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Question 1
Incorrect
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A teenager prescribed clozapine for schizophrenia develops depression and is given an SSRI. Three days after starting the new tablets they have a seizure and are admitted to hospital. What is the most probable cause of the seizure?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:When taken with clozapine, many SSRIs can cause an increase in its levels. However, citalopram and escitalopram are considered safe as they do not affect the cytochrome system. Although paroxetine is believed to interact, it has been proven safe when used at normal clinical doses alongside clozapine. Sertraline has minimal impact on clozapine levels.
Interactions of Antidepressants with Cytochrome P450 System
Antidepressants, particularly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can have significant effects on the cytochrome P450 system. This can result in drug interactions that can affect the efficacy and safety of the medications.
One example of such interaction is between fluvoxamine and theophylline. Fluvoxamine is a potent inhibitor of CYP1A2, which can lead to increased levels of theophylline in the body. This can cause adverse effects such as nausea, vomiting, and tremors.
Another example is between fluoxetine and clozapine. Fluoxetine is a potent inhibitor of CYP2D6, which can increase the risk of seizures with clozapine. Clozapine is metabolized by CYP1A2, CYP3A4, and CYP2D6, and any inhibition of these enzymes can affect its metabolism and increase the risk of adverse effects.
It is important to be aware of these interactions and monitor patients closely when prescribing antidepressants, especially in those who are taking other medications that are metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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The prevalence of depressive disease in a village with an adult population of 1000 was assessed using a new diagnostic score. The results showed that out of 1000 adults, 200 tested positive for the disease and 800 tested negative. What is the prevalence of depressive disease in this population?
Your Answer: 20%
Explanation:The prevalence of the disease is 20% as there are currently 200 cases out of a total population of 1000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about criminal activity in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer: Males are up to three times more likely to go to prison for their first offence than females
Correct Answer: Females are reported less frequently for crimes
Explanation:Offending in the UK: Gender and Age Differences
The peak age for offending in the UK is different for girls and boys, with girls peaking at 14 years and boys at 17-18 years. Half of the more serious indictable crimes are committed by individuals under the age of 21. As individuals mature, crime rates generally decrease, except for a small peak in women aged 40-50 around menopause.
In the UK, males convicted of crimes outnumber females by a ratio of 5 to 1. Females are less frequently reported for crimes, especially by male police officers, yet they are up to three times more likely to be imprisoned for their first offense than males.
Female offenders tend to come from more damaged backgrounds and exhibit more psychological and behavioral disturbances than males who have committed the same offense. This is reflected in the fact that females in prison tend to be more behaviorally and psychiatrically disturbed than their male counterparts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about frontotemporal lobar dementias?
Your Answer: They tend to have an acute onset
Correct Answer: Compared to Alzheimer's recent memory is preserved better than remote memory
Explanation:Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration
Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that involve the atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by progressive dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. FTLD is the third most common form of dementia across all age groups and a leading type of early-onset dementia.
The disease has common features such as onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD: behavioral-variant (bvFTD), language variant – primary progressive aphasia (PPA), and the language variant is further subdivided into semantic variant PPA (aka semantic dementia) and non-fluent agrammatic variant PPA (nfvPPA).
As the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge, as an initially focal degeneration becomes more diffuse and spreads to affect large regions in the frontal and temporal lobes. The key differences between the subtypes are summarized in the table provided. The bvFTD subtype is characterized by poor personal and social decorum, disinhibition, poor judgment and problem-solving, apathy, compulsive/perseverative behavior, hyperorality of dietary changes, and loss of empathy. The nfvPPA subtype is characterized by slow/slurred speech, decreased word output and phrase length, word-finding difficulties, apraxia of speech, and spared single-word comprehension. The svPPA subtype is characterized by intact speech fluency, word-finding difficulties (anomia), impaired single-word comprehension, repetitive speech, and reduced word comprehension.
In conclusion, FTLD is a progressive, heterogeneous, neurodegenerative disorder that affects the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD, and as the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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Which of the following would be excluded as an instance of past violence according to the HCR-20?
Your Answer: Regular involvement in mixed martial arts
Explanation:The HCR-20 is designed to evaluate an individual’s potential for aggression towards others. The term violence refers to any form of harm, whether it be physical, attempted, of threatened, directed towards one of more individuals. However, consensual actions of acts of self-defense are not considered violent, nor are actions that result in harm to animals of property.
The HCR-20 is a comprehensive tool used to assess the risk of violence in adults. It takes into account various factors from the past, present, and future to provide a holistic view of the individual’s risk. The tool consists of 20 items, which are divided into three domains: historical, clinical, and risk management.
The historical domain includes factors such as previous violence, young age at first violent incident, relationship instability, employment problems, substance use problems, major mental illness, psychopathy, early maladjustment, personality disorder, and prior supervision failure. These factors are important to consider as they provide insight into the individual’s past behavior and potential risk for future violence.
The clinical domain includes factors such as lack of insight, negative attitudes, active symptoms of major mental illness, impulsivity, and unresponsiveness to treatment. These factors are important to consider as they provide insight into the individual’s current mental state and potential risk for future violence.
The risk management domain includes factors such as plans lack feasibility, exposure to destabilizers, lack of personal support, noncompliance with remediation attempts, and stress. These factors are important to consider as they provide insight into the individual’s ability to manage their risk and potential for future violence.
Overall, the HCR-20 is a valuable tool for assessing the risk of violence in adults. It provides a comprehensive view of the individual’s risk and can be used to inform treatment and risk management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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Which mood stabilizer has the strongest evidence for preventing suicide in individuals diagnosed with bipolar affective disorder?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium – Clinical Usage
Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.
Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.
Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.
Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.
Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.
The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 7
Correct
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A middle-aged man with a hemiparesis starts to tear up at the slightest provocation, even though he insists that he is not feeling down. What is your suspicion?
Your Answer: Pathological crying
Explanation:Pathological Crying
Pathological crying, also known as pseudobulbar affect, is a condition characterized by sudden outbursts of crying of laughing in response to minor stimuli without any changes in mood. This condition can occur in response to nonspecific and inconsequential stimuli, and lacks a clear association with the prevailing mood state. Pathological crying can result from various neurological conditions, including strokes and multiple sclerosis.
When it comes to treating pathological crying post-stroke, citalopram is often the recommended treatment due to its efficacy in open label studies. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest that TCAs of SSRIs may be effective for MS, while valproic acid and the combination of dextromethorphan and low dose quinidine have also shown efficacy.
Understanding the neuroanatomy of pathological laughing and crying is important for diagnosing and treating this condition. Further research is needed to better understand the underlying mechanisms and develop more effective treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 8
Correct
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NICE recommends a certain treatment for post-traumatic stress disorder.
Your Answer: Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing
Explanation:EMDR: A Trauma-Focused Therapy for PTSD
EMDR, of eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing, is a therapy developed by Francine Shapiro in the 1980s that focuses on processing traumatic memories. While the exact way it works is not fully understood, it involves reliving traumatic memories while experiencing bilateral alternating stimulation, often through a light source. EMDR is recommended by the NICE Guidelines as a treatment for PTSD, along with trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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In a healthy right-handed man, which structure is typically larger in the left hemisphere compared to the right hemisphere?
Your Answer: Frontal lobe
Correct Answer: Planum temporale
Explanation:Cerebral Asymmetry in Planum Temporale and its Implications in Language and Auditory Processing
The planum temporale, a triangular region in the posterior superior temporal gyrus, is a highly lateralized brain structure involved in language and music processing. Studies have shown that the planum temporale is up to ten times larger in the left cerebral hemisphere than the right, with this asymmetry being more prominent in men. This asymmetry can be observed in gestation and is present in up to 70% of right-handed individuals.
Recent research suggests that the planum temporale also plays an important role in auditory processing, specifically in representing the location of sounds in space. However, reduced planum temporale asymmetry has been observed in individuals with dyslexia, stuttering, and schizophrenia. These findings highlight the importance of cerebral asymmetry in the planum temporale and its implications in language and auditory processing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following scenarios could be considered as a valid defence of insane automatism?
Your Answer: Alcohol intoxication
Correct Answer: Somnambulism
Explanation:The origin of insane automatism is internal to the body, while in the case of sane automatism, it is caused by external factors.
Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits
To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.
Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses
A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about the HCR-20?
Your Answer: It includes items on violence to animals and property
Correct Answer: It can be completed individually of by a team
Explanation:One of the primary criticisms of the HCR-20 is its failure to account for protective factors. While formal training is not required to use the tool, it is recommended. Additionally, the HCR-20 only assesses the risk of violence towards people and does not consider violence towards animals of property. The value of the HCR-20 lies in the process of completing it, rather than the final score, which is considered meaningless and cannot be used to determine dangerousness. The HCR-20 can be completed by an individual of a team.
The HCR-20 is a comprehensive tool used to assess the risk of violence in adults. It takes into account various factors from the past, present, and future to provide a holistic view of the individual’s risk. The tool consists of 20 items, which are divided into three domains: historical, clinical, and risk management.
The historical domain includes factors such as previous violence, young age at first violent incident, relationship instability, employment problems, substance use problems, major mental illness, psychopathy, early maladjustment, personality disorder, and prior supervision failure. These factors are important to consider as they provide insight into the individual’s past behavior and potential risk for future violence.
The clinical domain includes factors such as lack of insight, negative attitudes, active symptoms of major mental illness, impulsivity, and unresponsiveness to treatment. These factors are important to consider as they provide insight into the individual’s current mental state and potential risk for future violence.
The risk management domain includes factors such as plans lack feasibility, exposure to destabilizers, lack of personal support, noncompliance with remediation attempts, and stress. These factors are important to consider as they provide insight into the individual’s ability to manage their risk and potential for future violence.
Overall, the HCR-20 is a valuable tool for assessing the risk of violence in adults. It provides a comprehensive view of the individual’s risk and can be used to inform treatment and risk management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A woman with alcohol dependency and depression attends clinic and informs you that she intends to stop drinking alcohol. She is adamant that she does not want any medication to assist in the detox but is keen to know how long the withdrawal symptoms may last. What would be the accurate estimate of the potential length of the withdrawal?
Your Answer: 3 days
Correct Answer: 14 days
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.
Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about hypomania?
Your Answer: It is associated with mood congruent delusions
Correct Answer: It does not severely affect psychosocial functioning
Explanation:A hypomanic episode does not result in significant impairment in social of occupational functioning of require hospitalization, and if it includes psychotic features, it is classified as a manic episode.
Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 14
Correct
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What standardized mortality ratio indicates a lower mortality rate in a sample group compared to a reference group?
Your Answer: 0.5
Explanation:A negative SMR is not possible. An SMR less than 1.0 suggests that there were fewer deaths than expected in the study population, while an SMR of 1.0 indicates that the observed and expected deaths were equal. An SMR greater than 1.0 indicates that there were excess deaths in the study population.
Calculation of Standardised Mortality Ratio (SMR)
To calculate the SMR, age and sex-specific death rates in the standard population are obtained. An estimate for the number of people in each category for both the standard and study populations is needed. The number of expected deaths in each age-sex group of the study population is calculated by multiplying the age-sex-specific rates in the standard population by the number of people in each category of the study population. The sum of all age- and sex-specific expected deaths gives the expected number of deaths for the whole study population. The observed number of deaths is then divided by the expected number of deaths to obtain the SMR.
The SMR can be standardised using the direct of indirect method. The direct method is used when the age-sex-specific rates for the study population and the age-sex-structure of the standard population are known. The indirect method is used when the age-specific rates for the study population are unknown of not available. This method uses the observed number of deaths in the study population and compares it to the number of deaths that would be expected if the age distribution was the same as that of the standard population.
The SMR can be interpreted as follows: an SMR less than 1.0 indicates fewer than expected deaths in the study population, an SMR of 1.0 indicates the number of observed deaths equals the number of expected deaths in the study population, and an SMR greater than 1.0 indicates more than expected deaths in the study population (excess deaths). It is sometimes expressed after multiplying by 100.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 15
Correct
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Which of the following has the greatest number of risk factors associated with completed suicide?
Your Answer: 45-year-old male, divorced, unemployed, social class V
Explanation:Suicide Risk Factors
Risk factors for completed suicide are numerous and include various demographic, social, and psychological factors. Men are at a higher risk than women, with the risk peaking at age 45 for men and age 55 for women. Being unmarried and unemployed are also risk factors. Concurrent mental disorders are present in about 90% of people who commit suicide, with depression being the most commonly associated disorder. Previous suicide attempts and substance misuse are also significant risk factors. Co-existing serious medical conditions and personality factors such as rigid thinking, pessimism, and perfectionism also increase the risk of suicide. It is important to identify and address these risk factors in order to prevent suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which statement about Brief psychodynamic therapy is false?
Your Answer: Patients need to be motivated
Correct Answer: Transference is not considered important
Explanation:Brief Psychodynamic Psychotherapy: A Time-Limited Treatment
Brief psychodynamic psychotherapy is a type of therapy that is based on psychodynamic principles and is designed to be completed within a limited time frame, typically 10-12 sessions. This therapy is particularly effective when there is a specific focus of problem that the patient is dealing with. However, it is important that the patient is highly motivated and able to think in feeling terms for the therapy to be successful.
There are different subtypes of brief psychodynamic psychotherapy, and some factors are considered contraindications for this type of therapy. These include serious suicide attempts, substance abuse, and marked acting out. Overall, brief psychodynamic psychotherapy can be a useful tool for addressing specific issues and helping patients achieve their therapeutic goals within a limited time frame.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the recommended duration of antidepressant treatment for a patient who has experienced a single episode of depression?
Your Answer: For 12 months following the first sign of improvement
Correct Answer: For 6-9 months following complete remission
Explanation:Depression Treatment Duration
It is recommended to treat a single episode of depression for 6-9 months after complete remission. Abruptly stopping antidepressants after recovery can lead to a relapse in 50% of patients within 3-6 months. For patients who have experienced 2 of more depressive episodes in recent history, NICE recommends a minimum of 2 years of antidepressant treatment. These guidelines are outlined in the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 18
Correct
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One of the following statements that describes a type I error is the rejection of a true null hypothesis.
Your Answer: The null hypothesis is rejected when it is true
Explanation:Making a false positive conclusion by rejecting the null hypothesis.
Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics
In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.
The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.
Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 19
Correct
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A 16-year-old male is caught spying on his neighbour whilst she is undressing. The police report that this is the fifth time he has been caught doing this in the past 6 months. He is assessed by a psychiatrist and discloses a six-month history of intense urges to watch females undressing in their homes. He denies feeling distressed by these urges.
Which of the following conclusion would be most appropriate in this case according to the DSM-5?Your Answer: A diagnosis of ‘Voyeuristic Disorder’ should not be made as the individual is under the age of 18
Explanation:Voyeuristic disorder is typically observed in adult males who develop a sexual interest in secretly observing individuals without their knowledge. While this interest may first arise during adolescence, a diagnosis of voyeuristic disorder is only made after the age of 18 due to challenges in distinguishing it from normal sexual curiosity during puberty. The DSM-5 identifies voyeuristic behavior as a disorder when it causes harm, which can manifest as either personal distress of engaging in non-consensual acts.
Paraphilias are intense and persistent sexual interests other than sexual interest in genital stimulation of preparatory fondling with phenotypically normal, physically mature, consenting human partners. They are divided into those relating to erotic activity and those relating to erotic target. In order to become a disorder, paraphilias must be associated with distress of impairment to the individual of with harm to others. The DSM-5 lists 8 recognised paraphilic disorder but acknowledges that there are many more. Treatment modalities for the paraphilias have limited scientific evidence to support their use. Psychological therapy (especially CBT) is often used (with extremely variable results). Pharmacological options include SSRI, Naltrexone, Antipsychotics, GnRH agonists, and Anti-androgens and progestational drugs (e.g. cyproterone acetate).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 20
Correct
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What is the most common condition that is often associated with dyslexia?
Your Answer: ADHD
Explanation:Dyslexia is a specific learning disorder that affects a person’s ability to read and process information. It is not caused by intellectual disabilities, visual of auditory impairments, of inadequate education. Dyslexia can affect both reading and writing skills, as well as the processing of information that is seen of heard. It is a lifelong condition that occurs across the range of intellectual abilities, with boys being diagnosed more often than girls. The prevalence of dyslexia is around 5-10% among school-aged children. Signs of dyslexia include poor spelling, difficulty with written information, confusion with letter order, and poor handwriting. Dyslexia is often associated with other disorders such as ADHD, conduct disorder, and oppositional defiant disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What is the proportion of individuals with dementia who are younger than 65 years old?
Your Answer: 13%
Correct Answer: 2%
Explanation:Epidemiological Findings on Dementia
Dementia is a disease that primarily affects older individuals, with a doubling of cases every five years. While the median survival time from diagnosis to death is approximately 5-6 years, 2% of those affected are under 65 years of age. In the UK, early onset dementia is more prevalent in men aged 50-65, while late onset dementia is marginally more prevalent in women. Approximately 60% of people with dementia live in private households, with 55% having mild dementia, 30% having moderate dementia, and 15% having severe dementia. These international and UK-specific epidemiological findings provide insight into the prevalence and characteristics of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30 year old patient needs medication for opiate withdrawal, during a regular physical check-up it is discovered that they have a significantly low blood pressure.
What should be avoided in this case?Your Answer: Buprenorphine
Correct Answer: Lofexidine
Explanation:Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 23
Correct
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A client inquires about the concept of transference, what would be your best answer?
Your Answer: The effect of past relationships on current relationships
Explanation:Transference and Countertransference
Transference is the unconscious transfer of feelings, attitudes, thoughts, desires, fantasies, of behaviors from past significant relationships to a current interpersonal relationship. It is often observed in therapy, and the therapist interprets its meaning and source to help the patient understand how their past experiences affect their current relationships. Factors that increase transference include anxiety, frequent contact with a key worker, and borderline personality disorder. Effective management of transference involves recognizing the importance of the relationship to the patient, maintaining professional boundaries, interpreting the transference, and being a reliable therapist.
Countertransference, on the other hand, refers to the therapist’s emotional, cognitive, of behavioral response to the patient, triggered by some characteristic of the patient but ultimately resulting from unresolved conflicts within the therapist. There are different conceptions of countertransference, including the classical definition, the totalistic conception, the complementary conception, and the relational perspective. However, a working definition suggests that countertransference is a response to the patient triggered by unresolved conflicts within the therapist. Effective management of countertransference involves understanding the patient’s interpersonal style of relating and framing therapeutic interventions accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 24
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes the use of cholinesterase inhibitors for treating dementia caused by Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: They are more effective than placebo in treating cognitive problems
Explanation:Dementia with Parkinson’s Disease: Understanding Cognitive Symptoms
Dementia with Parkinson’s disease is a syndrome that involves a decline in memory and other cognitive domains, leading to social and occupational dysfunction. Along with motor problems, non-motor symptoms such as cognitive, behavioral, and psychological issues can also arise. There is debate over whether Lewy body dementia and dementia due to Parkinson’s are different conditions. Drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can interfere with cognitive function, and people with this type of dementia tend to have marked problems with executive function. Cholinesterase inhibitors can improve cognitive performance, but they are not well tolerated and can cause side effects. Understanding the cognitive symptoms of dementia with Parkinson’s disease is crucial for effective clinical management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 25
Correct
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Which variable classification is not included in Stevens' typology?
Your Answer: Ranked
Explanation:Stevens suggested that scales can be categorized into one of four types based on measurements.
Scales of Measurement in Statistics
In the 1940s, Stanley Smith Stevens introduced four scales of measurement to categorize data variables. Knowing the scale of measurement for a variable is crucial in selecting the appropriate statistical analysis. The four scales of measurement are ratio, interval, ordinal, and nominal.
Ratio scales are similar to interval scales, but they have true zero points. Examples of ratio scales include weight, time, and length. Interval scales measure the difference between two values, and one unit on the scale represents the same magnitude on the trait of characteristic being measured across the whole range of the scale. The Fahrenheit scale for temperature is an example of an interval scale.
Ordinal scales categorize observed values into set categories that can be ordered, but the intervals between each value are uncertain. Examples of ordinal scales include social class, education level, and income level. Nominal scales categorize observed values into set categories that have no particular order of hierarchy. Examples of nominal scales include genotype, blood type, and political party.
Data can also be categorized as quantitative of qualitative. Quantitative variables take on numeric values and can be further classified into discrete and continuous types. Qualitative variables do not take on numerical values and are usually names. Some qualitative variables have an inherent order in their categories and are described as ordinal. Qualitative variables are also called categorical of nominal variables. When a qualitative variable has only two categories, it is called a binary variable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing tardive dyskinesia?
