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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man comes to the Cancer Outpatient Department complaining of severe back pain. He reports that the NSAIDs and opioids he has been taking are not providing relief. The patient has been diagnosed with CRPC that is advancing rapidly. He has completed a full course of taxane chemotherapy and imaging has revealed metastases in his vertebrae and organs.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Bisphosphonates
Correct Answer: External beam radiation therapy (EBRT)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Pain Relief in Metastatic Prostate Cancer Patients
External beam radiation therapy (EBRT) is the preferred treatment for pain relief in men with castration-resistant prostate cancer (CRPC). It has a success rate of 60-80% in providing complete or partial pain relief in palliative care management. Bisphosphonates can also be prescribed in combination with other agents for mild to moderate pain relief in hormone-resistant prostate cancer patients. Enzalutamide, an antineoplastic, antiandrogen systemic drug, is not preferred in rapidly progressing cases of CRPC. Radium-223, an alpha-particle-emitting radiopharmaceutical agent, is contraindicated in cases with visceral metastases. Stereotactic body radiotherapy (STBRT) is the preferred modality for pain relief in metastatic prostate cancer patients with longer survival times, using targeted irradiation to minimize damage to adjacent normal tissues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 2
Correct
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A child with leukaemia is given etoposide.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?Your Answer: Topoisomerase II inhibitor
Explanation:Chemotherapy agents can be classified into different categories based on their mechanism of action. Topoisomerase II inhibitors, such as etoposide, prevent the re-ligation of DNA strands by forming a complex with the topoisomerase II enzyme, leading to cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. Microtubule inhibitors, like paclitaxel and vinblastine, block the formation of microtubules, which are essential for cell proliferation and signaling, resulting in cell death. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, interfere with DNA replication by attaching an alkyl group to the guanine base of DNA. Antimetabolites, including base analogues, nucleoside analogues, nucleotide analogues, and antifolates, disrupt cell metabolism and inhibit DNA replication and repair. Topoisomerase I inhibitors, like irinotecan and topotecan, inhibit DNA transcription and replication by binding to the topoisomerase I-DNA complex. These chemotherapy agents have various side effects, including bone marrow suppression, hair loss, nausea, vomiting, and allergic reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A woman in her 40s has the BRCA2 mutation. What cancers are she and her family members at higher risk of developing?
Your Answer: Breast, prostate, thyroid, ovarian, bladder
Correct Answer: Breast, prostate, pancreatic, ovarian, melanoma
Explanation:BRCA1 and BRCA2: Associated Cancers and Mechanisms of Action
The BRCA1 and BRCA2 tumour suppressor genes are commonly associated with breast cancer, but they also predispose individuals to other types of cancer such as prostate, pancreatic, ovarian, and melanoma. Mutations in both copies of BRCA2 can lead to Fanconi anaemia and an increased risk of certain types of leukaemia.
Both BRCA1 and BRCA2 play a role in repairing double-stranded DNA breaks, but through different mechanisms. BRCA2 is involved in homologous recombination, while BRCA1 is involved in non-homologous end-joining. This mechanism is utilized in the treatment of BRCA-associated cancers through the use of PARP inhibitors. PARP is a protein that repairs single-stranded DNA breaks, and inhibiting it creates multiple double-stranded breaks that cannot be fixed by BRCA-deficient cells, leading to cell death.
While BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations account for approximately 20% of familial breast cancer cases, they are also associated with other cancers such as prostate, pancreatic, ovarian, and melanoma. However, they are not associated with bladder cancer. Leukaemia, thyroid, and endometrial cancers are also not linked to BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired banker is referred to the Urology Clinic with a 4-month history of poor stream when passing urine. Over the past few weeks, the patient has also noticed some blood in his urine.
He is normally fit and well. The only medical history of note is type 2 diabetes, which is well controlled with diet alone.
On rectal examination, the patient is noted to have an enlarged, irregularly shaped prostate.
A raised level of which of the tumour markers below would be most commonly associated with carcinoma of the prostate?Your Answer: Ca-125
Correct Answer: Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
Explanation:Tumour Markers: PSA and Other Commonly Used Markers
Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in men in the UK. It is a slow-growing cancer, which means that it may be present for a long time before symptoms appear. Symptoms of prostate cancer include increased urinary frequency, urgency, hesitancy, weak flow, sensation of incomplete emptying of the bladder post-voiding, and blood in the urine or semen. PSA is the most commonly used tumour marker for prostate cancer. However, PSA can also be elevated in non-malignant conditions of the prostate, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia. A normal PSA level ranges from 0 to 4 ng/ml, although the upper level of normal can vary according to age and race. If a patient’s PSA is 3.0 or higher, they should be referred urgently to a specialist using a Suspected Cancer Pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. Serial PSA measurements are also used to monitor disease progression, to measure response to treatment and to check for remission in patients with carcinoma of the prostate.
