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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old Somali woman attends her booking appointment in the UK for her first pregnancy. During screening tests, it is discovered that she is HIV positive, although she is asymptomatic. Her viral load is 150,000 copies/ml and her CD4 count is 523 cells/mm³. No viral resistance is detected, and her hepatitis serology is negative. Her husband tests negative for HIV. She is started on triple antiretroviral therapy (ART) with zidovudine, lamivudine, and lopinavir/ritonavir, and by 36 weeks, her viral load is undetectable at <20 copies/ml. What is true regarding her ongoing management?
Your Answer: She should have a vaginal delivery and continue to take ART whilst breastfeeding.
Correct Answer: She should have a vaginal delivery and formula feed. ART should be continued.
Explanation:As her viral load is below 50 copies/ml, she is eligible for a vaginal delivery. In the UK, it is advised that babies born to HIV-positive mothers are formula-fed. Despite her CD4 count being above 350 cells/mm³, it is important for her to continue taking ART to minimize the risk of transmitting the virus to her husband.
HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission
With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In London, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.
To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Guidelines on this subject are regularly updated, and the most recent guidelines can be found using the links provided. Factors that can reduce vertical transmission from 25-30% to 2% include maternal antiretroviral therapy, mode of delivery (caesarean section), neonatal antiretroviral therapy, and infant feeding (bottle feeding).
To ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy, NICE guidelines recommend offering HIV screening to all pregnant women. Additionally, all pregnant women should be offered antiretroviral therapy, regardless of whether they were taking it previously.
The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. Otherwise, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before beginning the procedure.
Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also crucial in minimizing vertical transmission. Zidovudine is usually administered orally to the neonate if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. Otherwise, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.
Finally, infant feeding is another important factor to consider. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed to minimize the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old backpacker presents to the Emergency Department with severe fever, left-sided lower abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea over the past 48 hours. He has no significant medical history and does not take any regular medication. He has been staying in hostels over the past few days where cooking and bathroom facilities are shared.
On examination, his blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, with a postural drop of 20 mmHg on standing, and his pulse is 90 bpm.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin (Hb) - 142 g/l (normal range: 135–175 g/l)
White cell count (WCC) - 11.8 × 109/l (normal range: 4–11 × 109/l)
Platelets (PLT) - 190 × 109/l (normal range: 150–400 × 109/l)
Sodium (Na+) - 140 mmol/l (normal range: 135–145 mmol/l)
Potassium (K+) - 3.8 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
Creatinine - 120 µmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l)
Urea - 9.5 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5–7.8 mmol/l)
C-reactive protein (CRP) - 180 mg/l (normal range: < 5 mg/l)
Stool screen: Positive for Campylobacter.
He is given oral rehydration sachets and expresses his desire to continue his trip. What is the most appropriate additional intervention?Your Answer: Oral azithromycin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Shigella Infection
Shigella infection is a common cause of diarrhoea, particularly in developing countries. The following treatment options are available for patients with symptomatic Shigella infection:
Oral azithromycin is the preferred first-line option for the treatment of Shigella infection. Quinolones were previously used, but their use is now discouraged due to the risk of seizures and tendon rupture.
Oral metronidazole is the intervention of choice for giardiasis, which presents with symptoms similar to irritable bowel syndrome. However, Shigella infection is not usually treated with metronidazole.
Oral ciprofloxacin is now reserved for serious or life-threatening illness when other options for treatment are unavailable due to significant adverse effects associated with their use.
Single-dose intravenous (IV) ceftriaxone is the preferred option for patients who are severely unwell because of Shigella infection. However, oral azithromycin is considered adequate for most cases.
Given the severity of symptoms and the patient’s activity holiday, antibiotic intervention is warranted to relieve his symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Correct
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A 70-year-old man is on his second cycle of chemotherapy following prostatectomy. He has a central venous catheter in place for his treatment. He developed fever and fatigue two days ago and was admitted to the hospital. He has had one episode of diarrhea and is currently being isolated. He is having difficulty swallowing due to pain while swallowing and is only able to take oral fluids.