Your Answer: Advancing age
Correct Answer: Male gender
Explanation:Tardive Dyskinesia: Symptoms, Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a condition that affects the face, limbs, and trunk of individuals who have been on neuroleptics for months to years. The movements fluctuate over time, increase with emotional arousal, decrease with relaxation, and disappear with sleep. The cause of TD remains theoretical, but the postsynaptic dopamine (D2) receptor supersensitivity hypothesis is the most persistent. Other hypotheses include the presynaptic dopaminergic/noradrenergic hyperactivity hypothesis, the cholinergic interneuron burnout hypothesis, the excitatory/oxidative stress hypothesis, and the synaptic plasticity hypothesis. Risk factors for TD include advancing age, female sex, ethnicity, longer illness duration, intellectual disability and brain damage, negative symptoms in schizophrenia, mood disorders, diabetes, smoking, alcohol and substance misuse, FGA vs SGA treatment, higher antipsychotic dose, anticholinergic co-treatment, and akathisia.
Management options for TD include stopping any anticholinergic, reducing antipsychotic dose, changing to an antipsychotic with lower propensity for TD, and using tetrabenazine, vitamin E, of amantadine as add-on options. Clozapine is the antipsychotic most likely to be associated with resolution of symptoms. Vesicular monoamine transporter type 2 (VMAT2) inhibitors are agents that cause a depletion of neuroactive peptides such as dopamine in nerve terminals and are used to treat chorea due to neurodegenerative diseases of dyskinesias due to neuroleptic medications (tardive dyskinesia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 27
Correct
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What evidence would be most indicative of a diagnosis of mania?
Your Answer: Mood congruent delusions
Explanation:Mania: Features and Characteristics
Mania is a mental state characterized by a range of symptoms that can significantly impact an individual’s behavior, thoughts, and emotions. Some of the key features of mania include an elated of irritable mood, restlessness, and overactivity. People experiencing mania may also exhibit disinhibited and reckless behavior, such as excessive spending of engaging in risky activities. They may have over-ambitious plans for the future and experience a flight of ideas and pressured speech. Additionally, mania can involve mood congruent delusions, increased libido, and a decreased need for sleep. Overall, mania can be a challenging and disruptive condition that requires professional treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
-
Which treatment option is not advised by NICE for individuals with anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: Anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy
Correct Answer: Anorexia adapted rational emotive therapy
Explanation:Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines
Anorexia:
For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Bulimia:
For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Binge Eating Disorder:
The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Advice for those with eating disorders:
Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.Additional points:
Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 29
Correct
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Antipsychotic induced dystonia is most common in which of the following groups?
Your Answer: Young men
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 30
Correct
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What is the recommended combination of antidepressants for treatment resistant depression according to the Maudsley Guidelines?
Your Answer: Venlafaxine and mirtazapine
Explanation:The Maudsley Guidelines recommend the combination of venlafaxine and mirtazapine, also known as California Rocket Fuel (CRF), due to its effectiveness in quickly controlling depressive symptoms. This combination works by combining the selective serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor properties of venlafaxine with the noradrenergic-specific serotonergic properties of mirtazapine, resulting in a powerful noradrenergic and serotonergic effect. It is important to avoid other options as they can lead to serious interactions.
Depression (Refractory)
Refractory depression is a term used when two successive attempts at treatment have failed despite good compliance and adequate doses. There is no accepted definition of refractory depression. The following options are recommended as the first choice for refractory depression, with no preference implied by order:
– Add lithium
– Combined use of olanzapine and fluoxetine
– Add quetiapine to SSRI/SNRI
– Add aripiprazole to antidepressant
– Bupropion + SSRI
– SSRI (of venlafaxine) + mianserin (of mirtazapine)These recommendations are taken from the 13th edition of the Maudsley Guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 31
Correct
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Can you explain what transference means in the context of psychotherapy?
Your Answer: The thoughts and feelings of the patient towards the therapist
Explanation:Transference is when a patient unconsciously assigns to their therapist feelings and attitudes that are associated with significant people from their past. These feelings can be positive, negative, of ambivalent. Projection occurs when a patient attributes their unacceptable thoughts and impulses to their therapist. Countertransference refers to the therapist’s emotions towards the patient. When a patient internalizes feelings of anger and self-harms, various processes such as denial, repression, and acting out may be involved. Although Freud initially viewed transference as a hindrance to therapy, it is now recognized that interpreting transference can aid patients in comprehending past relationships.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 32
Correct
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A new adolescent patient is referred to your clinic and requires a medication review. On reading their records prior to the assessment you note they have a diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder. What can you interpret from this diagnosis?
Your Answer: They must have had a previous episode of mania
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 33
Correct
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What test is the most supportive in diagnosing PANDAS?
Your Answer: Anti DNAse-B
Explanation:PANDAS: A Disorder Linked to Streptococcal Infections
PANDAS, of Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections, is a condition that affects children who develop sudden onset of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and/of tic disorders like Tourette’s Syndrome after contracting strep infections such as Strep throat of Scarlet Fever. The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) has identified five criteria for diagnosing PANDAS, including the presence of OCD and/of tic disorder, pediatric onset of symptoms, episodic course of symptom severity, association with group A Beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, and association with neurological abnormalities. The anti streptococcal DNAse B (Anti DNAse-B) titre is commonly used to determine if there is immunologic evidence of a previous strep infection. PANDAS is linked to basal ganglia dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 34
Correct
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What is a true statement about transference?
Your Answer: It is largely an unconscious process
Explanation:Transference and Countertransference
Transference is the unconscious transfer of feelings, attitudes, thoughts, desires, fantasies, of behaviors from past significant relationships to a current interpersonal relationship. It is often observed in therapy, and the therapist interprets its meaning and source to help the patient understand how their past experiences affect their current relationships. Factors that increase transference include anxiety, frequent contact with a key worker, and borderline personality disorder. Effective management of transference involves recognizing the importance of the relationship to the patient, maintaining professional boundaries, interpreting the transference, and being a reliable therapist.
Countertransference, on the other hand, refers to the therapist’s emotional, cognitive, of behavioral response to the patient, triggered by some characteristic of the patient but ultimately resulting from unresolved conflicts within the therapist. There are different conceptions of countertransference, including the classical definition, the totalistic conception, the complementary conception, and the relational perspective. However, a working definition suggests that countertransference is a response to the patient triggered by unresolved conflicts within the therapist. Effective management of countertransference involves understanding the patient’s interpersonal style of relating and framing therapeutic interventions accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 35
Incorrect
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What distinguishing characteristic indicates the presence of reactive attachment disorder as opposed to disinhibited social engagement disorder?
Your Answer: A willingness to go off with an unfamiliar adult
Correct Answer: Failure to seek comfort when distressed
Explanation:Both reactive attachment disorder and disinhibited social engagement disorder share a common feature of having an atypical relationship with caregivers, which makes it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, children with reactive attachment disorder tend to exhibit more inhibited behavior similar to those with autism spectrum disorder, while children with disinhibited social engagement disorder tend to display more disinhibited behavior similar to those with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.
Disorders resulting from inadequate caregiving during childhood are recognised by both the DSM-5 and the ICD-11, with two distinct forms of disorder identified: Reactive attachment disorder and Disinhibited social engagement disorder. Reactive attachment disorder is characterised by social withdrawal and aberrant attachment behaviour, while Disinhibited social engagement disorder is characterised by socially disinhibited behaviour. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a history of grossly insufficient care, and symptoms must be evident before the age of 5. Treatment options include video feedback programs for preschool aged children and parental training with group play sessions for primary school aged children. Pharmacological interventions are not recommended in the absence of coexisting mental health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 36
Incorrect
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You are requested to provide a Court report on a 30-year-old individual with a moderate intellectual disability who is accused of committing an act of vandalism with reckless behavior. Counsel wants you to assess whether the individual is 'mute of malice'.
What does the term 'mute of malice' mean in this context?Your Answer: The defendant meant no harm through his actions
Correct Answer: The defendant is wilfully choosing not to speak
Explanation:The term ‘mute of malice’ is used to describe a defendant who is intentionally refusing to speak, rather than being physically or psychologically unable to do so. It is one of three special pleas in the UK, along with ‘previously acquitted’ and ‘previously convicted’. If a defendant is suspected of being mute of malice, a pre-trial hearing will be held to determine the matter, and a not guilty plea may be entered on their behalf if they are found to be so.
The defence of Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity (NGRI), also known as the McNaughton Rules, relates to cases where the defendant suffers from a disease of the mind and is unable to understand the nature of their actions of that they are legally wrong. If the defendant did not intend to harm others, this may be taken into account when considering the specific charge, such as arson with intent to endanger life versus reckless endangerment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 37
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about panic disorder?
Your Answer: Panic attacks that wake a person from sleep cannot form the basis of a diagnosis of panic disorder
Correct Answer: To meet diagnostic criteria, some panic attacks must be unexpected
Explanation:The diagnosis of panic disorder in the ICD-11 requires that some panic attacks must be unexpected. This includes experiencing panic attacks during sleep, known as nocturnal panic attacks, which are different from night terrors as the person is aware of their panic. If panic attacks only occur in response to specific triggers, then only the relevant anxiety disorder is diagnosed. However, if unexpected panic attacks occur and the individual shows persistent concern of behavioral changes due to the attacks, an additional diagnosis of panic disorder should be considered.
Understanding Panic Disorder: Key Facts, Diagnosis, and Treatment Recommendations
Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks, which are sudden surges of intense fear of discomfort that reach a peak within minutes. Females are more commonly affected than males, and the disorder typically onsets during the early 20s. Panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
To diagnose panic disorder, the individual must experience recurrent panic attacks that are not restricted to particular stimuli of situations and are unexpected. The panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms are not a manifestation of another medical condition of substance use, and they result in significant impairment in functioning.
Panic disorder is differentiated from normal fear reactions by the frequent recurrence of panic attacks, persistent worry of concern about the panic attacks of their meaning, and associated significant impairment in functioning. Treatment recommendations vary based on the severity of the disorder, with mild to moderate cases recommended for individual self-help and moderate to severe cases recommended for cognitive-behavioral therapy of antidepressant medication. The classes of antidepressants that have an evidence base for effectiveness are SSRIs, SNRIs, and TCAs. Benzodiazepines are not recommended for the treatment of panic disorder due to their association with a less favorable long-term outcome. Sedating antihistamines of antipsychotics should also not be prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 38
Correct
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How can you identify advanced heroin withdrawal in a young man who presents in A&E?
Your Answer: Piloerection
Explanation:The initial symptoms of heroin withdrawal consist of restlessness, frequent yawning, muscle pain, excessive sweating, anxiety, increased tearing, and a runny nose. As the withdrawal progresses, more severe symptoms may occur, such as abdominal cramps, vomiting, dilated pupils, diarrhea, and nausea.
Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.
Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.
MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.
Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.
Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.
Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 39
Correct
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The data from England and Wales indicates what percentage of females reported experiencing the most severe crimes of rape of sexual assault by penetration within the past year?
Your Answer: 0.50%
Explanation:Sexual Offending in England and Wales: Key Findings
According to a report by the Ministry of Justice, Home Office, and the Office for National Statistics in 2013, 0.5% of females reported being victims of the most serious sexual offences, such as rape of sexual assault by penetration, in the previous year. Young males between the ages of 20 and 39 were found to be the most common offenders, accounting for 47% of cases. The majority of victims (56%) reported that the offender was their partner.
In 2011/12, the police recorded 53,665 sexual offences, which made up approximately 1% of all recorded crimes. Sexual assault was the most commonly reported offence, accounting for 41% of cases, followed by rape at 30%. Other offences included exposure, voyeurism, and sexual activity with minors. In contrast, less than 0.1% of males (around 12,000) reported being victims of the same types of offences in the previous year.
The report also found that around 90% of victims of the most serious sexual offences knew the perpetrator, compared to less than half for other sexual offences. These findings provide insight into the prevalence and characteristics of sexual offending in England and Wales.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 40
Correct
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What is one of the primary purposes of utilizing the DUNDRUM toolkit?
Your Answer: Estimating the level of security required for a forensic patient
Explanation:DUNDRUM-4 Recovery Items
The DUNDRUM-4 Recovery Items is a structured professional judgement instrument that assesses a patient’s progress towards recovery and their readiness for discharge from a secure mental health facility. It consists of 17 items that cover various aspects of recovery, such as symptom management, social functioning, and engagement in therapeutic activities.
The instrument is designed to be used by mental health professionals to monitor a patient’s progress over time and to identify areas where additional support of interventions may be needed. It can also be used to inform discharge planning and to ensure that patients are discharged safely and with appropriate follow-up care.
Overall, the DUNDRUM toolkit provides a comprehensive approach to assessing and managing patients in secure mental health facilities, with a focus on promoting recovery and ensuring that patients receive the appropriate level of care and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 41
Correct
-
What is a true statement about night terrors?
Your Answer: Amnesia following a night terror is normal
Explanation:Night Terrors: Understanding the Condition
Night terrors, also known as pavor nocturnus of sleep terrors, are a common occurrence in children aged 3-12, with the majority of cases happening when a child is 3-4 years old. Both boys and girls are equally affected, and the condition usually resolves on its own during adolescence, although it can still occur in adults. These episodes typically last between 1 to 15 minutes and occur 1 to 3 hours after sleep has begun.
Night terrors are different from nightmares, which occur during REM sleep. Night terrors happen during the transition from stage 3 to stage 4 sleep, and children have no memory of the event the next morning. During a night terror, a child experiences intense crying and distress while asleep, usually around 90 minutes after falling asleep. They are unresponsive to external stimuli during this time.
Night terrors are distinct from nightmares in several ways. For example, there is no recall of the event with night terrors, while there may be partial recall with nightmares. Night terrors occur early in sleep, while nightmares occur later. Additionally, night terrors are associated with significant autonomic arousal, while nightmares have minimal arousal.
It is important to note that the information presented here is based on the Rechtschaffen and Kales sleep classification model developed in 1968, which is the classification used in the Royal College questions. However, in 2004, the American Academy of Sleep Medicine (AASM) reclassified NREM (non-REM) sleep into three stages, the last of which is also called delta sleep of slow-wave sleep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 42
Incorrect
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What resource is committed to offering complete articles of systematic reviews on the impacts of healthcare interventions?
Your Answer: SIGLE
Correct Answer: CDSR
Explanation:When faced with a question, it’s helpful to consider what the letters in the question might represent, even if you don’t know the answer right away. Don’t become overwhelmed and keep this strategy in mind.
Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.
When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.
There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 43
Correct
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The combination of hypomania and depression is referred to as a subtype in Klerman's expanded classification of bipolar disorders as:
Your Answer: Bipolar II
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder: Historical Subtypes
Bipolar disorder is a complex mental illness that has been classified into several subtypes over the years. The most widely recognized subtypes are Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia. However, there have been other classification systems proposed by experts in the field.
In 1981, Gerald Klerman proposed a classification system that included Bipolar I, Bipolar II, Bipolar III, Bipolar IV, Bipolar V, and Bipolar VI. This system was later expanded by Akiskal in 1999, who added more subtypes such as Bipolar I 1/2, Bipolar II 1/2, and Bipolar III 1/2.
Bipolar I is characterized by full-blown mania, while Bipolar II is characterized by hypomania with depression. Cyclothymia is a milder form of bipolar disorder that involves cycling between hypomania and mild depression.
Other subtypes include Bipolar III, which is associated with hypomania of mania precipitated by antidepressant drugs, and Bipolar IV, which is characterized by hyperthymic depression. Bipolar V is associated with depressed patients who have a family history of bipolar illness, while Bipolar VI is characterized by mania without depression (unipolar mania).
Overall, the classification of bipolar disorder subtypes has evolved over time, and different experts have proposed different systems. However, the most widely recognized subtypes are still Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 44
Correct
-
What are the defining features of Klein's depressive position?
Your Answer: Ambivalence
Explanation:Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.
On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 45
Correct
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What is a known factor that can lead to inaccurate positive results for cannabis on drug screening tests?
Your Answer: Promethazine
Explanation:Drug Screening
Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.
People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.
Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 46
Correct
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What factor has been found to have a significant correlation with a higher likelihood of suicide after self-harm in individuals over the age of 60?
Your Answer: Violent method of self-harm
Explanation:Suicide Rates Following Self-Harm
Most individuals who engage in self-harm do not go on to commit suicide, which makes risk assessment challenging. A study conducted in the UK in 2015 by Hawton found that 0.5% of individuals died by suicide in the first year following self-harm, with a higher rate among males (0.82%) than females (0.27%). Over the two-year period following self-harm, 1.6% died by suicide, with more occurrences in the second year. Interestingly, a study by Murphy in 2012 found that the rate of suicide following self-harm was higher in the elderly (those over 60), with a rate of 1.5 suicides in the first 12 months. The only significant risk factor for suicide following self-harm in this study was the use of a violent method in the initial episode.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 47
Incorrect
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What is the relationship between depression and myocardial infarction?
Your Answer: Mirtazapine does not increase bleeding risk in those using anticoagulant therapy for secondary prevention
Correct Answer: Sertraline has been shown to be safe for use in patients who have recently had a myocardial infarction
Explanation:According to a study, the combination of clopidogrel and an SSRI was found to be more effective in reducing the risk of cardiovascular events compared to dual antiplatelet therapy alone. However, the risk of bleeding was higher among patients taking clopidogrel and an SSRI, although the sample size was not sufficient to confirm this finding. The results were consistent regardless of the affinity of the SSRI. (Labos, 2011)
SSRI for Post-MI Depression
Post-myocardial infarction (MI), approximately 20% of people develop depression, which can worsen prognosis if left untreated. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the preferred antidepressant group for post-MI depression. However, they can increase the risk of bleeding, especially in those using anticoagulation. Mirtazapine is an alternative option, but it is also associated with bleeding. The SADHART study found sertraline to be a safe treatment for depression post-MI. It is important to consider the bleeding risk when choosing an antidepressant for post-MI depression.
References:
– Davies, P. (2004). Treatment of anxiety and depressive disorders in patients with cardiovascular disease. BMJ, 328, 939-943.
– Glassman, A. H. (2002). Sertraline treatment of major depression in patients with acute MI of unstable angina. JAMA, 288, 701-709.
– Goodman, M. (2008). Incident and recurrent major depressive disorder and coronary artery disease severity in acute coronary syndrome patients. Journal of Psychiatric Research, 42, 670-675.
– Na, K. S. (2018). Can we recommend mirtazapine and bupropion for patients at risk for bleeding? A systematic review and meta-analysis. Journal of Affective Disorders, 225, 221-226. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about eating disorders?
Your Answer: Citalopram is the first-line recommendation for the pharmacological management of bulimia
Correct Answer: Psychological treatments for binge eating disorder have a limited effect on body weight
Explanation:The 2017 NICE Guidelines advise clinicians to inform individuals with binge eating disorder that psychological treatments focused on addressing binge eating may not have a significant impact on body weight and that weight loss is not the primary goal of therapy. However, it is important to clarify that while CBT-ED does not specifically target weight loss, it can lead to weight reduction in the long run by addressing binge eating behaviors.
Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines
Anorexia:
For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Bulimia:
For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Binge Eating Disorder:
The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Advice for those with eating disorders:
Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.Additional points:
Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 49
Correct
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Which of the following is not a side-effect of methylphenidate?
Your Answer: Tinnitus
Explanation:It is important to note that while these side-effects are listed as very common, not everyone will experience them. It is also important to discuss any concerns of side-effects with a healthcare professional before making any changes to medication. Additionally, it is important to weigh the potential benefits of medication in treating ADHD symptoms against the potential side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 50
Correct
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What statement accurately describes cognitive therapy?
Your Answer: It involves the use of Socratic questioning
Explanation:Cognitive Therapy and Negative Automatic Thoughts
Cognitive therapy is a present-focused approach that aims to help clients overcome difficulties by identifying and changing dysfunctional thinking. This therapy is based on collaboration between the client and therapist and on testing beliefs through collaborative empiricism. One of the techniques used in cognitive therapy is Socratic questioning, which helps elicit false beliefs called negative automatic thoughts.
Negative automatic thoughts, also known as cognitive distortions, can be categorized into different types. Dichotomous thinking is the tendency to see things as black and white rather than shades of grey. Personalization is the incorrect assumption that things happen due to us, while overgeneralization involves coming to a general conclusion based on a single piece of evidence. Arbitrary inference is drawing an unjustified conclusion, while selective abstraction involves concentrating on the negative while ignoring the positives. Catastrophizing is expecting disaster from relatively trivial events, while filtering involves selecting out only negative aspects of a situation and leaving out the positive.
