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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old pregnant woman from Sudan visits her GP with concerns about her upcoming vaginal delivery. She is currently 30 weeks pregnant and has undergone type 3 female genital mutilation. She expresses her preference to have her vagina reinfibulated after delivery, as this is what she is accustomed to. What is the recommended course of action?
Your Answer: Advise her that reinfibulation can only be performed under exceptional circumstances and she will need to be further assessed
Correct Answer: Advise her that reinfibulation is illegal and cannot be done under any circumstances
Explanation:Performing any form of female genital cutting/modification for non-medical reasons, including reinfibulation of a woman with type 3 FGM after vaginal delivery, is illegal according to the Female Genital Mutilation Act 2003. It is strictly prohibited to carry out such procedures under any circumstances. However, discussing the topic is not illegal.
Understanding Female Genital Mutilation
Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a term used to describe any procedure that involves the partial or complete removal of the external female genitalia or any other injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. The World Health Organization (WHO) has classified FGM into four types. Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Finally, type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old Caucasian woman who is 26 weeks pregnant with her first child presents to antenatal clinic. She had been invited to attend screening for gestational diabetes on account of her booking BMI, which was 32kg/m². Prior to her pregnancy, she had been healthy and had no personal or family history of diabetes mellitus. She takes no regular medications and has no known allergies.
During her antenatal visit, she undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which reveals the following results:
- Fasting glucose 6.9mmol/L
- 2-hour glucose 7.8 mmol/L
An ultrasound scan shows no fetal abnormalities or hydramnios. She is advised on diet and exercise and undergoes a repeat OGTT two weeks later. Due to persistent impaired fasting glucose, she is started on metformin.
After taking metformin for two weeks, she undergoes another OGTT, with the following results:
- Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/L
- 2-hour glucose 7.2mmol/L
What is the most appropriate next step in managing her glycaemic control?Your Answer: No changes to current treatment
Correct Answer: Add insulin
Explanation:If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced. This patient was diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 25 weeks due to a fasting glucose level above 5.6mmol/L. Despite lifestyle changes and the addition of metformin, her glycaemic control has not improved, and her fasting glucose level remains above the target range. Therefore, NICE recommends adding short-acting insulin to her current treatment. Switching to modified-release metformin may help patients who experience side effects, but it would not improve glycaemic control in this case. Insulin should be added in conjunction with metformin for persistent impaired glycaemic control, rather than replacing it. Sulfonylureas like glibenclamide should only be used for patients who cannot tolerate metformin or as an adjunct for those who refuse insulin treatment, and they are not the best option for this patient.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old primip is being evaluated on day six postpartum for unilateral breast discomfort. The discomfort began two days ago, and despite continuing to breastfeed, it has not improved. She feels generally fatigued, but she is currently eating and drinking well.
During the examination, you observe an erythematosus, firm, and swollen area in a wedge-shaped distribution on the right breast. There is a small crack in the nipple. The examination is painful.
Her vital signs are stable, and her temperature is 37.5 °C.
What is the most appropriate initial management, given the above information?Your Answer: Advise her to continue breastfeeding and send a breast milk culture and treat if positive
Correct Answer: Advise her to continue breastfeeding and start empirical antibiotics
Explanation:Management of Lactational Mastitis: Advice for Patients
Lactational mastitis is a common condition that affects breastfeeding women. It is important to manage this condition promptly to prevent complications such as breast abscesses. Here are some management options for lactational mastitis:
1. Advise her to continue breastfeeding and start empirical antibiotics: If the patient presents with lactational mastitis and has a nipple fissure, it is suggestive of an infective cause. In this case, the patient should be reassured, asked to continue breastfeeding, offered adequate analgesia, and started on empirical antibiotics.
2. Reassure the patient, ask her to continue expressing milk and review if there is no improvement in two days: If there is no evidence of infection, reassurance and advice to continue breastfeeding, as well as simple analgesia, are a good first management option. However, if symptoms do not improve in 24 hours, then there is an indication for starting empirical antibiotics.
3. Admit the patient to hospital for intravenous antibiotics and drainage: Admission is advisable for intravenous antibiotics and drainage if oral antibiotics fail to improve symptoms, the patient develops sepsis, or there is evidence of the development of a breast abscess.
4. Advise her to continue breastfeeding and send a breast milk culture and treat if positive: A breast milk culture should be sent before starting antibiotics, but in this case, given the patient fulfils the criteria for starting empirical treatment, you should not delay antibiotic therapy until the breast milk culture is back.