He is currently taking G-CSF, omeprazole, and dexamethasone. He has not traveled abroad and reports that he is avoiding raw or undercooked meat.
On examination, he has clear lungs with no murmurs. There is no candida in the mouth, but his temperature is 38.8ºC on admission. There are no visible wounds or rashes. He was started on broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics and oral antifungal medication and admitted. You are asked to review him as he has spiked a fever of 39.5ºC on his third day after admission and he is having difficulty swallowing fluids due to retrosternal pain.
Hb 98 g/l Na+ 140 mmol/l
Platelets 130 * 109/l K+ 5.2 mmol/l
WBC 1.8 * 109/l Urea 4.2 mmol/l
Neuts 0.6 * 109/l Creatinine 60 µmol/l
Lymphs 0.2 * 109/l CRP 90 mg/l
Eosin 0.1 * 109/l
Chest X-ray clear lung fields, no effusion, no air under the diaphragm
Blood cultures (1st peripheral) no growth
Blood cultures (central venous catheter) no growth
Blood cultures (2nd peripheral) coagulase-negative staphylococcus
Urine microscopy no pyuria, no growth
Skin swab (catheter site) pending
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Start fluconazole
Explanation:When a patient with neutropenic sepsis fails to respond to broad-spectrum antibiotics within 48 hours, it is possible that they have a fungal infection. In this case, increasing G-CSF or administering paracetamol will not treat the infection. While adding metronidazole may be helpful, it is not clear if the source of the sepsis is abdominal. Further blood cultures may be necessary, but they will not improve the patient’s condition. The best course of action is to start fluconazole, as fungal causes should always be considered in cases of neutropenic sepsis. The patient’s oral candida and odynophagia suggest the possibility of oesophageal candidiasis, which should be taken into account given the presence of Candida.
Understanding Neutropenic Sepsis in Cancer Patients
Neutropenic sepsis is a common complication that arises from cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs of clinically significant sepsis. To prevent this condition, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 should be offered a fluoroquinolone.
Immediate antibiotic therapy is crucial in managing neutropenic sepsis. It is recommended to start empirical antibiotic therapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) without waiting for the WBC. While some units add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE does not support this approach. After the initial treatment, patients are assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they can receive outpatient treatment. If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) instead of blindly starting antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man returning from Zimbabwe presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe headache and rigors for the past three days. He has no significant medical history, smoked 10 cigarettes per day, and does not consume alcohol. On examination, he appears anxious and sweaty with a pulse rate of 108/min, blood pressure of 91/58 mmHg, temperature of 39ºC, and respiratory rate of 22/min. The chest is clear, heart sounds normal, and a brief neurological examination is unremarkable. An urgent blood film confirms malarial parasites. What clinical findings would indicate severe malaria infection?
Your Answer: Bicarbonate < 14 mmol/l
Correct Answer:
Explanation:According to the World Health Organisation, it is crucial to promptly identify and treat severe malaria to prevent the patient’s condition from rapidly deteriorating and potentially leading to life-threatening complications. These complications may include hypoglycaemia, acidosis, coma, convulsions, severe anaemia, and pulmonary oedema. Cerebral malaria may be indicated by coma or convulsions, and the type of parasite and percentage of parasitaemia are important factors in determining the prognosis and treatment of malaria.
Understanding Falciparum Malaria and its Complications
Falciparum malaria is the most common and severe type of malaria. It is characterized by schizonts on a blood film, parasitaemia greater than 2%, hypoglycaemia, acidosis, temperature above 39°C, severe anaemia, and various complications. Complications of falciparum malaria include cerebral malaria, acute renal failure, acute respiratory distress syndrome, hypoglycaemia, and disseminated intravascular coagulation.
