other procedures such as placement of IVC filters or venous stents.
When inserting a central line, it is ideal to use ultrasound guidance to ensure accurate placement. However, there are certain contraindications to central line insertion, including infection or injury to the planned access site, coagulopathy, thrombosis or stenosis of the intended vein, a combative patient, or raised intracranial pressure for jugular venous lines.
The most common approaches for central line insertion are the internal jugular, subclavian, femoral, and PICC (peripherally inserted central catheter) veins. The internal jugular vein is often chosen due to its proximity to the carotid artery, but variations in anatomy can occur. Ultrasound can be used to identify the vessels and guide catheter placement, with the IJV typically lying superficial and lateral to the carotid artery. Compression and Valsalva maneuvers can help distinguish between arterial and venous structures, and doppler color flow can highlight the direction of flow.
In terms of choosing a side for central line insertion, the right side is usually preferred to avoid the risk of injury to the thoracic duct and potential chylothorax. However, the left side can also be used depending on the clinical situation.
Femoral central lines are another option for central venous access, with the catheter being inserted into the femoral vein in the groin. Local anesthesia is typically used to establish a field block, with lidocaine being the most commonly used agent. Lidocaine works by blocking sodium channels and preventing the propagation of action potentials.
In summary, central venous catheters have various important uses and should ideally be inserted using ultrasound guidance. There are contraindications to their insertion, and different approaches can be used depending on the clinical situation. Local anesthesia is commonly used for central line insertion, with lidocaine being the preferred agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
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Question 190
Correct
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A 28-year-old with a past of opioid misuse is brought into the ER after being discovered in a collapsed state with decreased level of consciousness. You are worried about the patient's airway. Your consultant recommends using a nasopharyngeal airway adjunct instead of an oropharyngeal airway adjunct. Why is a nasopharyngeal airway preferred in this scenario?
Your Answer: Less likely to provoke the gag reflex
Explanation:When a patient is semi-conscious, it is less likely for the nasopharyngeal airway adjuncts (NPA’s) to trigger the gag reflex compared to oropharyngeal airways. Therefore, NPA’s are typically the preferred option in these cases.
Further Reading:
Techniques to keep the airway open:
1. Suction: Used to remove obstructing material such as blood, vomit, secretions, and food debris from the oral cavity.
2. Chin lift manoeuvres: Involves lifting the head off the floor and lifting the chin to extend the head in relation to the neck. Improves alignment of the pharyngeal, laryngeal, and oral axes.
3. Jaw thrust: Used in trauma patients with cervical spine injury concerns. Fingers are placed under the mandible and gently pushed upward.
Airway adjuncts:
1. Oropharyngeal airway (OPA): Prevents the tongue from occluding the airway. Sized according to the patient by measuring from the incisor teeth to the angle of the mandible. Inserted with the tip facing backwards and rotated 180 degrees once it touches the back of the palate or oropharynx.
2. Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA): Useful when it is difficult to open the mouth or in semi-conscious patients. Sized by length (distance between nostril and tragus of the ear) and diameter (roughly that of the patient’s little finger). Contraindicated in basal skull and midface fractures.
Laryngeal mask airway (LMA):
– Supraglottic airway device used as a first line or rescue airway.
– Easy to insert, sized according to patient’s bodyweight.
– Advantages: Easy insertion, effective ventilation, some protection from aspiration.
– Disadvantages: Risk of hypoventilation, greater gastric inflation than endotracheal tube (ETT), risk of aspiration and laryngospasm.Note: Proper training and assessment of the patient’s condition are essential for airway management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 191
Correct
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A 62-year-old man presents sweaty and distressed, complaining of abdominal pain and nausea. On examination, he has marked abdominal tenderness that is maximal in the epigastric area. Following his blood results, you make a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. He is a non-drinker.