Control fallacies involve believing that we are responsible for everything (internal control fallacy) of nothing (external control fallacy). The fallacy of fairness is believing that life is fair, while blaming involves holding others responsible for our distress. Shoulds are preconceived rules we believe (often incorrect) which makes us angry when others don’t obey them. Magnification is a tendency to exaggerate the importance of negative information of experiences, while trivializing of reducing the significance of positive information of experiences. Minimization involves an undervaluation of positive attributes, while emotional reasoning is believing what we feel must be true.
The fallacy of change involves expecting others to change just because it suits us, while global labeling involves exaggerating and labeling behavior (e.g. when you fail at something, saying ‘I’m a loser’). Always being right is when the need to be right dominates all other needs, while the heaven’s reward fallacy involves expecting our sacrifices will pay off. Finally, magical thinking is incorrectly believing that our actions influence the outcomes.
Overall, cognitive therapy helps individuals identify and challenge negative automatic thoughts to improve their mental health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 51
Incorrect
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Typically, how much time elapses before delirium tremens (DTs) occur after a person stops drinking completely?
Your Answer: 24-48 hours
Correct Answer: 3-5 days
Explanation:The onset of DTs typically happens between three to five days after stopping drinking. However, tremulousness of withdrawal convulsions (also known as rum fits) can occur during a drinking binge of shortly after stopping drinking. Alcoholic hallucinosis, on the other hand, can develop over a period of days of weeks and is characterized by auditory hallucinations. Unlike DTs, it is typically accompanied by less severe agitation and mental confusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 52
Incorrect
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To qualify as purposive sampling, would the researcher need to specifically target participants based on certain characteristics, such as those who had received a delayed diagnosis?
Your Answer: Quota sampling
Correct Answer: Convenience sampling
Explanation:The sampling method employed was convenience sampling, which involved recruiting participants through flyers posted in clinics. However, this approach may lead to an imbalanced sample. To be considered purposive sampling, the researcher would need to demonstrate a deliberate effort to recruit participants based on specific characteristics, such as targeting individuals who had experienced a delayed diagnosis.
Qualitative research is a method of inquiry that seeks to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. There are different approaches to qualitative research, such as ethnography, phenomenology, and grounded theory, each with its own purpose, role of the researcher, stages of research, and method of data analysis. The most common methods used in healthcare research are interviews and focus groups. Sampling techniques include convenience sampling, purposive sampling, quota sampling, snowball sampling, and case study sampling. Sample size can be determined by data saturation, which occurs when new categories, themes, of explanations stop emerging from the data. Validity can be assessed through triangulation, respondent validation, bracketing, and reflexivity. Analytical approaches include content analysis and constant comparison.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 53
Correct
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In which conditions does NICE recommend the use of ECT?
Your Answer: Prolonged manic episodes
Explanation:ECT (Treatment) – Summary of Effectiveness and Recommendations
ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy) is a treatment that induces a therapeutic seizure through the application of electrical current under general anesthesia and muscle relaxation. It is prescribed as a course and is usually administered twice weekly for 6 to 12 treatments. ECT is the most effective short-term treatment for major depression, with remission rates of around 60-80% when used as first-line treatment in a severe depressive episode. However, without maintenance treatment, the relapse rate is extremely high (over 80%) in the 6 months after successful ECT.
Cognitive effects are the main limitation to the wider use of ECT, particularly acute confusion shortly after the treatment, retrograde amnesia, and some losses in autobiographical memory longer term. The current state of evidence does not allow the general use of ECT in the management of schizophrenia. Bilateral ECT is more effective than unilateral ECT but may cause more cognitive impairment. With unilateral ECT, a higher stimulus dose is associated with greater efficacy but also increased cognitive impairment compared with a lower stimulus dose.
NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) recommends that ECT is used only to achieve rapid and short-term improvement of severe symptoms after an adequate trial of other treatment options has proven ineffective and/of when the condition is considered to be potentially life-threatening. ECT is recommended for individuals with severe depression (that is life-threatening and when a rapid response is required, of when other treatments have failed), moderate depression (consider it if their depression has not responded to multiple drug treatments and psychological treatment), catatonia, and a prolonged of severe manic episode.
The RCPsych (Royal College of Psychiatrists) position on ECT recommends it as a first-line treatment for individuals with high suicidal risk, severe psychomotor retardation and associated problems of compromised eating and drinking and/of physical deterioration, treatment-resistant depression that has responded to ECT in a previous episode of illness, pregnant individuals with severe depression, of severe mixed affective states, mania of catatonia and whose physical health of that of the fetus is at serious risk, and those who prefer this form of treatment. ECT is recommended as a second-line treatment for individuals with treatment-resistant depression, severe side-effects from medication, and persistent of life-threatening symptoms in severe of prolonged mania. ECT is indicated in some circumstances for individuals with bipolar depression, postnatal psychosis, treatment-resistant schizophrenia, treatment-resistant catatonia, and frequent relapses and recurrences of depression (maintenance).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 54
Incorrect
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What is the recommended initial treatment for insomnia that has persisted for 2 months and is not expected to improve in the near future?
Your Answer: Melatonin
Correct Answer: CBT-I
Explanation:Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, waking up too early, of feeling unrefreshed after sleep. The management of insomnia depends on whether it is short-term (lasting less than 3 months) of long-term (lasting more than 3 months). For short-term insomnia, sleep hygiene and a sleep diary are recommended first. If severe daytime impairment is present, a short course of a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic medication may be considered for up to 2 weeks. For long-term insomnia, cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I) is the first-line treatment.
Pharmacological therapy should be avoided, but a short-term hypnotic medication may be appropriate for some individuals with severe symptoms of an acute exacerbation. Referral to a sleep clinic of neurology may be necessary if another sleep disorder is suspected of if long-term insomnia has not responded to primary care management. Good sleep hygiene practices include establishing fixed sleep and wake times, relaxing before bedtime, maintaining a comfortable sleeping environment, avoiding napping during the day, avoiding caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol before bedtime, avoiding exercise before bedtime, avoiding heavy meals late at night, and using the bedroom only for sleep and sexual activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 55
Correct
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A 60 year old lady is brought to A&E by her daughter who has noticed that her memory and personality have changed dramatically over the past 2-3 months. Prior to that she had been ok and was in relatively good health. Further questioning reveals fluctuating levels of consciousness. Which of the following would you suspect?
Your Answer: Chronic subdural haematoma
Explanation:While any of the possibilities could explain the shift in personality and cognitive function, the presence of varying levels of consciousness indicates a probable chronic subdural hematoma.
Depression is an important differential diagnosis to consider in a person presenting with dementia. Depression can cause cognitive impairment, memory problems, and difficulty concentrating, which can mimic the symptoms of dementia. It is important to differentiate between depression and dementia, as depression is treatable with medication and therapy, whereas dementia is a progressive and irreversible condition. Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and cognitive testing is necessary to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 56
Correct
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Who is credited with creating the therapeutic technique called psychodrama?
Your Answer: Moreno
Explanation:Fonagy and Bateman – Mentalisation-Based Treatment
Mentalisation-Based Treatment (MBT) was developed by Peter Fonagy and Anthony Bateman in the 1990s. It is a psychodynamic therapy that focuses on improving the patient’s ability to mentalise, which is the capacity to understand one’s own and others’ mental states. MBT is primarily used to treat borderline personality disorder, but it has also been used to treat other mental health conditions.
Fonagy and Bateman work on MBT was influenced by their research on attachment theory and the importance of early relationships in shaping mentalisation abilities. They believed that individuals with borderline personality disorder have difficulties with mentalisation due to early attachment disruptions, and that MBT could help them develop more stable and secure relationships.
MBT is typically delivered in a group of individual format, and it involves a combination of psychoeducation, cognitive-behavioral techniques, and psychodynamic interventions. The therapist helps the patient to identify and reflect on their thoughts, feelings, and behaviors, and to understand how these are influenced by their past experiences and relationships. The therapist also helps the patient to develop more adaptive coping strategies and to improve their interpersonal skills.
Overall, Fonagy and Bateman work on MBT has contributed to the development of psychodynamic therapies that are more focused on specific treatment goals and evidence-based practices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 57
Correct
-
Which study design is always considered observational?
Your Answer: Cohort study
Explanation:Case-studies and case-series can have an experimental nature due to the potential involvement of interventions of treatments.
Types of Primary Research Studies and Their Advantages and Disadvantages
Primary research studies can be categorized into six types based on the research question they aim to address. The best type of study for each question type is listed in the table below. There are two main types of study design: experimental and observational. Experimental studies involve an intervention, while observational studies do not. The advantages and disadvantages of each study type are summarized in the table below.
Type of Question Best Type of Study
Therapy Randomized controlled trial (RCT), cohort, case control, case series
Diagnosis Cohort studies with comparison to gold standard test
Prognosis Cohort studies, case control, case series
Etiology/Harm RCT, cohort studies, case control, case series
Prevention RCT, cohort studies, case control, case series
Cost Economic analysisStudy Type Advantages Disadvantages
Randomized Controlled Trial – Unbiased distribution of confounders – Blinding more likely – Randomization facilitates statistical analysis – Expensive – Time-consuming – Volunteer bias – Ethically problematic at times
Cohort Study – Ethically safe – Subjects can be matched – Can establish timing and directionality of events – Eligibility criteria and outcome assessments can be standardized – Administratively easier and cheaper than RCT – Controls may be difficult to identify – Exposure may be linked to a hidden confounder – Blinding is difficult – Randomization not present – For rare disease, large sample sizes of long follow-up necessary
Case-Control Study – Quick and cheap – Only feasible method for very rare disorders of those with long lag between exposure and outcome – Fewer subjects needed than cross-sectional studies – Reliance on recall of records to determine exposure status – Confounders – Selection of control groups is difficult – Potential bias: recall, selection
Cross-Sectional Survey – Cheap and simple – Ethically safe – Establishes association at most, not causality – Recall bias susceptibility – Confounders may be unequally distributed – Neyman bias – Group sizes may be unequal
Ecological Study – Cheap and simple – Ethically safe – Ecological fallacy (when relationships which exist for groups are assumed to also be true for individuals)In conclusion, the choice of study type depends on the research question being addressed. Each study type has its own advantages and disadvantages, and researchers should carefully consider these when designing their studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is referred to you by his primary care physician. He has a history of anxiety and is currently experiencing symptoms of low mood and difficulty sleeping. The physician is concerned about the possibility of depression.
During your assessment, you note evidence of low mood, initial insomnia, and some feelings of hopelessness. The patient denies any suicidal thoughts.
What treatment approach would you avoid as part of his management plan?Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a moderate depressive episode, which can be treated with cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) if it is easily accessible. During pregnancy, amitriptyline, imipramine, and fluoxetine are commonly used antidepressants. However, paroxetine should be avoided due to its short half-life, which can lead to neonatal irritability and withdrawal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 59
Correct
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How can the negative predictive value of a screening test be calculated accurately?
Your Answer: TN / (TN + FN)
Explanation:Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 60
Correct
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What is a true statement about Kleine-Levin syndrome?
Your Answer: It is associated with hyperphagia
Explanation:Kleine-Levin Syndrome: A Mysterious Condition
Kleine-Levin syndrome is a peculiar disorder that typically affects adolescent boys. It is characterized by an excessive need for sleep and an insatiable appetite when awake. The condition is also associated with emotional and behavioral issues such as irritability and aggression.
The onset of symptoms is sudden and can last for several days to weeks before disappearing. This is followed by a period of normalcy, only to be followed by another episode. This pattern can continue for years, but the severity of symptoms tends to decrease over time. During the periods between episodes, those affected appear to be perfectly healthy with no signs of physical of behavioral dysfunction. The media has dubbed this condition as Sleeping Beauty syndrome.
Despite extensive research, the cause of Kleine-Levin syndrome remains unknown. However, the prognosis is generally positive, with most individuals making a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 61
Correct
-
What is true about the 2014 Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey?
Your Answer: People in prisons were not included in the sample
Explanation:The APMS has a significant drawback in that it solely relies on household data and does not incorporate data from institutions like prisons.
Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey
The Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey (APMS), also known as the National Psychiatric Morbidity Survey, is conducted every 7 years to monitor the prevalence of mental illness and access to treatment in the general population of England. The survey obtains a stratified random sample representative of the population living in private households by using postcodes. The information is gathered through questionnaires and interviews to screen for a range of mental disorders and risk factors. However, the survey does not collect data on individuals under the age of 16. The study does not include people living in institutional settings such as prisons of care homes, of those who are homeless of living in temporary housing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 62
Incorrect
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What is the recommended psychological treatment for an adult with mild body dysmorphic disorder?
Your Answer: Psychodynamic psychotherapy
Correct Answer: Exposure and response prevention
Explanation:Systematic desensitization is a therapeutic technique used to treat phobias by gradually exposing the individual to the feared object of situation in a controlled and safe environment, while teaching them relaxation techniques to manage their anxiety.
Exposure and response prevention is a cognitive-behavioral therapy used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and body dysmorphic disorder (BDD). It involves exposing the individual to their obsessive thoughts of compulsive behaviors, while preventing them from engaging in their usual response. This helps to break the cycle of anxiety and compulsions, and teaches the individual to tolerate their distress without resorting to their usual rituals.
Maudsley Guidelines
First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)
Second line:
– SSRI + antipsychotic
– Citalopram + clomipramine
– Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
– Lamotrigine + SSRI
– Topiramate + SSRI -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 63
Correct
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By implementing a double-blinded randomised controlled trial to evaluate the efficacy of a new medication for Lewy Body Dementia, what type of bias can be prevented by ensuring that both the patient and doctor are blinded?
Your Answer: Expectation bias
Explanation:Types of Bias in Statistics
Bias is a systematic error that can lead to incorrect conclusions. Confounding factors are variables that are associated with both the outcome and the exposure but have no causative role. Confounding can be addressed in the design and analysis stage of a study. The main method of controlling confounding in the analysis phase is stratification analysis. The main methods used in the design stage are matching, randomization, and restriction of participants.
There are two main types of bias: selection bias and information bias. Selection bias occurs when the selected sample is not a representative sample of the reference population. Disease spectrum bias, self-selection bias, participation bias, incidence-prevalence bias, exclusion bias, publication of dissemination bias, citation bias, and Berkson’s bias are all subtypes of selection bias. Information bias occurs when gathered information about exposure, outcome, of both is not correct and there was an error in measurement. Detection bias, recall bias, lead time bias, interviewer/observer bias, verification and work-up bias, Hawthorne effect, and ecological fallacy are all subtypes of information bias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 64
Incorrect
-
Which of the following resources has been filtered?
Your Answer: PubMed
Correct Answer: DARE
Explanation:The main focus of the Database of Abstracts of Reviews of Effect (DARE) is on systematic reviews that assess the impact of healthcare interventions and the management and provision of healthcare services. In order to be considered for inclusion, reviews must satisfy several requirements.
Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.
When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.
There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 65
Correct
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Which treatment option for opiate maintenance therapy has the strongest evidence to support its effectiveness?
Your Answer: Buprenorphine
Explanation:Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 66
Incorrect
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As per NICE guidelines, what is the recommended time frame for a clinic review of a 25 year-old man who has been started on an SSRI for his first episode of depression?
Your Answer: 2 weeks
Correct Answer: 1 week
Explanation:It is recommended that individuals who are under 30 years of age of are at an increased risk of suicide and have started taking antidepressants should be monitored closely and seen for follow-up appointments. This is particularly important in the early stages of treatment when there may be a higher prevalence of suicidal thoughts.
Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 67
Incorrect
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Which subtype of Niemann-Pick disease is typically only seen in adults?
Your Answer: Type D
Correct Answer: Type E
Explanation:Niemann-Pick disease is a group of inherited diseases where lipids accumulate in the cells of the liver, spleen, and brain. Niemann-Pick Type C (NPC) is the most relevant type for psychiatric presentations, with about one-third of cases presenting in adolescence of adulthood. Symptoms include progressive ataxia/dystonia, cognitive decline, and atypical psychotic symptoms. There are four other types of Niemann-Pick disease, each with their own causes and symptoms. Type A and B have a lack of sphingomyelinase and present in early childhood of mid-childhood/adolescence, respectively. Type C has reduced sphingomyelinase activity and can present at any age, with symptoms including enlarged liver and spleen, learning difficulties, seizures, and slurred speech. Type D is a variant of Type C and has similar symptoms. Type E has reduced sphingomyelinase activity and presents in adulthood with similar symptoms to the other types.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 68
Correct
-
Globally, which demographic has the highest incidence of completed suicides?
Your Answer: 70 and over
Explanation:The elderly have the highest suicide rates globally, with variations in different regions. Some areas show a steady increase in suicide rates with age, while others have a peak in young adults that decreases in middle age. Middle-aged men in high-income countries have higher suicide rates than those in low and middle-income countries. In the UK, the highest suicide rate is among people aged 40-44, with 15/100,000 per year. Suicide in the elderly is associated with mental illness, social isolation, cognitive decline, and physical pain. Additionally, the elderly are more likely to use lethal methods when attempting suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 69
Correct
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What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position?
Your Answer: Splitting
Explanation:Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.
On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 70
Correct
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Whilst on call, you are called to a psychiatric intensive care unit (PICU) as a newly admitted male patient has become agitated and aggressive and requires tranquilising medication. He is refusing oral medication. The patient is known to have schizophrenia and had been non-compliant with medication resulting in his deterioration. On admission, he was commenced on quetiapine. His physical examination on admission was noted to be normal other than for a slightly raised blood pressure and a QTc interval of 480 ms.
Which of the following would be the most suitable option?:Your Answer: IM lorazepam 2 mg
Explanation:The most suitable medication for rapid tranquillisation in a patient with a prolonged QTc interval would be IM lorazepam, according to NICE guidelines. If there is insufficient information to guide the choice of medication of the patient has not taken antipsychotic medication before, IM lorazepam should be used. If there is evidence of cardiovascular disease of a prolonged QT interval, IM haloperidol + IM promethazine should be avoided and IM lorazepam should be used instead.
Violence and aggression can be managed through rapid tranquillisation, although the evidence base for this approach is not strong. Different guidelines provide varying recommendations for rapid tranquillisation, including NICE, Maudsley Guidelines, and the British Association for Psychopharmacology (BAP). NICE recommends using IM lorazepam of IM haloperidol + IM promethazine for rapid tranquillisation in adults, taking into account factors such as previous response and patient preference. BAP provides a range of options for oral, inhaled, IM, and IV medications, including inhaled loxapine, buccal midazolam, and oral antipsychotics. Maudsley Guidelines suggest using oral lorazepam, oral promethazine, of buccal midazolam if prescribed a regular antipsychotic, of oral olanzapine, oral risperidone, of oral haloperidol if not already taking an antipsychotic. IM options include lorazepam, promethazine, olanzapine, aripiprazole, and haloperidol, although drugs should not be mixed in the same syringe. Haloperidol should ideally be used with promethazine to reduce the risk of dystonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 71
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about psychotic depression?
Your Answer: First-line treatment is antipsychotic monotherapy
Correct Answer: It is classified by the ICD-11 and the DSM-5 as a subtype of depression
Explanation:Psychotic Depression
Psychotic depression is a type of depression that is characterized by the presence of delusions and/of hallucinations in addition to depressive symptoms. This condition is often accompanied by severe anhedonia, loss of interest, and psychomotor retardation. People with psychotic depression are tormented by hallucinations and delusions with typical themes of worthlessness, guilt, disease, of impending disaster. This condition affects approximately 14.7-18.5% of depressed patients and is estimated to affect around 0.4% of community adult samples, with a higher prevalence in the elderly community at around 1.4-3.0%. People with psychotic depression are at a higher risk of attempting and completing suicide than those with non-psychotic depression.
Diagnosis
Psychotic depression is currently classified as a subtype of depression in both the ICD-11 and the DSM-5. The main difference between the two is that in the ICD-11, the depressive episode must be moderate of severe to qualify for a diagnosis of depressive episode with psychotic symptoms, whereas in the DSM-5, the diagnosis can be applied to any severity of depressive illness.