Other commonly used tumour markers include AFP, which is associated with liver and testicular tumours, CEA, which is a non-specific tumour marker associated with colorectal cancer, lung cancer, and breast cancer, Ca-125, which is associated with ovarian cancer, and Ca 15-3, which is associated with carcinoma of the breast.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department after ingesting an unknown quantity of paracetamol tablets. What is the ideal time to evaluate his paracetamol level to determine if treatment with n-acetylcysteine is necessary?
Your Answer: Two hours after overdose
Correct Answer: Four hours after overdose
Explanation:Treatment of Paracetamol Overdose
Paracetamol overdose is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment. The nomograms used for the treatment of paracetamol overdose are based on assessing paracetamol levels four hours or later after an overdose has occurred. This is because measuring levels earlier may be unpredictable and lead to inappropriate omission of N-acetylcysteine. If a significant overdose is suspected or the patient presents more than four hours after overdose, treatment should be started expectantly.
The treatment of paracetamol overdose begins with a loading dose of N-acetylcysteine over one hour, followed by four-hour and 16-hour infusions. Less than 5% of patients suffer an allergic reaction to N-acetylcysteine, and in those patients, slowing the infusion rate, giving IV corticosteroids and/or antihistamines are all potential options. Patients who do not tolerate N-acetylcysteine even after these measures should be given oral methionine.
In summary, the treatment of paracetamol overdose is time-sensitive and requires careful monitoring of paracetamol levels. N-acetylcysteine is the primary treatment option, but alternative options are available for patients who cannot tolerate it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent location for a carcinoid tumor?
Your Answer: Oesophagus
Correct Answer: Small bowel
Explanation:Carcinoid Tumours and Neuroendocrine Tumours
Carcinoid tumours are a type of neuroendocrine tumour that originates from endocrine cells. These tumours can be found in various organs, but the most common location is the gastrointestinal tract, particularly the small intestine. The pancreas and lungs are also potential sites for carcinoid tumours. While some carcinoid tumours may not cause any symptoms, larger tumours and those located in the small intestine can lead to carcinoid syndrome. This occurs when the tumour cells release bioactive substances such as serotonin and bradykinin into the bloodstream, causing symptoms such as bronchospasm, diarrhoea, flushing, and heart damage.
Other types of neuroendocrine tumours are derived from different endocrine cell types and may secrete different hormones. Examples include insulinoma, gastrinoma (Zollinger-Ellison syndrome), VIPoma, and somatostatinoma. Not all neuroendocrine tumours are functional, meaning they may not secrete hormones even if they originate from an endocrine cell.
Treatment for carcinoid tumours typically involves surgical resection and/or somatostatin analogues such as octreotide, which can reduce the secretion of serotonin by the tumour. Most carcinoid tumours do not metastasize, but those that do may not be suitable for surgical resection depending on the extent of metastasis. However, some patients may benefit from octreotide and chemotherapy agents to manage symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male patient (undergoing chemotherapy treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma) complains of severe mouth pain. On examination, you see white plaques over his tongue.
Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?Your Answer: Nystatin mouthwash for 10 days
Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole for 7–14 days
Explanation:Treatment Options for Oral Candida Infection During Chemotherapy
During chemotherapy, patients may experience immunosuppression, which can lead to oral candida infection. There are several treatment options available for this condition, including oral fluconazole, nystatin mouthwash, and oral mycafungin. However, the most appropriate choice for mild to moderate oral candida infection is oral fluconazole, as it is more likely to prevent or delay recurrence than nystatin. Intravenous amphotericin B and oral voriconazole are not recommended for this condition, as they are used for systemic fungal infections and other types of fungal infections, respectively. It is important for healthcare providers to consider the patient’s individual needs and medical history when selecting a treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman has been diagnosed with non-small-cell bronchial carcinoma during a bronchoscopy. Despite her diagnosis, she is in good health. CT imaging for staging did not show any signs of metastatic disease. Her surgeon has suggested a pneumonectomy but wants to conduct a PET scan. How will this test aid in managing the patient?