In areas where strains resistant to chloroquine are prevalent, the 2010 WHO guidelines recommend artemisinin-based combination therapies (ACTs) as first-line therapy for uncomplicated falciparum malaria. Examples of ACTs include artemether plus lumefantrine, artesunate plus amodiaquine, artesunate plus mefloquine, artesunate plus sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine, and dihydroartemisinin plus piperaquine.
For severe falciparum malaria, a parasite count of more than 2% usually requires parenteral treatment regardless of clinical state. The WHO now recommends intravenous artesunate over intravenous quinine. If the parasite count is greater than 10%, exchange transfusion should be considered. Shock may indicate coexistent bacterial septicaemia, as malaria rarely causes haemodynamic collapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a one week history of cough, fever and headache. She returned from Thailand one week ago.
On examination she appears drowsy and a little confused. She has no sensitivity to light or focal neurological deficit. She has mild hepatosplenomegaly but no palpable lymphadenopathy. Her chest is clear and heart sounds are normal. She has a macular rash on both arms with a greyish-black scab-like lesion on her right forearm.
Investigations results:
Chest x-ray: Bilateral patchy consolidation
Blood culture: Pending
Hb 118 g/l
Platelets 135 * 109/l
WBC 19 * 109/l
Blood film Left shifted neutrophils in large numbers
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 4.2 mmol/l
Urea 5.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 88 µmol/l
Bilirubin 20 µmol/l
ALP 175 u/l
ALT 48 u/l
Albumin 36 g/l
What is the most appropriate initial treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:Doxycycline is commonly prescribed to manage typhus. A woman presents with a combination of symptoms including fever, hepatosplenomegaly, encephalitis, and an eschar on her shin. As a returning traveler from Indonesia, she may have contracted various diseases such as malaria or dengue fever. However, the presence of an eschar suggests rickettsia, specifically scrub typhus caused by Orientia Tsutsugamushi. Additional indicators of this diagnosis include low platelets, elevated liver function tests, and bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray. The recommended first-line treatment is a seven-day course of doxycycline, although azithromycin may be used as a single dose for those who cannot take doxycycline. Mefloquine and Chloroquine are used to treat malaria, while supportive therapy is the recommended treatment for dengue fever.
Understanding Typhus: Types, Symptoms, and Management
Typhus is a group of diseases caused by rickettsia bacteria that are transmitted between hosts by arthropods. There are different types of typhus, including endemic typhus, epidemic typhus, scrub typhus, and spotted fever. Endemic typhus is caused by Rickettsia typhi and is transmitted by fleas on rats. It occurs worldwide, particularly in warm coastal regions. Epidemic typhus, on the other hand, is caused by Rickettsia prowazekii and is transmitted by body lice. It is more common in central and eastern Africa, as well as central and South America. Scrub typhus, caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi, is transmitted by harvest mites on humans or rodents and is more common in Asia. Spotted fever, caused by Rickettsia spotted fever group, is spread by ticks and includes Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
Despite their differences, all types of typhus share common symptoms such as fever, headache, and malaise. A rash is also a common feature, typically maculopapular, and begins on the trunk before spreading to the extremities. Later complications may include meningoencephalitis. Management of typhus involves the use of doxycycline.
In summary, understanding the different types of typhus, their symptoms, and management is crucial in preventing and treating this group of diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with a 1 day history of fever. He returned to the UK 10 days ago after visiting his family in northern Uganda. He has been resident in the UK for the last 18 years and returns home on average once a year. He does not routinely take malaria prophylaxis.
On examination his temperature is 39.4ºC, pulse is 86 beats per minute, his blood pressure is 115/78 mmHg and his oxygen saturations are 98% on air. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. A thick and thin blood film are sent to the lab which confirms Plasmodium falciparum malaria. The report reads 2.1% parasitaemia with the presence of schizonts.
What would be the most appropriate initial management approach?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous artesunate
Explanation:Based on the patient’s lack of natural immunity and the presence of schizonts in the blood film, this is likely a case of severe malaria with a low level of parasitaemia. Therefore, early intravenous therapy is necessary, and options B, C, and D can be excluded. Additionally, chloroquine is not typically used for falciparum malaria. The WHO recommends using intravenous artesunate for at least the first 24 hours until the patient can tolerate oral medication.