Treatment
The recommended treatment for psychotic depression is tricyclics as first-line treatment, with antipsychotic augmentation. Second-line treatment includes SSRI/SNRI. Augmentation of antidepressant with olanzapine or quetiapine is recommended. The optimum dose and duration of antipsychotic augmentation are unknown. If one treatment is to be stopped during the maintenance phase, then this should be the antipsychotic. ECT should be considered where a rapid response is required of where other treatments have failed. According to NICE (ng222), combination treatment with antidepressant medication and antipsychotic medication (such as olanzapine or quetiapine) should be considered for people with depression with psychotic symptoms. If a person with depression with psychotic symptoms does not wish to take antipsychotic medication in addition to an antidepressant, then treat with an antidepressant alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 72
Incorrect
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Which treatment option is not suggested by the Maudsley Guidelines to enhance the effectiveness of clozapine?
Your Answer: Omega-3-triglycerides
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:According to the Maudsley Guidelines, there is insufficient evidence to support the use of olanzapine as an addition to treatment, and it may worsen metabolic side effects.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old lady presents with a 10-year history of nausea, headache, difficulty swallowing and unusual pains in her arms and legs. Despite normal investigations, the medical team suspects the absence of an organic pathology.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Conversion disorder
Correct Answer: Bodily distress disorder
Explanation:Conversion disorder is a type of somatic symptom disorder, which involves physical symptoms that cannot be explained by a medical condition and are often related to psychological distress.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 74
Correct
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Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: Aluminium exposure
Explanation:In the 1960s and 1970s, there was a suspicion that aluminum could be a cause of Alzheimer’s disease. This led to concerns about exposure to aluminum in everyday items such as cooking pots, foil, beverage cans, antacids, and antiperspirants. However, subsequent studies have not found any evidence to support this theory. Today, most scientists are focused on other areas of research, and very few experts believe that everyday sources of aluminum are a risk factor for Alzheimer’s disease.
Alzheimer’s Association: Risk Factors
The Alzheimer’s Association has identified several risk factors for the development of Alzheimer’s disease. These include age, family history, head trauma (especially if associated with loss of consciousness), hypertension, heart disease, diabetes, CVA, high cholesterol, lower educational level, and female gender. Increasing age is a significant risk factor, as is having a family history of the disease. Head trauma, particularly if it results in loss of consciousness, can also increase the risk of developing Alzheimer’s. Other medical conditions such as hypertension, heart disease, and diabetes have also been linked to an increased risk of Alzheimer’s. Additionally, individuals with lower levels of education and females may be at higher risk. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce them where possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 75
Correct
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What is a true statement about Transient Global Amnesia?
Your Answer: Attacks are often precipitated by a Valsalva manoeuvres
Explanation:Transient global amnesia typically affects individuals aged 40 to 80 and can be triggered by physical activities such as swimming, heavy lifting, of straining to defecate, as well as psychological stressors like arguments. The condition is characterized by sudden onset of severe anterograde amnesia, accompanied by repetitive questioning, but without any focal neurological symptoms. Patients remain alert and attentive, but disoriented to time and place. Episodes usually last between 1 to 8 hours, but no longer than 24 hours. There is no specific treatment for a typical episode. During an episode, patients are unable to form new memories, resulting in profound anterograde amnesia, while retrograde amnesia may also be present, lasting from a few hours to years.
Transient Global Amnesia: Definition, Diagnostic Criteria, and Possible Causes
Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a clinical syndrome characterized by sudden and severe amnesia, often accompanied by repetitive questioning, that lasts for several hours. The term was first coined in 1964 by Fisher and Adams. To diagnose TGA, the following criteria have been established: (1) the attack must be witnessed, (2) there must be clear anterograde amnesia, (3) clouding of consciousness and loss of personal identity must be absent, (4) there should be no accompanying focal neurological symptoms, (5) epileptic features must be absent, (6) attacks must resolve within 24 hours, and (7) patients with recent head injury of known active epilepsy are excluded.
Epidemiological studies have shown that thromboembolic cerebrovascular disease does not play a role in the causation of TGA. However, the incidence of migraine in patients with TGA is higher than in the general population. A small minority of cases with unusually brief and recurrent attacks eventually manifest temporal lobe epilepsy. EEG recording is typically normal after an attack, even when performed during the attack.
Possible causes of TGA include venous congestion with Valsalva-like activities before symptom onset, arterial thromboembolic ischemia, and vasoconstriction due to hyperventilation. Precipitants of TGA often include exertion, cold, pain, emotional stress, and sexual intercourse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 76
Correct
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A woman with schizophrenia attends the day hospital. She appears giddy, a little sleepy and you notice she has red injected conjunctiva. Which of the following drugs do you suspect she has consumed?
Your Answer: Cannabis
Explanation:Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.
Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.
MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.
Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.
Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.
Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 77
Correct
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Which of the following is an uncommon characteristic of individuals with schizoid personality disorder?
Your Answer: Deceitfulness
Explanation:Antisocial personality disorder is marked by a prominent trait of deceitfulness.
Schizoid Personality Disorder: A Description of Symptoms
Schizoid personality disorder is a type of personality disorder that falls under cluster A. People with this disorder are often seen as distant, isolated, and emotionally detached. They tend to have a restricted range of emotions and struggle to form close relationships with others. Symptoms typically begin in early adulthood and can be observed in various contexts. To be diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder, an individual must exhibit at least four of the following symptoms:
1. Lack of desire for close relationships
2. Preferring solitary activities
3. Little interest in sexual experiences
4. Finding pleasure in few activities
5. Lack of close friends of confidants
6. Indifference to praise of criticism
7. Emotional coldness, detachment, of flattened affectivity
8. Symptoms cannot be attributed to another medical condition and do not occur in the context of schizophrenia, manic depression, autism spectrum disorder, of another affective disorder with psychotic features.It is important to note that the ICD-11 does not have a specific category for schizoid personality disorder. Instead, it has adopted a dimensional approach to diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 78
Correct
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What is a true statement about Angelman syndrome?
Your Answer: It is caused by deleted material from the maternal chromosome
Explanation:Genomic Imprinting and its Role in Psychiatric Disorders
Genomic imprinting is a phenomenon where a piece of DNA behaves differently depending on whether it is inherited from the mother of the father. This is because DNA sequences are marked of imprinted in the ovaries and testes, which affects their expression. In psychiatry, two classic examples of genomic imprinting disorders are Prader-Willi and Angelman syndrome.
Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a deletion of chromosome 15q when inherited from the father. This disorder is characterized by hypotonia, short stature, polyphagia, obesity, small gonads, and mild mental retardation. On the other hand, Angelman syndrome, also known as Happy Puppet syndrome, is caused by a deletion of 15q when inherited from the mother. This disorder is characterized by an unusually happy demeanor, developmental delay, seizures, sleep disturbance, and jerky hand movements.
Overall, genomic imprinting plays a crucial role in the development of psychiatric disorders. Understanding the mechanisms behind genomic imprinting can help in the diagnosis and treatment of these disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 79
Correct
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What intervention has been supported by placebo-controlled randomized controlled trials as effective in managing aggression among individuals with dementia?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia
Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A teenager presents to A&E in a state of distress and you are told by his friend that he is withdrawing from 'speed'. Which of the following is least likely to be present?
Your Answer: Agitation
Correct Answer: Reduced appetite
Explanation:Withdrawal from amphetamine, commonly referred to as speed, usually leads to an increase in appetite rather than a decrease.
Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.
Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.
MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.
Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.
Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.
Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 81
Incorrect
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What is the diagnosis criteria for depression according to the ICD-11?
Your Answer: To achieve a diagnosis of a depressive episode, symptoms must occur most of the day, nearly every day during a period lasting at least four weeks
Correct Answer: A diagnosis of a 'single episode depressive disorder' (ICD-11 6A70) should never be applied to individuals who have ever experienced a manic or hypomanic episodes
Explanation:Individuals who have ever experienced manic or hypomanic episodes should not be diagnosed with a ‘single episode depressive disorder’ (ICD-11 6A70).
Depression is diagnosed using different criteria in the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 recognizes single depressive episodes, recurrent depressive disorder, dysthymic disorder, and mixed depressive and anxiety disorder. The DSM-5 recognizes disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder.
For a diagnosis of a single depressive episode, the ICD-11 requires the presence of at least five characteristic symptoms occurring most of the day, nearly every day during a period lasting at least 2 weeks. The DSM-5 requires the presence of at least five symptoms during the same 2-week period, with at least one of the symptoms being either depressed mood of loss of interest of pleasure.
Recurrent depressive disorder is characterized by a history of at least two depressive episodes separated by at least several months without significant mood disturbance, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires at least two episodes with an interval of at least 2 consecutive months between separate episodes in which criteria are not met for a major depressive episode.
Dysthymic disorder is diagnosed when a person experiences persistent depressed mood lasting 2 years of more, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not, for at least 2 years, along with the presence of two or more additional symptoms.
Mixed depressive and anxiety disorder is recognized as a separate code in the ICD-11, while the DSM-5 uses the ‘with anxious distress’ qualifier. The ICD-11 requires the presence of both depressive and anxiety symptoms for most of the time during a period of 2 weeks of more, while the DSM-5 requires the presence of both depressive and anxious symptoms during the same 2-week period.
Overall, the criteria for diagnosing depression vary between the ICD-11 and DSM-5, but both require the presence of characteristic symptoms that cause significant distress of impairment in functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 82
Incorrect
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What is the most suitable statistical test to compare the calcium levels of males and females who developed inflammatory bowel disease in childhood, considering that calcium levels in this population are normally distributed?
Your Answer: Chi-squared test
Correct Answer: Unpaired t-test
Explanation:The appropriate statistical test for the research question of comparing calcium levels between two unrelated groups is an unpaired/independent t-test, as the data is parametric and the samples are independent. This means that the scores of one group do not affect the other, and there is no meaningful way to pair them.
Dependent samples, on the other hand, are related to each other and can occur in two scenarios. One scenario is when a group is measured twice, such as in a pretest-posttest situation. The other scenario is when an observation in one sample is matched with an observation in the second sample.
For example, if quality inspectors want to compare two laboratories to determine whether their blood tests give similar results, they would need to use a paired t-test. This is because both labs tested blood specimens from the same 10 children, making the test results dependent. The paired t-test is based on the assumption that samples are dependent.
Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 83
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman confides in you that she experienced protracted and recurrent childhood sexual abuse. Which one of the following features is not a characteristic feature of post-traumatic stress disorder?
Your Answer: Loss of inhibitions
Explanation:PTSD can develop from a single traumatic event, such as a car accident, of from ongoing and repeated trauma, such as childhood abuse. The latter is known as complex PTSD. However, there is some discussion about whether complex PTSD and borderline personality disorder are distinct conditions, as they have many similar symptoms.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 84
Incorrect
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What type of manslaughter is classified as involuntary?
Your Answer: Self defence
Correct Answer: Medical manslaughter
Explanation:Voluntary manslaughter involves the defendant intending to kill the victim, but with a justifiable reason such as self-defence. In contrast, involuntary manslaughter occurs when the defendant did not intend to kill the victim, but their actions resulted in the victim’s death, such as in cases of medical malpractice. Self-defence stands apart from these options as it can result in a complete acquittal for the defendant if it can be proven.
Murder and Manslaughter: Understanding the Difference
Homicide is the act of killing another person, but it’s important to distinguish between murder and manslaughter. Murder is committed when a person of sound mind and discretion unlawfully kills another human being who is born alive and breathing through their own lungs, with the intent to kill of cause grievous bodily harm. Manslaughter, on the other hand, can occur in three ways: killing with the intent for murder but where a partial defense applies, conduct that was grossly negligent given the risk of death, and conduct taking the form of an unlawful act involving a danger of some harm that resulted in death. Infanticide is a specific type of manslaughter that applies to women who cause the death of their child under 12 months old by a wilful act of omission, but at the time of the act of omission, the balance of their mind was disturbed by the effects of giving birth of lactation. It’s important to understand these distinctions to properly classify and prosecute these crimes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 85
Incorrect
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What is the recommended duration for a therapeutic trial of methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine?
Your Answer: 3 months
Correct Answer: 6 weeks
Explanation:ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)
ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.
NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.
Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 86
Incorrect
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What is the most frequently diagnosed condition in individuals with early onset dementia?
Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Correct Answer: Alzheimer's disease
Explanation:Early-Onset Dementia: A Less Common but Broader Differential Diagnosis
Early-onset dementia refers to the occurrence of dementia before the age of 65, which accounts for only 2% of all people with dementia in the UK. However, the differential diagnosis for early-onset dementia is broader, and younger people are more likely to have a rarer form of dementia. The distribution of diagnoses of dementia differs dramatically between older and younger patients, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause of dementia in both groups. However, it only accounts for a third of cases in younger people, while frontotemporal dementia occurs much more commonly in younger populations. Rarer causes of dementia also occur with greater frequency in the younger population.
It is worth noting that the majority of Alzheimer’s cases are sporadic in early-onset, but inherited cases are more common. Vascular dementia is the second most common dementia in those under 65, and frontotemporal dementias occur more frequently in the younger population, with up to 50% of patients having a positive family history.
In summary, early-onset dementia is a less common but important condition to consider, as it presents a broader differential diagnosis and may have a genetic component. Understanding the distribution of diagnoses in younger populations can aid in early detection and appropriate management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 87
Correct
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A 42-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department on a Saturday evening seeking to speak with the on-call psychiatrist regarding his dependence on opioids.
He explains that he recently relocated to the area and has exhausted his supply of buprenorphine, which he requires to prevent relapse into heroin use.
He plans to establish care with a primary care physician next week to obtain ongoing prescriptions.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient's situation?Your Answer: Request a urine drug screen
Explanation:To ensure safe and appropriate treatment, it is crucial to verify the patient’s history of heroin dependence and methadone treatment through a urine drug screen and obtaining collateral information. Neglecting this step may result in prescribing methadone, which can be misused by the patient and potentially lead to fatal overdose if combined with injectable heroin. Additionally, methadone has a potential street value and can be sold illegally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 88
Incorrect
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What is a distinguishing trait of being intoxicated with phencyclidine?
Your Answer: Pupillary dilatation
Correct Answer: Analgesia
Explanation:PCP Intoxication: A Dangerous Hallucinogenic
Phencyclidine (PCP), also known as angel dust, is a hallucinogenic drug that is popular for inducing feelings of euphoria, superhuman strength, and social and sexual prowess. It is a NMDA receptor antagonist that has dissociative properties, similar to ketamine. PCP was previously used as an anesthetic and animal tranquilizer, but was soon recalled due to its adverse effects, including psychosis, agitation, and dysphoria post-operatively.
PCP is available in various forms, including white crystalline powder, tablets, crystals, and liquid. It can be snorted, smoked, ingested, of injected intravenously or subcutaneously. People who have taken PCP often present with violent behavior, nystagmus, tachycardia, hypertension, anesthesia, and analgesia. Other symptoms include impaired motor function, hallucinations, delusions, and paranoia.
PCP intoxication is best managed with benzodiazepines along with supportive measures for breathing and circulation. Antipsychotics are not recommended as they can amplify PCP-induced hyperthermia, dystonic reactions, and lower the seizure threshold. However, haloperidol may be useful for treating PCP-induced psychosis in patients who are not hyperthermic. Most deaths in PCP-intoxicated patients result from violent behavior rather than direct effects of the drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 89
Correct
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At what age can a person be diagnosed with the personality disorder that is specified in DSM-5 as requiring the individual to be at least 18 years old?
Your Answer: Antisocial
Explanation:Personality Disorder: Understanding the Clinical Diagnosis
A personality disorder is a long-standing pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, clinicians must first establish that the general diagnostic threshold is met before identifying the subtype(s) present. The course of personality disorders varies, with some becoming less evident of remitting with age, while others persist.
DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different classification systems for personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into three clusters (A, B, and C), while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain is 4.4%, with Cluster C being the most common. Clinicians are advised to avoid diagnosing personality disorders in children, although a diagnosis can be made in someone under 18 if the features have been present for at least a year (except for antisocial personality disorder).
Overall, understanding the clinical diagnosis of personality disorders is important for effective treatment and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 90
Correct
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Which of the following would make the use of the unpaired t-test inappropriate for comparing the mean ages of two groups of participants?
Your Answer: Non-normal distribution of data
Explanation:The t test is limited to parametric data that follows a normal distribution. However, inadequate statistical power due to a small sample size does not necessarily invalidate the t test results. While it is likely that a small sample size may not reveal any significant differences, it is still possible that large differences may be observed regardless of prior power calculations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 91
Incorrect
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Can you calculate the specificity of a general practitioner's diagnosis of depression based on the given data from the study assessing their ability to identify cases using GHQ scores?
Your Answer: 70%
Correct Answer: 91%
Explanation:The specificity of the GHQ test is 91%, meaning that 91% of individuals who do not have depression are correctly identified as such by the general practitioner using the test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 92
Correct
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In what way can the study on depression be deemed as having limited applicability to the average patient population?
Your Answer: External validity
Explanation:When a study has good external validity, its findings can be applied to other populations with confidence.
Validity in statistics refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study, while external validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. There are various threats to both internal and external validity, such as sampling, measurement instrument obtrusiveness, and reactive effects of setting. Additionally, there are several subtypes of validity, including face validity, content validity, criterion validity, and construct validity. Each subtype has its own specific focus and methods for testing validity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 93
Correct
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Which factor poses the greatest risk to children born to women with anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: Low APGAR score
Explanation:Risks to Children of Mothers with Eating Disorders
Children of mothers with eating disorders are at risk of various complications, including premature birth, increased perinatal mortality, cleft lip and cleft palate, epilepsy, developmental delays, abnormal growth, food fussiness, feeding difficulties, low birth weight, microcephaly, and low APGAR scores. Previous exam questions have focused on low APGAR scores.
Eating disorders in pregnancy can also lead to associated complications, such as inadequate of excessive weight gain, hyperemesis gravidarum, hypotension (in anorexia) of hypertension (in bulimia), syncope/presyncope from cardiac arrhythmias and electrolyte disturbances, anemia (in anorexia), pregnancy termination (spontaneous of therapeutic), small for term infant, stillbirth, breech pregnancy, pre-eclampsia, cesarean section, post-episiotomy suture tearing, vaginal bleeding, increased rate of perinatal difficulties, postpartum depression risk, cardiac changes, and refeeding syndrome (occurs primarily in patients who are aggressively refed).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 94
Correct
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What is the most frequently reported side effect of varenicline?
Your Answer: Nausea
Explanation:Smoking cessation can be achieved through various methods, including nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), bupropion, and varenicline. NRT is available in different forms, including patches, gum, lozenges, inhalators, and nasal spray. Combination treatment with NRT has been found to be more effective than a single product of placebo. Bupropion is a selective inhibitor of dopamine and noradrenaline reuptake and is presumed to work directly on the brain pathways involved in addiction and withdrawal. It is recommended to start bupropion while still smoking and to discontinue after 7-9 weeks. Varenicline is a partial nicotinic receptor agonist that reduces the rewarding and reinforcing effects of smoking. It is recommended to start varenicline while still smoking and to continue for 12 weeks. Nausea is the most common adverse effect of varenicline, and depression has been reported in some users. Bupropion and varenicline should be avoided in certain populations, including those with a history of bipolar disorder, epilepsy, and pregnancy of breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 95
Correct
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For which condition is AChE-I considered an appropriate initial treatment option?
Your Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies
Explanation:Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.
NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.
The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.
In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A new antihypertensive medication is trialled for adults with high blood pressure. There are 500 adults in the control group and 300 adults assigned to take the new medication. After 6 months, 200 adults in the control group had high blood pressure compared to 30 adults in the group taking the new medication. What is the relative risk reduction?
Your Answer: 30%
Correct Answer: 75%
Explanation:The RRR (Relative Risk Reduction) is calculated by dividing the ARR (Absolute Risk Reduction) by the CER (Control Event Rate). The CER is determined by dividing the number of control events by the total number of participants, which in this case is 200/500 of 0.4. The EER (Experimental Event Rate) is determined by dividing the number of events in the experimental group by the total number of participants, which in this case is 30/300 of 0.1. The ARR is calculated by subtracting the EER from the CER, which is 0.4 – 0.1 = 0.3. Finally, the RRR is calculated by dividing the ARR by the CER, which is 0.3/0.4 of 0.75 (of 75%).
Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 97
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes antisocial personality disorder?
Your Answer: The term antisocial personality disorder is used in the DSM-5
Explanation:Personality Disorder (Antisocial / Dissocial)
Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by impulsive, irresponsible, and often criminal behavior. The criteria for this disorder differ somewhat between the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 abolished all categories of personality disorder except for a general description of personality disorder. This diagnosis can be further specified as “mild,” “moderate,” of “severe.” Patient behavior can be described using one of more of five personality trait domains; negative affectivity, dissociality, anankastic, detachment, and disinhibition. Clinicians may also specify a borderline pattern qualifier.
