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  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of lip and tongue swelling,...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of lip and tongue swelling, redness, and tingling after consuming apples for the past 2 months. The symptoms appear suddenly and last for approximately half an hour. However, they do not occur when the apples are cooked. The patient has a medical history of asthma, hayfever, and several food allergies, including peanuts, brazil nuts, and cashews.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral allergy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Food allergy symptoms usually involve nausea and diarrhea, regardless of whether the allergen has been cooked or not. However, oral allergy syndrome is a specific type of reaction that causes tingling in the lips, tongue, and mouth after consuming raw plant foods like spinach or apples. This reaction doesn’t occur when the food is cooked. Patients with this syndrome often have a history of atopic diseases like asthma. Anaphylaxis, on the other hand, presents with wheezing, hives, low blood pressure, and even collapse. Angioedema, which is swelling of the upper airway’s submucosa, is usually caused by ACE inhibitors or C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency and may be accompanied by urticaria.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man with COPD and no other co-morbidities is being seen in...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with COPD and no other co-morbidities is being seen in the respiratory outpatient department. He smoked 30 cigarettes a day for 40 years but has not smoked since his diagnosis of COPD 5 years ago. He has had his influenza and pneumococcal vaccinations and has attended pulmonary rehabilitation. He was admitted to hospital twice in the last year with exacerbations of COPD. A CT scan 6 months ago showed typical changes of COPD with no other evidence of other lung pathology. His pre-clinic bloods are as follows:

      Hb 142 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 356 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 10.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 6.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 74 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 2 mg/L (< 5)
      Bilirubin 6 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 46 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 15u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 56 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 42 g/L (35 - 50)

      What test should be done before starting azithromycin?

      Your Answer: ECG

      Explanation:

      An ECG and baseline liver function tests should be performed prior to initiating azithromycin to ensure there is no prolonged QT interval and to establish a baseline for liver function. As the liver function tests in the question stem were normal, the most suitable option would be to conduct an ECG.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - At what stage of the menstrual cycle do levels of progesterone reach their...

    Correct

    • At what stage of the menstrual cycle do levels of progesterone reach their highest point?

      Your Answer: Luteal phase

      Explanation:

      A fundamental comprehension of physiology is necessary to comprehend contraception, gynaecological disorders, and fertility issues, as progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation, despite the AKT having limited inquiries about it.

      Phases of the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium undergoes proliferation. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol. When the egg has matured, it secretes enough oestradiol to trigger the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which leads to ovulation.

      During the luteal phase, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which causes the endometrium to change to a secretory lining. If fertilization doesn’t occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall. Oestradiol levels also rise again during the luteal phase. Cervical mucous thickens and forms a plug across the external os following menstruation. Just prior to ovulation, the mucous becomes clear, acellular, low viscosity, and stretchy. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky. Basal body temperature falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the phases of the menstrual cycle is important for women’s health and fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting bladder retraining, her symptoms persist. The decision is made to prescribe a muscarinic antagonist.

      What is an example of a medication that falls under the category of muscarinic antagonist?

      Your Answer: Tolterodine

      Explanation:

      Oxybutynin and solifenacin are other examples of muscarinic antagonists used for urinary incontinence. Muscarinic antagonists used for different conditions include ipratropium for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and procyclidine for Parkinson’s disease.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 14-month-old girl presents with rash and high fever.

    A diagnosis of measles is...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old girl presents with rash and high fever.

      A diagnosis of measles is suspected.

      Which one of the following statements is true concerning measles infection?

      Your Answer: Koplik spots are pathognomonic

      Correct Answer: The erythematous maculopapular rash usually starts on the hands

      Explanation:

      Measles: Key Points to Remember

      – Prophylactic antibiotics are not effective in treating measles.
      – Koplik spots are a unique symptom of measles.
      – Erythromycin doesn’t reduce the duration of measles.
      – The MMR vaccine is typically given to children between 12-15 months of age.
      – The rash associated with measles is widespread and different from the vesicular rash of Chickenpox.

      Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious complications, particularly in young children. It is important to remember that prophylactic antibiotics are not effective in treating measles, and erythromycin doesn’t shorten the duration of the illness. One unique symptom of measles is the presence of Koplik spots, which are small white spots that appear on the inside of the mouth. The MMR vaccine is the most effective way to prevent measles and is typically given to children between 12-15 months of age. Finally, it is important to note that the rash associated with measles is widespread and different from the vesicular rash of Chickenpox.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with sudden shortness of breath. An...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with sudden shortness of breath. An ambulance is called and a brief medical history is obtained. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy recently. The following are her vital signs:

      - Blood pressure: 100/60 mmHg
      - Respiratory rate: 28 breaths per minute
      - Temperature: 36.8ºC
      - Oxygen saturation: 92% on room air

      While waiting for the ambulance, the patient is given oxygen through a face mask and an ECG is performed. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the expected ECG finding?

      Your Answer: S1Q3T3

      Correct Answer: Sinus tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. One of the most common signs of PE is an elevated heart rate, which can be caused by the increased demand on the right ventricle of the heart. This can lead to a range of other symptoms, including shortness of breath, chest pain, and coughing.

      Another common sign of PE is the presence of S1Q3T3 on an electrocardiogram (ECG). This is characterized by a deep S-wave in lead I, a Q-wave in lead III, and an inverted T-wave in lead III. While this finding is associated with PE, it is not specific to the condition and may not be present in all cases.

