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Question 1
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A 50 yr. old male patient with schizophrenia complained of chest pain and palpitations. His ECG revealed torsades de pointes ventricular tachycardia. He was on thioridazine for schizophrenia. What is the most appropriate management for his presentation?
Your Answer: IV magnesium
Explanation:Thioridazine has a quinidine-like action on the heart and is known to cause cardiac arrhythmias including prolonged PR and QT intervals and widening of QRS complexes. Intravenous magnesium sulphate is regarded as the treatment of choice for this arrhythmia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An 87-year-old woman presents with 'funny spots' affecting her vision. Over the past week she has noticed a number of flashes and floaters in the visual field of the right eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: Posterior vitreous detachment
Explanation:Posterior vitreous detachment is thought to occur in up to 50-75% of the population over 65 years and is the most likely diagnosis here. Patients should be reviewed by an ophthalmologist to assess the risk of progressing to retinal detachment. Flashes of light (photopsia) occur in the peripheral field of vision while floaters often occur on the temporal side of the central vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old lady with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to clinic. She had extensive colitis 10 years ago, which has improved with medical treatment. Last year she had been diagnosed with primary sclerosing cholangitis. Her last colonoscopy was 6 months ago, which detected no active disease, and random biopsies were normal. She is remaining well and asymptomatic. When should colonic screening be performed on this patient?
Your Answer: Colonoscopy should be performed in 3 years’ time
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy should be performed annually
Explanation:Colonoscopy screening should begin 10 years after the first diagnosis in ulcerative colitis, given the increased risk for colon cancer. Given that she has developed primary sclerosing cholangitis, her risk of colon cancer is even higher. Colonoscopy screening should occur at 3 year intervals in the second decade, 2 year intervals in the third decade, and 1 year intervals by the first decade, making A the correct answer choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of menstruation for 5 months. She is 1.76 m in height and weighs only 43.7 kg (7 stone). A pregnancy test is negative and thyroid function testing is normal. Which of the following is the diagnosis of this case?
Your Answer: Weight-related amenorrhoea
Explanation:Low body weight. Excessively low body weight — about 10 percent under normal weight — interrupts many hormonal functions in your body, potentially halting ovulation.
In Polycystic ovaries there is excess weight gain. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Correct
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Sensorineural deafness is strongly associated with which one of the following?
Your Answer: Rubella
Explanation:Primary rubella infection during pregnancy, particularly during the first trimester, can affect several organs and cause birth defects that are responsible for congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). The most common defects of CRS are hearing impairment (unilateral or bilateral sensorineural), eye defects (e.g., cataracts, congenital glaucoma, or pigmentary retinopathy), and cardiac defects (e.g., patent ductus arteriosus or peripheral pulmonic stenosis). Congenital hearing loss is the most common sequela, occurring in approximately 60% of cases, especially when infection occurs in the 4th month of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Correct
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A 24-year-old gentleman presents with visual loss in his right eye, and this is diagnosed as optic neuritis. Which one of the following statements would be seen in an afferent pupillary defect?
Your Answer: Accommodation response is unaffected
Explanation:Afferent pupillary defect is simply a delayed pupillary response to light. Accommodation is otherwise unaffected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50 yr. old male presented with acute severe central chest pain and acute ST elevation myocardial infarction was diagnosed. He was treated with streptokinase. 2 days later he was sweating excessively and he was found to be hypotensive. Which of the following cannot be considered as a reason for this presentation?
Your Answer: Hypotensive effect of streptokinase
Explanation:Hypotensive effect of streptokinase occurs during the streptokinase infusion which is usually transient. Acute mitral regurgitation due to rupture of papillary muscles, ventricular septal defects and reinfarctions (left or right) are known to cause hypotension after 24 hrs. Pulmonary embolism is less likely but cannot be excluded.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 50-year-old gentleman with renal cell carcinoma has a haemoglobin of 19 g/dl. Which investigation will conclusively prove that this patient has secondary polycythaemia?
Your Answer: Erythropoietin level
Explanation:Erythropoietin (EPO) is used to distinguish between primary and secondary polycythaemia. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by tumours in the kidney that may secrete EPO or EPO-like proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents with anaemia and weight loss. Upon endoscopy, a gastric tumour is revealed, later established as an adenocarcinoma. The patient refuses any treatment and claims that his condition is not influencing the quality of his life. Clinical examination has nothing particularly interesting to show and the patient seems to be conscious of his decision, regardless of the likely curative nature of surgery. What is the single most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Respect his wishes and book a follow-up appointment for four weeks
Explanation:The patient seems to be conscious about his decision, which should be respected. According to Mental Capacity Act 2005, a person who makes an unwise decision should not be treated as unable to make a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 10
Correct
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A 48-year-old patient with diabetes is referred from the Emergency department complaining of dizziness and vomiting. On examination he is alert and orientated, his pulse is 80 irregularly irregular and BP 160/90 mmHg. There is nystagmus on left lateral gaze and his speech is slurred. On examination of the limbs, you note intention tremor and past pointing. He is ataxic when mobilised. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cerebellar CVA
Explanation:The patient’s presentation with slurred speech, intention tremor and past pointing, as well as ataxia and nystagmus, paired with a history of vertigo suggest the cerebellum as the site of cerebrovascular accident (CVA) or stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old patient presents with inflammatory bowel disease. 5-ASA would be most appropriate in treating which condition?
Your Answer: Maintenance therapy for Crohn’s disease
Correct Answer: Maintenance therapy for ulcerative colitis
Explanation:5-ASA is not an acute treatment; it is for maintenance therapy for ulcerative colitis and/or Crohn’s. The most benefit is seen in patients with ulcerative colitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Correct
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Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is suspected to have cranial diabetes insipidus so he undergoes a water deprivation test. Which one of the following responses would most indicate a positive (abnormal) result?
Your Answer: Failure to concentrate the urine during water deprivation, but achievement of urine osmolality of 720 mmol/kg following the administration of desmopressin
Explanation:The water deprivation test (i.e., the Miller-Moses test), is a semiquantitative test to ensure adequate dehydration and maximal stimulation of ADH for diagnosis. It is typically performed in patients with more chronic forms of Diabetes Insipidus (DI). The extent of deprivation is usually limited by the patient’s thirst or by any significant drop in blood pressure or related clinical manifestation of dehydration.
In healthy individuals, water deprivation leads to a urinary osmolality that is 2-4 times greater than plasma osmolality. Additionally, in normal, healthy subjects, administration of ADH produces an increase of less than 9% in urinary osmolality. The time required to achieve maximal urinary concentration ranges from 4-18 hours.
In central and nephrogenic DI, urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality will be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation.
A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Correct
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A new blood test developed to screen individuals for cardiac failure was performed on 500 patients. The results were positive for 40 out of 50 patients with echocardiography-established heart failure. However, the test was also positive for 20 patients with no signs of heart failure. What is the positive predictive value of the test?
Your Answer: 0.66
Explanation:Positive predictive value = TP (true positives) / [TP + FP (false positives)] = 40 / (40 + 20) = 0.66
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 14
Correct
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A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of his face, hands and feet along with diffuse abdominal pain. He has a history of similar recurrent episodes since he was 10 years old, with each episode lasting 2-3 days. Examination reveals swelling on face, hands, feet but no sign of urticaria. Family history is significant for similar episodes in the mother who experienced these since childhood, and a brother who passed away following respiratory distress at age of 8 during one such episode. Which of the following tests would be the most helpful in reaching the diagnosis?
Your Answer: C1 esterase inhibitor
Explanation:Hereditary C1 inhibitor deficiency leads to recurrent angioedema without urticaria or pruritus. Physical triggers include dental work, surgery or intubation. Medical triggers include angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, tamoxifen, oestrogen-containing medications (e.g., hormone replacement therapy and oral contraceptives). It is diagnosed on the basis of low levels of C1 esterase inhibitor or elevated levels of dysfunctional C1 esterase inhibitor. C4 levels are low between attacks. IgE levels, eosinophils, skin prick tests and RASTs are helpful in other allergic conditions and asthma but not of use in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man presents with numbness and tingling in his left hand. On examination he has weakness of elbow extension, metacarpophalangeal joint flexion and extension and distal interphalangeal joint flexion. All other movements and reflexes are normal. Sensation is normal apart from reduced pin-prick sensation over the medial aspect of the hand. An MRI scan of the cervical spine is performed due to suspicion of a nerve lesion. Which of the following pathologies is most likely to be found on the scan based on the clinical findings?
Your Answer: Disc herniation between C5 and C6
Correct Answer: Disc herniation between C7 and T1
Explanation:The C8 nerve forms part of the radial and ulnar nerves via the brachial plexus, and therefore has motor and sensory function in the upper limb. It originates from the spinal column from below the cervical vertebra 7 (C7).
The C8 nerve receives sensory afferents from the C8 dermatome. This consists of all the skin on the little finger, and continuing up slightly past the wrist on the palmar and dorsal aspects of the hand and forearm.
The other options available correspond to the C6 or C7 roots and these are unaffected as evidenced by normal elbow flexion and thumb sensation (C6) and normal sensation over the middle finger (C7). Elbow extension is weak as it has roots from both C7 and C8 and so cannot be used alone to decide between the two levels clinically.
The C8 nerve contributes to the motor innervation of many of the muscles in the trunk and upper limb. Its primary function is the flexion of the fingers, and this is used as the clinical test for C8 integrity, in conjunction with the finger jerk reflex.Trunk:
– Pectoralis major – Medial and lateral pectoral nerves (C5, C6, C7, C8, T1)
– Pectoralis minor – Medial pectoral nerve (C5, C6, C7,C8, T1)
– Latissimus dorsi – Thoracodorsal nerve (C6, C7, C8)
Upper arm:
– Triceps brachii – Radial nerve (C6, C7,C8)
Forearm
– Flexor carpi ulnaris – Ulnar nerve (C7, C8, T1)
– Palmaris longus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
– Flexor digitorum superficialis – Median nerve (C8, T1)
– Flexor digitorum profundus – Median and Ulnar nerves (C8, T1)
– Flexor pollicis longus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
– Pronator quadratus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor carpi radialis brevis – Deep branch of the radial nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor digitorum – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor digiti minimi – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor carpi ulnaris – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Anconeus – Radial nerve (C6, C7,C8)
– Abductor pollicis longus – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor pollicis brevis – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor pollicis longus – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor indicis – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
Hand
– Palmaris brevis – Superficial branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Dorsal interossei – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Palmar interossei – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Adductor pollicis – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Lumbricals – Deep branch of ulnar, Digital branches of median nerve
– Opponens pollicis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
– Abductor pollicis brevis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
– Flexor pollicis brevis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
– Opponens digiti minimi – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Abductor digiti minimi – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Flexor digiti minimi brevis – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Correct
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Using DEXA, which of the following bone mineral density values indicates osteoporosis in the measured site?
Your Answer: A T score of -2.6
Explanation:Osteopenia is an early sign of bone weakening that is less severe than osteoporosis.
The numerical result of the bone density test is quantified as a T score. The lower the T score, the lower the bone density. T scores greater than -1.0 are considered normal and indicate healthy bone. T scores between -1.0 and -2.5 indicate osteopenia. T scores lower than -2.5 indicate osteoporosis.
DEXA also provides the patient’s Z-score, which reflects a value compared with that of person matched for age and sex.
Z-score values of –2.0 SD or lower are defined as below the expected range for age and those above –2.0 SD as within the expected range for age. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 20-year-old gentleman presents with drop foot following a sports injury. On examination there is weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and eversion, and weakness of extension of the big toe. He has some sensory loss restricted to the dorsum of his foot surrounding the base of his big toe. Other examination is within normal limits. Where is the most likely site of the lesion?
Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve at the head of the fibula
Explanation:Peroneal nerve injury is also known as foot drop. The common peroneal nerve supplies the ankle and toe extensor muscle groups as well as sensation over the dorsum of the foot; thus, there is also loss of sensation in these cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 34-year-old woman has had progressive reduction of visual acuity over the past 3 years. She has now almost lost all of her vision. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa
Explanation:Retinitis pigmentosa is a genetic disorder of the eyes that causes loss of vision. Symptoms include trouble seeing at night and decreased peripheral vision. Onset of symptoms is generally gradual.
– In keratitis, there will be pain, redness and photophobia but vision is not affected
– In macular degeneration, near blindness does not occur rather the inability to identify faces or read small print
– Cataracts are more common in elderly
– It is not angle closure glaucoma as angle closure glaucoma occurs usually after the age of 50; In open angle glaucoma visual loss is not gradual but rather occurs suddenly following progression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a 70-year-old gentleman who has been suffering from multiple myeloma for the past 3 years. He presents with lethargy, muscle aches and pain in his lower back. Arterial blood sampling reveals a metabolic acidosis. Serum potassium is 3.1 mmol/l (3.5–4.9), and urine pH is 5.1 (> 5.3). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis-type I
Correct Answer: Renal tubular acidosis-type II
Explanation:This case is most likely RTA type II, due to decreased proximal bicarbonate reabsorption, which leads to metabolic acidosis, hypokalaemia, hyperchloremia, and <6 urine pH .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 77-year-old retired engineer presents with a burning sensation around his right eye. On examination, an erythematous blistering rash can be seen in the right trigeminal distribution. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
Explanation:Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) describes the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It accounts for around 10% of case of shingles. Features include a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the actual eye itself, and Hutchinson’s sign: a rash on the tip or side of the nose, indicating nasociliary involvement and is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides a history of ischaemic heart disease for which he is under treatment. The GP decides to start him on sildenafil citrate. Which of the following medications may contraindicate the use of sildenafil in this patient?
Your Answer: Nicorandil
Explanation:The use of nitrates and nicorandil concomitantly with sildenafil citrate is contraindicated.
Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor used in the treatment of impotence.
Contraindications
– Patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil
– Hypotension
– Recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)Side-effects:
Visual disturbances e.g. cyanopsia, non-arthritic anterior ischaemic Neuropathy
Nasal congestion
Flushing
Gastrointestinal side-effects
Headache -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 69-year-old retired veterinarian with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents as she has started to bump into things since this morning. Over the previous two days, she had noticed some 'floating spots in her eyes'. Examination reveals she has no vision in her right eye. The red reflex on the right side is difficult to elicit and you are unable to visualise the retina on the right side during fundoscopy. Examination of the left fundus reveals changes consistent with pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage
Explanation:The history of diabetes, complete loss of vision in the affected eye and inability to visualise the retina, suggest a diagnosis of vitreous haemorrhage (VH). 3 conditions cause 59 to 88.5% of VH cases: proliferative diabetic retinopathy, posterior vitreous detachment (PVD), and ocular trauma
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 23
Correct
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Which of the following nail changes are present in ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer: Clubbing
Explanation:Clubbing of the fingers can be present in many clinical conditions like CLD, bronchiectasis, lung abscess, Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s Disease.
Koilonychia or spoon shaped nails are a typical finding in iron deficiency anaemia.
Splinter haemorrhages are pin point haemorrhages found in infective endocarditis and secondary to trauma.
Yellow nails are present in pulmonary and renal disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 65-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic with progressively worsening lower back pain for the last three months and history of weight loss for the past eight months. MRI lumbar spine confirms the suspicion of bone metastasis. What is the most likely primary tumour?
Your Answer: Prostate carcinoma
Explanation:Prostate cancer is the most common primary tumour that metastasises to the bone.
Most common tumours causing bone metastasis (in descending order):
1. Prostate (32%)
2. Breast (22%)
3. Kidneys (16%)
4. Lungs
5. ThyroidMost common sites of bone metastasis (in descending order):
1. Spine
2. Pelvis
3. Ribs
4. Skull
5. Long bones -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 45-year-old man with diabetes comes to the clinic for his annual review. He has had diabetes for eight years and he is also being treated for hypertension. He is on the following medications: metformin 500 mg tds, gliclazide 80 mg daily, atorvastatin 10 mg/d, Ramipril 10 mg/d and Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg/d. He is noted to be obese (130kg). Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. Investigations reveal: HbA1c 8.1% (3.8-6.4), Fasting glucose 9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), 24hr Urine free cortisol 354 mmol/d (<250), 9am Plasma ACTH 4 ng/dL (10-50). CT abdomen 3cm right adrenal mass. Which of the following is most likely to be the adrenal mass?
Your Answer: Cortisol secreting adenoma
Explanation:The patient has Cushing syndrome suggested by the elevated 24hr urine free cortisol. Hence, the mass is most probably a cortisol secreting adenoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old lady presents with severe morning headaches associated with nausea. Head MRI reveals a large compressive tumour arising from the falx cerebri. The tumour is well delineated. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Glioblastoma
Correct Answer: Meningioma
Explanation:Meningiomas are the most common benign tumours of the brain. Their name is derived from the fact that they arise from the dura mater which together with the pia matter and arachnoid mater form the meninges. The chances that a meningioma is benign are almost 98%. They are non-invasive and well delineated, causing sign and symptoms of brain compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old real estate agent takes hydrocortisone 20mg in the mornings and 5mg at night for Addison’s disease. The endocrinology consultant would like her to take prednisolone instead. What dose of prednisolone should be started?
Your Answer: 5 mg
Correct Answer: 7 mg
Explanation:1mg Prednisolone = 4mg hydrocortisone, so the actual equivalent daily dose is 7mg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output. She weighs 60 kg and has a 24-hour urine output of 3500 ml. Her basal urine osmolality is 210 mOsm/kg. She undergoes a fluid deprivation test and her urine osmolality after fluid deprivation (loss of weight 3 kg) is 650 mOsm/kg. Subsequent injection of subcutaneous DDAVP (desmopressin acetate) did not result in a further significant rise of urine osmolality after 2 hours (655 mOsm/kg). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Primary polydipsia
Explanation:In central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI), urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI.
In primary polydipsia, water deprivation results in an increase in urine osmolality, anywhere between 300 – 800 mOsm/Kg (usually up to 600 – 700 mOsm/Kg), without a substantial increase in plasma osmolality, but the increase in urine osmolality is not as substantial as in a normal response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 60 yr. old man presented with difficulty in breathing. On examination he was severely dyspnoeic and tachycardic. What is the clinical sign that would favour the diagnosis of cardiac tamponade over constrictive pericarditis?