The core feature of dissociality is a disregard for the rights and feelings of others, encompassing both self-centeredness and lack of empathy. Common manifestations of Dissociality include self-centeredness and lack of empathy. The DSM-5 defines antisocial personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, occurring since age 15, as indicated by three (of more) of the following: failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviors, deceitfulness, impulsivity of failure to plan ahead, irritability and aggressiveness, reckless disregard for safety of self of others, consistent irresponsibility, and lack of remorse.
Prevalence estimates are between 1%-6% in men and between 0.2-0.8% in women. Antisocial behaviors typically have their onset before age 8 years. Nearly 80% of people with ASPD developed their first symptom by age 11 years. Boys develop symptoms earlier than girls, who may not develop symptoms until puberty. An estimated 25% of girls and 40% of boys with Conduct Disorder will later meet criteria for ASPD.
The 2009 NICE Guidelines essentially make two recommendations on treatment: consider offering group-based cognitive and behavioral interventions and pharmacological interventions should not be routinely used for the treatment of antisocial personality disorder of associated behaviors of aggression, anger, and impulsivity. A Cochrane review found that there is not enough good quality evidence to recommend of reject any psychological treatment for people with a diagnosis of AsPD.
The term psychopathy has varied meanings. Some use the term synonymously with APD and consider it to represent the severe end of the spectrum of APD. Others maintain a clear distinction between psychopathy and APD. Psychopathy has been said to be a richer (broader) concept than APD. The DSM-5 view of APD is largely based on behavioral difficulties whereas the concept of psychopathy considers behavior in addition to personality-based (interpersonal of affective) symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 98
Correct
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What is the accurate description of the structure of interpersonal psychotherapy?
Your Answer: It follows three phases
Explanation:Interpersonal Therapy: A Structured Approach to Addressing Social Functioning Problems
Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is a structured form of psychotherapy that is often used to treat depression. It is based on the belief that social functioning problems have a significant impact on psychological problems. IPT is a time-limited therapy that typically runs for 10-16 one hour sessions. The therapy is organized into three phases, with the first phase involving data collection and formulation. The remaining sessions explore the formulation in more detail.
IPT focuses on four areas of social functioning problems: grief, role transitions, interpersonal deficits, and interpersonal disputes. The therapy aims to intervene at the level of social functioning, rather than focusing on personality. The therapy has been found to be effective in treating depression, particularly in patients with severe depression. However, it may be less effective in treating people with depression and comorbid personality disorders.
The evidence base for IPT is most developed for eating disorders, and the intervention is recommended in NICE guidelines for eating disorders. Overall, IPT is a structured approach to addressing social functioning problems that can be effective in treating depression and other psychological problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 99
Incorrect
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What is the likelihood of a significant birth defect occurring in a confirmed pregnancy without any known cause of external factors?
Your Answer: 8-10%
Correct Answer: 2-4%
Explanation:Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 100
Incorrect
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What is the most accurate estimate of the ratio of males to females with OCD?
Your Answer: 2:01
Correct Answer: 1:01
Explanation:Both males and females are equally likely to experience OCD, according to most studies. While some discrepancies have been reported, the majority support a 1:1 ratio.
Maudsley Guidelines
First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)
Second line:
– SSRI + antipsychotic
– Citalopram + clomipramine
– Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
– Lamotrigine + SSRI
– Topiramate + SSRI -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 101
Incorrect
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An infarct in which area has been demonstrated to result in a higher likelihood of depression in individuals?
Your Answer: Parietal lobe
Correct Answer: Basal Ganglia
Explanation:Depression is a common occurrence after a stroke, affecting 30-40% of patients. The location of the stroke lesion can play a crucial role in the development of major depression. Treatment for post-stroke depression must take into account the cause of the stroke, medical comorbidities, and potential interactions with other medications. The Maudsley guidelines recommend SSRIs as the first-line treatment, with paroxetine being the preferred choice. Nortriptyline is also an option, as it does not increase the risk of bleeding. If the patient is on anticoagulants, citalopram and escitalopram may be preferred. Antidepressant prophylaxis has been shown to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression, with nortriptyline, fluoxetine, escitalopram, duloxetine, sertraline, and mirtazapine being effective options. Mianserin, however, appears to be ineffective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 102
Incorrect
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What is a distinguishing trait of the initial phase of Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: Urinary incontinence
Correct Answer: Impaired short term memory
Explanation:Dementia: Types and Clinical Characteristics
Dementia is a progressive impairment of cognitive functions occurring in clear consciousness. There are over 100 different causes of dementia, and a detailed knowledge is required for the more common types. The following are some of the subtypes of dementia, along with their early features, neuropathology, and proportion:
– Alzheimer’s disease: Impaired memory, apathy, and depression; gradual onset; cortical amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles; 50-75% proportion.
– Vascular dementia: Similar to AD, but memory less affected, and mood fluctuations more prominent; physical frailty; stepwise onset; cerebrovascular disease; single infarcts in critical regions, of more diffuse multi-infarct disease; 20-30% proportion.
– Frontotemporal dementia: Personality changes, mood changes, disinhibition, language difficulties; no single pathology – damage limited to frontal and temporal lobes; 5-10% proportion.
– Dementia with Lewy Bodies: Marked fluctuation in cognitive ability, visual hallucinations, Parkinsonism (tremor and rigidity); cortical Lewy bodies (alpha-synuclein); <5% proportion. Other types of dementia include Pick’s disease, Huntington’s disease, pseudodementia, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Each subtype has its own unique clinical characteristics and neuropathology. It is important to accurately diagnose the type of dementia in order to provide appropriate treatment and care. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 103
Correct
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Which of the options below could indicate the presence of narcissistic personality disorder?
Your Answer: Need for constant attention and admiration
Explanation:Individuals with both narcissistic personality disorder and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder may exhibit a commitment to perfectionism and a belief that others cannot perform as well. However, those with narcissistic personality disorder are more likely to believe that they have already achieved perfection, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder may be self-critical. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by a needy interactive style and an unstable self-image. In contrast, individuals with antisocial and narcissistic personality disorders share traits such as being tough-minded, glib, superficial, exploitative, and unempathic. However, it is important to note that narcissistic personality disorder does not necessarily involve impulsivity, aggression, and deceit.
Personality Disorder (Narcissistic)
Narcissistic personality disorder is a mental illness characterized by individuals having an exaggerated sense of their own importance, an intense need for excessive attention and admiration, troubled relationships, and a lack of empathy towards others. The DSM-5 diagnostic manual outlines the criteria for this disorder, which includes a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. To be diagnosed with this disorder, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following traits: a grandiose sense of self-importance, preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited success, belief in being special and unique, excessive admiration requirements, a sense of entitlement, interpersonal exploitation, lack of empathy, envy towards others, and arrogant of haughty behaviors. While the previous version of the ICD included narcissistic personality disorder, the ICD-11 does not have a specific reference to this condition, but it can be coded under the category of general personality disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 104
Correct
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Boys are more susceptible to which form of abuse compared to girls?
Your Answer: Physical abuse
Explanation:According to the 2016 crime survey for England and Wales (CSEW), the following percentages of males and females reported experiencing different types of abuse:
– Sexual assault by rape/penetration: 0.6% of males and 3.4% of females
– Other sexual abuse: 2.5% of males and 10.1% of females
– Psychological abuse: 7.2% of males and 10.6% of females
– Witnessing domestic violence: 6.0% of males and 9.8% of females
– Physical abuse: 7.1% of males and 6.6% of femalesNote: The percentages represent the proportion of respondents who reported experiencing each type of abuse in the 12 months prior to the survey.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 105
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate duration for a trial period in an individual who has been prescribed clozapine and has attained a minimum trough plasma concentration of 350µg/L?
Your Answer: 4 weeks
Correct Answer: 8 weeks
Explanation:To ensure sufficient efficacy, a proper evaluation of clozapine should span a minimum of 8 weeks while maintaining a plasma trough level of 350-400 µg/L of higher (Schulte, 2003).
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 106
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl has been referred to your clinic due to concerns raised by her parents and teachers regarding her inability to focus, impulsivity, and restlessness, which have negatively impacted her academic performance. Which genetic polymorphism is most pertinent to the development of this condition?
Your Answer: Human dopamine transporter gene (DAT1)
Explanation:The genetic polymorphisms that are associated with the development of hyperkinetic disorder (ADHD) include dopamine transporter (DAT1) and dopamine receptor related (DRD4). On the other hand, DBP, DISC1, and NRG are polymorphisms that are relevant to schizophrenia, while APP is associated with Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, the DISC1 gene is believed to increase the likelihood of developing bipolar disorder and major depressive disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 107
Correct
-
Which investigation is not typically performed as part of a dementia diagnosis?
Your Answer: EEG
Explanation:According to NICE, the use of electroencephalography for the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease is not recommended.
As an AI language model, I do not have the ability to perform investigations of provide medical advice. However, I can provide information on the NICE guidelines for investigations in people with dementia. The guidelines suggest routine blood tests to exclude reversible causes, such as full blood count, ESR, CRP, urea and electrolytes, calcium, HbA1c, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and serum B12 and folate levels. Other investigations that may be appropriate if clinically indicated include urine microscopy and culture, chest X-ray, ECG, syphilis serology, and HIV testing. Structural imaging and CSF analysis may also be necessary to exclude other cerebral pathologies and establish the subtype diagnosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred over CT if the subtype is unclear and vascular is suspected. FDG-PET of perfusion SPECT may be considered if the diagnosis is uncertain and frontotemporal dementia of dementia with Lewy bodies is suspected. However, it is important to note that Apolipoprotein E genotyping and electroencephalography should not be used to diagnose Alzheimer’s disease. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 108
Correct
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Which term is Donald Winnicott known for?
Your Answer: Holding environment
Explanation:Winnicott is known for his concept of the ‘good enough mother’, rather than referring to the mother as absent.
Winnicott: An Overview
Donald Winnicott, a British paediatrician and psychotherapist, is known for his contributions to the field of child development and psychoanalysis. He introduced several concepts that are still relevant today.
Good Enough Mother: Winnicott emphasised the importance of being a good enough mother rather than a perfect one. He believed that children needed someone who would attend to them but not immediately so that they could learn to tolerate frustration.
Holding Environment: This refers to the psychic and physical space between the mother and infant that ensures the mother is there for the child when needed but allows them to explore independently when ready.
Transitional Object: Winnicott talked about the two separate realities for a child, the ‘me’ and the ‘not me’. The transitional object is one that represents another (e.g. Mother) and is regarded as the first ‘not me’ possession.
False Self: Winnicott described the situation of ‘not good-enough mothering’ as one in which the mother (consciously of unconsciously) is unable to respond adequately to her infant’s spontaneous behaviour (true self), but tends to impose her own wishes and desires (e.g. for an ‘ideal’ child). This may lead the infant to an adaptation on the basis of ’compliance’ (false self) and later, in adulthood, to the loss of a sense of personal autonomy and integrity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 109
Correct
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A 25-year-old individual has been experiencing frequent episodes of dizziness. What other symptom would indicate that they may be suffering from an anxiety disorder?
Your Answer: Paraesthesia in the hands
Explanation:Hyperventilation associated with anxiety disorders often leads to paraesthesia, which is commonly felt in the hands, feet, and perioral region. If a person experiences rotational vertigo and tinnitus, it may indicate an organic disorder. On the other hand, raised systolic blood pressure may be associated with anxiety disorder, but not diastolic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 110
Correct
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Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of paranoid personality disorder?
Your Answer: Unusual perceptual disturbances
Explanation:Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by atypical perceptual experiences.
Paranoid Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals have a deep-seated distrust and suspicion of others, often interpreting their actions as malevolent. This disorder is characterized by a pattern of negative interpretations of others’ words, actions, and intentions, leading to a reluctance to confide in others and holding grudges for long periods of time. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder include at least four of the following symptoms: unfounded suspicions of exploitation, harm, of deception by others, preoccupation with doubts about the loyalty of trustworthiness of friends of associates, reluctance to confide in others due to fear of malicious use of information, reading negative meanings into benign remarks of events, persistent grudges, perceiving attacks on one’s character of reputation that are not apparent to others and reacting angrily of counterattacking, and recurrent suspicions of infidelity in a partner without justification. The ICD-11 does not have a specific category for paranoid personality disorder but covers many of its features under the negative affectivity qualifier under the element of mistrustfulness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 111
Correct
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Can you rephrase the question to ask for a definition of macrosomia?
Your Answer: Macrosomia
Explanation:Risks to Children of Mothers with Eating Disorders
Children of mothers with eating disorders are at risk of various complications, including premature birth, increased perinatal mortality, cleft lip and cleft palate, epilepsy, developmental delays, abnormal growth, food fussiness, feeding difficulties, low birth weight, microcephaly, and low APGAR scores. Previous exam questions have focused on low APGAR scores.
Eating disorders in pregnancy can also lead to associated complications, such as inadequate of excessive weight gain, hyperemesis gravidarum, hypotension (in anorexia) of hypertension (in bulimia), syncope/presyncope from cardiac arrhythmias and electrolyte disturbances, anemia (in anorexia), pregnancy termination (spontaneous of therapeutic), small for term infant, stillbirth, breech pregnancy, pre-eclampsia, cesarean section, post-episiotomy suture tearing, vaginal bleeding, increased rate of perinatal difficulties, postpartum depression risk, cardiac changes, and refeeding syndrome (occurs primarily in patients who are aggressively refed).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 112
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 7-year-old girl who presents with facial features such as a flat and broad head, a prominent forehead, heavy brows, up-slanting eyes, a depressed nasal bridge, and a wide mouth with a fleshy and inverted central portion of the upper lip. Additionally, you observe short and broad hands, short stature, a hoarse deep voice, speech delay, and hearing loss. During follow-up, you notice a predominance of various self-injurious behaviors, including self-biting, head-banging, and picking sores. The patient also exhibits self-hugging behavior. What is your preferred diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lysosomal storage disorder
Correct Answer: Smith-Magenis syndrome
Explanation:Smith-Magenis syndrome is characterized by a behavioural phenotype that often involves severe self harm, but it is distinguished by a unique behaviour known as self-hugging. The syndrome is caused by a deletion on chromosome 17 (17p11.2) and is estimated to occur in one out of every 25,000 births. Due to its prevalence and distinct features, Smith-Magenis syndrome is frequently tested on the Royal College examinations and is important to understand in detail.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 87 year old man is brought to Accident and Emergency by his daughter in law. He has become increasingly confused over the past 5 days and is highly agitated. His past history includes that of angina and gout. He lives with his wife and is normally independent for most things around the house. He spends most of his time reading and watching television. He is noted to be dehydrated, has a GCS of 12/15 and an AMTS of 6/10. His QTc is normal. His urine has an offensive odour and contains blood, nitrates +++, and leukocytes. When the emergency doctors attempt to take a blood sample he becomes aggressive and hits a nurse. The team contacts you for advice. Which of the following would you recommend as acute management?
Your Answer: Lorazepam
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:The presentation is consistent with delirium, which involves sudden decline, confusion, and disorientation. NICE recommends the use of haloperidol in such cases.
Delirium Management
Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.
Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 114
Correct
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You receive a call from a doctor in the emergency department regarding a middle-aged female patient with a history of depression under psychiatric care who has presented with a gastrointestinal bleed. The doctor is inquiring about the potential contribution of any medications to the bleed. Which medication would you consider as the most likely culprit?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:SSRI and Bleeding Risk: Management Strategies
SSRIs have been linked to an increased risk of bleeding, particularly in vulnerable populations such as the elderly, those with a history of bleeding, and those taking medications that predispose them to bleeding. The risk of bleeding is further elevated in patients with comorbidities such as liver of renal disease, smoking, and alcohol of drug misuse.
To manage this risk, the Maudsley recommends avoiding SSRIs in patients receiving NSAIDs, aspirin, of oral anticoagulants, of those with a history of cerebral of GI bleeds. If SSRI use cannot be avoided, close monitoring and prescription of gastroprotective proton pump inhibitors are recommended. The degree of serotonin reuptake inhibition varies among antidepressants, with some having weaker of no inhibition, which may be associated with a lower risk of bleeding.
NICE recommends caution when using SSRIs in patients taking aspirin and suggests considering alternative antidepressants such as trazodone, mianserin, of reboxetine. In patients taking warfarin of heparin, SSRIs are not recommended, but mirtazapine may be considered with caution.
Overall, healthcare providers should carefully weigh the risks and benefits of SSRI use in patients at risk of bleeding and consider alternative antidepressants of gastroprotective measures when appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 115
Incorrect
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Which treatment is considered most effective for atypical depression?
Your Answer: SNRIs
Correct Answer: MAOIs
Explanation:Atypical Depression: Symptoms and Treatment
Atypical depression is a subtype of major depressive disorder that is characterized by low mood with mood reactivity and a reversal of the typical features seen in depression. This includes hypersomnia, hyperphagia, weight gain, and libidinal increases. People with atypical depression tend to respond best to MAOIs, while their response to tricyclics is poor, and SSRIs perform somewhere in the middle.
The DSM-5 defines atypical depression as a subtype of major depressive disorder ‘with atypical features’, which includes mood reactivity, significant weight gain of increase in appetite, hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, and a long-standing pattern of interpersonal rejection sensitivity that results in significant social of occupational impairment. However, this subtype is not specifically recognized in ICD-11.
If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of atypical depression, it is important to seek professional help. Treatment options may include therapy, medication, of a combination of both. MAOIs may be the most effective medication for atypical depression, but it is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 116
Correct
-
Which antiepileptic medication is associated with a higher risk of causing aggression when used for epilepsy treatment?
Your Answer: Levetiracetam
Explanation:Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly used for the treatment of epilepsy, but many of them also have mood stabilizing properties and are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorder. However, some AEDs carry product warnings for serious side effects such as hepatic failure, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and skin reactions. Additionally, some AEDs have been associated with an increased risk of suicidal behavior and ideation.
Behavioral side-effects associated with AEDs include depression, aberrant behaviors, and the development of worsening of irritability, impulsivity, anger, hostility, and aggression. Aggression can occur before, after, of in between seizures. Some AEDs are considered to carry a higher risk of aggression, including levetiracetam, perampanel, and topiramate. However, data on the specific risk of aggression for other AEDs is lacking of mixed. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of AEDs when prescribing them for patients with epilepsy of bipolar disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 117
Correct
-
For which conditions is eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy commonly utilized?
Your Answer: PTSD
Explanation:EMDR: A Trauma-Focused Therapy for PTSD
EMDR, of eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing, is a therapy developed by Francine Shapiro in the 1980s that focuses on processing traumatic memories. While the exact way it works is not fully understood, it involves reliving traumatic memories while experiencing bilateral alternating stimulation, often through a light source. EMDR is recommended by the NICE Guidelines as a treatment for PTSD, along with trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 118
Correct
-
What is the best course of action regarding medication for a woman with bipolar disorder who is 6 weeks pregnant and wishes to continue the pregnancy while being stable on valproate for several years?
Your Answer: Stop the valproate and offer an antipsychotic for prophylaxis
Explanation:Valproate is a potent teratogen and should ideally be discontinued during pregnancy. However, the decision to stop must be carefully weighed against the risk of relapse, which is high in some cases. If the history suggests mild to moderate illness, continuing valproate may not be supported. In such cases, NICE Guidelines recommend stopping valproate and starting an antipsychotic as prophylaxis. Pregnancy is a high-risk period for bipolar relapse, so stopping valproate without replacing it with an antipsychotic would be unwise. A shared decision-making approach should be used to determine the best course of action. (Macfarlane, 2018)
Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential
Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.
Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 119
Correct
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What is a true statement about Cotard's syndrome?
Your Answer: It is most commonly associated with depression
Explanation:Cotard’s syndrome is a delusion where an individual believes they do not exist of have lost their blood, internal organs, of soul. It is commonly seen in depression, schizophrenia, and bipolar disorder, and can also occur after trauma. The condition is more prevalent in females and the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 120
Incorrect
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What is the focus of assessment in interpersonal psychotherapy?
Your Answer: Cognitive style
Correct Answer: Current relationships
Explanation:Interpersonal Therapy: A Structured Approach to Addressing Social Functioning Problems
Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is a structured form of psychotherapy that is often used to treat depression. It is based on the belief that social functioning problems have a significant impact on psychological problems. IPT is a time-limited therapy that typically runs for 10-16 one hour sessions. The therapy is organized into three phases, with the first phase involving data collection and formulation. The remaining sessions explore the formulation in more detail.