Your Answer: Locates more accurately the primary tumour mass
Correct Answer: Demonstrates any metastatic disease not found at CT
Explanation:PET Imaging in Cancer Diagnosis and Treatment
PET imaging is a diagnostic tool that uses radiolabelled molecules to identify areas of high metabolic activity, such as cancerous tumors. When combined with CT, PET can be more sensitive in detecting metastatic disease. However, PET has limitations in identifying blood supply and primary tumor masses, which may require other imaging techniques such as angiography or MRI. PET also cannot label tumors for easier identification during surgery, but newer techniques using fluorescent labeling are emerging. Finally, PET does not have any therapeutic effect on the tumor itself, but can be used to guide neoadjuvant therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 30-year-old man visits the outpatient urology clinic with a lump in his left testicle. He reports no other symptoms. During his examination, a 5 mm firm and painless lump is detected. Following an ultrasound of the testicle and tumour markers, testicular cancer is suspected. What combination of tumour markers were likely requested for this patient?
Your Answer: Alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Explanation:Tumour Markers Associated with Testicular Cancer: AFP and hCG
Testicular cancer is often characterized by the presence of a lump, and the most common tumour markers associated with this type of cancer are alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). Germ cell tumours are the most common type of testicular cancer, with seminomas and non-seminomas being the most prevalent subtypes. Mixed germ cell tumours may also occur. Stromal tumours and metastasis from other organs are less common.
The age range and tumour markers associated with each type of germ cell tumour are as follows: seminomas are associated with an increase in hCG, embryonal carcinoma with an increase in both hCG and AFP, yolk sac carcinoma with an increase in AFP, choriocarcinoma with an increase in hCG, and teratoma without specific markers.
While it would be appropriate to request hCG and AFP, carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) are not typically elevated in testicular cancer. CEA is more commonly associated with adenocarcinomas, particularly colorectal, while PSA is associated with prostate cancer. Similarly, PSA and CA-125 are not typically elevated in testicular cancer, but rather in prostate cancer and ovarian cancers, respectively.
In summary, AFP and hCG are the most common tumour markers associated with testicular cancer, and their levels can help diagnose and monitor the disease. Other tumour markers, such as CEA and PSA, are not typically elevated in testicular cancer and may be more indicative of other types of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 53 year old female presents with a breast lump and is referred to the 2 week wait suspected cancer breast clinic. Biopsy confirms the presence of a HER-2 positive breast carcinoma. Which immunological therapy is appropriate for treatment?
Your Answer: Rituximab
Correct Answer: Trastuzumab
Explanation:Immunological Therapies for Breast Cancer: A Comparison of Trastuzumab, Infliximab, and Rituximab
Breast cancer is a prevalent disease among women, and HER-2 receptor positive breast cancers have a worse prognosis. Trastuzumab, a monoclonal antibody therapy, has improved the treatment and survival of HER-2 positive breast cancers. On the other hand, Infliximab, a monoclonal antibody against tumour necrosis factor alpha, is used to treat autoimmune diseases and has no role in breast carcinoma treatment. Rituximab, another immunological therapy, is primarily used in the management of rheumatoid disease. Tamoxifen, a hormonal therapy, is used in the treatment of breast cancer when the carcinoma is confirmed as oestrogen receptor positive (ER+). Doxorubicin, a chemotherapy agent, is used in the treatment of advanced breast cancer. Understanding the differences between these therapies is crucial in determining the best treatment plan for breast cancer patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 11
Correct
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With which malignancy is HTLV-1 infection linked?
Your Answer: Adult T cell leukaemia
Explanation:Risk of Malignancy Associated with HTLV-1
Between the time frame of 1:10 and 1:20, it is believed that individuals may develop malignancy associated with HTLV-1, specifically adult T cell leukaemia/lymphoma. This suggests that a small percentage of individuals infected with HTLV-1 may be at risk for developing this type of cancer. It is important for individuals who are infected with HTLV-1 to be aware of this potential risk and to regularly monitor their health for any signs or symptoms of malignancy. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of successful outcomes for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency confused, dehydrated and constipated. He is complaining of significant pain down his left flank. He was diagnosed with multiple myeloma 6 months ago and is currently undergoing treatment. He is treated with aggressive fluid resuscitation and recovers promptly.
Elevated levels of which biochemical parameter would has caused this presentation?Your Answer: Potassium
Correct Answer: Calcium
Explanation:Electrolyte Imbalances and their Symptoms
Calcium: Hypercalcaemia of malignancy is a common cause of lytic bone lesions in multiple myeloma patients. Symptoms include dehydration, which can be prevented with aggressive fluid resuscitation. Treatment involves intravenous bisphosphonate or denosumab and calcitonin to inhibit osteoclastic bone resorption.