Your Answer: Pulsus paradoxus
Explanation:Pulsus paradoxus is defined as the exaggerated fall in systolic blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mmHg. Cardiac tamponade is the classic cause of pulsus paradoxus. Kussmaul’s sign (a rise in the jugular venous pressure on inspiration) is mostly seen in constrictive pericarditis. Hypotension, muffled heart sounds and raised JVP can be seen in both conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old office worker presents with a 3 year history of epigastric pain, especially 30 minutes after eating. This is associated with nausea and belching. She also describes constipation with occasional explosive diarrhoea. The stools are normally hard with mucus and she needs to strain with every motion. Abdominal pain is relieved after defecation but abdominal bloating persists. She wakes up an hour earlier each morning to finish her breakfast in order to prevent vomiting. She has missed work on a few occasions and feels that her weight has fluctuated. Past medical history includes scarlet fever. She is not on any regular medications except intermittent laxatives over the counter. Abdominal examination is normal. Rectal examination reveals an anal fissure. Investigation results: Haemoglobin (Hb 13.1 g/dL, White blood count (WBC) 6.0 × 109/L, Platelets 180× 109/L, Mean cell volume (MCV) 87 fL, International normalised ratio (INR) 1.0, Na+ 136 mmol/L, K+ 3.9 mmol/L, Urea 3.7 mmol/L, Creatinine 70 μmol/L, Albumin 39 glL. Liver function test normal. Anti-endomysial antibody negative. Thyroid function test normal. Gastroscopy normal. Flexible sigmoidoscopy and biopsy normal. Abdominal and pelvic ultrasound scans are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis to account for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Sphincter of Oddi dysfunction
Correct Answer: Overlap irritable bowel syndrome and functional dyspepsia
Explanation:This is most likely describing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Symptoms are either diarrhoea, constipation, or both, abdominal pain, bloating, of varying duration. It is a functional, not an organic problem, as far as research shows at this point. It is essentially a diagnosis of exclusion. Treatment is a high fibre diet with fluids. Caffeine should be avoided as this can worsen symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 31
Correct
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Which of the following is most consistent with achondroplasia?
Your Answer: May be diagnosed radiologically at birth
Explanation:Achondroplasia is the most common type of short-limb disproportionate dwarfism. A single gene mapped to the short arm of chromosome 4 (band 4p16.3) is responsible for achondroplasia and is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait. All people with achondroplasia have a short stature.
Characteristic features of achondroplasia include an average-size trunk, short arms and legs with particularly short upper arms and thighs, limited range of motion at the elbows, and an enlarged head (macrocephaly) with a prominent forehead. Fingers are typically short and the ring finger and middle finger may diverge, giving the hand a three-pronged (trident) appearance. People with achondroplasia are generally of normal intelligence.
Examination of the infant after birth shows increased front-to-back head size. There may be signs of hydrocephalus. It may be diagnosed radiographically at birth, or becomes obvious within the first year with disparity between a large skull, normal trunk length and short limbs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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In which part of the body is conjugated bilirubin metabolised to urobilinogen?
Your Answer: Small intestine
Correct Answer: Large intestine
Explanation:Urobiligen is produced by the action of bacteria on bilirubin in the intestine. As a reminder, unconjugated bilirubin becomes conjugated in the hepatocyte. Conjugated bilirubin goes through enterohepatic circulation. About half of the urobiligen is reabsorbed and excreted by the kidneys in the urine. The rest is converted to stercobilinogen –> stercobilin, which is excreted in stool, giving it its brown colour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 33
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding interleukin 1 (IL-1) is true?
Your Answer: It is released mainly by macrophages/monocytes
Explanation:Interleukin 1 alpha and interleukin 1 beta (IL1 alpha and IL1 beta) are cytokines that participate in the regulation of immune responses, inflammatory reactions, and hematopoiesis. It is secreted mainly by macrophages and monocytes and acts as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 34
Correct
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A 20 year old heroin addict is admitted following an overdose. She is drowsy and has a respiratory rate of 6 bpm. Which of the following arterial blood gas results (taken on room air) are most consistent with this?
Your Answer: pH = 7.31; pCO2 = 7.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.1 kPa
Explanation:In mild-to-moderate heroin overdoses, arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals respiratory acidosis. In more severe overdoses, tissue hypoxia is common, leading to mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis.
The normal range for PaCO2 is 35-45 mmHg (4.67 to 5.99 kPa). Respiratory acidosis can be acute or chronic. In acute respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is elevated above the upper limit of the reference range (i.e., >45 mm Hg) with an accompanying academia (i.e., pH < 7.35). In chronic respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is elevated above the upper limit of the reference range, with a normal or near-normal pH secondary to renal compensation and an elevated serum bicarbonate levels (i.e., >30 mEq/L).
Arterial blood gases with pH = 7.31; pCO2 = 7.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.1 kPa would indicate respiratory acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment (leaving out the current NICE guidelines) for a 29 year old man with erythrodermic psoriasis and arthritis mutilans involving several digits of both hands?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Correct Answer: Etanercept
Explanation:TNF-alpha inhibitors are known to ameliorate the symptoms and disease activity of Arthritis mutilans (a rare and severe form of psoriatic arthritis), by disabling the cytokines that are involved in inflammation and joint destruction. From the mentioned choices, this would be the most effective option. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, followed by sulfasalazine used in mild to moderate forms of psoriatic arthritis but has not shown much efficacy in arthritis mutilans. Phototherapy, narrowband UVB light therapy can be very effective in clearing skin lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 36
Correct
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A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 37
Correct
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An 80 year-old Zimbabwean woman with known rheumatoid arthritis was admitted to hospital with a four week history of weight loss, night sweats and cough. She was given a course of Amoxicillin for the past week but her condition deteriorated and she was referred to the hospital when she developed haemoptysis. She was on maintenance prednisolone 10 mg once per day and four weeks earlier, she had received infliximab for a flare up of rheumatoid arthritis. She lived with her husband but had been admitted to hospital himself with influenza four days earlier. She was a lifelong non-smoker and worked most of her life as a missionary in Zimbabwe and South Africa. On examination she looked cachexic and was pyrexial with a temperature of 38.5°C. Her blood pressure was 181/101 mmHg, pulse 121 beats per minute and oxygen saturations of 89% on room air. Her heart sounds were normal and there were no audible murmurs. Auscultation of her lung fields revealed bronchial breath sounds in the left upper zone. Examination of her abdomen was normal. Mantoux test < 5mm (after 48 hours) A chest radiograph revealed cavitating left upper lobe consolidation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Post-primary tuberculosis
Explanation:Post-primary pulmonary tuberculosis is a chronic disease commonly caused by either endogenous reactivation of a latent infection or exogenous re-infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Post-primary pulmonary tuberculosis (also called reactivation tuberculosis) develops in 5%–20% of patients infected with M. tuberculosis.Found mainly in adults, this form of tuberculosis arises from the reactivation of bacilli that lay dormant within a fibrotic area of the lung. In adults, reinfection with a strain of mycobacterium that differs from that which caused the primary infection is also possible. Predisposing factors include immunosuppression, diabetes, malnutrition and alcoholism.
Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody against tumour necrosis factor α (TNF-α). It is FDA approved for many autoimmune conditions, including rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease. One of the many known side effects of infliximab therapy is reactivation of latent tuberculosis (TB). Because of the resemblances in clinical and radiological features, tubercular lesions in the lung may mimic malignancy. TB accounts for 27% of all infections initially presumed to be lung cancer on imaging studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 50 year old retired coal miner with simple silicosis presented with shortness of breath. He had been short of breath for 3 months. Around 3 months ago he began keeping turtle doves as pets. On auscultation he had basal crepitations and chest x-ray showed fine nodular shadowing in the apices. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Progressive silicosis
Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
Explanation:Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) refers to a group of lung diseases that can develop after exposure to certain substances. The name describes the origin and the nature of these diseases:
‘extrinsic’ – caused by something originating outside the body
‘allergic’ – an abnormally increased (hypersensitive) body reaction to a common substance
‘alveolitis’ – inflammation in the small air sacs of the lungs (alveoli)Symptoms can include: fever, cough, worsening breathlessness and weight loss. The diagnosis of the disease is based on a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and a range of clinical tests which usually includes: X-rays or CT scans, lung function and blood tests.
EAA is not a ‘new’ occupational respiratory disease and occupational causes include bacteria, fungi, animal proteins, plants and chemicals.
Examples of EAA include:
Bird fancier’s lung (BFL) is a type of hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP). It is triggered by exposure to avian proteins present in the dry dust of the droppings and sometimes in the feathers of a variety of birds. The lungs become inflamed, with granuloma formation. Birds such as pigeons, parakeets, cockatiels, shell parakeets (budgerigars), parrots, turtle doves, turkeys and chickens have been implicated.
People who work with birds or own many birds are at risk. Bird hobbyists and pet store workers may also be at risk. This disease is an inflammation of the alveoli in the lungs caused by an immune response to inhaled allergens from birds. Initial symptoms include shortness of breath (dyspnoea), especially after sudden exertion or when exposed to temperature change, which can resemble asthma, hyperventilation syndrome or pulmonary embolism. Chills, fever, non-productive cough and chest discomfort may also occur.
A definitive diagnosis can be difficult without invasive testing, but extensive exposure to birds combined with reduced diffusing capacity are strongly suggestive of this disease. X-ray or CT scans will show physical changes to the lung structure (a ground glass appearance) as the disease progresses. Precise distribution and types of tissue damage differ among similar diseases, as does response to treatment with Prednisone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 39
Correct
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A 10-year-old gentleman is referred with a six month history of daily headache, which is mostly frontal in location and occasionally associated with nausea. He has been taking paracetamol 3 g daily, aspirin 300 mg thrice daily, and codeine 40 mg thrice daily, all of which have had only a temporary effect. He has a two year history of depression treated with paroxetine. No abnormalities were found on examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Analgesic misuse headache
Explanation:Because of the patient’s history of chronic analgesic use of daily paracetamol intake, the most likely diagnosis of this case is Analgesic misuse headache. In these cases, the headache is only temporarily relieved by analgesics. Treatment involves gradual withdrawal of analgesics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 40
Correct
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A 20-year-old man presents with a history of sticky greenish discharge, accompanied by redness of the eyes, and difficulty opening his eyes in the morning. What is the single most likely cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Conjunctivitis
Explanation:Redness of the eyes can present in all of the conditions. However, the green sticky discharge that causes the eyelids to stick together overnight is characteristic of bacterial conjunctivitis. Bacterial conjunctivitis is an inflammatory condition of the conjunctiva in which bacteria commonly Staphylococcus Aureus invade the conjunctiva. The person experiences a foreign body feeling in the eye and mucopurulent or purulent discharge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 41
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness for 2 weeks. He reports that before the onset of these symptoms, he was fit and well and was not on any medication. He is a known smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has been smoking for over 25 years. On examination, the GP diagnosed a mild viral chest infection and reassured the patient that the symptoms would settle of their own accord. Two weeks later, the patient presented again to the GP, this time complaining of thirst, polyuria and generalised muscle weakness. The GP noticed the presence of ankle oedema. A prick test confirmed the presence of hyperglycaemia and the patient was referred to the hospital for investigations where the medical registrar ordered a variety of blood tests. Some of these results are shown: Na 144 mmol/L, K 2.2 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 34 mmol/L, Glucose 16 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ectopic ACTH production
Explanation:The patient has small cell lung cancer presented by paraneoplastic syndrome; Ectopic ACTH secretion.
Small cell lung cancer (SCLC), previously known as oat cell carcinoma is a neuroendocrine carcinoma that exhibits aggressive behaviour, rapid growth, early spread to distant sites, exquisite sensitivity to chemotherapy and radiation, and a frequent association with distinct paraneoplastic syndromes.
Common presenting signs and symptoms of the disease, which very often occur in advanced-stage disease, include the following:
– Shortness of breath
– Cough
– Bone pain
– Weight loss
– Fatigue
– Neurologic dysfunction
Most patients with this disease present with a short duration of symptoms, usually only 8-12 weeks before presentation. The clinical manifestations of SCLC can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
SIADH is present in 15% of the patients and Ectopic secretion of ACTH is present in 2-5% of the patients leading to ectopic Cushing’s syndrome. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man, originally from Pakistan, was admitted with ascites and weight loss. The protein level on ascitic tap was 9 g/l. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Tuberculous peritonitis
Correct Answer: Hepatic cirrhosis
Explanation:This is a low protein level, indicating the fluid is transudative. The only answer choice that is a transudative fluid is in hepatic cirrhosis. Exudative fluid would be seen in tuberculous peritonitis, peritoneal lymphoma, with liver mets, and with intra-abdominal malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 43
Correct
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A paediatrician has concerns that a 6-month-old baby is deaf. His mom gives history of having had a sore throat, fever and lymphadenitis during pregnancy. Which organism may be responsible for causing deafness in her infant?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explanation:CMV is a common viral infection that can be transmitted from a pregnant woman to her unborn child, leading to congenital CMV infection. Congenital CMV infection can result in a range of symptoms and complications in newborns, including deafness. In fact, CMV is one of the leading causes of non-genetic sensorineural hearing loss in children.
Given the mother’s history of symptoms during pregnancy and the concern for deafness in the infant, CMV should also be considered as a potential cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 44
Correct
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A 72 yr. old female patient with a history of atrial fibrillation was admitted with recurrent episodes of syncopal attacks. Her ECG showed torsade de pointes. What is the drug which does not cause the above presentation?
Your Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:Drugs causing torsades de pointes are Amiodarone, Chlorpromazine, Clarithromycin, Disopyramide, Dofetilide, Erythromycin, Haloperidol, Methadone, Procainamide, Quinidine, Sotalol, Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin, Nilotinib, Ondansetron, Ranolazine, Sunitinib, Ziprasidone, Amitriptyline, Ciprofloxacin, Imipramine, Chlorthalidone, Dasatinib, Hydrochlorothiazide, Furosemide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 45
Correct
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A 33-year-old lady who is known hepatitis C positive comes to your clinic. She is 28 weeks pregnant and her obstetrician wants you to assess her and provide medical advice for the mother and child. Which of the following statements concerning hepatitis C are most accurate in her case?
Your Answer: Breast-feeding does not increase the risk of transmission
Explanation:Breast feeding has not been shown to increase the risk of transmission of HCV from mother to baby. This is simply a fact to memorize. The other answer choices are not the most accurate as there is no evidence-proven way to decrease the chance that baby will get HCV from the mother during the birth. About 5 out of every 100 infants born to HCV infected mothers become infected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 46
Correct
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Choose the correct statement regarding p53 gene:
Your Answer: Li-Fraumeni syndrome predisposes to the development of sarcomas
Explanation:Li-Fraumeni syndrome (LFS) is a cancer predisposition syndrome associated with the development of the following classic tumours: soft tissue sarcoma, osteosarcoma, pre-menopausal breast cancer, brain tumours, adrenocortical carcinoma (ACC), and leukaemia. LFS is diagnosed in individuals meeting established clinical criteria or in those who have a germline pathogenic variant in TP53 regardless of family cancer history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 47
Correct
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A 49-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. She also complains of loss of appetite for the past four months. Her admission CXR shows right-sided pleural effusion. An underlying malignancy is suspected and a series of tumour markers are requested, the results of which are: CA 19-9: 36 IU/mL (<40), CA 125: 654 IU/ml (<30), CA 15-3: 9 IU/ml (<40). What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ovarian fibroma
Explanation:The patient has Meigs syndrome. Meigs syndrome is defined as a triad of benign ovarian tumour with ascites and pleural effusion that resolves after resection of the tumour. Ovarian fibromas constitute the majority of the benign tumours seen in Meigs syndrome.
Tumour markers can be divided into:
1. Monoclonal antibodies
CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
CA 15-3: Breast cancer2. Tumour specific antigens
Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer3. Enzymes
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Neuron specific enolase (NSE)4. Hormones
Calcitonin
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Out of the following, which condition is not associated with hyposplenism?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Correct Answer: Liver cirrhosis
Explanation:Liver cirrhosis is not associated with hyposplenism.
Hyposplenism is caused by a variety of conditions. These are:
1. Splenectomy
2. Sickle cell anaemia
3. Coeliac disease, dermatitis herpetiformis
4. Graves’ disease
5. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 39 year old man was admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. He responded to treatment but the medical intern was concerned that Aspergillus fumigatus was cultured from his sputum. Subsequently arranged serum total, IgE level was elevated at 437 ng/ml (normal 40-180 ng/ml), RAST to Aspergillus fumigatus was class III, Aspergillus fumigatus precipitins were negative. What would be the most appropriate management step in this patient?
Your Answer: Itraconazole
Correct Answer: No change in medication
Explanation:Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a form of lung disease that occurs in some people who are allergic to Aspergillus. With ABPA, this allergic reaction causes the immune system to overreact to Aspergillus leading to lung inflammation. ABPA causes bronchospasm (tightening of airway muscles) and mucus build-up resulting in coughing, breathing difficulty and airway obstruction.
Blood tests are used to look for signs of an allergic reaction. This includes evaluating your immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. This level is increased with any type of allergy. Many people with asthma have higher than normal IgE levels. In ABPA however, the IgE level is extremely high (more than 1000 ng/ml or 417 IU/ml). In addition to total IgE, all patients with ABPA have high levels of IgE that is specific to Aspergillus. A blood test can be done to measure specific IgE to Aspergillus. A blood or skin test for IgE antibodies to Aspergillus can be done to see if a person is sensitized (allergic) to this fungus. If these skin tests are negative (i.e. does not show a skin reaction) to Aspergillus fumigatus, the person usually does not have ABPA.
Therefore, there should be no change in medication since this patient does not have ABPA. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements is incorrect with regards to post-partum mental health problems?
Your Answer: Baby-blues are seen in the majority of women
Correct Answer: Post-natal depression is seen in around 2-3% of women
Explanation:Most new moms experience postpartum baby blues after childbirth, which commonly include mood swings, crying spells, anxiety and difficulty sleeping. Baby blues typically begin within the first two to three days after delivery, and may last for up to two weeks.
Postpartum depression may be mistaken for baby blues at first — but the signs and symptoms are more intense and last longer, and may eventually interfere with your ability to care for your baby and handle other daily tasks. Symptoms usually develop within the first few weeks after giving birth, but may begin earlier, during pregnancy or later, up to a year after birth.