5. Reassure the patient, advise her to continue breastfeeding and offer simple analgesia: Reassurance, advice to continue breastfeeding, and simple analgesia are offered to women who first present with lactational mastitis. If symptoms do not improve after three days, there is an indication to offer empirical antibiotics.
In conclusion, lactational mastitis should be managed promptly to prevent complications. Patients should be advised to continue breastfeeding, offered adequate analgesia, and started on empirical antibiotics if necessary. If symptoms do not improve, further management options should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old primigravida arrives at 39 weeks with ruptured membranes and bleeding. She reports a rush of cloudy fluid followed by persistent vaginal bleeding. Despite feeling anxious, she denies experiencing any localized pain or tenderness. Although her pregnancy has been uneventful, she has not attended her prenatal scans. The cardiotocography reveals late decelerations and bradycardia. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Placenta praevia
Correct Answer: Vasa praevia
Explanation:Vasa praevia is a complication where the blood vessels of the fetus are located near or cross the internal opening of the uterus. If the supporting membranes rupture, the vessels can easily be damaged, resulting in bleeding. The classic symptoms of vasa praevia include painless vaginal bleeding and fetal bradycardia following the rupture of membranes. While there is no significant risk to the mother, fetal mortality rates are high. It can be challenging to differentiate vasa praevia from placenta praevia in emergency situations, but a preceding rupture of membranes is usually highlighted in exams. Although ultrasound scans can identify vasa praevia, some cases may go undetected during pregnancy.
Understanding Bleeding During Pregnancy
Bleeding during pregnancy can be a cause for concern and should be promptly evaluated by a healthcare professional. There are various causes of bleeding during pregnancy, which can be categorized based on the trimester in which they occur. In the first trimester, the major causes of bleeding include spontaneous abortion, ectopic pregnancy, and hydatidiform mole. In the second trimester, bleeding may be due to spontaneous abortion, hydatidiform mole, or placental abruption. In the third trimester, bleeding may be caused by placental abruption, placenta praevia, or vasa praevia.
It is important to note that conditions such as sexually transmitted infections and cervical polyps should also be ruled out as potential causes of bleeding during pregnancy. Each condition has its own unique features that can help in diagnosis. For instance, spontaneous abortion may present as threatened miscarriage, missed miscarriage, or inevitable miscarriage, depending on the extent of fetal and placental tissue expulsion. Ectopic pregnancy is typically characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, while hydatidiform mole may present with exaggerated pregnancy symptoms and high serum hCG levels.
Placental abruption is usually accompanied by constant lower abdominal pain and a tender, tense uterus, while placenta praevia may present with painless vaginal bleeding and an abnormal lie and presentation. Vasa praevia is characterized by rupture of membranes followed immediately by vaginal bleeding and fetal bradycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes for a routine check at 28 weeks gestation. During the examination, her symphysis-fundal height measures 23 cm. What is the most crucial investigation to confirm these findings?
Your Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:The symphysis-fundal height measurement in centimetres should correspond to the foetal gestational age in weeks with an accuracy of 1 or 2 cm from 20 weeks gestation. Hence, it can be deduced that the woman is possibly experiencing fetal growth restriction. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct an ultrasound to verify if the foetus is indeed small for gestational age.
The symphysis-fundal height (SFH) is a measurement taken from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus in centimetres. It is used to determine the gestational age of a fetus and should match within 2 cm after 20 weeks. For example, if a woman is 24 weeks pregnant, a normal SFH would be between 22 and 26 cm. Proper measurement of SFH is important for monitoring fetal growth and development during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department with a complaint of her 'waters breaking'. She reports experiencing a sudden release of clear fluid from her vagina, which has now reduced to a trickle, and she feels some pressure in her pelvis. What is the most suitable test to conduct next?
Your Answer: Cardiotocography
Correct Answer: Speculum examination
Explanation:The initial investigation for preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes is a thorough speculum examination to check for the accumulation of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. It is recommended to avoid bimanual examination to minimize the risk of infection. While cardiotocography can be used to assess foetal wellbeing, it is not the preferred first-line investigation. Foetal blood sampling is not the recommended initial investigation due to the potential risks of infection and miscarriage.
Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.
The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 34-year-old female who is 28 weeks pregnant presents to the emergency department with severe lower abdominal pain. She is tachycardic but is otherwise stable. On examination, her uterus is tender and hard, but fetal lie is normal. Cardiotocography shows no signs of fetal distress.