      T-wave inversions in leads V1-V4 can also be a sign of right ventricular strain, which can occur as a result of the increased demand on the heart caused by PE. However, this is not the most common finding in cases of PE.

      Pulmonary embolism can be difficult to diagnose as it can present with a variety of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were common clinical signs in patients diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. The Well’s criteria for diagnosing a PE use tachycardia rather than tachypnea. All patients with symptoms or signs suggestive of a PE should have a history taken, examination performed, and a chest x-ray to exclude other pathology.

      To rule out a PE, the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) can be used. All criteria must be absent to have a negative PERC result, which reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. If the suspicion of PE is greater than this, a 2-level PE Wells score should be performed. A score of more than 4 points indicates a likely PE, and an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged. If the CTPA is negative, patients do not need further investigations or treatment for PE.

      CTPA is now the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease. D-dimer levels should be considered for patients over 50 years old. A chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. The sensitivity of V/Q scanning is around 75%, while the specificity is 97%. Peripheral emboli affecting subsegmental arteries may be missed on CTPA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      57.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the correct statement regarding warfarin treatment? ...

    Correct

    • What is the correct statement regarding warfarin treatment?

      Your Answer: Patients with minor bleeding and an INR greater than 8 should receive vitamin K1

      Explanation:

      Understanding Warfarin Therapy: Inhibiting Vitamin K Dependent Factors and Managing Bleeding

      Warfarin is a medication that competitively inhibits the carboxylation of vitamin K dependent factors, including factor II, VII, IX, X, and protein C. Its half-life is approximately 44 hours, and while it is present in breast milk, the amount is too small to have any clinical significance. Unlike heparin therapy, warfarin is less likely to cause autoimmune thrombocytopenia and osteoporosis as side-effects.

      However, it is important to monitor patients on warfarin therapy for major bleeding and an international normalized ratio (INR) greater than 8, with or without bleeding. In such cases, warfarin should be stopped and phytomenadione, a form of vitamin K, should be administered either intravenously or orally. The dose may be repeated after 24 hours if the INR remains high, and warfarin can be restarted once the INR falls below 5. If the INR is between 6-8 with no bleeding, warfarin can be temporarily stopped without the need for phytomenadione.

      In cases of major bleeding, dried prothrombin complex may also be necessary to replace factors II, VII, IX, and X. Understanding the mechanisms of warfarin therapy and proper management of bleeding can help ensure the safety and efficacy of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old man has a very poor memory. He makes up stories to...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has a very poor memory. He makes up stories to account for gaps in his memory. He doesn't realise what he is doing.

      On examination he seems apathetic and has an unsteady gait. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Korsakoff's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Complex partial seizures

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome: A Case of Poor Memory and Confabulation

      Looking at this case history, it is evident that the patient is experiencing poor memory, confabulation, lack of insight, apathy, and an ataxic gait. These symptoms are typical of Korsakoff’s Syndrome, which is commonly caused by alcohol abuse. The syndrome presents with a triad of symptoms, including mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Confabulation is a characteristic of Korsakoff’s, making it the most likely diagnosis of those given above. However, it can be prevented by administering thiamine.

      In summary, Korsakoff’s Syndrome is a serious condition that can result in poor memory, confabulation, and other debilitating symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing further damage and improving the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 24-year old health care assistant, Sarah, arrives at the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 24-year old health care assistant, Sarah, arrives at the emergency department with a needle-stick injury that occurred on Saturday evening. She has just been informed that the patient who caused the injury has tested positive for HIV and is seeking guidance.

      What advice would you offer?

      Your Answer: Immediately start post-exposure prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      Fortunately, Helena falls within the 72-hour window period for commencing post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV, and as such, she should start PEP without delay.

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

      Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      1995
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Linda is a 29-year-old woman who presents to your clinic with a rash...

    Incorrect

    • Linda is a 29-year-old woman who presents to your clinic with a rash around her mouth that has been present for 2 weeks. She reports that she recently switched to a different brand of foundation make-up.

      Upon examination, you observe clustered reddish papules, vesicles, and pustules on an erythematous base around her mouth and cheeks. The lip margins are unaffected. Your diagnosis is perioral dermatitis.

      What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a 2 week course of a moderately potent topical corticosteroid

      Correct Answer: Prescribe 6 week course of an oral lymecycline

      Explanation:

      Perioral dermatitis can be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. However, before starting treatment, it is important to evaluate any underlying factors and advise the patient to avoid using cosmetics, cleansers, and moisturizers on the affected area.

      For milder cases, a topical antibiotic such as clindamycin, erythromycin, or metronidazole can be used. However, for more severe cases, a systemic antibiotic such as oxytetracycline, lymecycline, doxycycline, or erythromycin should be used for a period of 4-6 weeks.

      It is important to note that the use of topical steroids should be avoided as they can cause or exacerbate perioral dermatitis. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it can be associated with the use of topical steroids for minor skin problems.

      Referral to a dermatologist is not necessary at this stage, as perioral dermatitis can be effectively treated in primary care. However, if the condition doesn’t respond to treatment or alternative diagnoses are being considered, referral to a dermatologist may be appropriate.

      Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis

      Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.

      When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      33.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Health (1/2) 50%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Older Adults (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
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