The period prevalence of postpartum depression among women is a striking 21.9% the first year after birth, which makes it one of the most common medical complications of childbearing. Sertraline has been identified as an antidepressant of choice for breastfeeding women because infants are unlikely to develop quantifiable serum sertraline levels and very few adverse events associated with sertraline have been reported.
Women with a prior episode of postpartum psychosis have about a 30% risk of having another episode in the next pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 51
Incorrect
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Which of the following is least associated with lead poisoning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Lead poisoning is characterised by abdominal pain, fatigue, constipation, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), and blue lines on gum margin in 20% of the adult patients (very rare in children).
For diagnosis, the level of lead in blood is usually considered with levels greater than 10 mcg/dL being significant. Furthermore, the blood film shows microcytic anaemia and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. Urinary coproporphyrin is increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased). Raised serum and urine levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid may also be seen, making it sometimes difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to be HIV positive and with oesophageal candidiasis. Which of the following regarding HIV virus is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV is an RNA virus
Explanation:The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is grouped to the genus Lentivirus within the family of Retroviridae, subfamily Orthoretrovirinae. The HIV genome consists of two identical single-stranded RNA molecules that are enclosed within the core of the virus particle. The genome of the HIV provirus, also known as proviral DNA, is generated by the reverse transcription of the viral RNA genome into DNA, degradation of the RNA and integration of the double-stranded HIV DNA into the human genome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also taking lisinopril, cimetidine, sucralfate, and allopurinol. The last few drugs were added recently. He now presents with ataxia, slurred speech, and blurred vision. Which recently added drug is most likely to be the cause of his latest symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cimetidine
Explanation:The symptoms of ataxia, slurred speech and blurred vision are all suggestive of phenytoin toxicity. Cimetidine increases the efficacy of phenytoin by reducing its hepatic metabolism.
Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic index (10-20 mg/L) and its levels are monitored by measuring the total phenytoin concentration.
Cimetidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used in the treatment of peptic ulcers. It acts by decreasing gastric acid secretion.
Cimetidine also has an inhibitory effect on several isoforms of the cytochrome enzyme system including the CYP450 enzymatic pathway. Phenytoin is metabolized by the same cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver.
Thus, the simultaneous administration of both these medications leads to an inhibition of phenytoin metabolism and thus increases its circulating levels leading to phenytoin toxicity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 46 year old woman with a history of depression visits the clinic for a review. She was started on Fluoxetine 7 weeks earlier and is requesting that this medication be stopped because she feels well. What recommendation would you give with regards to the treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It should be continued for at least another 6 months
Explanation:Depressive disorders require long-term treatment with antidepressants, psychotherapy, or both. The goal of antidepressant therapy is complete remission of symptoms and return to normal daily functioning. Studies have shown that achieving remission and continuing antidepressant therapy long after the acute symptoms remit can protect against the relapse or recurrence of the psychiatric episode. Many patients, however, inadvertently or intentionally skip doses of their antidepressant, and even discontinue it, if their symptoms improve or if they experience side effects. Antidepressant discontinuation may increase the risk of relapse or precipitate certain distressing symptoms such as gastrointestinal complaints, dizziness, flu-like symptoms, equilibrium disturbances, and sleep disorders.
Pharmacologic therapy should be continued long enough to sustain remission and avoid relapses and recurrences. Recurrence refers to a return of depression at a time beyond the expected duration of the index episode (> 9 months after remission). This means that physicians and patients alike should not be too eager to discontinue medication prematurely. An interval of 6 months has been thought to be the usual duration of antidepressant therapy. New recommendations, however, suggest that treatment should continue for up to 9 months after symptoms have resolved (continuation phase) to prevent relapse and for longer to help prevent recurrence (maintenance phase).
SSRI discontinuation symptoms are similar to those of the TCAs, with dizziness, gastrointestinal symptoms, and sleep disorders common. Anecdotal reports have included complaints of “electric shock–like” sensations, flashes, and “withdrawal buzz.” The type and severity of the symptoms correlate with the relative affinities of the agents for the serotonin reuptake sites and with secondary effects on other neurotransmitters; with SRIs that also affect cholinergic systems, the symptoms possibly correlate with cholinergic rebound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 32 year old male who has recently returned from a trip to Thailand presents with congestion of eyes and swelling of the knee joint. He completed a course of antibiotics for dysentery 4 weeks back. He experiences no dysuria and urine examination is normal. Which further information would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: History and physical examination
Explanation:The patient most likely has reactive arthritis which is usually diagnosed on history and clinical examination. The classic triad of symptoms include conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis. Arthritis and conjunctivitis may occur 4-6 weeks after a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection. Arthritis usually occurs acutely, mostly involving the lower limb and is asymmetrical. Blood culture, urine culture and arthrocentesis (joint aspiration) will not yield positive results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 54 yr. old heavy smoker presented with acute chest pain for 3 hrs which associated with excessive sweating and vomiting. His past medical history was unremarkable but his father has passed away due to a heart attack at the age of 50. Examination findings were normal and ECG was also normal. He was pain free after 12 hours from admission. What is the most appropriate investigation that cab be done at this moment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Troponin T
Explanation:The positive family history and the smoking make him an ideal candidate for a myocardial infarction. The chest pain is also a suggestive symptom. So troponin is needed to rule out MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department with a six-week history of progressive swelling of his jaw, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. His mother reported an episode of sore throat in the past which was treated with antibiotics, but he developed a rash subsequently. Other than that, there was no other significant past medical history. On examination, a painless, nontender 4x3cm mass was found that was fixed and hard. The only other examination finding of note was rubbery symmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following translocation would most likely be found on biopsy karyotyping?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: t(8;14)
Explanation:Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8;14).
Burkitt lymphoma is a rare high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma endemic to west Africa and the mosquito belt. It has a close association with the contraction of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). Burkitt lymphoma often presents with symmetrical painless lymphadenopathy, systemic B symptoms (fever, sweats, and weight loss), central nervous system involvement, and bone marrow infiltration. Classically in the textbooks, the patient also develops a large jaw tumour.
Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:
1. t(9;22)—Chronic myeloid leukaemia
2. t(15;17)—Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
3. t(14;18)—Follicular Lymphoma
4. t(11;14)—Mantle Cell Lymphoma -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 28 year old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and cough. Over the past three weeks she has also developed painful erythematous nodules on both shins. Respiratory examination is normal. A chest x-ray is performed which is reported as follows: Bilateral mediastinal nodal enlargement. No evidence of lung parenchymal disease. Normal cardiac size. Given the likely diagnosis, what would be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Observation
Explanation:Sarcoidosis is an inflammatory disease that affects one or more organs but most commonly affects the lungs and lymph glands. The inflammation may change the normal structure and possibly the function of the affected organ(s).
The presentation in sarcoidosis varies with the extent and severity of organ involvement, as follows:
Asymptomatic (incidentally detected on chest imaging): Approximately 5% of cases.
Systemic complaints (fever, anorexia): 45% of cases
Pulmonary complaints (dyspnoea on exertion, cough, chest pain, and haemoptysis [rare]): 50% of casesLöfgren syndrome (fever, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, and polyarthralgias): Common in Scandinavian patients, but uncommon in African-American and Japanese patients.
Dermatologic manifestations may include the following:
– Erythema nodosum
– A lower-extremity panniculitis with painful, erythematous nodules (often with Löfgren syndrome)
– Lupus pernio (the most specific associated cutaneous lesion)
– Violaceous rash on the cheeks or nose (common)
– Maculopapular plaques (uncommon)Staging of sarcoidosis is as follows:
Stage 0: Normal chest radiographic findings
Stage I: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
Stage II: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and infiltrates
Stage III: Infiltrates alone
Stage IV: FibrosisNonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are indicated for the treatment of arthralgias and other rheumatic complaints. Patients with stage I sarcoidosis often require only occasional treatment with NSAIDs.
Treatment in patients with pulmonary involvement is as follows:
Asymptomatic patients may not require treatment
In patients with minimal symptoms, serial re-evaluation is prudent
Treatment is indicated for patients with significant respiratory symptoms
Corticosteroids can produce small improvements in the functional vital capacity and in the radiographic appearance in patients with more severe stage II and III disease.This patient has Stage 1 Sarcoidosis so observation is the most appropriate action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 70 yr. old man underwent temporary transvenous pacing. While in the coronary care unit he developed pre-syncope. His pulse rate was 30 bpm. His ECG showed pacing spikes which were not related to QRS complexes. What is the most appropriate action that can be taken?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the pacing voltage to a maximum
Explanation:Pacemaker spikes on the ECG indicate that pacemaker is functioning. The most probable cause for this presentation is the change of the position of the tip of the pacing wire. Increasing the voltage will solve the problem. If it works, repositioning of the pacing wire should be done.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 21 year-old male, who is a known alcoholic, presents with a fever, haemoptysis, green sputum and an effusion clinically. There is concern that it may be an empyema. Which test would be most useful to resolve the suspicion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pleural fluid pH
Explanation:If a pleural effusion is present, a diagnostic thoracentesis may be performed and analysed for pH, lactate dehydrogenase, glucose levels, specific gravity, and cell count with differential. Pleural fluid may also be sent for Gram stain, culture, and sensitivity. Acid-fast bacillus testing may also be considered and the fluid may be sent for cytology if cancer is suspected.
The following findings are suggestive of an empyema or parapneumonic effusion that will likely need a chest tube or pigtail catheter for complete resolution:
-Grossly purulent pleural fluid
-pH level less than 7.2
-WBC count greater than 50,000 cells/µL (or polymorphonuclear leukocyte count of 1,000 IU/dL)
-Glucose level less than 60 mg/dL
-Lactate dehydrogenase level greater than 1,000 IU/mL
-Positive pleural fluid cultureThe most often used golden criteria for empyema are pleural effusion with macroscopic presence of pus, a positive Gram stain or culture of pleural fluid, or a pleural fluid pH under 7.2 with normal peripheral blood ph.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is referred to the haematology department with raised haemoglobin and platelet levels. A diagnosis of polycythaemia vera is suspected. Which other abnormality of the blood would be most consistent with this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neutrophilia
Explanation:Neutrophilia is also commonly associated with polycythaemia vera.
Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.
Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.
In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5–15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is marked blanching of fingers especially in response to cold weather. Lab results are as follows: Anti Jo-1: positive, ANA: positive, CK: 2000 U/L, ESR: 60mm/hr, EMG: myopathic changes. Presence of which of the following signifies the worst prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interstitial lung disease
Explanation:Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is thought to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibres. It may be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. It may also be associated with malignancy for example small cell lung carcinoma.
Dermatomyositis is a variant of the disease where skin manifestations are prominent, for example a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids.
It typically affects middle-aged, female: male 3:1. Features include proximal muscle weakness +/- tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease: e.g. fibrosing alveolitis or organising pneumonia, dysphagia, dysphonia. Investigations: elevated creatine kinase, other muscle enzymes (lactate dehydrogenase (LD), aldolase, AST and ALT) are also elevated in 85-95% of patients, EMG, muscle biopsy. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s and fever. Interstitial lung disease plays a major role in morbidity and mortality in patients with polymyositis and is considered a major risk factor for premature death in patients with myositis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is currently training for a national athletics championship. What is the best treatment option for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adequate diet and observation
Explanation:Intensive physical training and participation in competitive sports during childhood and early adolescence may affect athletes’ pubertal development.
Female athletes who do not begin secondary sexual development by the age of 14 or menstruation by the age of 16 warrant a comprehensive evaluation and treatment.
Since she is still 14, adequate diet and observation are enough. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man, known to have small cell lung cancer and ischaemic heart disease (IHD), presents with increasing shortness of breath for the past 7 days. It becomes worse at night and is associated with an occasional non-productive cough. He has also noticed that his wedding ring feels tight. His cancer was diagnosed five months ago and he has recently completed a course of chemotherapy. From a cardiac point of view, he had a myocardial infarction (MI) two years ago following which he had primary angioplasty with stent placement. He has had no episode of angina since then. Clinical examination of his chest is unremarkable. He does, however, have distended neck veins and periorbital oedema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior vena cava obstruction
Explanation:Superior vena cava (SVC) obstruction is an oncological emergency caused by compression of the SVC and is most commonly associated with lung cancer.
Some causes of the condition include:
1. Common malignancies: non small cell lung cancer, lymphoma
2. Other malignancies: metastatic seminoma, Kaposi’s sarcoma, breast cancer
3. Aortic aneurysm
4. Mediastinal fibrosisClinical features of SVC obstruction include:
1. Dyspnoea: most common
2. Swelling of the face, neck, and arms: conjunctival and periorbital oedema may be seen
3. Headache: often worse in the morning
4. Visual disturbances
5. Pulseless jugular venous distensionManagement options are:
1. General: dexamethasone, balloon venoplasty, stenting
2. Small cell lung cancer: chemotherapy and radiotherapy
3. Non small cell lung cancer: radiotherapy -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 65
Incorrect
-
A 44 year-old electrician is referred to you complaining of increasing problems with concentration. He also complains of irregular jerky movements of his extremities and fingers. He consumes approximately 25 units of alcohol per week. His father was diagnosed with dementia at the age of 40. Apart from generalized choreiform movements, his neurological and systemic examinations were normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Huntington's disease
Explanation:Huntington’s disease is an autosomal inherited condition characterized by progressive dementia and worsening choreiform movements. Symptoms typically appear between ages 30 and 50. Ultimately the weakened individual succumbs to pneumonia, heart failure, or other complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 66
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and three months history of galactorrhoea. She has been otherwise well. She had menarche at the age of 12 and has otherwise had regular periods. She has been sexually active for approximately one year and has occasionally used condoms for contraception. She smokes five cigarettes daily and occasionally smokes cannabis. On examination, she appears well, and clinically euthyroid, has a pulse of 70 bpm and blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg. Investigations show: Serum oestradiol 130 nmol/L (130-600), Serum LH 4.5 mU/L (2-20), Serum FSH 2.2 mU/L (2-20), Serum prolactin 6340 mU/L (50-450), Free T4 7.2 pmol/L (10-22), TSH 2.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactinoma
Explanation:The patient has hyperprolactinaemia with otherwise normal oestradiol, FSH and LH. This is highly suggestive of Prolactinoma rather than a non functioning tumour.
In polycystic ovaries, there is increase in the level of LH while FSH is normal or low. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 67
Incorrect
-
A 61 year old male is noted to be depressed following a recent heart attack. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease. Which antidepressant would be appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Major depression (MD) often occurs after MI and has been shown to be an independent predictor of poor cardiovascular (CV) outcome.
Results of a randomized trial confirm that the antidepressant sertraline can be used safely in patients with recent MI or unstable angina and is effective in relieving depression in these patients.
Adverse effects to note:
Sertraline – Diarrhoea (13-24%), Nausea (13-30%), Headache (20-25%),
Insomnia (12-28%)
Imipramine – ECG changes, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia
Confusion, extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), dizziness, paraesthesia, tinnitus
Flupentixol – seizures, irregular/fast heartbeat, increased sweating
Paroxetine – Hypertension, Tachycardia, Emotional lability, Pruritus
Venlafaxine – Abnormal vision (4-6%), Hypertension (2-5%), Paraesthesia (2-3%), Vasodilation (2-6%), Aneurism, Deep vein thrombophlebitis, Takotsubo cardiomyopathy -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 68
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is most commonly associated with the development of pseudomembranous colitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cefuroxime
Explanation:Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by a C. difficile infection that causes membranes to form on the colon wall. It is caused most commonly by broad-spectrum antibiotics. This would include cephalosporins, broad-spectrum penicillin, and clindamycin. Macrolides and quinolones have also been reported as potential aetiologies, but much less commonly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors in the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do not cause weight gain
Explanation:Several dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors are in clinical development; these are orally active and increase levels of active glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which in turn increases insulin secretion and reduces glucagon secretion, thereby lowering glucose levels.
Sitagliptin and vildagliptin both have a long duration of action, allowing once-daily administration. Both sitagliptin and vildagliptin are safe and tolerable with a low risk of hypoglycaemia. In drug-naïve subjects with type 2 diabetes, both sitagliptin and vildagliptin reduce A1C levels by ,1% as monotherapy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with lung cancer develops deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She is reviewed in the hospital clinic and started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). Which of the following should be the most appropriate treatment plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue on LMWH for 6 months
Explanation:Patients with active cancer are at a continuous risk of having venous thromboembolism (VTE), such as DVT. Therefore, a six-month course of an anticoagulant such as LMWH is recommended. LMWH is the drug of choice since its side effects can be reversed and it can be stopped easily in case of a cancer-related bleed, for example, massive haemoptysis in a patient with lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits the clinic and demands a CT scan of his stomach. He states it is 'obvious' he has cancer despite previous negative investigations. Which disorder is this an example of?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypochondrial disorder
Explanation:Illness anxiety disorder (IAD) is a recent term for what used to be diagnosed as hypochondriasis, or hypochondrial disorder. People diagnosed with IAD strongly believe they have a serious or life-threatening illness despite having no, or only mild, symptoms.
Symptoms of IAD may include:
-Excessive worry over having or getting a serious illness.
-Physical symptoms are not present or if present, only mild. If another illness is present, or there is a high risk for developing an illness, the person’s concern is out of proportion.
-High level of anxiety and alarm over personal health status.
-Excessive health-related behaviours (e.g., repeatedly checking body for signs of illness) or shows abnormal avoidance (e.g., avoiding doctors’ appointments and hospitals).
-Fear of illness is present for at least six months (but the specific disease that is feared may change over that time).