What is the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer: Admit her and administer steroids
Explanation:When managing placental abruption in a case where the fetus is alive, less than 36 weeks old, and not displaying any signs of distress, the appropriate course of action is to admit the patient and administer steroids. Admitting the patient is necessary for monitoring and providing necessary care. Steroids are given to aid in the maturation of fetal lungs. It is recommended to deliver the baby at 37-38 weeks due to the increased risk of stillbirth. Tocolytics are not routinely given due to their controversial nature and potential for maternal cardiovascular side effects. Discharging the patient with safety netting is not appropriate as the patient is symptomatic. Activating the major haemorrhage protocol, calling 2222, and performing an emergency caesarean section are not the most suitable options as the patient is not hypotensive and there are no signs of fetal distress.
Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications
Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.
Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.
In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman undergoes a vaginal delivery and is examined on the ward after the placenta is delivered. The examination shows a minor tear on the perineum without any muscle involvement. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Suture on the ward or in theatre
Correct Answer: No repair required
Explanation:A first-degree perineal tear typically does not need suturing.
In the case of this woman, she has a first-degree perineal tear that only affects the surface of the perineum and does not involve any muscles. Therefore, no repair is necessary as these types of tears usually heal on their own.
The answer glue on the ward is incorrect because first-degree perineal tears do not require closure and should be left to heal naturally. Additionally, glue is not suitable for use in the perineal area and is only appropriate for small, straight, superficial, low-tension wounds.
Similarly, staples in theatre is also incorrect as first-degree perineal tears do not require repair and will heal on their own. Staples are not recommended for use in the perineal region.
The answer suture in theatre is also incorrect as first-degree perineal tears typically do not require suturing and can be left to heal on their own. If suturing is necessary for a first-degree tear, it can be done on the ward by a trained practitioner. Only third or fourth-degree tears require repair in a theatre setting under regional or general anaesthesia.
Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.
There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 32-year-old female presents with intense pruritus during pregnancy, particularly in her hands and feet, which worsens at night. She has no visible rash and has a history of a stillbirth at 36 weeks. What is the most efficient management for her condition?
Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from obstetric cholestasis, which can increase the risk of premature birth and stillbirth. The main symptom is severe itching, and elevated serum bile acids are typically present. Liver function tests, including bilirubin levels, may not be reliable. The most effective treatment is ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA), which is now mostly synthetic. While antihistamines and topical menthol creams can provide some relief, UDCA is more likely to improve outcomes.
Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.
The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.
It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 31-year-old woman with epilepsy, associated with generalised tonic–clonic seizures, attends her regular Epilepsy Clinic appointment with her partner. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, but she wants to start trying for a baby. She is currently on sodium valproate and has been seizure-free for one year.
What is the most suitable antiepileptic medication for this patient to take during the preconception period and pregnancy?Your Answer: Stop sodium valproate and commence lamotrigine
Explanation:Antiepileptic Medication Options for Women of Childbearing Age
Introduction:
Women of childbearing age with epilepsy require careful consideration of their antiepileptic medication options due to the potential teratogenic effects on the fetus. This article will discuss the appropriate medication options for women with epilepsy who are planning to conceive or are already pregnant.Antiepileptic Medication Options for Women of Childbearing Age
Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Lamotrigine:
Sodium valproate is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. Lamotrigine and carbamazepine are recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) as safer alternatives. Lamotrigine is a sodium channel blocker and has fewer side effects than carbamazepine. It is present in breast milk but has not been associated with harmful effects on the infant.Continue Sodium Valproate:
Sodium valproate is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. Women taking sodium valproate should be reviewed preconception to change their medication to a safer alternative. Untreated epilepsy can be a major risk factor in pregnancy, increasing maternal and fetal mortality.Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Ethosuximide:
Ethosuximide is not appropriate for this patient’s management as it is recommended for absence seizures or myoclonic seizures. Use during breastfeeding has been associated with infant hyperexcitability and sedation.Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Levetiracetam:
Levetiracetam is recommended as an adjunct medication for generalised tonic-clonic seizures that have failed to respond to first-line treatment. This patient has well-controlled seizures on first-line treatment and does not require adjunct medication. Other second-line medications include clobazam, lamotrigine, sodium valproate and topiramate.Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Phenytoin:
Phenytoin is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. It can lead to fetal hydantoin syndrome, which includes a combination of developmental abnormalities. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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