His venous bloods are shown below:
Hb: 13.5 g/dL
White cell count: 14.2 x 109/L
Blood glucose 7.9 mmol/L
AST 275 IU/L
LDH 290 IU/L
Amylase: 980 IU/L
What is his Ranson score at admission?Your Answer: Three
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis is a common and serious cause of acute abdominal pain. It occurs when the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the release of enzymes that cause the organ to digest itself. The symptoms of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting, and pain that may radiate to the T6-T10 dermatomes or shoulder tip due to irritation of the phrenic nerve. Other signs include fever, tenderness in the epigastric area, jaundice, and the presence of Gray-Turner and Cullen signs, which are ecchymosis of the flank and peri-umbilical area, respectively.
To determine the severity of acute pancreatitis, the Ranson criteria are used as a clinical prediction rule. A score greater than three indicates severe pancreatitis with a mortality rate of over 15%. The criteria assessed upon admission include age over 55 years, white cell count above 16 x 109/L, blood glucose level higher than 11 mmol/L, serum AST level exceeding 250 IU/L, and serum LDH level surpassing 350 IU/L.
In this particular case, the patient’s Ranson score is three. This is based on the fact that she is 56 years old, her white cell count is 16.7 x 109/L, and her AST level is 358 IU/L.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 192
Correct
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You are managing an elderly trauma patient in the resuscitation bay. The patient has sustained severe chest contusions and you have concerns regarding the presence of cardiac tamponade. What is considered a classic clinical sign of cardiac tamponade?
Your Answer: Neck vein distension
Explanation:Cardiac tamponade is characterized by several classic clinical signs. These include distended neck veins, hypotension, and muffled heart sounds. These three signs are collectively known as Beck’s triad. Additionally, patients with cardiac tamponade may also experience pulseless electrical activity (PEA). It is important to recognize these signs as they can indicate the presence of cardiac tamponade.
Further Reading:
Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.
Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.
Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.
It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 193
Correct
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A 14 year old male is brought into the emergency department with a dislocated shoulder following a fall from a skateboard. The patient has been receiving Entonox during ambulance transport. What is a contraindication to administering Entonox in this case?
Your Answer: Pneumothorax
Explanation:Nitrous oxide should not be used in cases where there is trapped air, such as pneumothorax. This is because nitrous oxide can diffuse into the trapped air and increase the pressure, which can be harmful. This can be particularly dangerous in conditions like pneumothorax, where the trapped air can expand and affect breathing, or in cases of intracranial air after a head injury, trapped air after a recent underwater dive, or recent injection of gas into the eye.
Further Reading:
Entonox® is a mixture of 50% nitrous oxide and 50% oxygen that can be used for self-administration to reduce anxiety. It can also be used alongside other anesthesia agents. However, its mechanism of action for anxiety reduction is not fully understood. The Entonox bottles are typically identified by blue and white color-coded collars, but a new standard will replace these with dark blue shoulders in the future. It is important to note that Entonox alone cannot be used as the sole maintenance agent in anesthesia.
One of the effects of nitrous oxide is the second-gas effect, where it speeds up the absorption of other inhaled anesthesia agents. Nitrous oxide enters the alveoli and diffuses into the blood, displacing nitrogen. This displacement causes the remaining alveolar gases to become more concentrated, increasing the fractional content of inhaled anesthesia gases and accelerating the uptake of volatile agents into the blood.
However, when nitrous oxide administration is stopped, it can cause diffusion hypoxia. Nitrous oxide exits the blood and diffuses back into the alveoli, while nitrogen diffuses in the opposite direction. Nitrous oxide enters the alveoli much faster than nitrogen leaves, resulting in the dilution of oxygen within the alveoli. This can lead to diffusion hypoxia, where the oxygen concentration in the alveoli is diluted, potentially causing oxygen deprivation in patients breathing air.
There are certain contraindications for using nitrous oxide, as it can expand in air-filled spaces. It should be avoided in conditions such as head injuries with intracranial air, pneumothorax, recent intraocular gas injection, and entrapped air following a recent underwater dive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 194
Correct
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A child who has been involved in a car accident undergoes a traumatic cardiac arrest. You perform an anterolateral thoracotomy.