Understanding Falciparum Malaria and its Complications
Falciparum malaria is the most common and severe type of malaria. It is characterized by schizonts on a blood film, parasitaemia greater than 2%, hypoglycaemia, acidosis, temperature above 39°C, severe anaemia, and various complications. Complications of falciparum malaria include cerebral malaria, acute renal failure, acute respiratory distress syndrome, hypoglycaemia, and disseminated intravascular coagulation.
In areas where strains resistant to chloroquine are prevalent, the 2010 WHO guidelines recommend artemisinin-based combination therapies (ACTs) as first-line therapy for uncomplicated falciparum malaria. Examples of ACTs include artemether plus lumefantrine, artesunate plus amodiaquine, artesunate plus mefloquine, artesunate plus sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine, and dihydroartemisinin plus piperaquine.
For severe falciparum malaria, a parasite count of more than 2% usually requires parenteral treatment regardless of clinical state. The WHO now recommends intravenous artesunate over intravenous quinine. If the parasite count is greater than 10%, exchange transfusion should be considered. Shock may indicate coexistent bacterial septicaemia, as malaria rarely causes haemodynamic collapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits the tuberculosis clinic with complaints of worsening lower back pain over the past 6 months. Despite taking analgesics, the pain has become unbearable and has affected his mobility. He lives with his wife on their farm and has been independent until now. His medical history includes hypertension, diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, and benign prostatic hypertrophy. He had tuberculosis at the age of 25, but he cannot recall the treatment he received. An MRI of his spine reveals lumbar 4/5 discitis, and a biopsy is scheduled, which grows acid-fast bacilli on culture. What is the appropriate treatment regimen for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 months of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol with a further 4 months of isoniazid and rifampicin
Explanation:The recommended treatment duration for bone and joint tuberculosis is 6 months, with the first 2 months involving quadruple therapy and the remaining 4 months involving dual therapy. There is some controversy regarding whether treatment should be extended for residual complications such as spinal deformities.
Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications
Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months with a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves rifampicin and isoniazid. For latent tuberculosis, treatment involves three months of isoniazid and rifampicin or six months of isoniazid with pyridoxine. Patients with meningeal tuberculosis require prolonged treatment of at least 12 months with the addition of steroids.
Directly observed therapy may be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients with poor concordance. However, treatment can also lead to complications. Immune reconstitution disease can occur 3-6 weeks after starting treatment and often presents with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects can also occur, such as hepatitis, orange secretions, flu-like symptoms, peripheral neuropathy, agranulocytosis, hyperuricaemia causing gout, arthralgia, myalgia, and optic neuritis. It is important to monitor patients for these complications and adjust treatment as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with confusion, headache, and fever. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. She recently returned from a trip on the Trans-Siberian Railway where she did some hiking with friends. She had a brief flu-like illness towards the end of the trip, which resolved on its own. On examination, she has nuchal rigidity and is photophobic. Blood tests show elevated white blood cell count and C-reactive protein levels. A lumbar puncture is performed, and the CSF analysis reveals lymphocytic pleocytosis, low glucose, and elevated protein levels. Specific IgM antibodies against a flavivirus are detected in the CSF. What is the next appropriate step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop ceftriaxone and aciclovir and manage supportively
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for tick-borne encephalitis is supportive care. Therefore, stopping ceftriaxone and aciclovir and managing the patient’s symptoms is the correct course of action. The patient’s recent travel to an endemic region and presentation with flu-like symptoms followed by neurological dysfunction, as well as the CSF testing revealing specific antibodies against a flavivirus, confirm the diagnosis. There is no specific antiviral treatment for tick-borne encephalitis, so patients require admission to the hospital for supportive care, including pain relief, fever management, fluid and electrolyte management, and intensive care if necessary. Continuing aciclovir and ceftriaxone is not appropriate, as they do not benefit the patient’s condition.