Vitamin D: Over-medication with vitamin D can lead to hypervitaminosis D, which presents similar symptoms to hypercalcaemia. However, hypercalcaemia of malignancy is more likely in patients with lytic bone lesions.
Phosphate: Hyperphosphataemia can be caused by impaired renal excretion or massive extracellular phosphate loadings. Symptoms are similar to hypercalcaemia, but hypercalcaemia of malignancy is more likely in patients with multiple myeloma.
Sodium: Hypernatraemia presents with symptoms of thirst, lethargy, weakness, and irritability.
Potassium: Hyperkalaemia can present with symptoms of chest pain, palpitations, and weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 51-year-old woman presents with a 5-month history of abdominal discomfort and bloating. She reports feeling fatigued and has lost around 5 kg in weight during this time. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals a solid mass with multiple compartments and high vascularity originating from the left ovary. Which tumour marker is expected to be elevated in this patient?
Your Answer: Ca-125
Explanation:Tumour Markers for Ovarian Cancer: Understanding Ca-125 and Other Tests
Ovarian cancer is a serious condition that can be difficult to diagnose. However, there are several tumour markers that can help healthcare professionals identify the presence of ovarian cancer and monitor its progression. One of the most well-established tumour markers for epithelial ovarian cancer is Ca-125. This marker is likely to be elevated in patients with ovarian malignancies, particularly those over the age of 50 who present with symptoms such as abdominal distension, pain, early satiety, loss of appetite, urinary frequency and urgency, unexplained weight loss, fatigue, or change in bowel habit.
While Ca-125 is not specific to ovarian cancer, a raised level of 35 iu/ml or greater should prompt an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis. If the scan is suggestive of ovarian cancer, the patient must be referred to Gynaecology on an urgent basis. Other tumour markers, such as SCC antigen, Ca 19-9, calcitonin, and CEA, may also be used to aid in the management of advanced cervical cancers, gastrointestinal malignancies, thyroid malignancies, and other types of cancer, respectively. However, these markers are not commonly associated with ovarian tumours.
It is important to note that tumour markers should not be used in isolation to diagnose or monitor ovarian cancer. They should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests, such as imaging studies and biopsies, to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. With proper use and interpretation, tumour markers can be a valuable tool in the fight against ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which bone is an uncommon location for metastatic spread?
Your Answer: Scapula
Correct Answer: Tibia
Explanation:Bone Metastasis and its Common Sites
Bone metastasis is a common cause of pain in cancer patients. It can also lead to pathological fractures and hypercalcaemia. The spine is the most commonly affected part of the skeleton, followed by the pelvis, hip, femurs, and skull. However, the tibia is rarely involved in bone metastasis.
In summary, bone metastasis is a significant concern for cancer patients, as it can cause pain and other complications. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients for signs of bone metastasis, especially in the commonly affected sites such as the spine, pelvis, hip, femurs, and skull.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with advanced prostate cancer is referred by his GP to hospital as today’s blood test shows an elevated calcium level.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate action?Your Answer: Alendronic acid
Correct Answer: IV 0.9% normal saline
Explanation:Management of Electrolyte Imbalances: Fluids and Medications
Electrolyte imbalances, such as hypercalcaemia and hyperkalaemia, can have serious consequences if left untreated. The following are some common treatments for these conditions:
IV 0.9% normal saline: Rehydration is crucial in managing hypercalcaemia. Up to 3 liters of normal saline can be given daily to correct elevated calcium levels. Bisphosphonates may also be used after fluids are administered.
Insulin dextrose: This is used to treat hyperkalaemia.
Alendronic acid: While this medication can be given after fluids in patients with hypercalcaemia, fluid administration is the preferred management strategy.
Calcium Resonium: This medication is used after the acute treatment of hyperkalaemia.
Calcium gluconate: This medication is used to treat hyperkalaemia.
Overall, a combination of fluids and medications may be necessary to effectively manage electrolyte imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder after presenting with haematuria. Are there any recognised occupational exposures that increase the risk of developing bladder cancer?
Your Answer: Aflatoxin
Correct Answer: Aniline dye
Explanation:Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer
Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, a hollow organ in the lower abdomen that stores urine. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing bladder cancer. One of the most significant risk factors is smoking, which can cause harmful chemicals to accumulate in the bladder and increase the risk of cancer. Exposure to aniline dyes in the printing and textile industry, as well as rubber manufacture, can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. Additionally, the use of cyclophosphamide, a chemotherapy drug, can increase the risk of bladder cancer. Schistosomiasis, a parasitic infection that is common in certain parts of the world, is also a risk factor for bladder cancer, particularly for squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce your risk of developing bladder cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with symptoms of nausea and vomiting. She has been diagnosed with inoperable cancer and is experiencing pain from infiltration of the posterior abdominal wall. Currently, her pain is being managed effectively with Kapake (codeine 30 mg and paracetamol 500 mg), taken two tablets four times per day.