What is the accurate anatomical location for the incision that needs to be made?Your Answer: 4th intercostal space from the sternum to the posterior axillary line
Explanation:An anterolateral thoracotomy is a surgical procedure performed on the front part of the chest wall. It is commonly used in Emergency Department thoracotomy, with a preference for a left-sided approach in patients with traumatic arrest or left-sided chest injuries. However, in patients with right-sided chest injuries and profound hypotension but have not arrested, a right-sided approach is recommended.
The procedure is carried out in the following steps:
– An incision is made along the 4th or 5th intercostal space, starting from the sternum at the front and extending to the posterior axillary line.
– The incision should be deep enough to partially cut through the latissimus dorsi muscle.
– The skin, subcutaneous fat, and superficial portions of the pectoralis and serratus muscles are divided.
– The parietal pleura is divided, allowing entry into the pleural cavity.
– The intercostal muscles are completely cut, and a rib spreader is placed and opened to provide visualization of the thoracic cavity.
– The anterolateral approach allows access to important anatomical structures during resuscitation, including the pulmonary hilum, heart, and aorta.In cases where there is suspicion of a right-sided heart injury, an additional incision can be made on the right side, extending across the entire chest. This is known as a bilateral anterolateral thoracotomy or a clamshell thoracotomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 195
Correct
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A 35-year-old businessman has returned from a trip to the U.S.A. this morning with ear pain and ringing in his ears. He reports experiencing significant pain in his right ear while the plane was descending. He also feels slightly dizzy. Upon examination, there is fluid buildup behind his eardrum and Weber's test shows lateralization to the right side.
What is the MOST SUITABLE next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Give patient advice and reassurance
Explanation:This patient has experienced otic barotrauma, which is most commonly seen during aircraft descent but can also occur in divers. Otic barotrauma occurs when the eustachian tube fails to equalize the pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere, resulting in a pressure difference. This is more likely to happen in patients with eustachian tube dysfunction, such as those with acute otitis media or glue ear.
Patients with otic barotrauma often complain of severe ear pain, conductive hearing loss, ringing in the ears (tinnitus), and dizziness (vertigo). Upon examination, fluid can be observed behind the eardrum, and in more severe cases, the eardrum may even rupture.
In most instances, the symptoms of otic barotrauma resolve within a few days without any treatment. However, in more severe cases, it may take 2-3 weeks for the symptoms to subside. Nasal decongestants can be beneficial before and during a flight, but their effectiveness is limited once symptoms have already developed. Nasal steroids have no role in the management of otic barotrauma, and antibiotics should only be used if an infection develops.
The most appropriate course of action in this case would be to provide the patient with an explanation of what has occurred and reassure them that their symptoms should improve soon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 196
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman comes in with a suddenly painful right eye and sensitivity to light. The eye feels sandy and is visibly watery. The patient has been experiencing a mild cold for the past few days. You administer fluorescein drops to her eye, and this exposes the existence of a dendritic ulcer.
What is the PRIMARY probable causative organism?Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus (type 1)
Explanation:There are two types of infectious agents that can lead to the development of a dendritic ulcer. The majority of cases (80%) are caused by the herpes simplex virus (type I), while the remaining cases (20%) are caused by the herpes zoster virus. To effectively treat this condition, the patient should follow a specific treatment plan. This includes applying aciclovir ointment topically five times a day for a duration of 10 days. Additionally, prednisolone 0.5% drops should be used 2-4 times daily. It is also recommended to take oral high dose vitamin C, as it has been shown to reduce the healing time of dendritic ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 197
Correct
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A 9-month-old girl comes in with a significant haemarthrosis in her left knee after falling while trying to stand up using a side table. Her mother mentions that her older sister has a bleeding disorder and has also had haemarthrosis before.
What is the MOST probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemophilia A
Explanation:Haemophilia is a collection of genetic disorders that are inherited and lead to impaired blood clotting. Haemophilia A specifically occurs when there is a deficiency of factor VIII and is typically passed down as a recessive trait on the X chromosome.