-Fear of illness is not due to another mental disorder. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old widow is undergoing haemodialysis for chronic renal failure. What is the most common problem that can arise in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Protein–calorie malnutrition
Explanation:Protein-calorie malnutrition is observed in almost 50% of dialysis patients, contributing to increased morbidity and mortality. All the other complications listed can usually be prevented thanks to modern-day dialysis techniques.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 75 year old man was admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnoea. He was given a five day course of Amoxicillin. On examination, his blood pressure was 89/59 mmHg with a respiratory rate of 35/min. A chest x-ray revealed left lower lobe consolidation. Past medical history: Type 2 diabetes mellitus Arterial blood gas on air: pH 7.34 pCO2 5.4 kPa pO2 9.0 kPa Which antibiotic therapy is the most suitable?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin
Explanation:CURB Pneumonia Severity Score:
– Confusion (abbreviated Mental Test Score <=8) (1 point)
– Urea (BUN > 19 mg/dL or 7 mmol/L) (1 point)
– Respiratory Rate > 30 per minute (1 point)
– Blood Pressure: diastolic < 60 or systolic < 90 mmHg (1 point) Based on the CURB Pneumonia Severity Score, the patient has severe pneumonia. According to the 2009 Centres for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) and Joint Commission consensus guidelines, inpatient treatment of pneumonia should be given within four hours of hospital admission (or in the emergency department if this is where the patient initially presented) and should consist of the following antibiotic regimens, which are also in accordance with IDSA/ATS guidelines. For non-intensive care unit (ICU) patients:
Beta-lactam (intravenous [IV] or intramuscular [IM] administration) plus macrolide (IV or oral [PO])
Beta-lactam (IV or IM) plus doxycycline (IV or PO)
Antipneumococcal quinolone monotherapy (IV or IM)If the patient is younger than 65 years with no risk factors for drug-resistant organisms, administer macrolide monotherapy (IV or PO)
For ICU patients:
IV beta-lactam plus IV macrolide
IV beta-lactam plus IV antipneumococcal quinoloneIf the patient has a documented beta-lactam allergy, administer IV antipneumococcal quinolone plus IV aztreonam.
The most suitable antibiotic therapy for this patient is therefore Intravenous co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 74
Incorrect
-
Which of the following features is not associated with an oculomotor nerve palsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Miosis
Explanation:Oculomotor nerve palsy is an eye condition resulting from damage to the third cranial nerve or a branch thereof. A complete oculomotor nerve palsy will result in a characteristic down and out position in the affected eye. This is because the lateral rectus (innervated by the sixth cranial nerve) and superior oblique (innervated by the fourth cranial or trochlear nerve), is unantagonized by the paralyzed superior rectus, inferior rectus and inferior oblique. The affected individual will also have a ptosis, or drooping of the eyelid, and mydriasis (pupil dilation), not miosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman is concerned about osteoporosis as she as a strong family history of it. She is one year postmenopausal and aware of hot flushes at night. Which one of the following therapies would be most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclical oestrogen and progestogen
Explanation:As the patient has early menopause, hormone replacement therapy (HT) is considered to be the first line of choice for prevention of bone loss and fracture in the early postmenopausal period for 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 9 year-old boy with central cyanosis underwent cardiac catheterization. His study results were given below:
- Right atrium 7 mmHg - Saturation 60 %
- Right ventricle 110/6 mmHg - Saturation 55 %
- Pulmonary artery 20/5 mmHg - Saturation 55 %
- Left atrium (mean) 9 mmHg - Saturation 98 %
- Left ventricle 110/80 mmHg - Saturation 87 %
- Aorta 110/80 mmHg - Saturation 76 %
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Based on the provided cardiac catheterization results, the following abnormalities are present in this patient:
- Central Cyanosis: The presence of central cyanosis indicates decreased oxygenation of the blood. This is likely due to an intracardiac shunt, causing unoxygenated blood to mix with oxygenated blood.
- Right-to-Left Shunt: The saturation readings in the right atrium (60%), right ventricle (55%), and pulmonary artery (55%) are all lower than the expected systemic saturation of 98%. This suggests a right-to-left shunt, allowing deoxygenated blood from the right side of the heart to enter the systemic circulation without passing through the lungs.
- Pulmonary Hypertension: The pulmonary artery pressure of 20/5 mmHg is elevated compared to normal values, indicating pulmonary hypertension. This could be secondary to increased pulmonary blood flow or resistance, often seen in the presence of a right-to-left shunt.
- Left-to-Right Shunt: Although not explicitly stated in the results, the elevated left atrial pressure (9 mmHg) suggests increased left-sided filling pressures. This could be due to increased blood flow from a left-to-right shunt, which commonly occurs in congenital heart defects.
- Normal Left Ventricular Pressure: The left ventricular pressure (110/80 mmHg) falls within normal limits, indicating that the left ventricle is not significantly affected by the shunting.
Based on these findings, a likely diagnosis would be a congenital heart defect causing a right-to-left shunt, such as Tetralogy of Fallot or Eisenmenger syndrome, resulting in central cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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Question 78
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old hairdresser presented to her GP complaining of tingling in the right palm and right wrist pain. She had intermittently experienced these symptoms; however, recently they had been keeping her awake all night. She had noticed a reduction in grip and was struggling to work at the salon. Otherwise, she felt well in herself and had not noticed any weakness in the other hand or lower limb. Her weight was stable, and she denied any neck problems or swallowing difficulties. She had a past medical history of hypothyroidism and hypertension and took regular thyroxine, Bendroflumethiazide and ibuprofen. She was a non-smoker and rarely drank alcohol. On examination, she appeared alert and orientated. Fundoscopy and cranial nerve examination were all normal and neck movements were full. On examination of the upper limb, there was wasting over the right thenar eminence and fasciculations with a small burn over the right index finger. There was weakness of thumb abduction and opposition, with loss of pinprick and light touch sensation over the thumb, index and middle finger in the right hand. Nerve conduction studies showed absent sensory action potential in right median palmar branches and denervation of the right abductor pollicis brevis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median nerve palsy
Explanation:The history is consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) arising as a result of pressure on the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. The median nerve supplies the muscles of the thenar eminence: the abductor pollicis (C7, C8), flexor pollicis brevis and opponens pollicis, and the lateral two lumbricals. The nerve conduction studies confirm marked denervation and absent sensory potentials within the median nerve territory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 79
Incorrect
-
A non-cyanosed 1-year-old female patient has a continuous murmur which is loudest at the left sternal edge. What pulse abnormality is most associated with patent ductus arteriosus if that's her suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Collapsing pulse
Explanation:DIAGNOSIS:
A consensus definition for hemodynamically significant PDA is lacking. The diagnosis is often suspected clinically, when an infant demonstrates signs of excessive shunting from the arterial to pulmonary circulation. Continuous or a systolic murmur; note, a “silent” PDA may also occur when the ductus shunt is large enough that nonturbulent flow fails to generate a detectible murmur.
A low diastolic blood pressure (due to runoff into the ductus during diastole, more frequent in the most premature infants).
A wide pulse pressure (due to ductus runoff or steal)Hypotension (especially in the most premature infants)
Bounding pulses
Increased serum creatinine concentration or oliguria
Hepatomegaly -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 80
Incorrect
-
A 48 year old male patient presents with fever and signs of delirium. A few hours ago, blisters appeared on his trunk. His past history revealed nothing serious and he's not on any medication. He admits that he went to Italy five months ago on vacation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chicken pox
Explanation:Chicken pox in adults may manifest with acute encephalitis, causing the confusional syndrome known as delirium. Blisters on the trunk favour the diagnosis. The trip to Italy however seems unimportant since the incubation period of chicken pox is 10 to 21 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 81
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes and chronic kidney disease attends for review. His blood tests show: Haemoglobin 11.2 g/dl (13.0 – 18.0 g/dL) MCV 87 fl (80 – 96 fL) Sodium 133 mmol/l (137 – 144 mmol/L) Potassium 4.3 mmol/l (3.5 – 4.9 mmol/L) Urea 19.1 mmol/l (2.5 – 7.5 mmol/L) Creatinine 267 μmol/l (60 – 110 μmol/L) Ferritin 150 μg/l (15 – 300 μg/L) C reactive protein <5 mg/l (< 10 mg/L) What is the most appropriate management of his anaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monitor haemoglobin, no treatment required at present
Explanation:Because the patient has chronic kidney disease, we need to consider the associated adverse effects of trying to maintain normal haemoglobin levels (14-18g/dl in this patient) and instead only instigate therapy when the level falls below 11 g/dl. Thus, in this case we should just monitor the haemoglobin levels and not initiate therapy just yet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 82
Incorrect
-
Regarding the pathophysiology of diabetes mellitus, which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Concordance between identical twins is higher in type 2 diabetes mellitus than type 1
Explanation:Type 1 diabetes is a chronic illness characterized by the body’s inability to produce insulin due to the autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas. Approximately 95% of patients with type 1 DM have either HLA-DR3 or HLA-DR4. Although the genetic aspect of type 1 DM is complex, with multiple genes involved, there is a high sibling relative risk. Whereas dizygotic twins have a 5-6% concordance rate for type 1 DM, monozygotic twins will share this diagnosis more than 50% of the time by the age of 40 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 83
Incorrect
-
A 37-year-old teacher with multiple sclerosis complains that her vision becomes blurred during a hot bath. Which of the following explain this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uhthoff's phenomenon
Explanation:Uhthoff’s phenomenon is worsening of vision following a rise in body temperature.
Lhermitte’s sign describes paraesthesia in the limbs on neck flexion.
Oppenheim’s sign is seen when scratching of the inner side of leg leads to extension of the toes. It is a sign of cerebral irritation and is not related to multiple sclerosis.
Werdnig-Hoffman’s disease is also known as spinal muscular atrophy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 84
Incorrect
-
A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her face. Some of the blisters are crusted and some are weeping. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impetigo
Explanation:Impetigo appears more commonly on the face than other exposed areas like the limbs. Its blisters are clustered and may have a fluid discharge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 85
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and breathing difficulty. He also complains of a continuous ringing sensation in both his ears for the past couple of days. He admits to consuming a lot of over the counter painkillers for the past few days. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:The presence of tinnitus, fever and hyperventilation are clues for aspirin (salicylate) toxicity.
Clinical Presentation of salicylate toxicity can include:
• Pulmonary manifestations include: Hyperventilation, hyperpnea, severe dyspnoea due to noncardiogenic pulmonary oedema, fever and dyspnoea due to aspiration pneumonitis
• Auditory symptoms caused by the ototoxicity of salicylate poisoning include: Hard of hearing and deafness, and tinnitus (commonly encountered when serum salicylate concentrations exceed 30 mg/dL).
• Cardiovascular manifestations include: Tachycardia, hypotension, dysrhythmias – E.g., ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, multiple premature ventricular contractions, asystole – with severe intoxication, Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities – E.g., U waves, flattened T waves, QT prolongation may reflect hypokalaemia.
• Neurologic manifestations include: CNS depression, with manifestations ranging from somnolence and lethargy to seizures and coma, tremors, blurring of vision, seizures, cerebral oedema – With severe intoxication, encephalopathy
• GI manifestations include: Nausea and vomiting, which are very common with acute toxicity, epigastric pain, GI haemorrhage – More common with chronic intoxication, intestinal perforation, pancreatitis, hepatitis – Generally in chronic toxicity; rare in acute toxicity, Oesophageal strictures – Reported as a very rare delayed complication
• Genitourinary manifestations include: Acute kidney injury (NSAID induced Nephropathy) is an uncommon complication of salicylate toxicity, renal failure may be secondary to multisystem organ failure.
• Hematologic effects may include prolongation of the prothrombin and bleeding times and decreased platelet adhesiveness. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be noted with multisystem organ failure in association with chronic salicylate toxicity.
• Electrolyte imbalances like: Dehydration, hypocalcaemia, acidaemia, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), hypokalaemia
Management of these patients should be done in the following manner:
• Secure Airway, Breathing, and Circulation
• Supportive therapy
• GI decontamination
• Urinary excretion and alkalization
• Haemodialysis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 86
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa pain, nausea and loss of appetite. You suspect that she has acute appendicitis. Which scoring system could you use to lend support to your diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alvarado score
Explanation:The prompt is suggestive of acute appendicitis. The Alvarado score is a clinical scoring system used to determine the likelihood of appendicitis, so this is the correct answer. A score greater than 6 is generally considered at risk for having acute appendicitis. It has 8 different criteria included (symptoms, signs, and lab results) and divides patients into appendicitis unlikely, possible, probable, and definite. The Center Score is a score to access the likelihood that pharyngitis is due to Strep. The Child-Pugh score predicts prognosis in liver cirrhosis. The Glasgow score is two different scores– the Glasgow coma score in trauma, which estimates level of consciousness, essentially, and The Glasgow Imrie Criteria which determines the severity of acute pancreatitis based on 8 lab values. The MELD score predicts the severity of end-stage liver disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 87
Incorrect
-
A gentleman arrives at the renal clinic for review. He has longstanding chronic renal failure and is unfortunately suffering from metabolic bone disease. His GP has asked for an explanation of the causes and features of metabolic bone disease. Which of the following best describes the biochemical changes involved?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phosphate excretion is decreased, parathyroid hormone levels are increased and 1,25-OH vitamin D levels are decreased
Explanation:The patient’s chronic renal failure causes decreased renal hydroxylation of vitamin D which leads to decreased calcium absorption in the gut. Simultaneously, there is also decreased renal excretion of phosphate, and this combination of factors results in increased PTH levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man has presented to the clinic with a complaint of disturbed sleep. The physician has prescribed temazepam. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enhances the effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid
Explanation:Temazepam is an orally available benzodiazepine used in the therapy of insomnia.
The soporific activity of the benzodiazepines is mediated by their ability to enhance gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) mediated inhibition of synaptic transmission through binding to the GABA-A receptor.
The recommended initial dose for insomnia is 7.5 mg before bedtime, increasing as needed to a maximum dose of 30 mg.The most common side effects of temazepam are dose-related and include daytime drowsiness, lethargy, ataxia, dysarthria, and dizziness.
Tolerance develops to these side effects, but tolerance may also develop to the effects on insomnia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 89
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old gentleman presents to the A&E department complaining of a sudden-onset occipital headache associated with vomiting. His symptoms started 2 hours previously and are continuing. He has a previous history of infrequent migraine without aura, which also causes nausea but not vomiting. He rated his current headache as much more severe than his usual migraine. Examination is unremarkable. In particular, there is no neck stiffness or photophobia. Which of the following management options would be the most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT brain scan, followed by lumbar puncture if CT normal
Explanation:The patient presented with sudden-onset headache that is more painful than his usual migraine attacks. This gives a high suspicion of subarachnoid haemorrhage; thus, a CT brain scan should be ordered first to rule this out. However, a normal CT scan is apparent in 30% of patients with subarachnoid haemorrhage and should be referred for lumbar puncture to look for red blood cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 90
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man develops central abdominal pain a few hours after having an Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) performed. Investigations reveal the following: Amylase: 545 u/dL, Erect chest x-ray: Normal heart and lungs and no free air noted. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous fluids + analgesia
Explanation:A very common complication after ERCP is post-ERCP pancreatitis, which based on the clinical scenario , this man has. The treatment for this is pain control, lots of intravenous fluids, and traditionally bowel rest, although more recent evidence suggests early feeding is better.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 91
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She comes from a family of Jehovah's Witnesses. Her haemoglobin on admission is 6.7 g/dl. She consents to a blood transfusion but her mother refuses. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give the blood transfusion
Explanation:People aged 16 or over are entitled to consent to their own treatment. This can only be overruled in exceptional circumstances. Children under the age of 16 can consent to their own treatment if they’re believed to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what’s involved in their treatment. This is known as being Gillick competent.
Otherwise, someone with parental responsibility can consent for them.
This could be:
the child’s mother or father
the child’s legally appointed guardian
a person with a residence order concerning the child
a local authority designated to care for the child
a local authority or person with an emergency protection order for the child.
Giving the blood transfusion is therefore both clinically and ethically the right course of action.
Jehovah’s Witnesses frequently carry a signed and witnessed Advance Decision Document listing the blood products and autologous procedures that are, or are not, acceptable to them It is appropriate to have a frank, confidential discussion with the patient about the potential risks of their decision and the possible alternatives to transfusion, but the freely expressed wish of a competent adult must always be respected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 92
Incorrect
-
A 23 year old female is admitted with acute severe asthma. Treatment is initiated with 100% oxygen, nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers and IV hydrocortisone. There is no improvement despite initial treatment. What is the next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV magnesium sulphate
Explanation:A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate is safe and may improve lung function and reduce intubation rates in patients with acute severe asthma. Intravenous magnesium sulphate may also reduce hospital admissions in adults with acute asthma who have had little or no response to standard treatment.
Consider giving a single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate to patients with acute severe asthma (PEF <50% best or predicted) who have not had a good initial response to inhaled bronchodilator therapy. Magnesium sulphate (1.2–2 g IV infusion over 20 minutes) should only be used following consultation with senior medical staff.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Her GP decides to start her on etanercept injections. Which one among the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of etanercept?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactivation of tuberculosis
Explanation:Among the give options, reactivation of tuberculosis may occur in a patient under treatment with etanercept.
Etanercept is a biological TNF inhibit commonly used to control ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, plaque psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis.
Etanercept is a soluble receptor that binds both TNF-alpha and TNF-beta to inhibit the inflammatory response in joints and skin that is characteristic of these autoimmune disorders.
The most common adverse effects include infections (viral, bacterial, and fungal – mostly upper respiratory tract infections) and injection site reaction (erythema, itching, pain, swelling, bleeding, bruising).
Rarely it can also cause, reactivation of hepatitis B and TB, pneumocystis pneumonia, congestive cardiac failure, Steven-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, etc. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 94
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase in B2-microglobulin levels
Explanation:The immunological changes in HIV include depletion in CD4+ T cell, cytokine dysregulation and immune dysfunction. The dominant immunologic feature of HIV infection is progressive depletion of the helper T cell (CD4+ T cell), which reverses the normal CD4:CD8 ratio and subsequently lead to immunodeficiency. Other imuunological changes include:
increased B2-microglobulin
decreased IL-2 production
polyclonal B-cell activation
decreased NK cell function
reduced delayed hypersensitivity responses -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 95
Incorrect
-
A woman is prescribed docetaxel as part of her chemotherapy for breast cancer. What is the mechanism of action of docetaxel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevents microtubule disassembly
Explanation:The principal mechanism of action of taxanes (e.g. docetaxel) is the prevention of microtubule disassembly.
Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:
1. Doxorubicin: stabilizes DNA topoisomerase II complex and inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis.
2. Vincristine, vinblastine: inhibits formation of microtubules.
3. Cisplatin: causes cross-linking in DNA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 96
Incorrect
-
Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21 year old student who has ankylosing spondylitis and complains of worsening back pain and morning stiffness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral NSAIDs
Explanation:NSAIDs are considered as the first line of treatment for managing pain and stiffness associated with ankylosing spondylitis. Other useful medications include TNF-alpha inhibitors. Other drugs like paracetamol, colchicine, and steroids are not routinely used. Bilateral total hip replacement might be indicated in advanced disease contrary to complicated spinal surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 97
Incorrect
-
According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Class Ib agent
Explanation:Lidocaine is an example of class IB antiarrhythmics.
The Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmics
I: Membrane stabilizing agents
IA: Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide
IB: Lidocaine, Mexiletine
IC: Propafenone, Flecainide
II: β blockers – Propranolol, Esmolol
III: Agents widening AP – Amiodarone, Dronedarone, Dofetilide, Ibutilide, Sotalol
IV: Calcium channel blockers – Verapamil, Diltiazem
V: Miscellaneous – Digoxin, adenosine, magnesium -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 98
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old woman is admitted with general deterioration and ‘off-legs’. On examination in the emergency department, she looks dry and uremic. Investigations reveal:
- K+ 7.2 mmol/L
- Na+ 145 mmol/L
- Creatinine 512 μmol/L
- Urea 36.8 mmol/L
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ECG & IV Calcium gluconate bolus
Explanation:First and foremost, the patient should be put on ECG monitoring to identify the cardiac state, and because of the markedly raised serum potassium, a calcium gluconate bolus will have the immediate effect of moderating the nerve and muscle performance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 99
Incorrect
-
A 76-year-old retired store owner presents with severe pain around his right eye and vomiting. On examination, the right eye is red and decreased visual acuity is noted. Which of the following options is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical pilocarpine + intravenous acetazolamide
Explanation:In acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) there is a rise in IOP secondary to an impairment of aqueous outflow. Management options include reducing aqueous secretions with acetazolamide and inducing pupillary constriction with topical pilocarpine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 100
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following responses is the least likely to be associated with primary pulmonary hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recurrent pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Connective-tissue diseases, liver cirrhosis, exposure to anorexigens and likely other alpha-adrenergic stimulants [e.g., cocaine, amphetamines] and HIV infection are associated with primary pulmonary hypertension. Recurrent pulmonary emboli, chronic lung diseases, left heart diseases are causes for secondary pulmonary hypertension. Pulmonary vascular hypertension after use of fenfluramine is rarely reported.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 101
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man wants to start a relationship but is concerned about his small phallus. He also has difficulty becoming aroused. On examination, he is slim and has gynecomastia. There is a general paucity of body hair, his penis and testes are small. Which diagnosis fits best with this history and examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Klinefelter’s syndrome
Explanation:The patient most likely has Klinefelter’s syndrome.
Klinefelter syndrome (KS) refers to a group of chromosomal disorders in which the normal male karyotype, 46,XY, has at least one extra X chromosome. XXY aneuploidy, the most common human sex chromosome disorder. It is also the most common chromosomal disorder associated with male hypogonadism and infertility.
Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia), gynecomastia in late puberty, hyalinization and fibrosis of the seminiferous tubules, elevated urinary gonadotropin levels, and behavioural concerns. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 102
Incorrect
-
A 73-year-old female is being reviewed in the osteoporosis clinic. She had a fracture of her left hip 5 years ago and was started on alendronate. Following the development of persistent musculoskeletal pain, alendronate was replaced with risedronate, which was also stopped for similar reasons. Strontium ranelate was therefore started but was also stopped due to the development of deep vein thrombosis in the right leg. Her current T-score is -4.1. A decision is made to start a trial of denosumab. What is the mechanism of action of denosumab?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits RANK ligand, which in turn inhibits the maturation of osteoclasts
Explanation:The principal mechanism by which strontium inhibits osteoclast activity is by enhancing the secretion of osteoprotegerin (OPG) and by reducing the expression of the receptor activator of nuclear factor κB ligand (RANKL) in osteoblasts.
Osteoporosis is defined as low bone mineral density caused by altered bone microstructure ultimately predisposing patients to low-impact, fragility fractures.
Management:
Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be offered to all women unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D replete
Alendronate is the first-line treatment. Around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems. These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate.
Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates.
Other medications that are useful in the treatment of osteoporosis are denosumab, teriparatide, raloxifene, etc. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 103
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old man is found collapsed in the street and is brought to the A&E. The results from the blood tests reveal Calcium = 1.62mmol/l and Albumin = 33g/l. The man is known to have a history of alcoholic liver disease. Which of the following is the best management regarding his calcium levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minutes
Explanation:Acute, symptomatic hypocalcaemia is treated with 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minutes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 104
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission worldwide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perinatal transmission
Explanation:Perinatal transmission is the most common cause of Hepatitis B infection worldwide. Post-exposure prophylaxis should be provided, which consists of hepatitis B immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hours of birth. Without this, about 40% will develop chronic infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 105
Incorrect
-
A 25 year old female presented with blisters on the tongue. Some of them secreted pinkish fluid while some were crusted. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HSV1
Explanation:The history is suggestive of acute gingivostomatitis, which is a manifestation of primary HSV-1 infection. Patients present with gingivitis and vesicular lesions which develop on the oral mucosa, tongue, and lips and later rupture and coalesce, leaving ulcerated plaques.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 106
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old gentleman with a history of alcohol excess presents to hospital with progressive abdominal distension. He now complains of early satiety and abdominal discomfort as a result of the distension. Examination reveals a significantly distended abdomen with shifting dullness. A diagnostic ascitic tap is performed and the fluid sent for analysis. What is the most appropriate first line treatment for his ascites?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracentesis
Explanation:The first line treatment for ascites that is symptomatic is paracentesis. If it is not symptomatic, treatment could be with salt and fluid restriction as well as spironolactone. If spironolactone maximum dosage is reached, you can use furosemide additionally. Amiloride is not a diuretic that is recommended in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 107
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes presents with vomiting and diarrhoea after eating a meal of chicken and chips. She said her stool had small amounts of blood in. Campylobacter Jejuni was found on her stool culture exam. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV fluids
Explanation:Campylobacter is the most likely cause of diarrheal illness often due to undercooked meat being ingested. It is also a major cause of traveller’s diarrhoea. Sufficient fluid replacement and anti-emetics are indicated first followed by the antibiotic, Erythromycin although antibiotic treatment in adults is still in question. Ciprofloxacin and Tetracycline may also be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 108
Incorrect
-
An 12 year old girl is taken to the clinic for a review. Despite being normally fit and well and not visiting a doctor for the past four years, her father is concerned about her behaviour in the past week. The girl has expressed plans to run for president, is active with planning all through the night and seems overtly excited. When asked, she admits to smoking cannabis once a few months ago and has drank alcohol a few times in the past year. The last time she had alcohol was a week ago. Prior to her deterioration a few weeks ago her father describes her as a happy, well-adjusted, sociable girl. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mania
Explanation:Mania is a state of extreme physical and emotional elation. A person experiencing mania or a manic episode may present with the following symptoms:
-Elevated mood. The person feels extremely ‘high’, happy and full of energy; he or she may describe the experience as feeling on top of the world and invincible. The person may shift rapidly from an elevated,
happy mood to being angry and irritable if they perceive they have been obstructed.
-Increased energy and overactivity. The person may have great difficulty remaining still.
-Reduced need for sleep or food. The person may be too active to eat or sleep.
-Irritability. The person may become angry and irritated with those who disagree with or dismiss his or her sometimes unrealistic plans or ideas.
-Rapid thinking and speech. The person’s thoughts and speech are more rapid than usual.
-Grandiose plans and beliefs. It is quite common for a person in a hypomanic or manic state to believe that he or she is unusually talented or gifted or has special friends in power. For example, the person may believe that he or she is on a special mission from God.
-Lack of insight. A person in a hypomanic or manic state may understand that other people see his or her ideas and actions as inappropriate, reckless or irrational. However, he or she is unlikely to personally accept that the behaviour is inappropriate, due to a lack of insight.
– Distractibility. The person has difficulty maintaining attention and may not be able to filter out external stimuli.Careful assessment to rule out organic conditions is an important first step in the management of mania. Often hospitalisation is required for someone who is experiencing acute mania. Both mood-stabilising agents such as lithium carbonate or sodium valproate and an antipsychotic may be needed to treat psychotic symptoms, agitation, thought disorder and sleeping difficulties. Benzodiazepines may be useful to reduce hyperactivity. Treatment with lithium alone may have a relatively slow response rate (up to two weeks after a therapeutic blood level is established), so that adjunctive medication such as sodium valproate is usually required. Regular monitoring of blood levels for lithium and valproate is essential because of the potential for toxicity.
The symptoms of hypomania are similar to those of mania: elevated mood, inflated self-esteem, decreased need for sleep, etc. except that they don’t significantly impact a person’s daily function and never include any psychotic symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 109
Incorrect
-
Which of the following physical findings is least typical on a patient with multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased tone
Explanation:Attacks or exacerbations of multiple sclerosis (MS) are characterized by symptoms that reflect central nervous system (CNS) involvement, hence upper motor neuron symptoms are seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 110
Incorrect
-
A 28 yr. old male was admitted with palpitations and chest discomfort for the past 1 hour. On examination his pulse rate was 200 bpm and blood pressure was 80/50 mmHg. His ECG revealed narrow complex tachycardia with a heart rate of 200 bpm. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Synchronised DC synchronised cardioversion
Explanation:Narrow complex tachycardia with hypotension is a medical emergency. Immediate synchronized cardioversion is the ideal management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 111
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old gentleman presents with symptoms of nocturia and difficulty in passing urine. He is not known to have any previous prostatic problems and denies any dysuria. Following a digital rectal examination, he is started on Finasteride and Tamsulosin. Three months later he presents to the emergency department with urinary retention and is catheterized, and a craggy mass is felt on rectal examination. He is referred to a urologist, and a prostatic ultrasound and needle biopsy are arranged, and prostate serum antigen (PSA) is requested. Which of the following factors is most likely to give a false negative PSA?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Finasteride
Explanation:Finasteride is often prescribed for patients with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) or enlarged prostate. However, it has been known to cause a decrease in Prostatic Specific Antigen (PSA) levels in patients with BPH, which may lead to false negatives in a case like this, where a palpable mass has been detected and malignancy is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 112
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward in an unconscious state. She appears to have an acute lower respiratory tract infection. After consulting with an anaesthesiologist it was concluded that she was not a candidate for intensive care unit admission and thus, a decision was made to start the patient on doxapram therapy. Which of the following best fits the characteristics of doxapram?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism
Explanation:The two statements that fit the characteristics of doxapram are, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use and concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation.
Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.
Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:
Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 113
Incorrect
-
A 62-year-old man presents with haematuria. Cystoscopy is carried out which reveals transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder. Occupational exposure to which of the following is a recognised risk factor for bladder cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aniline dye
Explanation:The risk factors for bladder cancer are:
1. Smoking
2. Exposure to aniline dyes in the printing and textile industry
3. Exposure to rubber manufacturing
4. Cyclophosphamides
5. Schistosomiasis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 114
Incorrect
-
A 35 year old soldier presented with a painless, erythematous crusted plaque over the dorsum of his hand, after serving in a hilly area of Columbia for 2 months. The most likely diagnosis will be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leishmaniasis
Explanation:The chief presentation in Leishmaniasis is a non healing, ulcerated, painless and non pruritic plaque, which does not respond to oral antibiotics. It can be classified into cutaneous and visceral forms and is caused by the sand fly. It is more prevalent in the hilly areas. Fusobacterium causes a tropical ulcer which is painful and shallow, while Troanasomiasis causes sleeping sickness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 115
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old real estate broker presents with a tremor. Which one of the following features would suggest a diagnosis of essential tremor rather than Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tremor is worse when the arms are outstretched
Explanation:Difficulty in initiating movement (bradykinesia), postural instability and unilateral symptoms (initially) are typical of Parkinson’s. Essential tremor symptoms are usually worse if arms are outstretched and eased by rest and alcohol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 116
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old gentleman gives a two week history of progressive lethargy and weakness. Eight weeks previously, he was treated for hypertensive heart failure with 120 mg furosemide and 5 mg enalapril daily. His haemoglobin at the time was 12.0, urea 14.2 mmol/l and creatinine 298 μmol/l. His blood pressure in clinic was 148/85 mmHg. His blood results are shown below: Hb 10.2g/dL, MCV 89.2 fl WCC 4.9 x 109/L, Plats 175 x 109/L, Na+ 135 K+ 5.2 mmol/L, Urea 25.2 mmol/L, Creat 600 μmol/L, Assuming that he is not volume overloaded, what would be the most appropriate action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: stop the enalapril and furosemide
Explanation:The patient presents with worsened renal condition from the last consultation when he was started on enalapril (an ACE inhibitor) so this medication should be stopped. Because there is also no fluid overload; furosemide, a diuretic, should also be stopped.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 117
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic. Which among the following is true regarding memantine, a drug which has been approved for the management of dementia in the UK?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is an NMDA-receptor agonist
Explanation:Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA (N-Methyl-D-Aspartate)-receptor subtype of glutamate receptor. It is used to slow the neurotoxicity thought to be involved in Alzheimer’s disease and other neurodegenerative diseases.
Drug interactions:
When given concomitantly with other NMDA-receptor antagonists (e.g., ketamine, amantadine) increase the risk of psychosis.
Dopamine agonists, L-dopa, and anticholinergics enhance effects of memantine.
Antispasmodics (e.g., baclofen) enhance effects, as memantine has some antispasmodic effects.
Drugs excreted by cationic transporters in the kidney (e.g. quinine, cimetidine, ranitidine) reduce excretion.Common adverse effects include dizziness, headache, confusion, diarrhoea, and constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 118
Incorrect
-
A 23 year old female presents to the hospital with worsening shortness of breath, increased volume of purulent sputum and left-sided chest pain. She has a history of cystic fibrosis. Medical notes state that she is under consideration for the transplant list and for some years has been colonised with pseudomonas. On examination she has a temperature of 38.4°C and FEV1 falling below 75% of the previous value that was recorded. She looks unwell and is tachycardic and hypotensive with a respiratory rate of 21/min. Burkholderia cepacia is confirmed as the pathogen in this case. What would be the most appropriate antibiotic regime?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ceftazidime and aminoglycoside
Explanation:Burkholderia cepacia is an aerobic gram-negative bacillus found in various aquatic environments. B cepacia is an organism of low virulence and is a frequent colonizer of fluids used in the hospital (e.g., irrigation solutions, intravenous fluids).
B cepacia, as a non-aeruginosa pseudomonad, is usually resistant to aminoglycosides, antipseudomonal penicillin, and antipseudomonal third-generation cephalosporins and polymyxin B.
B cepacia is often susceptible to trimethoprim plus sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), cefepime, meropenem, minocycline, and tigecycline and has varying susceptibility to fluoroquinolones.
Based on the options available, ceftazidime and aminoglycoside would be the best option. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 119
Incorrect
-
A 60 yr. old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) who is on warfarin, is awaiting tooth extraction. His latest INR 2 weeks ago was 2.7 and his target INR is 2.0-3.0. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check INR 72 hours before procedure, proceed if INR < 3.5
Explanation:The latest research recommends that simple tooth extraction in patients on warfarin treatment can be performed safely without high risk of bleeding, providing that the INR is equal to or less than 3.5 on the day of extraction. A close follow-up and monitoring of patients taking warfarin is mandatory after dental extraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 120
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old man complains of impotence and reduced libido for 4 months. He has been married for 15 years and has two children. He smokes five cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 12 units of alcohol weekly. Examination reveals an obese man who is phenotypically normal with normal secondary sexual characteristics. Investigations are as follows: Hb 13.4 g/dl (13.0-18.0), WCC 6 x 109/l (4-11), Platelets 210 x 109/l (150-400), Electrolytes Normal, Fasting glucose 5.6 mmol/l (3.0-6.0), LFTs Normal, T4 12.7 pmol/l (10-22), TSH 2.1 mU/l (0.4-5), Prolactin 259 mU/l (<450), Testosterone 6.6 nmol/l (9-30), LH 23.7 mU/l (4-8), FSH 18.1 mU/l (4-10). What is the next investigation needed for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound examination of the testes
Explanation:The patient has primary Hypogonadism.
Since he already had two children, Klinefelter syndrome is excluded and the patient does not need karyotyping.
His lab results are normal indicating normal pituitary gland functions.
So the next step is testicular ultrasound as testicular tumour, infiltration or idiopathic failure is suspected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 121
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the most useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B2-microglobulin
Explanation:B2-microglobulin is a useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma (MM). Raised levels imply a poorer prognosis. Low levels of albumin are also associated with a poor prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 122
Incorrect
-
A study is developed to assess a new mandible advancement device designed to reduce snoring. A 10 point scale was used to assess the severity of snoring before and after applying of the device by the respective partner. The number of the people involved in the study was 50. What test would you apply in this particular study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test
Explanation:Steps required in performing the Wilcoxon signed rank test:
1 State the null hypothesis and, in particular, the hypothesized value for comparison
2 Rank all observations in increasing order of magnitude, ignoring their sign. Ignore any observations that are equal to the hypothesized value. If two observations have the same magnitude, regardless of sign, then they are given an average ranking
3 Allocate a sign (+ or -) to each observation according to whether it is greater or less than the hypothesized value (as in the sign test)
4 Calculate:
R+ = sum of all positive ranks
R- = sum of all negative ranks
R = smaller of R+ and R-
5 Calculate an appropriate P value What makes this test the most appropriate for this study is that the data is non-parametric, paired and comes from the same population. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 123
Incorrect
-
A 76-year-old man has been admitted with a respiratory tract infection. On examination, he was found to be confused and dyspnoeic with O2 saturation of 88%. He has a 60 pack-year smoking history. An arterial blood gas analysis reveals CO2 retention. He has been deemed unfit for admission into the intensive care unit. The physician elects to begin a doxapram infusion. Among the following statements which best fits with the characteristics of doxapram?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use
Explanation:The statement that fits the characteristics of doxapram is, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use. Concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation not relaxation.
Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.
Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:
Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 124
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man presents with haematemesis. His consumption of alcohol has been estimated to be 120 units per week. Following alcohol withdrawal, when is the peak incidence of seizures expected in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 36 hours
Explanation:The peak incidence of seizures is expected 36 hours following the onset of alcohol withdrawal.