IPT focuses on four areas of social functioning problems: grief, role transitions, interpersonal deficits, and interpersonal disputes. The therapy aims to intervene at the level of social functioning, rather than focusing on personality. The therapy has been found to be effective in treating depression, particularly in patients with severe depression. However, it may be less effective in treating people with depression and comorbid personality disorders.
The evidence base for IPT is most developed for eating disorders, and the intervention is recommended in NICE guidelines for eating disorders. Overall, IPT is a structured approach to addressing social functioning problems that can be effective in treating depression and other psychological problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 121
Correct
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What are some indications on a urinalysis that suggest the sample may have been tampered with and is therefore unreliable for drug testing?
Your Answer: Temperature of 18 C
Explanation:An 18 C temperature reading is below the typical range for urine, indicating that the sample may not be fresh and could potentially be a replacement sample.
Drug Screening
Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.
People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.
Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 122
Correct
-
What statement accurately describes the World Mental Health Survey Initiative?
Your Answer: It includes information on severity
Explanation:It is important to note that England is not involved in the WMH Survey Initiative, which may limit the generalizability of the study’s findings to our own communities.
World Mental Health Survey Initiative: Variations in Prevalence of Mental Disorders Across Countries
The World Mental Health Survey Initiative aims to gather accurate cross-national information on the prevalence and correlates of mental, substance, and behavioural disorders. The initiative includes nationally of regionally representative surveys in 28 countries, with a total sample size of over 154,000. All interviews are conducted face-to-face by trained lay interviewers using the WMH-CIDI, a fully structured diagnostic interview.
As of 2009, data from 17 countries and 70,000 respondents have been returned. The main findings show that the US has the highest prevalence of any disorder, with anxiety disorder being the most common condition, followed by mood disorder. However, there is significant variation in prevalence between countries. These findings highlight the importance of understanding the cultural and societal factors that contribute to the prevalence of mental disorders in different regions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 123
Correct
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An HIV+ patient in their 60s attends clinic in view of ongoing depression. You note a number of cutaneous lesions in the form of purple-red macules on their face and neck. These are also apparent on the mucous membranes. Which of the following would you most suspect?:
Your Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma
Explanation:Kaposi’s sarcoma is a tumor that develops due to human herpesvirus 8. When associated with AIDS, it typically appears as red to purple-red macules on the skin that quickly progress to papules, nodules, and plaques. These lesions are commonly found on the head, back, neck, trunk, and mucous membranes, and can also occur in the lymph nodes, stomach, intestines, and lungs. Individuals with severe mental illness are at a higher risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and have a greater prevalence of HIV infection compared to the general population. Therefore, it is important to have a basic understanding of the symptoms of this condition.
HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.
Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.
Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 124
Incorrect
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You are consulted by the healthcare team for advice on a patient who is HIV positive and experiencing depression. What would be the most effective course of treatment?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Citalopram is the preferred first-line treatment for depression in patients with HIV, as it has minimal impact on the cytochrome system and does not interfere with HIV medications (unlike fluoxetine). TCAs are generally not well-tolerated in this population due to severe side effects, and MAOIs are not recommended. Although other medications such as mirtazapine, trazodone, reboxetine, and bupropion have been studied, they were limited by high rates of side effects.
HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.
Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.
Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 125
Correct
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What is the estimated percentage of Japanese children who experience a one-year delay in their reading ability?
Your Answer: 16%
Explanation:Reading Difficulties in Japan: Evidence Against the Myth of Rarity
The prevalence of reading disabilities in a sample of 250 Japanese children aged 8.5-13.4 years was assessed using a standardized reading ability test. The results revealed that 16.4% of the children had a one-year delay in reading ability, while 15.2% had a two-year delay. These findings contradict Makita’s (1968) claim that reading disabilities are rare in Japan. The study highlights the need for further research and support for children with reading difficulties in Japan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 126
Correct
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A decreased plasma clozapine to norclozapine ratio in an elderly patient with a stable clozapine dose indicates what?
Your Answer: Enzyme induction
Explanation:If a patient’s plasma clozapine to norclozapine ratio decreases while on a consistent clozapine dose, it may indicate enzyme induction. Conversely, an increase in the ratio may suggest enzyme inhibition of saturation, recent non-trough sample, of poor compliance. The clozapine to norclozapine ratio is typically stable among patients with stable clozapine doses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 127
Correct
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What is the most prevalent mental disorder observed in individuals with multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer: Depression
Explanation:Psychiatric Consequences of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. It is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions in the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. MS presents with diverse neurological signs, including optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.
Depression is the most common psychiatric condition seen in MS, with a lifetime prevalence of 25-50%. The symptoms of depression in people with MS tend to be different from those without MS. The preferred diagnostic indicators for depression in MS include pervasive mood change, diurnal mood variation, suicidal ideation, functional change not related to physical disability, and pessimistic of negative patterns of thinking. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are considered first-line treatment for depression in patients with MS.
Suicide is common in MS, with recognized risk factors including male gender, young age at onset of illness, current of previous history of depression, social isolation, and substance misuse. Mania is more common in people with MS, and mood stabilizers are recommended for treatment. Pathological laughing and crying, defined as uncontrollable laughing and/of crying without the associated affect, occurs in approximately 10% of cases of MS. Emotional lability, defined as an excessive emotional response to a minor stimulus, is also common in MS and can be treated with amitriptyline and SSRIs.
The majority of cases of neuropsychiatric side effects from corticosteroids fit an affective profile of mania and/of depression. Psychotic symptoms, particularly hallucinations, are present in up to half of these cases. Glatiramer acetate has not been associated with neuropsychiatric side-effects. The data regarding the risk of mood symptoms related to interferon use is conflicting.
In conclusion, MS has significant psychiatric consequences, including depression, suicide, mania, pathological laughing and crying, emotional lability, and neuropsychiatric side effects from treatment. Early recognition and treatment of these psychiatric symptoms are essential for improving the quality of life of individuals with MS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A male patient with schizophrenia is started on oral risperidone. After 6 months of treatment, routine monitoring reveals hyperprolactinemia. Upon further questioning, the patient reports experiencing erectile dysfunction but is unsure for how long this has been an issue. The patient is switched to quetiapine, which results in a good clinical response. One month later, his prolactin levels are rechecked and found to be 130 ng/ml. What would be the most appropriate course of action in this case?
Your Answer: Ask her about additional side effects and explain the risks of hyperprolactinemia and if she is happy to continue with quetiapine allow her
Correct Answer: Continue quetiapine and request an MRI
Explanation:If the patient’s prolactin levels have not decreased even after switching to a different antipsychotic medication that has a lower likelihood of increasing prolactin levels, it is possible that there is an underlying cause within the body. One potential cause of hyperprolactinemia is a tumor in the anterior pituitary gland. Therefore, if the patient’s prolactin levels are greater than 118 ng/ml, it is recommended to undergo an MRI to investigate this possibility. It is important to note that a gadolinium-enhanced MRI is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of a prolactinoma, as CT scans do not provide sufficient visualization of the pituitary gland.
Management of Hyperprolactinaemia
Hyperprolactinaemia is often associated with the use of antipsychotics and occasionally antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, and dopamine antagonists increase prolactin levels. Almost all antipsychotics cause changes in prolactin, but some do not increase levels beyond the normal range. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related. Hyperprolactinaemia is often asymptomatic but can cause galactorrhoea, menstrual difficulties, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, sexual dysfunction, and an increased risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer in psychiatric patients.
Patients should have their prolactin measured before antipsychotic therapy and then monitored for symptoms at three months. Annual testing is recommended for asymptomatic patients. Antipsychotics that increase prolactin should be avoided in patients under 25, patients with osteoporosis, patients with a history of hormone-dependent cancer, and young women. Samples should be taken at least one hour after eating of waking, and care must be taken to avoid stress during the procedure.
Treatment options include referral for tests to rule out prolactinoma if prolactin is very high, making a joint decision with the patient about continuing if prolactin is raised but not symptomatic, switching to an alternative antipsychotic less prone to hyperprolactinaemia if prolactin is raised and the patient is symptomatic, adding aripiprazole 5mg, of adding a dopamine agonist such as amantadine of bromocriptine. Mirtazapine is recommended for symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia associated with antidepressants as it does not raise prolactin levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 129
Correct
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A 60-year-old patient is referred by their GP with memory problems. You establish a diagnosis of mild cognitive impairment. What is recommended for prevention of dementia?
Your Answer: None are recommended
Explanation:Mild Cognitive Impairment: A Transitional Zone between Normal Function and Alzheimer’s Disease
Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a clinical syndrome that describes individuals who do not meet the criteria for dementia but have a high risk of progressing to a dementia disorder. MCI is a transitional zone between normal cognitive function and clinically probable Alzheimer’s disease (AD). The diagnosis of MCI is based on self and/of informant report and impairment on objective cognitive tasks, evidence of decline over time on objective cognitive tasks, and preserved basic activities of daily living/minimal impairment in complex instrumental functions.
When individuals with MCI are followed over time, some progress to AD and other dementia types, while others remain stable of even recover. The principal cognitive impairment can be amnestic, single non-memory domain, of involving multiple cognitive domains. There is evidence that deficits in regional cerebral blood flow and regional cerebral glucose metabolism could predict future development of AD in individuals with MCI.
Currently, there is no evidence for long-term efficacy of approved pharmacological treatments in MCI. However, epidemiological studies have indicated a reduced risk of dementia in individuals taking antihypertensive medications, cholesterol-lowering drugs, antioxidants, anti-inflammatories, and estrogen therapy. Randomized clinical trials are needed to verify these associations.
Two clinical screening instruments, the CAMCog (part of the CAMDEX) and the SISCO (part of the SIDAM), allow for a broad assessment of mild cognitive impairment. MCI represents a critical stage in the progression of cognitive decline and highlights the importance of early detection and intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 130
Incorrect
-
What is the typical age when males begin to experience puberty?
Your Answer: Age 10
Correct Answer: Age 12
Explanation:Boys typically begin puberty around the age of 12, while girls typically begin around the age of 11.
Puberty
Puberty is a natural process that occurs in both boys and girls. The age range for the onset of puberty is between 8-14 years for females and 9-14 years for males, with the mean age of onset being 11 years for girls and 12 years for boys. The duration of puberty is typically 3-4 years. The onset of puberty is marked by the appearance of secondary sex characteristics, such as breast development in females and testicular enlargement in males. These characteristics evolve over time and are rated into 5 stages according to Tanner’s criteria. The sequence of events differs between boys and girls, with the onset of breast development (thelarche) generally preceding the onset of the first period (menarche) by around 2 years in girls. The pubertal growth spurt occurs during stages 3 to 4 in most boys and during stages 2 and 3 in girls. Precocious puberty, which occurs earlier than usual, is more common in girls than in boys. The age of onset of puberty in girls has been decreasing over time, with environmental factors such as nutrition potentially playing a role in this trend.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 131
Incorrect
-
Who is recognized for creating an improved version of CBT specifically designed for treating eating disorders?
Your Answer: Schmidt
Correct Answer: Fairburn
Explanation:Although CBT is effective in treating bulimia nervosa, it is not always successful in achieving full and lasting recovery for all patients. To address this, an enhanced form of CBT was developed by Fairburn. This treatment uses a range of strategies and procedures to improve treatment adherence and outcomes, and to identify and address obstacles to change. It has also been adapted to be suitable for all forms of eating disorders, not just bulimia, based on the transdiagnostic theory of the maintenance of eating disorders.
The enhanced CBT treatment comes in two forms: a focused form that concentrates solely on eating disorder psychopathology, and a broad form that also addresses external barriers to change, such as clinical perfectionism, core low self-esteem, and interpersonal difficulties. Eating disorders are often complex, with patients experiencing other problems such as mood disorders, substance misuse, personality disorders, and physical complications. Enhanced CBT is designed to manage these issues while providing treatment.
Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines
Anorexia:
For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Bulimia:
For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Binge Eating Disorder:
The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Advice for those with eating disorders:
Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.Additional points:
Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 132
Incorrect
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Which of the following search methods would be best suited for a user seeking all references that discuss psychosis resulting from cannabis use and sexual abuse in adolescents?
Your Answer: Psychosis AND cannabis AND sexual abuse
Correct Answer: Psychosis AND (cannabis of sexual abuse)
Explanation:The search ‘Psychosis AND (cannabis AND sexual abuse)’ would also return citations with all three terms, but it allows for the possibility of citations that include both cannabis and sexual abuse, but not necessarily psychosis.
Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.
When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.
There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 133
Correct
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What is the most crucial test of investigation to perform when a patient who has recently started taking clozapine experiences central chest pain accompanied by sweating and nausea?
Your Answer: Troponin
Explanation:If a patient taking clozapine experiences chest pain, it is important to consider myocarditis as a potential cause. Conducting a troponin test can aid in confirming the presence of this condition.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A woman initially seen by the nurse practitioner presented with low mood, and insomnia, and was commenced on reboxetine 4 mg BD without any benefit. You assess and confirmed she actually suffers from obsessive compulsive disorder, what will be the appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:The recommended first-line medication for treating OCD in adults is an SSRI.
Maudsley Guidelines
First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)
Second line:
– SSRI + antipsychotic
– Citalopram + clomipramine
– Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
– Lamotrigine + SSRI
– Topiramate + SSRI -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 135
Correct
-
What is the accurate statement about the structural model of the mind?
Your Answer: The Superego contains the ego ideal
Explanation:The Superego encompasses the ‘ego ideal’, which embodies exemplary attitudes and conduct. One can liken the Superego to a moral compass of conscience.
Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind
According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 136
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of mania?
Your Answer: Expansive mood
Correct Answer: Increased appetite
Explanation:In mania, there is a tendency for appetite to decrease.
Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 137
Correct
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What case prompted the creation of the Fraser Guidelines?
Your Answer: Gillick
Explanation:Gillick Competency and Fraser Guidelines
Gillick competency and Fraser guidelines refer to a legal case which looked specifically at whether doctors should be able to give contraceptive advice of treatment to under 16-year-olds without parental consent. But since then, they have been more widely used to help assess whether a child has the maturity to make their own decisions and to understand the implications of those decisions.
In 1982, Mrs Victoria Gillick took her local health authority (West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority) and the Department of Health and Social Security to court in an attempt to stop doctors from giving contraceptive advice of treatment to under 16-year-olds without parental consent.
The case went to the High Court where Mr Justice Woolf dismissed Mrs Gillick’s claims. The Court of Appeal reversed this decision, but in 1985 it went to the House of Lords and the Law Lords (Lord Scarman, Lord Fraser and Lord Bridge) ruled in favour of the original judgement delivered by Mr Justice Woolf.
The Fraser Guidelines were laid down by Lord Fraser in the House of Lords’ case and state that it is lawful for doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent providing that they are satisfied that:
– The young person will understand the professional’s advice
– The young person cannot be persuaded to inform their parents
– The young person is likely to begin, of to continue having, sexual intercourse with of without contraceptive treatment
– Unless the young person receives contraceptive treatment, their physical of mental health, of both, are likely to suffer
– The young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice of treatment with of without parental consent. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 138
Correct
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A new drug is trialled for the treatment of heart disease. Drug A is given to 500 people with early stage heart disease and a placebo is given to 450 people with the same condition. After 5 years, 300 people who received drug A had survived compared to 225 who received the placebo. What is the number needed to treat to save one life?
Your Answer: 10
Explanation:Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 139
Incorrect
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What is the most precise approximation of the percentage of individuals over the age of 60 who engage in suicide within 12 months after experiencing self-harm?
Your Answer: 10%
Correct Answer: 1.50%
Explanation:The rate is considerably greater than that of adults who are of working age.
Suicide Rates Following Self-Harm
Most individuals who engage in self-harm do not go on to commit suicide, which makes risk assessment challenging. A study conducted in the UK in 2015 by Hawton found that 0.5% of individuals died by suicide in the first year following self-harm, with a higher rate among males (0.82%) than females (0.27%). Over the two-year period following self-harm, 1.6% died by suicide, with more occurrences in the second year. Interestingly, a study by Murphy in 2012 found that the rate of suicide following self-harm was higher in the elderly (those over 60), with a rate of 1.5 suicides in the first 12 months. The only significant risk factor for suicide following self-harm in this study was the use of a violent method in the initial episode.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 140
Correct
-
How can primary process thinking be described?
Your Answer: Id
Explanation:Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind
According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old police officer presents following a recent traumatic incident where a fellow officer was killed in the line of duty. She describes recurrent nightmares and flashbacks which have been present for the past 3 months. A diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder is suspected. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
Your Answer: Graded exposure therapy
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment approach is cognitive-behavioral therapy that specifically targets trauma.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 142
Incorrect
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What is the increased likelihood of individuals with learning disabilities developing schizophrenia compared to the general population?
Your Answer: 2
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:Learning Disability and comorbid Psychiatric Illness
It is estimated that 30-50% of adults with learning disabilities also experience mental health problems, including problem behavior. Specific prevalence rates for various mental health disorders in this population have been identified through research. For example, psychotic disorders are present in 4% of adults with learning disabilities, while affective disorders are present in 6%. Autism is the most prevalent disorder, affecting 7.5% of this population.
It is important to note that major depressive disorder can occur at all IQ levels in people with learning disabilities, but may be missed of misinterpreted as challenging behavior. Additionally, individuals with learning disabilities are more susceptible to the negative effects of life events and may develop adjustment disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder is also common in this population.
Stimulant drugs may be less effective in children with learning disabilities and should be used with caution in individuals with Tourette’s of autism, as they may trigger tics. Overall, it is crucial to recognize and address comorbid psychiatric illness in individuals with learning disabilities to ensure appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 143
Incorrect
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What are some factors that increase the likelihood of violence occurring in a hospital setting?
Your Answer: Being unemployed
Correct Answer: Being young
Explanation:Risk Factors for Violence in In-Patient Settings
In-patient settings can be prone to violence, and there are several risk factors that contribute to this issue. According to Davison (2005), patient-related risk factors include being young, having a history of violence, being compulsorily admitted, having comorbid substance misuse, and being in the acute phase of the illness. Environmental risk factors include a lack of structured activity, high use of temporary staff, low levels of staff-patient interaction, poor staffing levels, poorly defined staffing roles, unpredictable ward programmes, lack of privacy, overcrowding, poor physical facilities, and the availability of weapons. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to mitigate them to ensure the safety of both patients and staff.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 144
Incorrect
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What is the required frequency and duration of bedwetting behavior to meet the diagnostic threshold for enuresis?
Your Answer: At least once a fortnight for 4 months
Correct Answer: At least twice weekly for at least 3 months
Explanation:Elimination Disorders
Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.
Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.
Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.
Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 145
Correct
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Under what circumstances should Opioid detoxification not be offered as a standard practice, as per the NICE guidelines?
Your Answer: When a patient is serving a short prison sentence
Explanation:It is not recommended to offer opioid detoxification to individuals with urgent medical conditions. However, for those in police custody of serving a short prison sentence, of those presenting in an acute of emergency setting, consideration should be given to treating opioid withdrawal symptoms with medication and referring them to further drug services as needed. If an individual seeking opioid detoxification also misuses alcohol, healthcare professionals should address their alcohol misuse, as it may worsen during opioid withdrawal of be substituted for previous opioid misuse. For those who are alcohol dependent, alcohol detoxification should be offered before starting opioid detoxification in a community of prison setting, but can be done concurrently with opioid detoxification in an inpatient setting of with stabilisation in a community setting.
Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 146
Correct
-
Among the listed medications, which one has the strongest evidence for reducing persistent aggression and violence in individuals with schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Recent research suggests that clozapine may be effective in reducing persistent aggression in individuals with schizophrenia, even independent of its antipsychotic properties. However, this evidence is largely based on uncontrolled trials. Additionally, there is some indication that mood stabilizers, specifically carbamazepine, may be helpful as an adjunct treatment for assaultive behavior in schizophrenia. On the other hand, there is currently no strong evidence to support the use of benzodiazepines of high-dose antipsychotics for chronic aggression in this population. These findings were discussed in a 2005 article by Davison on the management of violence in general psychiatry.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 147
Incorrect
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Which benzodiazepine is most likely to worsen cognitive impairment in a patient who has dementia?
Your Answer: Temazepam
Correct Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:Benzodiazepines with a longer duration of action, such as diazepam, pose more difficulties than those with a shorter duration of action.