The initial signs of haemophilia A usually appear around 6 months of age when infants start crawling, although it can manifest later. Bleeding can occur either spontaneously or as a result of trauma. One key indicator of haemophilia is bleeding into muscles and joints, known as haemarthrosis. While gastrointestinal and cerebral bleeding can also happen, they are less common occurrences.
Based on the symptoms described, the most likely diagnosis from the given options would be Haemophilia A, especially when there is a combination of haemarthrosis and an older brother with the same disorder.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system causes a decrease in platelet count. Antibodies target the glycoprotein IIb-IIIa or Ib complex. Acute ITP is more prevalent in children and affects both sexes equally. Chronic ITP, on the other hand, is more common in young to middle-aged women. Unlike haemophilia, ITP typically presents with symptoms such as nosebleeds, oral bleeding, purpura, or petechiae, rather than haemarthrosis. Additionally, ITP is not an inherited disorder.
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is an inherited disorder that follows an X-linked recessive pattern. It is characterized by a defect in the G6PD enzyme, which plays a crucial role in red blood cell metabolism. Most individuals with G6PD deficiency do not experience symptoms. However, haemolytic crisis can occur in response to factors like illness (especially infection and diabetic ketoacidosis), certain medications (such as specific antibiotics, antimalarials, sulphonamides, and aspirin), or certain foods (notably fava beans).
Von Willebrand disease (vWD) is the most common hereditary coagulation disorder, affecting approximately 1 in 100 individuals. It arises from a deficiency in Von Willebrand factor (vWF), which leads to reduced levels of factor VIII. vWF is responsible for protecting factor VIII from rapid breakdown in the blood and is also necessary for platelet adhesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old toddler comes in with a high temperature, trouble swallowing, and difficulty speaking. The child is drooling and has been intubated by a senior anesthesiologist and ENT surgeon. After examination, the diagnosis is determined to be acute epiglottitis.
What is the MOST LIKELY organism responsible for this condition?Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae type B
Correct Answer: Streptococcus spp.
Explanation:Acute epiglottitis is inflammation of the epiglottis, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. When the soft tissues surrounding the epiglottis are also affected, it is called acute supraglottitis. This condition is most commonly seen in children between the ages of 3 and 5, but it can occur at any age, with adults typically presenting in their 40s and 50s.
In the past, Haemophilus influenzae type B was the main cause of acute epiglottitis, but with the introduction of the Hib vaccination, it has become rare in children. Streptococcus spp. is now the most common causative organism. Other potential culprits include Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas spp., Moraxella catarrhalis, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and the herpes simplex virus. In immunocompromised patients, Candida spp. and Aspergillus spp. infections can occur.
The typical symptoms of acute epiglottitis include fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, difficulty swallowing secretions (especially in children who may drool), muffled voice, stridor, respiratory distress, rapid heartbeat, tenderness in the front of the neck over the hyoid bone, ear pain, and swollen lymph nodes in the neck. Some patients may also exhibit the tripod sign, where they lean forward on outstretched arms to relieve upper airway obstruction.
To diagnose acute epiglottitis, fibre-optic laryngoscopy is considered the gold standard investigation. However, this procedure should only be performed by an anaesthetist in a setting prepared for intubation or tracheostomy in case of airway obstruction. Other useful tests include a lateral neck X-ray to look for the thumbprint sign, throat swabs, blood cultures, and a CT scan of the neck if an abscess is suspected.
When dealing with a case of acute epiglottitis, it is crucial not to panic or distress the patient, especially in pediatric cases. Avoid attempting to examine the throat with a tongue depressor, as this can trigger spasm and worsen airway obstruction. Instead, keep the patient as calm as possible and immediately call a senior anaesthetist, a senior paediatrician, and an ENT surgeon. Nebulized adrenaline can be used as a temporary measure if there is critical airway obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 199
Correct
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A 5 year old child is brought to the emergency department by worried parents due to a foul smelling purulent discharge from the right ear and intermittent sneezing for the past 3 days.