Pathophysiology:
Chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA mediated inhibition in the CNS (similar to benzodiazepines) and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. Alcohol withdrawal is thought to lead to the opposite (decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission).Clinical course in alcohol withdrawal:
Symptoms begin 6-12 hours following the onset of alcohol withdrawal
Seizures occur 36 hours following the onset of withdrawal
Delirium tremens (coarse tremor, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, tachycardia) occurs approximately 72 hours after the onset of alcohol withdrawal.Management
First-line: benzodiazepines e.g. lorazepam, chlordiazepoxide.
Carbamazepine is also effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.
Phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 125
Incorrect
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In idiopathic hypercalciuria, what management should be initiated if there is renal stone disease or bone demineralization?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dietary modification and thiazide diuretics
Explanation:Idiopathic hypercalciuria presents with excess calcium in the urine without an apparent cause. Dietary modification is the first step in addressing this condition, however, because hypercalciuria increases the risk of developing renal stones and bone demineralisation, thiazide diuretics should be prescribed to increase calcium reabsorption when these symptoms are also present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 126
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man is investigated for cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsy reveals nodular sclerosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Which one of the following factors is associated with a poor prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Night sweats
Explanation:Night sweats are a B symptom in Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and imply a poor prognosis.
HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.
Staging of HL is done according to the Ann Arbor staging system:
Stage
I: Single lymph node region (I) or one extra lymphatic site (IE)II: Two or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (II) or local extra lymphatic extension plus one or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (IIE)
III: Lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) which may be accompanied by local extra lymphatic extension (IIIE)
IV: Diffuse involvement of one or more extra lymphatic organs or sites
Suffix
A: No B symptomsB: Presence of at least one of the following: unexplained weight loss >10% baseline during 6 months before staging; recurrent unexplained fever >38°C; recurrent night sweats—poor prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 127
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man with type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic with his wife. He is limping and his wife noticed that his ankle was abnormally-shaped after he stepped out of the shower. Examination of his right ankle reveals a painless warm swollen joint. There is crepitus and what appears to be palpable bone debris. X-ray reveals gross joint destruction and apparent dislocation. Joint aspiration fluid shows no microbes. Investigations: His CRP and white count are of normal values. Historical review of HB A1c reveals that it has rarely been below 9%. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charcot’s ankle
Explanation:Charcot arthropathy is a progressive condition of the musculoskeletal system that is characterized by joint dislocations, pathologic fractures, and debilitating deformities. It results in progressive destruction of bone and soft tissues at weight-bearing joints. In its most severe form, it may cause significant disruption of the bony architecture.
Charcot arthropathy can occur at any joint; however, it occurs most commonly in the lower extremity, at the foot and ankle. Diabetes is now considered to be the most common aetiology of Charcot arthropathy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 128
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old butcher presents with a six month history of a gradually increasing burning sensation in his feet. Examination reveals normal cranial nerves and higher mental function. He has normal bulk, tone, power, light touch, pinprick sensation, co-ordination and reflexes in upper and lower limbs. These clinical findings are consistent with which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small fibre sensory neuropathy
Explanation:The burning sensation described is typical of a neuropathy affecting the small unmyelinated and thinly myelinated nerve fibres. General neurological examination and reflexes are usually normal in this type of neuropathy unless there is coexisting large (myelinated) fibre involvement. Neuropathy affecting the large myelinated sensory fibres generally causes glove and stocking sensory loss and loss of reflexes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 129
Incorrect
-
A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain and left sided knee and ankle pain that has persisted for about two weeks. He recently returned from a trip to Thailand that last for two weeks. The patient admits to having unprotected sex while on holiday. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness of tendons around joints but no inflammation of the joints. A vesiculopustular skin rash is also observed. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gonococcal arthritis
Explanation:Patients with disseminated gonococcal arthritis may present with dermatitis-arthritis syndrome (60%) of with localized septic arthritis. (40%). Arthritis-dermatitis syndrome includes the classic triad of dermatitis, tenosynovitis, and migratory polyarthritis. Gout usually involves a singe joint and does not cause vesicopustular skin rash. Reactive arthritis has ocular symptoms (conjunctivitis), urethritis, and arthritis. Fungal arthritis occurs rarely and it may occur after a surgical infection or fungal spread hematogenously. it presents with tender, red, hot and swollen joint with loss of range of motion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 130
Incorrect
-
A 65 yr. old male patient presented with acute severe central chest pain for one hour. His ECG confirmed the diagnosis of acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and he was treated with thrombolysis. Two days later he developed sudden onset breathlessness and became unwell. On examination he had bibasal crepitation and a systolic murmur at the apex which radiated to the axilla. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ruptured papillary muscle
Explanation:The most likely cause for acute breathlessness is due to papillary muscle rupture which causes mitral regurgitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 131
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state after an episode of seizure on the street. Her husband who accompanied her into the ER reported that they argued about 6-7 hours ago. On examination, she is found to be hypertonic with a GCS of 8, BP: 90/60 mmHg and a pulse of 105 bpm. Blood investigations revealed a lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L. She was intubated and ventilated. Which of the following are the TWO interventions which are most appropriate in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric lavage should be considered
Explanation:Among the above statements, gastric lavage and normal saline IV infusion are the two appropriate interventions for a patient of acute lithium toxicity.
Activated charcoal is not effective after lithium overdose, although gastric lavage should be considered if patients present within 6–8 h.
Where levels are above 3 mmol/l, the use of normal saline to induce diuresis should be considered, although careful monitoring of fluid balance is necessary.
Where levels of lithium are above 4 mmol/l, dialysis is often required. Haemodialysis is preferred, but in a facility where haemodialysis is not possible, peritoneal dialysis may be considered.
Patients should not be discharged until they are asymptomatic and have a serum lithium level less than 1.5 mEq/L. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male with a history of premature cardiovascular disease in the family has come for review of his lab investigations. His fasting cholesterol is 8.4 mmol/l with high-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 1.6 mmol/l. You elect to commence him on atorvastatin 20 mg PO daily. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the statins?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They inhibit HMG CoA reductase
Explanation:Statins are a selective, competitive inhibitor of hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate in the cholesterol synthesis pathway.
Statins are usually well tolerated with myopathy, rhabdomyolysis, hepatotoxicity, and diabetes mellitus being the most common adverse reactions.
This is the rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis, that leads to increased hepatic low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors and reduced hepatic VLDL synthesis coupled with increased very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) clearance. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 133
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old lady, known with a history of Type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with increasing tiredness, mild upper abdominal discomfort and itching. The GP has arranged some investigations prior to her clinic visit. Investigations; Hb 13.2 g/dL, WCC 5.0 x109/L, PLT 240 x109/L, Na+ 140 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 90 μmol/L, HbA1c 8.3%, Anti-Smooth muscle antibody: positive, Immunoglobulins increased. Which of the following would be the next appropriate investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver function testing
Explanation:The key to this question is anti-smooth muscle antibodies. This is a finding of autoimmune hepatitis, which can be seen in type I diabetics. This also fits with her clinical picture. If you know these two facts, you should get every question correct regarding autoimmune hepatitis. Liver function testing is the best answer, then and should be elevated to indicate inflammation of the liver. Hepatic US, CK, thyroid function testing, short synacthen test are not helpful in the diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 134
Incorrect
-
A 55 year old man experiences sudden loss of vision preceded by the perception of something he describes as jagged lines or 'heat waves'. He's known to be myopic. What is the best treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scleral buckling
Explanation:The clinical picture is characteristic of retinal detachment, which should be treated immediately to prevent permanent loss of vision. Scleral buckling is a surgical procedure used to repair a retinal detachment, where the surgeon attaches a piece of silicone or a sponge onto the white of the eye at the spot of a retinal tear pushing the sclera toward the retinal tear or break, promoting repair. Signs of detachment include an increase in the number of eye floaters, flashes of light in the field of vision, and reduced peripheral vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required) presents for review. After a complete history and examination, you conclude that he requires to be stepped up in his inhalational therapy. The decision to add tiotropium bromide to his regime was taken. Which of the following best describe the mechanism of action of tiotropium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is a long-acting anticholinergic agent
Explanation:Tiotropium is a specific long-acting antimuscarinic agent indicated as maintenance therapy for patients with COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease).
It should be used cautiously in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia or bladder neck obstruction.
The most frequently encountered adverse effects of tiotropium include pharyngitis, bronchitis, sinusitis, dry mouth, cough, and headaches. Paradoxical bronchospasm may also occur as a rare side-effect.
Dry mouth occurs in up to 14% of patients taking tiotropium, in keeping with its anticholinergic profile.
Rarer side-effects include tachycardia, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 136
Incorrect
-
A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her finger joints which occurs mostly at the end of the day which gets better with rest. There is also some associated swelling. On examination, there is enlargement of her distal interphalangeal joints and tenderness to palpation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Osteoarthritis (OA) is a disabling joint disease characterized by a noninflammatory degeneration of the joint complex (articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium) that occurs with old age or from overuse. It mainly affects the weight-bearing and high-use joints, such as the hip, knee, hands, and vertebrae. Despite the widespread view that OA is a condition caused exclusively by degenerative “wear and tear” of the joints, newer research indicates a significant heterogeneity of causation, including pre-existing peculiarities of joint anatomy, genetics, local inflammation, mechanical forces, and biochemical processes that are affected by proinflammatory mediators and proteases. Major risk factors include advanced age, obesity, previous injuries, and asymmetrically stressed joints. In early-stage osteoarthritis, patients may complain of reduced range of motion, joint-stiffness, and pain that is aggravated with heavy use. As the disease advances, nagging pain may also occur during the night or at rest. Diagnosis is predominantly based on clinical and radiological findings. Classic radiographic features of OA do not necessarily correlate with clinical symptoms and appearance. RA involves proximal interphalangeal joints not distal. Gout occurs as a result of overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid and frequently involves first toe. Fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain accompanied by fatigue, sleep, memory and mood issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 137
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old male presents with chest pain. His past medical history includes hypertension and angina. He continues to smoke about 20 cigarettes per day despite being advised about lifestyle modifications. Blood investigations obtained in the emergency department show: Na+: 133 mmol/L, K+: 3.3 mmol/L, Urea: 4.5 mmol/L, Creatinine: 90 μmol/L, Which among the following is the most likely explanation for the abnormalities seen in the above investigations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide therapy
Explanation:The blood investigations in this patient reveal hyponatremia as well as hypokalaemia. Among the options provided, Bendroflumethiazide therapy can cause the above presentation with the electrolyte disturbances.
Note:
– Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is associated with hyperkalaemia.
– Enalapril therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, hypotension, cough, and rarely a rash.
– Felodipine therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, headache, cough, and palpitations. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 138
Incorrect
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Question 139
Incorrect
-
Which of the following gives the annual incidence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the general population?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: about 2 per 1000
Explanation:Annual incidence of DVT in the general population is about 1 per 1000 adults. So the most suitable answer is about 2 per 1000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 140
Incorrect
-
A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood tests show a significantly raised FSH level and her symptoms are attributed to menopause. Following discussions with the patient, she elects to have hormone replacement treatment. What is the most significant risk of prescribing an oestrogen-only preparation rather than a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased risk of endometrial cancer
Explanation:The use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) based on unopposed oestrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer, and uterine hyperplasia or cancer.
Evidence from randomized controlled studies showed a definite association between HRT and uterine hyperplasia and cancer. HRT based on unopposed oestrogen is associated with this observed risk, which is unlike the increased risk of breast cancer linked with combined rather than unopposed HRT. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 141
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old lady was admitted to hospital with increasing thirst and generalised abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with breast carcinoma three years previously and treated with a radical mastectomy. Investigations showed: Serum corrected calcium 3.5 mmol/L (NR 2.2-2.6) Serum alkaline phosphatase 1100 IU/L Her serum calcium was still elevated following 4 litres of 0.9% saline intravenous infusion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pamidronate 60 mg intravenously
Explanation:This case has hypercalcaemia most likely associated with the bony metastases from her pre-existing breast carcinoma. The most appropriate next step is to give Pamidronate 60mg intravenously, a bisphosphonate, to immediately inhibit bone resorption and formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 142
Incorrect
-
A 65 yr. male patient was started on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation (AF). Which of the following clotting factors is not affected by warfarin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor XII
Explanation:Carboxylation of factor II, VII, IX, X and protein C is affected by warfarin. Factor XII is not affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 143
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is correct regarding toxoplasmosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can present with fits in patients with AIDS
Explanation:T. gondii infection in immunocompetent people is usually asymptomatic. It can present as fits in patients with AIDs, who are immunosuppressed. Additionally, infection in the first trimester of pregnancy is very harmful. Congenital toxoplasmosis presents with intracranial calcifications, classically. It can also present with hydrocephalus, microcephaly, blindness, petechiae. Siramycin is the drug of choice to try to prevent vertical transmission from mother to baby. It is typically gotten from cat faeces or raw/undercooked meat, not raw eggs (raw eggs: think salmonella).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 144
Incorrect
-
A study is developed to compare two chemotherapy schemas for individuals with small cell lung cancer. Which of the following would you choose to compare survival time with in this particular study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hazard ratio
Explanation:The hazard ratio describes the relative risk of the complication based on comparison of event rates.
Hazard ratios have also been used to describe the outcome of therapeutic trials where the question is to what extent treatment can shorten the duration of the illness. However, the hazard ratio, a type of relative risk, does not always accurately portray the degree of abbreviation of the illness that occurred. In these circumstances, time-based parameters available from the time-to-event curve, such as the ratio of the median times of the placebo and drug groups, should be used to describe the magnitude of the benefit to the patient. The difference between hazard-based and time-based measures is analogous to the odds of winning a race and the margin of victory. The hazard ratio is the odds of a patient’s healing faster under treatment but does not convey any information about how much faster this event may occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 145
Incorrect
-
An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia, a patent ductus arteriosus and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:The clinical presentation is suggestive of congenital rubella syndrome. The classic triad of presenting symptoms includes sensorineural hearing loss, ocular abnormalities (cataract, infantile glaucoma, and pigmentary retinopathy) and congenital heart disease (patent ductus arteriosus and pulmonary artery stenosis). Other findings in congenital rubella syndrome include CNS abnormalities (mental retardation, behavioural disorders, encephalographic abnormalities, hypotonia, meningoencephalitis, and microcephaly), hepatosplenomegaly, and jaundice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 146
Incorrect
-
A 32 year old male with a history of smoking half a pack of cigarettes per day complains of worsening breathlessness on exertion. He was working as a salesman until a few months ago. His father passed away due to severe respiratory disease at a relatively young age. Routine blood examination reveals mild jaundice with bilirubin level of 90 µmol/l. AST and ALT are also raised. Chest X-ray reveals basal emphysema. Which of the following explanation is most likely the cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: α-1-Antitrypsin deficiency
Explanation:Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is an inherited disorder that may cause lung and liver disease. The signs and symptoms of the condition and the age at which they appear vary among individuals. This would be the most likely option as it is the only disease that can affect both liver and lung functions.
People with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency usually develop the first signs and symptoms of lung disease between ages 20 and 50. The earliest symptoms are shortness of breath following mild activity, reduced ability to exercise, and wheezing. Other signs and symptoms can include unintentional weight loss, recurring respiratory infections, fatigue, and rapid heartbeat upon standing. Affected individuals often develop emphysema. Characteristic features of emphysema include difficulty breathing, a hacking cough, and a barrel-shaped chest. Smoking or exposure to tobacco smoke accelerates the appearance of emphysema symptoms and damage to the lungs.
About 10 percent of infants with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency develop liver disease, which often causes yellowing of the skin and sclera (jaundice). Approximately 15 percent of adults with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency develop liver damage (cirrhosis) due to the formation of scar tissue in the liver. Signs of cirrhosis include a swollen abdomen, swollen feet or legs, and jaundice. Individuals with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency are also at risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 147
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old Afro–Caribbean gentleman with a 5 year history of HIV infection presents with swollen ankles. He has been treated with highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for 2 years, with partial response. His plasma creatinine concentration is 358 μmol/l, albumin is 12 g/dl, CD4 count is 35/μl and 24 hour urine protein excretion rate is 6.8 g. Renal ultrasound shows echogenic kidneys 13.5 cm in length. What would a renal biopsy show?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microcystic tubular dilatation and collapsing FSGS
Explanation:HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN) show typical findings of scarring called focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) and microcystic tubular dilatation, prominent podocytes, and collapsing capillary loops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 148
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old lawyer presents with non-specific symptoms of tiredness. Blood tests reveal normal thyroid function, cortisol, growth hormone and gonadotrophins. Pituitary MRI reveals a 0.8cm microadenoma. Which of the following represents the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Observation and reassurance
Explanation:The patient has a non-functioning pituitary tumour as her hormone profile is normal.
Non-functioning pituitary tumours are relatively common. A large number of these tumours are incidentally found pituitary microadenomas (<1 cm) and are usually of no clinical importance. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 149
Incorrect
-
A 59-year-old woman has an 11mm skin lesion on her right forearm, which bleeds easily on contact and has changed in appearance over the last 11 months.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malignant melanoma
Explanation:Melanoma is more common in men than women. Reasons for the disease includes: UV light and genetic predisposition or mutations. Diagnosis is by biopsy and analysis of any skin lesion that has signs of being potentially cancerous.
Early warning signs of melanoma ABCDE:
Asymmetry
Borders (irregular with edges and corners)
Colour (variegated)
Diameter (greater than 6 mm)
Evolving over time -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 150
Incorrect
-
A 29 year-old new mother presented with a headache that was first noticed as she was picking up her 5 week-old baby. On admission, she was unable to tolerate the lights and complained of feeling sick. Fundoscopy showed bilateral papilledema, and she was complaining that she was unable to see on her left side. CT head showed a small right occipital bleed. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heparin
Explanation:This patient has developed a venous sinus thrombosis peri-partum, resulting in her symptoms. Anticoagulation therapy including Heparin improves outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 151
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements regarding epidemiological measures is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cross-sectional surveys can be used to estimate the prevalence of a condition in the population
Explanation:The incidence rate is the number of new cases per population at risk in a given time period. For example, if a population initially contains 1,000 non-diseased persons and 28 develop a condition over two years of observation, the incidence proportion is 28 cases per 1,000 persons per two years, i.e. 2.8% per two years.
