-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a long history of intermittent abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea. He has noticed that his symptoms are particularly linked to gluten-containing foods and brings a food diary to support this theory. On examination, he has a body mass index of 19 kg/m2 and is clinically anaemic. Coeliac disease is suspected.
Which of the following investigations will most reliably diagnose this condition?
Your Answer: Microscopic examination of a small bowel biopsy specimen
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder of the small bowel induced by gluten. The gold standard for diagnosis is the detection of subtotal villous atrophy on a small-bowel biopsy. However, the detection of tissue transglutaminase IgA antibodies is a widely used screening test with high specificity and sensitivity. Total immunoglobulin A (IgA) should also be measured in case of IgA deficiency. Antibodies become undetectable after 6-12 months of a gluten-free diet, making them useful for monitoring the disease. The xylose absorption test is not appropriate for this patient, while the detection of anti-gliadin antibodies and anti-endomysial antibodies can aid diagnosis but are not preferred methods. Serology for anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies is the first-line screening test and aids referral to gastroenterology.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A survey is conducted to determine the satisfaction level of customers with the new online ordering system, rating it out of 10. The scores obtained are: 9, 5, 3, 8, 7, 6, 4, 9. What is the median score?
Your Answer: 6.5
Explanation:Understanding Descriptive Statistics
Descriptive statistics are a set of tools used to summarize and describe data. One of the most commonly used descriptive statistics is the mean, which is the average of a series of observed values. Another important statistic is the median, which is the middle value when a series of observed values are placed in order. The mode is the value that occurs most frequently within a dataset. Finally, the range is the difference between the largest and smallest observed value.
In summary, descriptive statistics provide a way to understand and communicate important information about a dataset. By calculating the mean, median, mode, and range, researchers can gain insights into the central tendency and variability of their data. These statistics can be used to identify patterns, trends, and outliers, and can help researchers make informed decisions based on their findings.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old woman with a history of anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 16 kg/m2. She has lost 2 kg steadily over the past four weeks. She is unable to sit up from lying flat without using her hands or to stand from the squatting position without using her hands. Lanugo is present. Her hands feel cold to the touch.
Which feature of the patient’s physical examination would be most suggestive of impending high risk to life?
Your Answer: Cool peripheries
Correct Answer: Inability to sit up or squat without using the hands
Explanation:Identifying High Risk Factors in Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that can lead to life-threatening complications. The Royal College of Psychiatrists in the United Kingdom has issued guidance on recognising medical emergencies in eating disorders. Here are some key factors to consider when assessing the risk to life in anorexia nervosa:
Sit up–Squat–Stand (SUSS) test: This test involves asking a patient to sit up from a lying position and to stand up from a squatting position without using their hands. Inability to do this is associated with impending high risk to life.
Rate of weight loss: A weight loss of 500-999 g per week presents a moderate risk to life, whereas weight loss of >1 kg per week confers a high risk.
BMI: A BMI of greater than 15 kg/m2 represents a low impending risk to life, whereas a BMI of <13 kg/m2 is a high risk. Cool peripheries: Although cool peripheries may be seen on examination in anorexia nervosa, they are not associated with a high risk to life. However, a core temperature of less than 35 °C is. Lanugo: Lanugo is a covering of soft downy hair often seen in people with anorexia, but it is not identified as being associated with an increased risk to life in anorexia nervosa. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate interventions to prevent life-threatening complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A five-year-old boy presents with a three-day history of right ear pain. He is feeling well otherwise, with no fever and normal fluid intake. His mother has been giving him paracetamol for pain relief. During examination, his left tympanic membrane appears normal, but his right tympanic membrane is inflamed, erythematous, and bulging. He has a temperature of 36.5ºC. There is no significant medical history, but he has a penicillin allergy. What is the most appropriate treatment option for the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Supportive treatment with paracetamol/ibuprofen
Explanation:To diagnose otitis media, the presence of a middle ear effusion is necessary.
In this case, the child has unilateral otitis media with a middle ear effusion, but is otherwise healthy.
According to NICE guidelines, decongestants and antihistamines are not recommended for treating acute otitis media.
The first-line antibiotic treatment for otitis media is amoxicillin or clarithromycin/erythromycin for patients with a penicillin allergy. However, NICE recommends prescribing antibiotics only if the child is under 2 years old and has bilateral otitis media or otorrhoea. Therefore, antibiotics are not necessary in this case.
The appropriate course of action is to provide supportive treatment for the child’s symptoms, which can last up to a week.
Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old lady presents to your clinic for a check-up after recently joining the practice. She visited a colleague two weeks ago for a painful right hip and was prescribed Diclofenac for possible osteoarthritis.
Her repeat prescriptions include Sertraline 50 mg OD, which she has been taking for three months and is very satisfied with the response, Metformin 500 mg BD, Ramipril 5 mg OD, and Simvastatin 40 mg OD. Her HbA1c level is 51 mmol/mol.