What condition should be considered in this child?Your Answer: Nasal foreign body
Explanation:The most common sign of a foreign body (FB) in the nose in children is unilateral purulent nasal discharge. This discharge may have a foul smell. It is important to note that children often deny putting foreign bodies in their nose due to fear of getting in trouble. Purulent nasal discharge is more likely to occur with organic FBs, as they can absorb water and minerals, creating a breeding ground for bacterial colonization and infection. This type of discharge is more likely to occur after the FB has been in the nose for a few days.
Further Reading:
Foreign bodies in the ear or nose are a common occurrence, especially in children between the ages of 2 and 8. Foreign bodies in the ear are more common than those in the nose. Symptoms of foreign bodies in the ear may include ear pain, a feeling of fullness, impaired hearing, discharge, tinnitus, and vertigo. It is important to consider referral to an ENT specialist for the removal of potentially harmful foreign bodies such as glass, sharp objects, button batteries, and tightly wedged items. ENT involvement is also necessary if there is a perforation of the eardrum or if the foreign body is embedded in the eardrum.
When preparing a patient for removal, it is important to establish rapport and keep the patient relaxed, especially if they are a young child. The patient should be positioned comfortably and securely, and ear drops may be used to anesthetize the ear. Removal methods for foreign bodies in the ear include the use of forceps or a hook, irrigation (except for batteries, perforations, or organic material), suction, and magnets for ferrous metal foreign bodies. If there is an insect in the ear, it should be killed with alcohol, lignocaine, or mineral oil before removal.
After the foreign body is removed, it is important to check for any residual foreign bodies and to discharge the patient with appropriate safety net advice. Prophylactic antibiotic drops may be considered if there has been an abrasion of the skin.
Foreign bodies in the nose are less common but should be dealt with promptly due to the risk of posterior dislodgement into the airway. Symptoms of foreign bodies in the nose may include nasal discharge, sinusitis, nasal pain, epistaxis, or blood-stained discharge. Most nasal foreign bodies are found on the anterior or middle third of the nose and may not show up on x-rays.
Methods for removing foreign bodies from the nose include the mother’s kiss technique, suction, forceps, Jobson horne probe, and foley catheter. The mother’s kiss technique involves occluding the patent nostril and having a parent blow into the patient’s mouth. A foley catheter can be used by inserting it past the foreign body and inflating the balloon to gently push the foreign body out. ENT referral may be necessary if the foreign body cannot be visualized but there is a high suspicion, if attempts to remove the foreign body have failed, if the patient requires sed
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 200
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain and a small amount of rectal bleeding. During the examination, she has a slight fever (38.1°C) and experiences tenderness in the left iliac fossa. She has a long history of constipation.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute diverticulitis
Explanation:Acute diverticulitis occurs when a diverticulum becomes inflamed or perforated. This inflammation can either stay localized, forming a pericolic abscess, or spread and cause peritonitis. The typical symptoms of acute diverticulitis include abdominal pain (most commonly felt in the lower left quadrant), fever/sepsis, tenderness in the left iliac fossa, the presence of a mass in the left iliac fossa, and rectal bleeding. About 90% of cases involve the sigmoid colon, which is why left iliac fossa pain and tenderness are commonly seen.
To diagnose acute diverticulitis, various investigations should be conducted. These include blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, C-reactive protein, and blood cultures. Imaging studies like abdominal X-ray, erect chest X-ray, and possibly an abdominal CT scan may also be necessary.
Complications that can arise from acute diverticulitis include perforation leading to abscess formation or peritonitis, intestinal obstruction, massive rectal bleeding, fistulae, and strictures.
In the emergency department, the treatment for diverticulitis should involve providing suitable pain relief, administering intravenous fluids, prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics (such as intravenous co-amoxiclav), and advising the patient to refrain from eating or drinking. It is also important to refer the patient to the on-call surgical team for further management.
For more information on diverticular disease, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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