Prevalence is the proportion of a particular population found to be affected by a medical condition (typically a disease or a risk factor such as smoking or seat-belt use). It is derived by comparing the number of people found to have the condition with the total number of people studied, and is usually expressed as a fraction, as a percentage, or as the number of cases per 10,000 or 100,000 people.
Incidence should not be confused with prevalence, which is the proportion of cases in the population at a given time rather than rate of occurrence of new cases. Thus, incidence conveys information about the risk of contracting the disease, whereas prevalence indicates how widespread the disease is. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 152
Incorrect
-
A 55 year old lady who a known case of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) presented with complaints of weakness in her lower limbs, urinary incontinence and progressively worsening confusion. Which of the following statements is true regarding NPH?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is associated with gait disturbance
Explanation:Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a form of communicating hydrocephalus characterised by enlarged ventricles with normal opening pressure on lumbar puncture. For diagnostic purposes, a triad of urinary incontinence, gait abnormality and dementia is necessary. It is necessary to diagnose the condition early because it is reversible by placing a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. It is most common in patients aged more than 60 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 153
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old plumber presents with general deterioration. He drinks approximately 25 units of alcohol each week and is a smoker of five cigarettes daily. Examination reveals that he is jaundiced, has numerous spider naevi on his chest and he has a temperature of 37.2°C. Abdominal examination reveals hepato-splenomegaly. Investigations reveal: Bilirubin 100 micromol/L (1-22), Alkaline phosphatase 310 iu/l (45 – 105), ALT 198 iu/l (5 – 35), AST 158 iu/l (1 – 31), Albumin 25 g/L (37 – 49), Hepatitis B virus surface antigen positive, Hepatitis B virus e antigen negative, Hepatitis B virus DNA awaited. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B infection
Explanation:The clinical scenario describes a man in liver failure. Given the serological results, he is most likely to have a chronic hepatitis B infection. In chronic hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, (-)IgM antiHBc, and (-) anti-HBs. In acute hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, +IgM anti-HBc, and negative anti-HBs. in immunity due to natural infection, you have negative HBsAg, +anti-HBc, and + anti-HBs. In immunity due to vaccination, you have negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBc, and positive anti-HBs. While he could have a superimposed hepatitis D infection on top of hepatitis B, there is no mention of hepatitis D serology, make this an incorrect answer. The other choices do not involve hepatitis serologies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 154
Incorrect
-
A 26 year old male from Eastern Europe has been experiencing night sweats, fevers, and decreased weight for several months. He also has a chronic cough which at times consists of blood. He is reviewed at the clinic and a calcified lesion was detected in his right lung with enlarged calcified right hilar lymph nodes. His leukocytes are just below normal range and there is a normochromic normocytic anaemia. Acid-fast bacilli (AFB) are found in one out of five sputum samples. Sputum is sent for extended culture. Which diagnosis fits best with his signs and symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Active pulmonary tuberculosis
Explanation:Classic clinical features associated with active pulmonary TB are as follows (elderly individuals with TB may not display typical signs and symptoms):
– Cough
– Weight loss/anorexia
– Fever
– Night sweats
– Haemoptysis
– Chest pain (can also result from tuberculous acute pericarditis)
– FatigueTest:
Acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear and culture – Using sputum obtained from the patient.
AFB stain is quick but requires a very high organism load for positivity, as well as the expertise to read the stained sample. This test is more useful in patients with pulmonary disease.
Obtain a chest radiograph to evaluate for possible associated pulmonary findings. If chest radiography findings suggest TB and a sputum smear is positive for AFB, initiate treatment for TB. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 155
Incorrect
-
An 18 year old boy from Middle East presented with a 1 month history of a yellowish, crusted plaque over his scalp, along with some scarring alopecia. What will the likely diagnosis be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Favus
Explanation:Favus is a fungal infection of the scalp, resulting in the formation of a yellowish crusted plaque over the scalp and leads to scar formation with alopecia. Tinea capitus is a fungal infection of the scalp resulting in scaling and non scarring hair loss. Folliculitis presents with multiple perifollicular papules which can be caused by both bacteria and fungi. Cradle cap usually affects infants where the whole scalp is involved. It can lead to hair loss and responds to topical antifungals and keratolytics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 156
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old woman presents with lethargy. Her blood picture shows: Hb: 10.4 g/dL, Plts: 278 x 10^9/L, WCC: 6.3 x 10^9/L, MCV: 68 fL. Blood film: Microcytic hypochromic RBCs, marked anisocytosis and basophilic stippling noted, HbA2: 3.9%. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta-thalassaemia trait
Explanation:Thalassaemias are a group of genetic disorders characterised by decreased production of either alpha or beta chains of haemoglobin (Hb). Beta thalassaemia trait is an autosomal recessive condition in which a disproportionate hypochromic, microcytic anaemia occurs—microcytosis is disproportionate to the Hb level. It is usually asymptomatic.
Microcytic anaemia in a female should raise the possibility of either gastrointestinal blood loss or menorrhagia. However, there is no history to suggest this in the aforementioned patient. This, combined with characteristic disproportionate microcytosis and raised HbA2 levels ( >3.5%), point towards beta thalassaemia trait.
Basophilic stippling is also seen in lead poisoning but the raised HbA2 levels cannot be explained in such a case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 157
Incorrect
-
An elderly woman is referred with worsening chronic pulmonary disease (COPD). She smokes seven cigarettes per day. Her exercise tolerance is only a few yards around the house now. Her FEV1 is 37% of predicted. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give regular high-dose inhaled fluticasone and inhaled long-acting β-agonist
Explanation:The Stages of COPD:
Mild COPD or Stage 1—Mild COPD with a FEV1 about 80 percent or more of normal.
Moderate COPD or Stage 2—Moderate COPD with a FEV1 between 50 and 80 percent of normal.
Severe COPD or Stage 3—Severe emphysema with a FEV1 between 30 and 50 percent of normal.
Very Severe COPD or Stage 4—Very severe or End-Stage COPD with a lower FEV1 than Stage 3, or people with low blood oxygen levels and a Stage 3 FEV1.This patient has a FEV1 percent of 37 which falls within the stage 3 or severe COPD.
During stage 3 COPD, you will likely experience significant lung function impairment. Many patients will experience an increase in COPD flare-ups or exacerbations. For some people, the increase in flare-ups means they could need to be hospitalized at times as well.Inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) use in combination with long-acting β2-agonists (LABAs) was shown to provide improved reductions in exacerbations, lung function, and health status. ICS-LABA combination therapy is currently recommended for patients with a history of exacerbations despite treatment with long-acting bronchodilators alone. The presence of eosinophilic bronchial inflammation, detected by high blood eosinophil levels or a history of asthma or asthma–COPD overlap, may define a population of patients in whom ICSs may be of particular benefit.
The Towards a Revolution in COPD Health (TORCH) trial was a pivotal, double-blind, placebo-controlled, randomized study comparing salmeterol plus fluticasone propionate (50 and 500 µg, respectively, taken twice daily) with each component alone and placebo over 3 years.26 Patients with COPD were enrolled if they had at least a 10-pack-year smoking history, FEV1 <60% predicted, and an FEV1:FVC ratio ≤0.70.26 Among 6,184 randomized patients, the risk of death was reduced by 17.5% with the ICS-LABA combination vs placebo (P=0.052). ICS-LABA significantly reduced the rate of exacerbations by 25% compared with placebo (P<0.001) and improved health status and FEV1 compared with either component alone or placebo.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 158
Incorrect
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A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic hepatitis B. The mothers latest results are as follows: HBsAg: Positive, HBeAg: Positive. What is the most appropriate strategy for reducing the vertical transmission rate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin
Explanation:The Green Book guidelines report in an active infection (HBeAg+ and HBsAg+) to give the vaccine as well as immunoglobulin. If antibodies are present it is not active infection (anti-Hbe) and then in that case only the vaccine, and no immunoglobulin, would be given. The presence of HBeAg means a person is infectious and can transmit to other people.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 159
Incorrect
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A 67 year old man reports weight loss. Labs show a raised alkaline phosphatase at 290 U/L (normal range 35-120). Plain radiographs reveal sclerotic lesions of the bone. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostate cancer
Explanation:Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bony metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma. The other cancers listed in the options are osteolytic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 160
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man experienced a gradual decrease in vision of one eye after being diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Macula oedema is noted on his fundoscopy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetic retinopathy
Explanation:Macular disease can affect central vision at any stage of diabetic retinopathy and may be seen in type 2 diabetic patients. Diabetic retinopathy affects up to 80 percent of those who have had diabetes for 20 years or more. Macular oedema occurs when damaged blood vessels leak fluid and lipids onto the macula, the part of the retina that lets us see detail. The fluid makes the macula swell, which blurs vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A prescription for Olanzapine is written for a 28 year old lady with a history of schizophrenia. Which adverse effect is she most likely to experience?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight gain
Explanation:Weight gain is an extremely common (5-40%) adverse effect of atypical antipsychotics such as olanzapine (dose dependent). Olanzapine causes orthostatic hypotension ≥20% of reported cases. Parkinsonism reactions occurs in 4% of people.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A 22 year-old university graduate presented with progressive unsteadiness during walking over the last year. She had been otherwise healthy apart from recent difficulty hearing her lecturer in classes. She took no prescription medication but had occasionally taken cocaine during her first year of college. She also admits to drinking up to 30 units of alcohol per week and smoked 10 cigarettes per day. Her parents were both well, but her father's sister had problems with walking before she died. Examination reveals normal tone and power throughout all four limbs. Reflexes were normal in the upper limbs but decreased at the knees and absent at the ankles. Coordination was normal in all four limbs but her gait was ataxic. Sensation in the upper limbs was normal but decreased vibratory sensation and proprioception was noted to the ankles bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Friedreich’s ataxia
Explanation:Friedreich’s ataxia is an autosomal recessive disorder that usually begins before the end of the teens. It has an estimated prevalence in Europe of 1 in 50,000 and life expectancy is around 40–50 years. Neurological features include a progressive ataxia, cerebellar dysarthria, lower limb areflexia, decreased vibratory sensation and proprioception, and pyramidal weakness. Pes cavus and scoliosis are also both seen. Cardiomyopathy occurs in over 70% of cases. Less common features include optic atrophic, diabetes mellitus, and deafness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman, with a history of infertility, presented with post-operative bleeding from her abdominal wound. Her full blood count (FBC) and blood film showed hyperleukocytosis and the presence of promyelocytes, along with the following: Hb: 9.2g/dL, Plts: 932 x 10^9/L, INR: 1.4 (Coagulation profile). What should be the next step of management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give fresh frozen plasma
Explanation:The patient has acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APML) with associated disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Although
the platelet count is high, platelet function is ineffective.Patients may present, as in this case, with severe bleeding, and the most appropriate emergency treatment would be administration of fresh frozen plasma (FFP).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 164
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old marketing manager presents with a persistent watery left eye for the past 4 days. On examination there is erythema and swelling of the inner canthus of the left eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dacryocystitis
Explanation:Dacryocystitis is an infection of the lacrimal sac, secondary to obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct at the junction of lacrimal sac. It causes pain, redness, a watering eye (epiphora), and swelling and erythema at the inner canthus of the eye. Management is with systemic antibiotics. IV antibiotics are indicated if there is associated periorbital cellulitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a little hirsute and has evidence of facial acne. She is within her predicted adult height and has normal breast and external genitalia development, however, there is excess hair over her lower abdomen and around her nipple area. Investigations were as follows: Hb 13.1 g/dL, WCC 8.6 x109/L, PLT 201 x109/L, Na+ 139 mmol/L, K+ 4.5 mmol/L, Creatinine 110 µmol/L, 17-OH progesterone 1.4 times the upper limit of normal. Pelvic ultrasound: bilateral ovaries and uterus visualised. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Mild deficiencies of 21-hydroxylase or 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity may present in adolescence or adulthood with oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and/or infertility. This is termed nonclassical adrenal hyperplasia.
Late-onset or nonclassical congenital adrenal hyperplasia (NCAH) due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency is one of the most common autosomal recessive disorders. Reported prevalence ranges from 1 in 30 to 1 in 1000. Affected individuals typically present due to signs and symptoms of androgen excess.
Treatment needs to be directed toward the symptoms. Goals of treatment include normal linear growth velocity, a normal rate of skeletal maturation, ‘on-time’ puberty, regular menstrual cycles, prevention of or limited progression of hirsutism and acne, and fertility. Treatment needs to be individualized and should not be initiated merely to decrease abnormally elevated hormone concentrations.
Normal Ultrasound rules out Turner’s syndrome. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is referred with impotence. He has a history of angina, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. Which one of the following drugs that he takes is a contraindication to him being able to receive sildenafil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:Sildenafil administration to patients who are using organic nitrates, either regularly and/or intermittently, in any form is contraindicated.
Organic nitrates and nitric oxide (NO) donors exert their therapeutic effects on blood pressure and vascular smooth muscle by the same mechanism as endogenous NO via increasing cGMP concentrations. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 167
Incorrect
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Which of the following is suggestive of co-existence of mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Displaced apex beat
Explanation:Apex beat displacement is caused by mitral regurgitation and because it is not found in mitral stenosis, it is suggestive of mixed mitral disease. The other given responses occur in mitral stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents to the A&E department with a five-day history of back pain which is located in the lower thoracic region and is worsened by coughing and sneezing. There has been no change in bowel habit or urinary symptoms. Her past medical history includes breast cancer and osteoarthritis. On examination, there is diffuse tenderness in the lower thoracic region. Perianal sensation is normal and lower limb reflexes are brisk. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone + urgent MRI
Explanation:The patient has spinal cord compression until proven otherwise. Urgent assessment is required.
Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.
Clinical features include:
1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
2. Lower limb weakness
3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.Management options are:
1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man with a history of asthma presents for review. He has recently been discharged from hospital following an acute exacerbation and reports generally poor control with a persistent night time cough and exertional wheeze. His current asthma therapy is: salbutamol inhaler 100mcg prn Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) inhaler 800mcg bd salmeterol 50mcg bd He has a history of missing appointments and requests a prescription with as few side-effects as possible. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:The NICE 2019 guidelines states that in patients who are uncontrolled with a SABA (Salbutamol) and ICS (Beclomethasone), LTRA should be added.
If asthma is uncontrolled in adults (aged 17 and over) on a low dose of ICS as maintenance therapy, offer a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to the ICS and review the response to treatment in 4 to 8 weeks. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man, newly diagnosed with acromegaly, may have all of the following, except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypohydrosis
Explanation:Acromegaly occurs due to excessive action of insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) after the growth plate cartilage fuses in adulthood.
It can be an insidious disease. Symptoms, which may precede diagnosis by several years, can be divided into the following groups:
1. Symptoms due to local mass effects of an intracranial tumour
Tumour damage to the pituitary stalk may cause hyperprolactinemia (Increased blood prolactin levels associated with galactorrhoea) due to loss of inhibitory regulation of prolactin secretion by the hypothalamus
2. Symptoms due to excess of GH/IGF-I including:
– Hyperhidrosis (Not hypohidrosis)
– Arthritis
– Peripheral Neuropathies e.g. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presented with bloody diarrhoea and weight loss. Which one of the following would favour the diagnosis of Crohn’s disease on rectal biopsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patchy inflammation
Explanation:The correct answer is patchy inflammation. Superficial ulceration as well as non-patchy inflammation are seen in ulcerative colitis (UC) in the colon and rectum; you would expect to see transmural inflammation in Crohn’s disease and it can be patchy and located anywhere from mouth to anus. Crypt distortion and crypt abscesses are seen in both UC and Crohn’s, however they are more common in ulcerative colitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant had a recent ultrasound that shows the foetus large for dates. She has an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) which was requested due to a combination of her Asian ethnicity and background of obesity. The following results are obtained: (Time (hours) : Blood glucose (mmol/l)), 0 : 9.2, 2 : 14.2. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start insulin
Explanation:Insulin remains the standard of care for the treatment of uncontrolled gestational diabetes. Tight control maintained in the first trimester and throughout pregnancy plays a vital role in decreasing poor fetal outcomes, including structural anomalies, macrosomia, hypoglycaemia of the new-born, adolescent and adult obesity, and diabetes.
The baby is already large for dates so nutritional therapy can not be used alone. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A keratitis with dendritic ulceration of the cornea is diagnosed in a 32-year-old patient. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus
Explanation:The dendritic ulceration seen on fluorescein staining of the eye is pathopneumonic for keratitis caused by HSV (herpes simplex virus). Presentation is that of blepharoconjunctivitis. Treatment is required, the treatment is typically topical acyclovir. Topical steroids can make the infection worse. The other answer choices would not have this dendritic pattern seen on fluorescein staining.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A study's objective is to find the normal reference range for IgE levels in the adult population. What percentage of individuals will have IgE levels higher than 2 standard deviations from the mean, assuming that the IgE levels follow a normal distribution?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2.30%
Explanation:Normal distribution describes the spread of many biological and clinical measurements. Usually, 68.3% lies within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lies within 2 SD of the mean and 99.7% lies within 3 SD of the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 175
Incorrect
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A young man presents to the clinic with recurrent episodes of breathlessness. Past medical history reveals recurrent episodes of colicky abdominal pain for the past three years. On examination, he has a productive cough with foul smelling sputum. Investigations show: Sputum culture with Heavy growth of Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Haemophilus influenzae. Chest x-ray: Tramline and ring shadows. What is his diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a multisystemic, autosomal recessive disorder that predominantly affects infants, children, and young adults. CF is the most common life-limiting genetic disorder in whites, with an incidence of 1 case per 3200-3300 new-borns in the United States.
People with CF can have a variety of symptoms, including:
Very salty-tasting skin
Persistent coughing, at times with phlegm
Frequent lung infections including pneumonia or bronchitis
Wheezing or shortness of breath
Poor growth or weight gain in spite of a good appetite
Frequent greasy, bulky stools or difficulty with bowel movements
Male infertilitySigns of bronchiectasis include the tubular shadows; tram tracks, or horizontally oriented bronchi; and the signet-ring sign, which is a vertically oriented bronchus with a luminal airway diameter that is 1.5 times the diameter of the adjacent pulmonary arterial branch.