What is the optimal approach for managing her pain?Your Answer: Morphine four hourly orally and as needed intramuscularly
Correct Answer: Subcutaneous diamorphine by continuous infusion
Explanation:Choosing the Best Analgesia for a Patient with Inoperable Carcinoma
When a patient has inoperable carcinoma and requires opiate analgesia, it is important to choose the most effective method of administration. In the case of a patient who is vomiting, parenteral analgesia is necessary. Subcutaneous diamorphine administered through continuous infusion is the best option for achieving adequate analgesia while also allowing for effective dose titration.
Other options, such as fentanyl patches, are not ideal for titration as they are used for 72 hours and are typically reserved for patients with stable opiate usage. Intramuscular pethidine has a delayed onset and prolonged effect, which is not ideal when the patient’s opiate requirements are unknown. Oral morphine is unlikely to be tolerated in a vomiting patient, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are unlikely to provide sufficient pain relief in this case.
In summary, subcutaneous diamorphine administered through continuous infusion is the most effective and appropriate method of analgesia for a patient with inoperable carcinoma who is vomiting and requires opiate pain relief.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent method of metastasis in osteogenic sarcoma?
Your Answer: Direct tissue spread
Correct Answer: Haematogenous
Explanation:Osteogenic Sarcoma: A Common Bone Cancer in Young Adults
Osteogenic sarcoma is a type of bone cancer that primarily affects adolescents and young adults. It is the most prevalent form of bone cancer and is commonly found in the bones surrounding the knee in children. The cancer usually spreads through the bloodstream and is present in 10-20% of patients at the time of diagnosis. The lungs are the most common site of metastasis, but it can also spread to other bones.
In summary, osteogenic sarcoma is a significant health concern for young adults and adolescents. It is crucial to detect the cancer early to prevent it from spreading to other parts of the body. Regular check-ups and early intervention can help improve the prognosis and increase the chances of successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 19
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman has been suffering from Paget's disease of bone for over a decade. Lately, she has been experiencing increased pain in her lower back and hip region even when at rest. Upon conducting an X-ray, a destructive mass is observed in her bony pelvis. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:Paget’s Disease of Bone
Paget’s disease of bone is a condition that typically affects individuals in their later years. It is characterized by a disruption in the normal process of bone repair, resulting in the formation of weak bones that are prone to fractures. Specifically, the repair process ends at the stage of vascular osteoid bone, which is not as strong as fully mineralized bone.
Unfortunately, Paget’s disease of bone can also lead to complications such as osteogenic sarcoma, which occurs in approximately 5% of cases. As such, it is important for individuals with this condition to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Paediatric Outpatient Department by her father with symptoms of bloating, mild fever, abdominal pain, lack of appetite, generalised feeling of being unwell and easy bruising for the past two weeks. On examination, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy (non-tender, firm, rubbery) and patches of petechiae and purpura are noted on both lower limbs.
The child is referred to the Oncology Department where complete laboratory investigations, including full blood count (FBC), differential count and a review of the peripheral smear, were performed. The findings are indicative of acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL).
Which of the following would be the most likely finding with the suspected diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypocellular bone marrow with pancytopenia
Correct Answer: Positive staining for B-cell antibodies (CD19, cytoplasmic CD79a, CD22) and MPO-negative
Explanation:Recognizing Leukemia and Lymphoma: Key Features and Diagnostic Tests
Leukemia and lymphoma are types of blood cancers that can present with similar symptoms, making diagnosis challenging. However, certain features and diagnostic tests can help differentiate between them.
For example, positive staining for B-cell antibodies (CD19, cytoplasmic CD79a, CD22) and MPO-negative suggest ALL/LBL, while an expanded population of myeloid cells with t(9;22) (Philadelphia chromosome) is characteristic of CML. Burkitt’s lymphoma is characterized by highly proliferative cells with a starry sky appearance, while hypocellular bone marrow with pancytopenia suggests aplastic anemia. Finally, AML is characterized by immature cells with large nucleoli that are MPO-positive.
By recognizing these key features and utilizing appropriate diagnostic tests such as flow cytometry and cytochemistry, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat these blood cancers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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