Risk Factors for Delirium
Delirium is a common condition that affects many elderly individuals. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing delirium. These risk factors include age, cognitive impairment, severe medical illness, previous history of delirium of neurological disease, psychoactive drug use, polypharmacy, and anticholinergic drug use.
Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Certain classes of drugs, such as opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics, are strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia. Long-acting benzodiazepines are more troublesome than shorter-acting ones. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients. Pethidine, a member of the opioid class, appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other opioids due to its accumulation in individuals with impaired renal function and conversion to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.
Overall, it is important to be aware of these risk factors and to carefully monitor medication use in elderly individuals to prevent the development of delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 148
Correct
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What is the level of CPA designed for individuals with high-risk and complex needs?
Your Answer: Enhanced
Explanation:The Care Program Approach (CPA) was implemented in 1991 to enhance community care for individuals with severe mental illness. The CPA comprises four primary components, including assessment, a care plan, a Care Coordinator (formerly known as a Key Worker), and regular review. There are two levels of CPA, namely standard and enhanced. Standard care plans are suitable for individuals who require minimal input from a single agency and pose minimal risk to themselves of others. Enhanced care plans are designed for individuals with complex needs who require collaboration among multiple agencies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 149
Incorrect
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Which of the following is another term for the average of squared deviations from the mean?
Your Answer: Standard error
Correct Answer: Variance
Explanation:The variance can be expressed as the mean of the squared differences between each value and the mean.
Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents in the early hours of the morning with a high fever of 39.5°C. He complains of a stiff neck and headache. He quickly becomes confused and there is evidence of hallucinations in both taste and smell. He then begins to have frequent seizures.
He has a history of good health except for a pacemaker implanted when he was 40 years old. He has not traveled outside of the United States recently. The medical team requests your assistance as the consulting psychiatrist.
What would you suggest as the initial investigation to assist with the diagnosis?Your Answer: CSF obtained by LP
Correct Answer: CT scan of the head
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms indicate possible viral encephalitis, likely caused by herpes. To confirm the diagnosis and rule out other infections, a diagnostic examination of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is necessary. However, it is important to ensure the safety of the patient before performing the CSF examination, as there is a risk of herniation. Therefore, a CT scan of the head should be the initial investigation to be carried out, as it can also detect any abscesses that may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 151
Incorrect
-
What is the middle value in the set of numbers 2, 9, 4, 1, 23?
Your Answer: 9
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:Measures of Central Tendency
Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.
The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.
The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.
In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 152
Correct
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A 72-year-old man comes to you with complaints of feeling low and having trouble sleeping. Upon further discussion and using a validated symptom measure, you diagnose him with moderate depression. He has a history of cerebrovascular disease and is currently on aspirin, ramipril, and simvastatin. What would be the best course of action in this case?
Your Answer: Start citalopram + lansoprazole
Explanation:SSRI and Bleeding Risk: Management Strategies
SSRIs have been linked to an increased risk of bleeding, particularly in vulnerable populations such as the elderly, those with a history of bleeding, and those taking medications that predispose them to bleeding. The risk of bleeding is further elevated in patients with comorbidities such as liver of renal disease, smoking, and alcohol of drug misuse.
To manage this risk, the Maudsley recommends avoiding SSRIs in patients receiving NSAIDs, aspirin, of oral anticoagulants, of those with a history of cerebral of GI bleeds. If SSRI use cannot be avoided, close monitoring and prescription of gastroprotective proton pump inhibitors are recommended. The degree of serotonin reuptake inhibition varies among antidepressants, with some having weaker of no inhibition, which may be associated with a lower risk of bleeding.
NICE recommends caution when using SSRIs in patients taking aspirin and suggests considering alternative antidepressants such as trazodone, mianserin, of reboxetine. In patients taking warfarin of heparin, SSRIs are not recommended, but mirtazapine may be considered with caution.
Overall, healthcare providers should carefully weigh the risks and benefits of SSRI use in patients at risk of bleeding and consider alternative antidepressants of gastroprotective measures when appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 153
Correct
-
What is the average suicide rate in the UK population?
Your Answer: 1 in 10,000
Explanation:The suicide rate in England is typically 1 in 10,000, while for individuals who use mental health services in England, the suicide rate is 1 in 1000.
2021 National Confidential Inquiry into Suicide and Safety in Mental Health (NCISH) report reveals key findings on suicide rates in the UK from 2008-2018. The rates have remained stable over the years, with a slight increase following the 2008 recession and another rise since 2015/2016. Approximately 27% of all general population suicides were patients who had contact with mental health services within 12 months of suicide. The most common methods of suicide were hanging/strangulation (52%) and self-poisoning (22%), mainly through prescription opioids. In-patient suicides have continued to decrease, with most of them occurring on the ward itself from low lying ligature points. The first three months after discharge remain a high-risk period, with 13% of all patient suicides occurring within this time frame. Nearly half (48%) of patient suicides were from patients who lived alone. In England, suicide rates are higher in males (17.2 per 100,000) than females (5.4 per 100,000), with the highest age-specific suicide rate for males in the 45-49 years age group (27.1 deaths per 100,000 males) and for females in the same age group (9.2 deaths per 100,000). Hanging remains the most common method of suicide in the UK, accounting for 59.4% of all suicides among males and 45.0% of all suicides among females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 154
Correct
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Out of the 5 trials included in a meta-analysis comparing the effects of depot olanzapine and depot risperidone on psychotic symptoms (measured by PANSS), which trial showed a statistically significant difference between the two treatments at a significance level of 5%?
Your Answer: Trial 2 shows a reduction of 2 on the PANSS (p=0.001)
Explanation:The results of Trial 4 indicate a decrease of 10 points on the PANSS scale, with a p-value of 0.9.
Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics
In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.
The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.
Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 155
Correct
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What term is commonly used in reference to the type of therapy offered to dysfunctional families known as strategic family therapy?
Your Answer: Task setting
Explanation:Family Therapy Models
Family therapy emerged in the 1950s, shifting the focus from individual problems to the context of the environment. There are five main models of family therapy: structural, strategic, systemic, transgenerational, and solution-focused.
Structural therapy, developed by Salvador Minuchin, assumes that the family’s structure is wrong and aims to establish clear boundaries and no coalitions. Dysfunctional families are marked by impaired boundaries, inappropriate alignments, and power imbalances.
Strategic therapy, associated with Jay Haley and Cloe Madanes, claims that difficulties in families arise due to distorted hierarchies. Dysfunctional families communicate in problematic repetitive patterns that kept them dysfunctional. Key terms include task setting and goal setting.
Systemic therapy, associated with Mara Selvini-Palazzoli, sees the family as a self-regulating system that controls itself according to rules formed over time. The focus is on exploring differences between family members’ behaviors, emotional responses, and beliefs at different points in time. Key terms include hypothesizing, neutrality, positive connotation, paradox and counterparadox, circular and interventive questioning, and the use of reflecting teams.
Transgenerational family therapy aims to understand how families, across generations, develop patterns of behaving and responding to stress in ways that prevent health development and lead to problems. Seven interlocking concepts make up the theory.
Solution-focused therapy emphasizes solutions over problems and collaborates with the family through in-depth questioning to focus on the solutions already being used by the clients. The therapist is non-interventionist, and the focus is on the present and the future. Blame, shame, and conflict are seen as issues that impede people from realizing these solutions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 156
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a valid type of validity?
Your Answer: Concurrent
Correct Answer: Inter-rater
Explanation:Validity in statistics refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study, while external validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. There are various threats to both internal and external validity, such as sampling, measurement instrument obtrusiveness, and reactive effects of setting. Additionally, there are several subtypes of validity, including face validity, content validity, criterion validity, and construct validity. Each subtype has its own specific focus and methods for testing validity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 157
Correct
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What is the GRADE approach used in evidence based medicine and what are its characteristics?
Your Answer: The system can be applied to observational studies
Explanation:Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine
To evaluate the quality of evidence on a subject of question, levels of grades are used. The traditional hierarchy approach places systematic reviews of randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system, which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each.
The grading approach to be aware of is the GRADE system, which classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, of very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical of important. The evidence is then gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence, with the type of evidence being a significant factor. Evidence can be promoted of downgraded based on certain criteria, such as limitations to study quality, inconsistency, uncertainty about directness, imprecise of sparse data, and reporting bias. The GRADE system allows for the promotion of observational studies to high-quality evidence under the right circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 158
Correct
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What is a true statement about delirium?
Your Answer: Hypoactive delirium is often missed as it is difficult to recognise
Explanation:Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 159
Incorrect
-
What combination of substances is included in Suboxone?
Your Answer: Buprenorphine and naltrexone
Correct Answer: Naloxone and buprenorphine
Explanation:Suboxone vs. Subutex: What’s the Difference?
Suboxone and Subutex are both medications used to treat opioid addiction. However, there are some key differences between the two.
Suboxone is a combination of buprenorphine and naloxone. The naloxone is added to prevent people from injecting the medication, as this was a common problem with pure buprenorphine tablets. If someone tries to inject Suboxone, the naloxone will cause intense withdrawal symptoms. However, if the tablet is swallowed as directed, the naloxone is not absorbed by the gut and does not cause any problems.
Subutex, on the other hand, contains only buprenorphine and does not include naloxone. This means that it may be more likely to be abused by injection, as there is no deterrent to prevent people from doing so.
Overall, both Suboxone and Subutex can be effective treatments for opioid addiction, but Suboxone may be a safer choice due to the addition of naloxone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 160
Incorrect
-
What is the estimated percentage of psychiatrists who experience stalking behavior at some point in their professional lives?
Your Answer: 70%
Correct Answer: 20%
Explanation:Stalking is a serious issue that can cause significant distress to victims. While most victims are not physically assaulted, the psychological and social damage can be severe. It is concerning that nearly half of stalkers re-offend, with personality disordered individuals and substance abusers being the most likely to do so. It is also alarming that professionals, such as psychiatrists, are at higher risk of being stalked by patients of their relatives. It is important for society to take stalking seriously and provide support and protection for victims.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 161
Correct
-
What percentage of individuals aged 16 years and older in the UK are considered to be harmful drinkers?
Your Answer: 4%
Explanation:Out of the population aged 16 of over, 19% do not consume alcohol, while 60% have a low risk pattern of alcohol consumption. 17% have an increased risk pattern, and 4% have a higher risk pattern, according to the classification of alcohol consumption based on weekly units.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 162
Incorrect
-
What term is used to describe an association between two variables that is influenced by a confounding factor?
Your Answer: Spurious
Correct Answer: Indirect
Explanation:Stats Association and Causation
When two variables are found to be more commonly present together, they are said to be associated. However, this association can be of three types: spurious, indirect, of direct. Spurious association is one that has arisen by chance and is not real, while indirect association is due to the presence of another factor, known as a confounding variable. Direct association, on the other hand, is a true association not linked by a third variable.
Once an association has been established, the next question is whether it is causal. To determine causation, the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria are used. These criteria include strength, temporality, specificity, coherence, and consistency. The stronger the association, the more likely it is to be truly causal. Temporality refers to whether the exposure precedes the outcome. Specificity asks whether the suspected cause is associated with a specific outcome of disease. Coherence refers to whether the association fits with other biological knowledge. Finally, consistency asks whether the same association is found in many studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 163
Incorrect
-
Within what timeframe should symptoms of an acute stress reaction begin to decrease?
Your Answer: 1 week
Correct Answer: 48 hours
Explanation:Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 164
Correct
-
What is a true statement about cost-benefit analysis?
Your Answer: Benefits are valued in monetary terms
Explanation:The net benefit of a proposed scheme is calculated by subtracting the costs from the benefits in a CBA. For instance, if the benefits of the scheme are valued at £140 k and the costs are £10 k, then the net benefit would be £130 k.
Methods of Economic Evaluation
There are four main methods of economic evaluation: cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA), cost-benefit analysis (CBA), cost-utility analysis (CUA), and cost-minimisation analysis (CMA). While all four methods capture costs, they differ in how they assess health effects.
Cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA) compares interventions by relating costs to a single clinical measure of effectiveness, such as symptom reduction of improvement in activities of daily living. The cost-effectiveness ratio is calculated as total cost divided by units of effectiveness. CEA is typically used when CBA cannot be performed due to the inability to monetise benefits.
Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) measures all costs and benefits of an intervention in monetary terms to establish which alternative has the greatest net benefit. CBA requires that all consequences of an intervention, such as life-years saved, treatment side-effects, symptom relief, disability, pain, and discomfort, are allocated a monetary value. CBA is rarely used in mental health service evaluation due to the difficulty in converting benefits from mental health programmes into monetary values.
Cost-utility analysis (CUA) is a special form of CEA in which health benefits/outcomes are measured in broader, more generic ways, enabling comparisons between treatments for different diseases and conditions. Multidimensional health outcomes are measured by a single preference- of utility-based index such as the Quality-Adjusted-Life-Years (QALY). QALYs are a composite measure of gains in life expectancy and health-related quality of life. CUA allows for comparisons across treatments for different conditions.
Cost-minimisation analysis (CMA) is an economic evaluation in which the consequences of competing interventions are the same, and only inputs, i.e. costs, are taken into consideration. The aim is to decide the least costly way of achieving the same outcome.
Costs in Economic Evaluation Studies
There are three main types of costs in economic evaluation studies: direct, indirect, and intangible. Direct costs are associated directly with the healthcare intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, cost of travel for the patient, childcare costs for the patient, and costs falling on other social sectors such as domestic help from social services. Indirect costs are incurred by the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work, reduced work productivity, and time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are difficult to measure, such as pain of suffering on the part of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 165
Incorrect
-
A child is scheduled to undergo ECT. The nurse presents you with their medication list. Which medication should be stopped before ECT?
Your Answer: Depakote
Correct Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:ECT and Seizure Duration: Effect of Psychotropics
On the whole, most drugs do not interfere with ECT. However, it is important to note the effect of psychotropics on seizure duration. The table below summarizes the effect of important psychotropics and their advice:
Psychotropic class: Benzodiazepine
Effect on seizure duration: Reduced
Advice: Avoid where possiblePsychotropic class: SSRIs
Effect on seizure duration: Minimal effectPsychotropic class: Venlafaxine
Effect on seizure duration: Minimal effectPsychotropic class: TCAs
Effect on seizure duration: Possibly increased
Advice: TCAs are associated with arrhythmia following ECT in the elderly and those with cardiac disease, so they should be avoided in ECT in these groups.Psychotropic class: MAOIs
Effect on seizure duration: Minimal effectPsychotropic class: Lithium
Effect on seizure duration: Possibly increased
Advice: Generally used in ECT without significant problems.Psychotropic class: Antipsychotics
Effect on seizure duration: Some potential increase in clozapine and phenothiazines, other antipsychotics considered ok
Advice: Limited data.Psychotropic class: Anticonvulsants
Effect on seizure duration: Reduced
Advice: If used as a mood stabilizer, continue but be prepared to use higher energy stimulus.(Source: Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition, p.187)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 166
Correct
-
Which plant species, commonly known as St John's Wort, is used for treating depression?
Your Answer: Hypericum perforatum
Explanation:Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety
Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.
Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 167
Correct
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What is the most suitable medication for a pregnant woman experiencing symptoms of a mixed affective state?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Due to the patient’s pregnancy, mood stabilisers cannot be used as a traditional treatment for their mixed affective state, which presents symptoms of both mania and depression. Instead, an antipsychotic is the preferred course of action.
Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential
Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.
Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A team of scientists aims to perform a systematic review and meta-analysis of the effects of caffeine on sleep quality. They want to determine if there is any variation in the results across the studies they have gathered.
Which of the following is not a technique that can be employed to evaluate heterogeneity?Your Answer: Q test
Correct Answer: Receiver operating characteristic curve
Explanation:The receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve is a useful tool for evaluating the diagnostic accuracy of a test in distinguishing between healthy and diseased individuals. It helps to identify the optimal cut-off point between sensitivity and specificity.
Other methods, such as visual inspection of forest plots and Cochran’s Q test, can be used to assess heterogeneity in meta-analysis. Visual inspection of forest plots is a quick and easy method, while Cochran’s Q test is a more formal and widely accepted approach.
For more information on heterogeneity in meta-analysis, further reading is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 169
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about catatonia?
Your Answer: High dose haloperidol during the acute phase of catatonia is recommended
Correct Answer: Patients with schizophrenia who develop catatonia are less likely to respond to treatment than those with mood disorders
Explanation:Catatonia can occur in both functional mental illnesses like schizophrenia and general medical conditions such as infections, drug withdrawal, and endocrine disorders. The primary treatment for catatonia is benzodiazepines, with a typical response time of 3-7 days. If benzodiazepines are ineffective, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be necessary. However, patients with schizophrenia are less likely to respond to either treatment compared to those with mood disorders.
Catatonia Treatment
Catatonia can lead to complications such as dehydration, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and pneumonia. Therefore, prompt treatment is essential. The first-line treatment is benzodiazepines, particularly lorazepam. If this is ineffective, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be considered. The use of antipsychotics is controversial and should be avoided during the acute phase of catatonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 170
Correct
-
Which of the following is not useful in distinguishing between delirium and dementia?
Your Answer: Cognitive impairment
Explanation:Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 171
Correct
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After discovering that a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder has developed tics while taking lisdexamfetamine, and having previously experienced similar results with methylphenidate, a discussion with the parents leads to the decision to try a different medication. Which of the following options would be the most suitable choice?
Your Answer: Atomoxetine
Explanation:A long-acting version of methylphenidate is Medikinet XL, which is recommended for ADHD cases where stimulant use leads to complications with tics.
ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)
ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.
NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.
Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 172
Correct
-
What is the name of the tool that utilizes data collected from the evaluation of an individual suspected of having autism to aid in the diagnosis of the condition?
Your Answer: ADOS
Explanation:The CSBQ is a questionnaire completed by caregivers to identify symptoms of pervasive developmental disorder, while the PDDBI is a rating scale completed by parents of caregivers for the same purpose.
Autism is a complex disorder that can be difficult to diagnose in adults. To aid in the diagnosis and assessment of adults with suspected autistic spectrum disorder, NICE recommends the use of various assessment tools. These tools include the ADI-R, a semi-structured interview of caregivers of individuals with autism, the ADOS-G, a semi-structured assessment that involves the use of observational schedules, and the AAA, a three-part diagnostic instrument consisting of two screening instruments and a clinician-conducted diagnostic questionnaire. Other recommended tools include the ASDI, a brief structured interview for the assessment of Asperger syndrome, and the RAADS-R, an 80-item self-rating diagnostic scale for adults with average of above average intelligence. To streamline the assessment process, it is recommended to use a formal assessment tool such as the DISCO, ADOS-G, of ADI-R.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 173
Correct
-
Which trial did not show any advantage of the assertive outreach intensive case management system?
Your Answer: UK700
Explanation:UK700 Trial on Assertive Community Treatment
Assertive community treatment was created to assist patients who have difficulty staying out of the hospital to live more successfully in the community. The UK700 case management trial aimed to determine if enhanced outcomes could be achieved under CPA by reducing case-load size. The trial tested the hypothesis that reducing CPA case-loads to 10-15 patients (intensive case management) would result in less hospitalization. However, the findings did not support the hypothesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 174
Correct
-
What is a true statement about Charles Bonnet syndrome?
Your Answer: Insight is typically preserved
Explanation:Preservation of insight and absence of delusional beliefs are common in CBS, with the focus of initial treatment being on supporting the visual system through addressing underlying conditions like cataracts of improving lighting. Behavioral interventions, such as reducing isolation and stress management, can also be beneficial, along with reassurance. While psychoactive drugs have shown some success in individual cases, they are generally not effective. It is important to conduct field testing if ocular examination is normal, as CBS can result from any damage to the visual pathway, including cerebral infarcts.
Charles Bonnet Syndrome: A Condition of Complex Visual Hallucinations
Charles Bonnet Syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by persistent of recurrent complex visual hallucinations that occur in clear consciousness. This condition is observed in individuals who have suffered damage to the visual pathway, which can be caused by damage to any part of the pathway from the eye to the cortex. The hallucinations are thought to result from a release phenomenon secondary to the deafferentation of the cerebral cortex. CBS is equally distributed between sexes and does not show any familial predisposition. The most common ophthalmological conditions associated with this syndrome are age-related macular degeneration, followed by glaucoma and cataract.
Risk factors for CBS include advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. Well-formed complex visual hallucinations are thought to occur in 10-30 percent of individuals with severe visual impairment. Only around a third of individuals find the hallucinations themselves an unpleasant or disturbing experience. The most effective treatment is reversal of the visual impairment. Antipsychotic drugs are commonly prescribed but are largely ineffective. CBS is a long-lasting condition, with 88% of individuals experiencing it for two years of more, and only 25% resolving at nine years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 175
Correct
-
What hierarchical language does NLM utilize to enhance search strategies and index articles?