Bronchiectasis is characterized by parallel, thick, line markings radiating from hila (line tracks) in cylindrical bronchiectasis. Ring shadows represent dilated thick-wall bronchi seen in longitudinal section or on-end or dilated bronchi in varicose bronchiectasis.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the key bacterial agent of cystic fibrosis (CF) lung infections, and the most important pathogen in progressive and severe CF lung disease. This opportunistic pathogen can grow and proliferate in patients, and exposure can occur in hospitals and other healthcare settings.
Haemophilus influenzae is regularly involved in chronic lung infections and acute exacerbations of CF patients
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 176
Incorrect
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How would you advise your patient to apply an emollient and a steroid cream, in order to treat her eczema?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: First use emollient then steroids.
Explanation:If steroid is applied first, applying an emollient after could spread it from where it had been applied. If steroid is applied immediately after the emollient then it cannot be absorbed, this is why there should be a time interval of around thirty minutes between these two treatments in order for them to be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 177
Incorrect
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An 18 year old prospective medical student is tested for hepatitis B. Her liver tests show alanine transaminase (ALT) 120 U/L and serology shows her to be positive for HBsAg, HBcAb and HBeAg, with a viral load of 105 genome equivalents/mL. A liver biopsy is reported as showing early fibrosis with evidence of moderate inflammation. Which of the following treatments should be offered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interferon alfa 2b
Explanation:Interferon alfa alone, not interferon alfa and ribavirin, has been shown to achieve HBeAg seroconversion for patients with HBeAg-positive chronic hepatitis B.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 66 year old COPD patient visits the clinic for a review. He has no increase in his sputum volume or change in its colour. He has been a smoker for 39 years and previously worked at the shipping docks. On examination, he is pursed lip breathing but managing complete sentences. Investigations: BP is 141/72 mmHg Pulse 82 bpm and regular Sp(O2) 92% on room air RR 19 breaths/min Temperature 37.1°C. Examination of his chest revealed a widespread wheeze with coarse crepitations heard in the L mid-zone. FEV1 :FVC ratio in the clinic today was 68%. Which of the following would be the most useful investigation that should be performed to establish the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High-resolution CT thorax
Explanation:High-resolution CT (HRCT) scanning is more sensitive than standard chest radiography and is highly specific for diagnosing emphysema (outlined bullae are not always visible on a radiograph).
HRCT scanning may provide an adjunct means of diagnosing various forms of COPD (i.e., lower lobe disease may suggest AAT deficiency) and may help the clinician to determine whether surgical intervention would benefit the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 179
Incorrect
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Intracellular proteins tagged with mannose-6-phosphate are destined to which of the following organelles?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lysosome
Explanation:Lysosomal hydrolases are synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum and specifically transported through the Golgi apparatus to the trans-Golgi network, from which transport vesicles bud to deliver them to the endosomal/lysosomal compartment. The explanation of how the lysosomal enzymes are accurately recognized and selected over many other proteins in the trans-Golgi network relies on them being tagged with a unique marker: the mannose-6-phosphate (M6P) group, which is added exclusively to the N-linked oligosaccharides of lysosomal soluble hydrolases, as they pass through the cis-Golgi network. Generation of the M6P recognition marker depends on a reaction involving two different enzymes: UDP-N-acetylglucosamine 1-phosphotransferase and α-N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphodiester α-N-acetylglucosaminidase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 180
Incorrect
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In which condition is the sniff test useful in diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve palsy
Explanation:The phrenic nerve provides the primary motor supply to the diaphragm, the major respiratory muscle.
Phrenic nerve paralysis is a rare cause of exertional dyspnoea that should be included in the differential diagnosis. Fluoroscopy is considered the most reliable way to document diaphragmatic paralysis. During fluoroscopy a patient is asked to sniff and there is a paradoxical rise of the paralysed hemidiaphragm. This is to confirm that the cause is due to paralysis rather than unilateral weakness. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 181
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true concerning gastrin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Release is triggered by GI luminal peptides
Explanation:Gastrin is released by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. It stimulates secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by the parietal cells of the stomach and also aids in gastric motility. It is released in response to the following stimuli: vagal stimulation, antrum distention, hypercalcemia. It is inhibited by the following: presence of acid in stomach, SST, secretion, GIP, VIP, glucagon, calcitonin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A female in her early 20's who has been diagnosed with asthma for the past four years visits the office for a review. She has been using Beclomethasone dipropionate inhaler 200mcg bd along with Salbutamol inhaler 100mcg prn and her asthma is still uncontrolled. Her chest examination is clear and she has good inhaler technique. What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of her asthma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:The NICE 2017 guidelines state that in patients who are uncontrolled with a SABA (Salbutamol) and ICS (Inhaled corticosteroid e.g. Beclomethasone), a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) should be added.
If asthma is uncontrolled in adults (aged 17 and over) on a low dose of ICS as maintenance therapy, offer a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to the ICS and review the response to treatment in 4 to 8 weeks.This recommendation is also stated in NICE 2019 guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp wooden splinter sustaining a cut to his left shin. His immunisation history is up to date and he had a booster tetanus shot 3 years ago. In relation to tetanus prevention, select the most suitable management step.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No action is required
Explanation:The most suitable management step for tetanus prevention in this scenario would be to ensure that the individual receives a tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine if they have not had a booster dose within the last five years. Tetanus toxoid-containing vaccines are routinely given during childhood immunization schedules, but booster doses are recommended every 10 years thereafter to maintain immunity. Since the individual’s immunization history is up to date, if they have received their primary series of tetanus vaccinations and a booster dose within the last five years, no further action would be needed regarding tetanus prevention.
However, if the individual’s immunization status is uncertain or if it has been more than five years since their last tetanus booster, they should receive a tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine promptly. Additionally, if the wound is contaminated or considered high risk for tetanus infection, tetanus immune globulin (TIG) may also be administered for immediate protection against tetanus toxins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A cohort study is developed to assess the correlation between blood pressure and working long hours. After 10 years of follow-up and for the 1050 individuals working less than 40 hours per week, 1000 patients had normal blood pressure and 50 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. For the 660 patients working more than 40 hours per week, 600 patients had normal blood pressure and 60 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. If you work more than 40 hours per week, what is the odds ratio of developing hypertension compared to the individuals working less than 40 hours per week?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of the association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Where
a = Number of exposed cases
b = Number of exposed non-cases
c = Number of unexposed cases
d = Number of unexposed non-cases
OR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 185
Incorrect
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A 60 yr. old man presented with severe central chest pain for the last 2 hours. He was on insulin for diabetes mellitus and he was dependent on haemodialysis because of end stage renal failure. He had undergone haemodialysis 48 hours prior to this presentation. His ECG showed an acute inferior myocardial infarction. Despite thrombolysis and other appropriate treatment, he continued to have chest pain after 6 hours from the initial presentation. His blood pressure was 88/54 mmHg and he had bibasal crepitations. His investigation results are given below. Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (137-144), Serum potassium 6.6 mmol/l (3.5-4.9), Serum urea 50 mmol/l (2.5-7.5), Serum creatinine 940 μmol/l (60-110), Haemoglobin 10.2g/dl (13.0-18.0), Troponin T >24 g/l (<0.04), Left ventricular ejection fraction was 20%. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coronary angiography and rescue PCI
Explanation:According to the history the patient has cardiogenic shock and pulmonary oedema. On-going ischaemia is indicated by persisting symptoms. So the most appropriate management is coronary angiography and rescue PCI. There are no indications for blood transfusion at this moment and it will aggravate the pulmonary oedema. Haemodialysis, beta blockers and furosemide cannot be given due to low blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A patient has been diagnosed with multi-drug resistant tuberculosis and is currently bring treated with rifampicin, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide. He is commenced on streptomycin. Which among the following is the most likely neurological side-effect of streptomycin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vestibular damage
Explanation:Vestibular damage is a neurological side effect of streptomycin.
Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside bactericidal antibiotic. It is used in the treatment of tularaemia and resistant mycobacterial infections.
The most common neurological side-effect is vestibular damage leading to vertigo and vomiting.
Cochlear damage is less frequent and results in deafness.
Other side-effects include rashes, angioneurotic oedema, and nephrotoxicity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 187
Incorrect
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A 3 month old infant born to an HIV positive mother presents with jaundice, epileptic seizures and microcephaly. The most likely cause will be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Congenital CMV infection can occur when a pregnant woman is infected with the cytomegalovirus (CMV) and passes the virus to her unborn child. Infants infected with CMV during pregnancy can exhibit a range of symptoms, including jaundice, seizures, and microcephaly (abnormally small head size). These symptoms are consistent with congenital CMV infection.
Given the mother’s HIV-positive status, the infant may have been at increased risk of acquiring other infections, including CMV, due to potential immunodeficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 60 yr. old patient with hypertension attended his regular clinic. His compliance was poor. His blood pressure was 180/100 mmHg. His pulse rate was 85 bpm which was irregularly irregular. On examination there was bibasal crepitation. No murmurs were heard. What is the most likely cause for these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left ventricular hypertrophy
Explanation:Left ventricular hypertrophy due to long standing hypertension is the most probable cause. The irregularly irregular pulse was suggestive of atrial fibrillation, which is due to diastolic dysfunction. Poor ventricular filling causes pulmonary congestion which manifests as bibasal crepitations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 189
Incorrect
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Which of the given adverse effects should be anticipated following the administration of an anticholinesterase?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia and miosis
Explanation:Bradycardia and miosis should be anticipated following the administration of anticholinesterases.
Anticholinesterase agents include the following medications:
– Pyridostigmine, neostigmine, and edrophonium which play a significant role in the diagnosis and the management of myasthenia gravis.
– Rivastigmine, galantamine and donepezil are cholinesterase inhibitors found to be significantly useful in the management of Alzheimer’s disease.Mechanism of action and pharmacological effects:
Inhibition of cholinesterase increases the level and the duration of action of acetylcholine within the synaptic cleft.Thus, cholinergic effects such as a reduction in heart rate (bradycardia), miosis (pupillary constriction), increased secretions, increased gastrointestinal motility and reduction in BP may occur with anticholinesterases.
Toxins such as organophosphates and carbamates also are primarily anticholinergic and cause the following typical SLUDGE symptoms:
– Salivation
– Lacrimation
– Urination
– Diaphoresis
– Gastrointestinal upset
– Emesis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old female teacher asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What is the most compelling indication for starting HRT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Control of vasomotor symptoms such as flushing
Explanation:Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to help alleviate menopausal symptoms. The main indication is the control of vasomotor symptoms. The other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy and prevention of osteoporosis, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A 20 year old woman presents to the hospital with sharp, left-sided chest pain and shortness of breath. On examination her pulse is 101 beats per minute and blood pressure is 124/61 mmHg. She is seen to be mildly breathless at rest but her oxygen saturation on air was 98%. CXR reveals a left pneumothorax with a 4 cm rim of air visible. Which management strategy is appropriate in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Needle aspiration
Explanation:Pneumothorax is defined as air in the pleural space and may be classified as spontaneous, traumatic or iatrogenic. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs in patients without clinically apparent lung disease.
Primary pneumothorax has an incidence of 18-28 per 100,000 per year for men and 1.2-6 per 100,000 per year for women. Most patients present with ipsilateral pleuritic chest pain and acute shortness of breath. Shortness of breath is largely dependent on the size of the pneumothorax and whether there is underlying chronic lung disease.Young patients may have chest pain only. Most episodes of pneumothorax occur at rest. Symptoms may resolve within 24 hours in patients with primary spontaneous pneumothorax. The diagnosis of a pneumothorax is confirmed by finding a visceral pleural line displaced from the chest wall, without distal lung markings, on a posterior-anterior chest radiograph.
Breathless patients should not be left without intervention regardless of the size of pneumothorax. If there is a rim of air >2cm on the chest X-ray, this should be aspirated.
Aspiration is successful in approximately 70 per cent of patients; the patient may be discharged subsequently. A further attempt at aspiration is recommended if the patient remains symptomatic and a volume of less than 2.5 litres has been aspirated on the first attempt.If unsuccessful, an intercostal drain is inserted. This may be removed after 24 hours after full re-expansion or cessation of air leak without clamping and discharge may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 192
Incorrect
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What percentage of values lie within 3 standard deviations of the mean in a normal distribution?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 99.70%
Explanation:Normal distribution describes the spread of many biological and clinical measurements. Usually, 68.3% lies within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lies within 2 SD of the mean and 99.7% lies within 3 SD of the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male has a 6-year history of hypertension. For two days, he has been having extreme difficulty in seeing things clearly and now complains of cloudy vision. On fundoscopy, flame-shaped haemorrhages are found in the patient's right eye. Margins of the optic disc were also found to be blurred. Which of the following conditions is this patient most likely suffering from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CRV thrombosis
Explanation:Fundoscopy reveals flame-shaped haemorrhages which are specific to central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO). In CRA thrombosis, fundoscopy would show a cherry-red spot. A patient with retinal detachment would give a characteristic history of seeing flashes of light and floaters. Background retinopathy is associated with diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man is seen in clinic with a 3 month history of chronic epigastric discomfort. The pain comes and goes and radiates to his back and his right shoulder tip at times. It is worse after meals but there is no relieving factor. He feels nauseous most of the time and has foul-smelling stools. He has lost 2 stones in weight. He also complains of intermittent light-headedness. He drinks a bottle of wine on most nights and smokes 20 cigarettes /day. On examination, he is thin and looks neglected. His abdomen is soft, but tender on deep palpation in the epigastric area. He has a 2 cm non-tender liver edge. He also has decreased sensation to light touch on both feet. Bloods: sodium 131 mmol/L, potassium 4.2 mmol/L, creatine 64 μmol/L, amylase 35 U/l, alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 104 U/l, alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 121 U/l, bilirubin 24 μmol/L, calcium 2.01 mmol/L, whole cell count (WCC) 12.1 × 109/L, haemoglobin (Hb) 10.2 g/dL, platelets 462 × 109/L. Abdominal X-ray (AXR) was normal and oesophago-gastro duodenoscopy (OGD) showed mild gastritis. Campylobacter-like organism (CLO) test negative. Ultrasound abdomen showed a mildly enlarged liver with fatty change, spleen and kidneys normal, pancreas partially obscured by overlying bowel gas. 72-h stool fat was 22 g in 72 h. He is referred for a secretin test: volume collected 110 ml, bicarbonate 52 mEq/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic pancreatitis
Explanation:The question describes an alcohol abusing man with chronic epigastric discomfort, radiating into his back, worse with meals, and foul-smelling stools, weight loss, as well as chronic nausea. This is likely, thus chronic pancreatitis due to alcohol abuse. Hepatomegaly and peripheral neuropathy secondary to anaemia support the diagnosis of long term alcohol abuse. Bacterial overgrowth may present with diarrhoea and is a less likely diagnosis than pancreatitis. Celiac disease is a less likely diagnosis than pancreatitis, and you would also expect mention of diarrhoea. VIPoma would also likely present with diarrhoea. Cecal carcinoma would more than likely present with blood in the stool.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 195
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding nitric oxide is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Promotes platelet aggregation
Explanation:Nitric oxide, known as an endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF), is biosynthesized endogenously from L-arginine, oxygen, and NADPH by various nitric oxide synthase (NOS) enzymes and is a signaling molecule in many physiological and pathological processes in humans.
One of the main enzymatic targets of nitric oxide is guanylyl cyclase. The binding of nitric oxide to the haem region of the enzyme leads to activation, in the presence of iron. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman presents with 18 month history of gait ataxia, dysarthria, and dysphagia. On examination there is down beating nystagmus and slurred speech. There is past pointing in both upper limbs and a wide-based ataxic gait. Reflexes and sensation are normal. There is no wasting or fasciculations. Plantar response is flexor bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arnold-Chiari malformation
Explanation:Downbeat nystagmus (DBN) suggests a lesion in the lower part of the medulla. Arnold-Chiari malformation usually presents with symptoms due to brainstem and lower cranial nerve dysfunction such as DBN.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 197
Incorrect
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A 71 year-old dentist is seen in clinic with a history of worsening memory problems and confusion. His wife had noted that his sleep was becoming more disturbed and he complains of vivid nightmares and visual hallucinations. Over the past few weeks, he has had increasing difficulty in dressing himself, and his mobility has deteriorated. On examination, he is bradykinesic with a resting tremor and rigidity affecting his arms and legs. His Mini-Mental-State Examination (MMSE) is 18/30. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy body disease
Explanation:Lewy body dementia is the second most common cause of dementia in the elderly after Alzheimer’s disease. The core feature is a progressive dementia, but other characteristic features include Parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, fluctuating cognitive abilities and executive function, and an increased risk of falls or autonomic failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old gentleman is investigated for recurrent renal stones. He has been hospitalised on multiple occasions and has required lithotripsy three times. Investigations show the following: Calcium 2.08 mmol/L, Phosphate 0.85 mmol/L, Parathyroid hormone 4.1 pmol/L (normal range = 0.8 - 8.5) 24 hour urinary calcium 521 mg/24 hours (normal range < 300) Which one of the following treatments will most likely reduce the incidence of renal stones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indapamide
Explanation:Indapamide is a mild thiazide-like diuretic with hypotensive effect, and compared to other thiazides, it is reported to also have less metabolic derangements. However, it may have beneficial hypo-calciuric effects that are often associated with thiazides, thus, in this case, we would recommend prescribing this to the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for 2 weeks. On examination his blood pressure was 145/80 mmHg. On auscultation reversed splitting of the second heart sound and bibasal crepitations were detected. What would be the most likely finding on his ECG?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block
Explanation:When closure of the pulmonary valve occurs before the aortic valve, reversed splitting occurs. The causes of reversed splitting are aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, left bundle branch block (LBBB), and a ventricular pacemaker.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 200
Incorrect
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In chemotherapy, what is the rationale behind using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combination therapy decreases the chances of drug resistance developing
Explanation:There are two main reasons for using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents. First, different drugs exert their effects through different mechanisms, therefore, carefully combining them will increase the number of tumour cells killed in each cycle as well as decrease their chances of developing drug resistance. Second, there may be an even greater effect with drugs that are synergistic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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