When reviewing her medication, what would be the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Start a proton pump inhibitor and consider an alternative to Diclofenac
Correct Answer: Increase her dose of Sertraline to 100mg OD
Explanation:Medication Management for an Elderly Patient with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
This elderly patient is currently taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and has recently had Diclofenac added as well. However, this combination puts her at a greatly increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. According to NICE guidance, gastroprotection should be added if patients are on aspirin or NSAIDs. Therefore, it is recommended that Diclofenac be stopped and alternative analgesia be considered.
The patient has a satisfactory response at her current dose of SSRI, which is the recommended dose for the elderly. Dose increases in this group should be undertaken with great caution, and there is no indication to do so in this patient.
Additionally, the patient has tight glycaemic control very close to the target of 48 mmol/mol for people with type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is advisable to monitor her HbA1c in three months and then six monthly thereafter if it remains stable.
While optimizing her Ramipril dose according to evidence is important, addressing the significant risk of bleeding on her current treatment should be the priority.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 67-year old man with hypertension visited his general practitioner after an ambulatory blood pressure monitor showed a daytime average blood pressure of 155/98 mmHg. Despite taking optimal doses of ramipril and amlodipine with good adherence, which medication should be introduced to his treatment plan?
Your Answer: Indapamide
Explanation:To improve the management of hypertension that is not well-controlled despite the use of an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker, it is recommended to include a thiazide-like diuretic.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 50-year-old woman has metastatic breast cancer in her bones. Pain has been well controlled with modified-release morphine and she is still quite mobile. A palliative care nurse has given her a National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) Distress Thermometer for Patients. This is a visual analogue scale that records subjective distress on a scale of 0-10. She records 7-8 and most of this is recorded as being due to emotional issues (depression, nervousness, worry, loss of interest). She is assessed to have moderate depression with significant functional impairment. She declines psychological intervention, but would be happy to take medication.
Which of the following is the most appropriate medication?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Chlorine salicylate gel
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
According to probability, what is the most probable cause of a fall in an elderly person? Please
Your Answer: Environmental hazards
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Falls in the Elderly: Environmental Hazards and Other Factors
Falls are a common and serious problem among the elderly, with significant consequences such as increased morbidity, mortality, and nursing home placement. While there are many risk factors for falls, including muscle weakness, medication use, and cognitive impairment, environmental hazards are a major cause, accounting for 31% of falls. Loose rugs, poor lighting, and clutter are just a few examples of hazards that can contribute to falls.
Other factors that contribute to falls include gait and balance disorders, dizziness and vertigo, and confusion. Postural hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing, is also a common cause of falls, often due to medication use. Vasovagal syncope, a reflex-mediated autonomic failure, can also cause falls in the elderly.
Visual impairment is another significant risk factor for falls, as it can affect perception of environmental elements. Individuals with visual impairment are almost twice as likely to fall compared to those with normal vision.
To prevent falls, it is important to address all risk factors, including environmental hazards, through exercise, medication review, vision assessment, and home safety modifications. By understanding the causes of falls in the elderly, we can take steps to prevent them and improve the health and well-being of older adults.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with a swollen lower right eyelid. He complains of a gritty sensation in his eye, but now he is experiencing pain and blurred vision. Upon examination, the right eyelid is inflamed, red, and has crusted margins. The patient's left eye has reduced visual acuity. The doctor suspects blepharitis.
As per the latest NICE CKS recommendations, what would be the subsequent appropriate steps for managing this condition?Your Answer: Advise the patient on good eyelid hygiene, and on a warm compress. Prescribe artificial tears and review if symptoms persist or worsen
Correct Answer: Refer for same-day ophthalmology assessment
Explanation:If a patient with blepharitis experiences symptoms of corneal disease, such as blurred vision and pain, they should be referred for ophthalmological assessment on the same day, as per the current NICE CKS guidance. Other reasons for referral include sudden onset visual loss, acute redness and pain in the eye, persistent localized disease despite optimal primary care treatment, obvious eyelid margin asymmetry or deformities, deterioration in vision, associated cellulitis, associated conditions like Sjögren’s syndrome, or diagnostic uncertainty.
Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues such as blepharitis, styes, chalazions, entropion, and ectropion. Blepharitis is an inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Styes are infections that occur in the glands of the eyelids, with external styes affecting the sebum-producing glands and internal styes affecting the Meibomian glands. Chalazions, also known as Meibomian cysts, are retention cysts that present as painless lumps in the eyelid. While most cases of chalazions resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.
When it comes to managing styes, there are different types to consider. External styes are usually caused by a staphylococcal infection in the glands of Zeis or Moll, while internal styes are caused by an infection in the Meibomian glands. Treatment typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only recommended if there is an associated conjunctivitis.
Overall, eyelid problems can be uncomfortable and even painful, but with proper management and treatment, they can be resolved effectively. It’s important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and antiphospholipid syndrome is expecting a baby. What should she avoid during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Aspirin
Correct Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:Pregnant women should not take warfarin and are typically prescribed low-molecular weight heparin instead throughout their pregnancy.
Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients
When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.
In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)