Your Answer: MeSH
Explanation:NLM’s hierarchical vocabulary, known as MeSH (Medical Subject Heading), is utilized for the purpose of indexing articles in PubMed.
Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.
When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.
There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 176
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about bodily distress disorder?
Your Answer: The most commonly reported symptom in a female is unsightly skin changes
Correct Answer: A diagnosis can be made even when a diagnosis is medically explained
Explanation:Unsightly skin changes are not a typical symptom of bodily distress disorder as the condition is usually characterized by subjective symptoms that are difficult to measure objectively, such as pain, fatigue, and gastrointestinal of respiratory issues.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 177
Correct
-
What is a recognized protective factor against child abuse?
Your Answer: Having social connections
Explanation:Child Abuse: Risk Factors and Protective Factors
Child abuse is a serious problem that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of child abuse occurring. These include a history of abuse in the caregiver, substance misuse in the caregiver, inaccurate knowledge about child development, teenage parents, children of single parents, domestic violence in the home, high levels of stress within the family, younger children, children with disabilities, poverty, social isolation, and living in a dangerous neighborhood.
However, there are also protective factors that can help prevent child abuse from occurring. These include parental resilience, social connections, knowledge of parenting and child development, concrete support in times of need, and social and emotional competence of children. By promoting these protective factors, we can help reduce the risk of child abuse and create a safer and healthier environment for children to grow and thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 178
Correct
-
What is the truth about criminal defences in psychiatry?
Your Answer: In England, children under 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions
Explanation:Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits
To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.
Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses
A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 179
Correct
-
Which statement about St John's Wort is incorrect?
Your Answer: Causes inhibition of the P450 system
Explanation:St John’s Wort is recognized as a substance that stimulates the P450 system.
Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety
Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.
Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female is referred to you by her primary care physician. She recently experienced a traumatic event and has been crying frequently in response to minor triggers. On your assessment, you do not find any evidence of depression, anxiety, of suicidal ideation, but note that the patient started crying several times during the hour you spent with her. Which antidepressant medication would you consider prescribing in this situation?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:The patient has been diagnosed with post-stroke pathological crying, a condition characterized by episodes of crying triggered by minor stimuli without any accompanying changes in mood. This condition is associated with disrupted serotonergic neurotransmission. Treatment options include the use of antidepressants, with SSRIs being the preferred choice over venlafaxine and tricyclics due to their better tolerability and greater efficacy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 181
Correct
-
A patient who has been successfully titrated on clozapine begins to show signs of relapse despite no changes to his dose. He insists that his smoking status has not changed and he has not commenced any new medications. Levels are taken to investigate the possibility of compliance issues.
The following result is obtained:
Clozapine (plasma) = 560 µg/L
Norclozapine = 420 µg/L
Ratio = 1.3
Time of sample since last dose 11.5 hours
Clozapine dose = 600 mg / d
Smoker = No
Which of the following is most likely?:Your Answer: The ratio appears normal and does not suggest non-compliance
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 182
Incorrect
-
What are the factors that have been demonstrated to elevate the likelihood of suicide among prisoners?
Your Answer: Having children
Correct Answer: Being on remand
Explanation:Suicide in Prison: High Rates and Risk Factors
Suicide rates among prisoners are significantly higher than in the general population, with an average rate of 133 per 100,000 population per year in England and Wales in 1999-2000. Remand prisoners had an even higher rate of 339 per 100,000 population per year. Early suicides were more common in drug-dependent prisoners, with 59% occurring within 7 days of reception into prison.
The most common method of suicide was hanging of self-strangulation, with bedclothes being the most common ligature used. Window bars, beds, and cell fittings such as lights, pipes, cupboards, sinks, toilets, of doors were the main ligature points. 72% of prisoners had at least one known psychiatric diagnosis, with drug dependence being the most common primary diagnosis at 27%. Schizophrenia was diagnosed in 6% of prisoners, and affective disorder in 18%.
Risk factors for suicide in prisoners include being in a single cell, being male, having a psychiatric illness, having a history of substance misuse, having a history of previous self-harm of attempted suicide, recent suicidal ideation, and being on remand. Surprisingly, being married was found to be a risk factor for suicide in prisoners, in contrast to the general population where it is a protective factor.
Overall, these findings highlight the urgent need for effective suicide prevention strategies in prisons, particularly for those at higher risk. This may include improved mental health services, better screening and assessment of risk factors, and measures to reduce access to means of suicide such as ligature points.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 183
Incorrect
-
What were the findings of studies on OCD in individuals with intellectual disabilities?
Your Answer: Is easy to differentiate from stereotypes, tics and autism
Correct Answer: Ordering is the most common compulsion
Explanation:In adults with learning disability, ordering is the most prevalent compulsion, whereas hand-washing, checking, and cleaning are more common in the general population. The prevalence rate of OCD in learning disability is higher at 2.5% compared to the general population. However, it can be challenging to distinguish OCD from other behaviors associated with learning disability syndromes, such as tics, stereotyped behaviors, and autism spectrum disorder. Additionally, assessing obsessional thoughts in individuals with learning disability can be challenging due to their difficulty in articulating them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
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Question 184
Incorrect
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The national Health Department is concerned about reducing mortality rates among elderly patients with heart disease. They have tasked a team of researchers with comparing the effectiveness and economic costs of treatment options A and B in terms of life years gained. The researchers have collected data on the number of life years gained by each treatment option and are seeking advice on the next steps for analysis. What type of analysis would you recommend they undertake?
Your Answer: Cost utility analysis
Correct Answer: Cost effectiveness analysis
Explanation:Cost effectiveness analysis (CEA) is an economic evaluation method that compares the costs and outcomes of different courses of action. The outcomes of the interventions must be measurable using a single variable, such as life years gained, making it useful for comparing preventative treatments for fatal conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 185
Incorrect
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What strategies are effective in managing obsessive compulsive disorder?
Your Answer: Systematic desensitization
Correct Answer: Exposure and response prevention
Explanation:Maudsley Guidelines
First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)
Second line:
– SSRI + antipsychotic
– Citalopram + clomipramine
– Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
– Lamotrigine + SSRI
– Topiramate + SSRI -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 186
Incorrect
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What is a correct statement about the epidemiological catchment area study?
Your Answer: It was conducted in 2004
Correct Answer: The survey instrument used was the Diagnostic Interview Schedule
Explanation:The DIS was the survey instrument used in the Epidemiological Catchment Area Study, which was conducted in the United States.
Epidemiological Catchment Area Study: A Landmark Community-Based Survey
The Epidemiological Catchment Area Study (ECA) was a significant survey conducted in five US communities from 1980-1985. The study included 20,000 participants, with 3000 community residents and 500 residents of institutions sampled in each site. The Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) was used to conduct two interviews over a year with each participant.
However, the DIS diagnosis of schizophrenia was not consistent with psychiatrists’ classification, with only 20% of cases identified by the DIS in the Baltimore ECA site matching the psychiatrist’s diagnosis. Despite this, the ECA produced valuable findings, including a lifetime prevalence rate of 32.3% for any disorder, 16.4% for substance misuse disorder, 14.6% for anxiety disorder, 8.3% for affective disorder, 1.5% for schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder, and 0.1% for somatization disorder.
The ECA also found that phobia had a one-month prevalence of 12.5%, generalized anxiety and depression had a prevalence of 8.5%, obsessive-compulsive disorder had a prevalence of 2.5%, and panic had a prevalence of 1.6%. Overall, the ECA was a landmark community-based survey that provided valuable insights into the prevalence of mental disorders in the US.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 187
Correct
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What is another name for the incidence rate?
Your Answer: Incidence density
Explanation:Measures of Disease Frequency: Incidence and Prevalence
Incidence and prevalence are two important measures of disease frequency. Incidence measures the speed at which new cases of a disease are emerging, while prevalence measures the burden of disease within a population. Cumulative incidence and incidence rate are two types of incidence measures, while point prevalence and period prevalence are two types of prevalence measures.
Cumulative incidence is the average risk of getting a disease over a certain period of time, while incidence rate is a measure of the speed at which new cases are emerging. Prevalence is a proportion and is a measure of the burden of disease within a population. Point prevalence measures the number of cases in a defined population at a specific point in time, while period prevalence measures the number of identified cases during a specified period of time.
It is important to note that prevalence is equal to incidence multiplied by the duration of the condition. In chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence. The incidence rate is stated in units of person-time, while cumulative incidence is always a proportion. When describing cumulative incidence, it is necessary to give the follow-up period over which the risk is estimated. In acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence may be similar, while for conditions such as the common cold, the incidence may be greater than the prevalence.
Incidence is a useful measure to study disease etiology and risk factors, while prevalence is useful for health resource planning. Understanding these measures of disease frequency is important for public health professionals and researchers in order to effectively monitor and address the burden of disease within populations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 188
Incorrect
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What symptom is commonly observed in individuals with bipolar disorder and psychosis?
Your Answer: Bizarre delusions
Correct Answer: Prominent affective symptoms and mood congruent delusions
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 189
Incorrect
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What drug works by increasing the release of dopamine?
Your Answer: Cocaine
Correct Answer: Amphetamine
Explanation:Amphetamine induces the direct release of dopamine by stimulating it, while also causing the internalization of dopamine transporters from the cell surface. In contrast, cocaine only blocks dopamine transporters and does not induce dopamine release.
Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 190
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes tardive dyskinesia?
Your Answer:
Explanation:Tardive Dyskinesia: Symptoms, Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a condition that affects the face, limbs, and trunk of individuals who have been on neuroleptics for months to years. The movements fluctuate over time, increase with emotional arousal, decrease with relaxation, and disappear with sleep. The cause of TD remains theoretical, but the postsynaptic dopamine (D2) receptor supersensitivity hypothesis is the most persistent. Other hypotheses include the presynaptic dopaminergic/noradrenergic hyperactivity hypothesis, the cholinergic interneuron burnout hypothesis, the excitatory/oxidative stress hypothesis, and the synaptic plasticity hypothesis. Risk factors for TD include advancing age, female sex, ethnicity, longer illness duration, intellectual disability and brain damage, negative symptoms in schizophrenia, mood disorders, diabetes, smoking, alcohol and substance misuse, FGA vs SGA treatment, higher antipsychotic dose, anticholinergic co-treatment, and akathisia.
Management options for TD include stopping any anticholinergic, reducing antipsychotic dose, changing to an antipsychotic with lower propensity for TD, and using tetrabenazine, vitamin E, of amantadine as add-on options. Clozapine is the antipsychotic most likely to be associated with resolution of symptoms. Vesicular monoamine transporter type 2 (VMAT2) inhibitors are agents that cause a depletion of neuroactive peptides such as dopamine in nerve terminals and are used to treat chorea due to neurodegenerative diseases of dyskinesias due to neuroleptic medications (tardive dyskinesia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 191
Incorrect
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In which therapeutic model are reciprocal role procedures included?
Your Answer: Interpersonal therapy
Correct Answer: Cognitive analytic therapy
Explanation:Understanding Cognitive Analytic Therapy
Cognitive Analytic Therapy (CAT) is a form of therapy that combines psychodynamic and cognitive approaches. It is a brief therapy that typically lasts between 16-24 sessions. Developed by Anthony Ryle, CAT aims to identify the useful parts of psychotherapy and make it more efficient. It also aims to create a therapy that can be easily researched.
CAT focuses on identifying key issues early on and conceptualizing them as repeated unsuccessful strategies. These strategies are categorized into traps, dilemmas, and snags. Traps are flawed thinking patterns that result in a vicious cycle of negative assumptions and actions. Dilemmas occur when a person believes their choices are restricted to opposite actions, neither of which is satisfactory. Snags are thinking patterns that restrict actions due to a perception of potential harm of failure.
CAT follows a procedural sequence model, where the problem is appraised, options are discussed, a plan is created and put into place, and consequences are evaluated. The therapist often summarizes the problem and plan in a letter to the client.
CAT also identifies reciprocal role procedures (RRPs), which are patterns observed in the way we related to others. These patterns are visually presented using a sequential diagrammatic reformulation. For example, a client who rebelled against a stern, dominating father may be dismissive of therapy because they see the therapist as a demanding authority figure.
Overall, CAT is a useful therapy that combines psychodynamic and cognitive approaches to identify and address maladaptive patterns. Its procedural sequence model and use of RRPs make it an efficient and effective therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 192
Correct
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What is the most suitable course of action for managing a patient with Alzheimer's disease who exhibits signs of psychosis and poses a threat to others?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Risperidone has been approved as a viable treatment for behavioral issues associated with Alzheimer’s disease.
Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia
Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 193
Incorrect
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Which intervention would be most likely to decrease a patient's alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine
Correct Answer: Vigabatrin
Explanation:Vigabatrin, an AED, is recognized for its ability to decrease AST and ALT levels, but it is also associated with the development of visual field impairments.
Biochemical Changes Associated with Psychotropic Drugs
Psychotropic drugs can have incidental biochemical of haematological effects that need to be identified and monitored. The evidence for many of these changes is limited to case reports of information supplied by manufacturers. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition summarises the important changes to be aware of.
One important parameter to monitor is ALT, a liver enzyme. Agents that can raise ALT levels include clozapine, haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, chlorpromazine, mirtazapine, moclobemide, SSRIs, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and valproate. On the other hand, vigabatrin can lower ALT levels.
Another liver enzyme to monitor is ALP. Haloperidol, clozapine, olanzapine, duloxetine, sertraline, and carbamazepine can raise ALP levels, while buprenorphine and zolpidem (rarely) can lower them.
AST levels are often associated with ALT levels. Trifluoperazine and vigabatrin can raise AST levels, while agents that raise ALT levels can also raise AST levels.
TSH levels, which are associated with thyroid function, can be affected by aripiprazole, carbamazepine, lithium, quetiapine, rivastigmine, sertraline, and valproate (slightly). Moclobemide can lower TSH levels.
Thyroxine levels can be affected by dexamphetamine, moclobemide, lithium (which can raise of lower levels), aripiprazole (rarely), and quetiapine (rarely).
Overall, it is important to monitor these biochemical changes when prescribing psychotropic drugs to ensure the safety and well-being of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 194
Incorrect
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What is the approximate occurrence rate of bulimia nervosa among individuals in the general population?
Your Answer: 2-3%
Correct Answer: 0.5-1%
Explanation:Epidemiological surveys and prevalence estimates have been conducted to determine the prevalence of various mental health conditions. The Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) study was conducted in the mid-1980s using the Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) based on DSM-III criteria. The National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) used the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI) and was conducted in the 1990s and repeated in 2001. The Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey (APMS) used the Clinical Interview Schedule (CIS-R) and was conducted in England every 7 years since 1993. The WHO World Mental Health (WMH) Survey Initiative used the World Mental Health Composite International Diagnostic Interview (WMH-CIDI) and was conducted in close to 30 countries from 2001 onwards.
The main findings of these studies show that major depression has a prevalence of 4-10% worldwide, with 6.7% in the past 12 months and 16.6% lifetime prevalence. Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) has a 3.1% 12-month prevalence and 5.7% lifetime prevalence. Panic disorder has a 2.7% 12-month prevalence and 4.7% lifetime prevalence. Specific phobia has an 8.7% 12-month prevalence and 12.5% lifetime prevalence. Social anxiety disorder has a 6.8% 12-month prevalence and 12.1% lifetime prevalence. Agoraphobia without panic disorder has a 0.8% 12-month prevalence and 1.4% lifetime prevalence. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has a 1.0% 12-month prevalence and 1.6% lifetime prevalence. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has a 1.3-3.6% 12-month prevalence and 6.8% lifetime prevalence. Schizophrenia has a 0.33% 12-month prevalence and 0.48% lifetime prevalence. Bipolar I disorder has a 1.5% 12-month prevalence and 2.1% lifetime prevalence. Bulimia nervosa has a 0.63% lifetime prevalence, anorexia nervosa has a 0.16% lifetime prevalence, and binge eating disorder has a 1.53% lifetime prevalence.
These prevalence estimates provide important information for policymakers, healthcare providers, and researchers to better understand the burden of mental health conditions and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 195
Incorrect
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How can one differentiate between a diagnosis of mania and schizophrenia based on symptoms?
Your Answer: Thought broadcasting
Correct Answer: Flight of ideas
Explanation:Although both mania and psychosis can exhibit similar symptoms and signs, individuals with mania are often psychotic and experience delusions of hallucinations. One distinguishing feature of mania is the presence of flight of ideas, which is characterized by rapid changes in topic.
Mania: Features and Characteristics
Mania is a mental state characterized by a range of symptoms that can significantly impact an individual’s behavior, thoughts, and emotions. Some of the key features of mania include an elated of irritable mood, restlessness, and overactivity. People experiencing mania may also exhibit disinhibited and reckless behavior, such as excessive spending of engaging in risky activities. They may have over-ambitious plans for the future and experience a flight of ideas and pressured speech. Additionally, mania can involve mood congruent delusions, increased libido, and a decreased need for sleep. Overall, mania can be a challenging and disruptive condition that requires professional treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 196
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes the classification of conduct disorder?
Your Answer: Oppositional defiant disorder is a less severe form of conduct disorder
Explanation:Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders
Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.
ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).
The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.
The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.
NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 197
Correct
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In a male patient with a psychotic illness who responds well to risperidone but develops gynaecomastia and a raised prolactin level, what would you recommend adding to the treatment regimen to reduce the prolactin level while continuing with risperidone due to poor response to other antipsychotics?
Your Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Management of Hyperprolactinaemia
Hyperprolactinaemia is often associated with the use of antipsychotics and occasionally antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, and dopamine antagonists increase prolactin levels. Almost all antipsychotics cause changes in prolactin, but some do not increase levels beyond the normal range. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related. Hyperprolactinaemia is often asymptomatic but can cause galactorrhoea, menstrual difficulties, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, sexual dysfunction, and an increased risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer in psychiatric patients.
Patients should have their prolactin measured before antipsychotic therapy and then monitored for symptoms at three months. Annual testing is recommended for asymptomatic patients. Antipsychotics that increase prolactin should be avoided in patients under 25, patients with osteoporosis, patients with a history of hormone-dependent cancer, and young women. Samples should be taken at least one hour after eating of waking, and care must be taken to avoid stress during the procedure.
Treatment options include referral for tests to rule out prolactinoma if prolactin is very high, making a joint decision with the patient about continuing if prolactin is raised but not symptomatic, switching to an alternative antipsychotic less prone to hyperprolactinaemia if prolactin is raised and the patient is symptomatic, adding aripiprazole 5mg, of adding a dopamine agonist such as amantadine of bromocriptine. Mirtazapine is recommended for symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia associated with antidepressants as it does not raise prolactin levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old individual on clozapine develops neutropenia. Despite trying all other antipsychotics without success, they had a positive response to clozapine. Is there a known medication that, when used in combination with clozapine, has been shown to increase the white cell count and allow for continued treatment?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 199
Correct
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What is the most accurate approximation of the occurrence rate of puerperal psychosis?
Your Answer: 2 in 1000
Explanation:Puerperal Psychosis: Incidence, Risk Factors, and Treatment
Postpartum psychosis is a subtype of bipolar disorder with an incidence of 1-2 in 1000 pregnancies. It typically occurs rapidly between day 2 and day 14 following delivery, with almost all cases occurring within 8 weeks of delivery. Risk factors for puerperal psychosis include a past history of puerperal psychosis, pre-existing psychotic illness (especially affective psychosis) requiring hospital admission, and a family history of affective psychosis in first of second degree relatives. However, factors such as twin pregnancy, breastfeeding, single parenthood, and stillbirth have not been shown to be associated with an increased risk. Treatment for puerperal psychosis is similar to that for psychosis in general, but special consideration must be given to potential issues if the mother is breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with a 20-year history of bipolar disorder and receiving treatment from a mental health team, is experiencing difficulties with attention, memory and executive function. Which of the following statements about her cognitive deficits is not true?
Your Answer: Much of the inability of an individual with schizophrenia to cope successfully in the community is due to such deficits
Correct Answer: Cognitive deficits are readily treated by antipsychotic medication
Explanation:More than 50% of individuals with schizophrenia exhibit cognitive impairments, specifically in attention, learning, memory, and executive function. These deficits have a significant impact on prognosis, as they are difficult to address with medication and are associated with poorer outcomes in terms of employment and independent living.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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