Tick-borne Encephalitis: A Viral Infection Transmitted by Ticks
Tick-borne encephalitis is a viral infection caused by the Flavivirus and transmitted by ticks that are hosted by native wildlife. The virus is transmitted to the host through the bite of an infected tick. The infection manifests as a biphasic illness, with the first phase characterized by constitutional upset, including headaches, myalgia, and fevers. This is followed by an asymptomatic period before the disease progresses to phase two, which is characterized by symptoms of central nervous system involvement, such as meningitis or encephalitis. The incubation period can be up to a month, and long-term neurological sequelae may persist for months to years following infection.
There are three species of flavivirus implicated in tick-borne encephalitis: European, Far Eastern, and Siberian. The Far Eastern species typically causes the most severe illness, often progressing rapidly to central nervous system involvement with no asymptomatic period. Diagnosis is made on the basis of clinical suspicion, with confirmation via cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis demonstrating specific IgM or IgG antibodies. Treatment is supportive, with the addition of doxycycline or a cephalosporin advised if Lyme disease is considered a differential diagnosis until confirmation via CSF sampling can be obtained.
A vaccination is available and recommended for those travelling to endemic areas and planning to engage in high-risk outdoor activities, such as hiking in rural forested areas and/or grasslands. Precautions to avoid tick bites are recommended to all travellers to endemic areas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with HIV disease visits the clinic after eight weeks of starting highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). He had been in good health before starting the treatment, but now he complains of feeling tired and weak. His HAART regimen includes two nucleoside analogues (zidovudine [AZT] and lamivudine [3TC]) and a protease inhibitor (nelfinavir). Additionally, he takes co-trimoxazole to prevent Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia.
The patient's haemoglobin levels were 125 g/L before starting the treatment and have dropped to 81 g/L after eight weeks. The normal range for haemoglobin is 130-180 g/L. His MCV levels were 96 fL before treatment and have increased to 101 fL after eight weeks.
What is the most likely reason for his anaemia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced formation of erythrocytes
Explanation:Adverse Effects of Antiretroviral Therapy on HIV Patients
Antiretroviral therapies are commonly used to treat HIV-positive patients, but they can also cause adverse effects. One of the most frequent side effects is anaemia, which is often caused by zidovudine (AZT). This drug can suppress bone marrow function, leading to severe cases of anaemia that may require blood transfusions. In addition to anaemia, AZT can also cause myalgia, myopathy, myositis, pancytopenia, and lactic acidosis. Although rare, blue discolouration of the nails has also been reported as a side effect of AZT.
Macrocytosis, or the presence of abnormally large red blood cells, is a common finding in patients taking AZT. This can be used as a parameter to monitor adherence to therapy. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential adverse effects and to monitor patients closely for any signs of anaemia or other complications. By doing so, they can provide appropriate treatment and support to help patients manage their HIV infection and maintain their overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 44-year-old male in the Emergency department who presents with mild pleuritic pain and evidence of consolidation on his CXR. Despite his symptoms, his observations are normal and he is a non-smoker. His CURB score is 0.
During the consultation, he discloses that he was diagnosed with HIV five years ago with a CD4 count of 340 cells/μL. He is currently taking truvada and efavirenz, and his HIV was acquired heterosexually. He has been stable with a fully suppressed viral load on antiretrovirals ever since, and his CD4 count is now 600 cells/μL.
What would be your approach to managing his illness?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discharge with oral amoxicillin
Explanation:HIV and Bronchopneumonia: Clinical Indicators and Treatment Considerations
Patients with HIV are more susceptible to bronchopneumonia, making it an important clinical indicator for HIV testing. Those with abnormal CD4 counts are at risk for invasive streptococcal infection secondary to streptococcal pneumonia, highlighting the need for routine pneumococcal vaccination in all HIV patients. However, in patients with well-controlled HIV and normal CD4 counts, pneumonia can be managed as an outpatient using CURB scoring and antimicrobial prescribing guidelines, with caution for potential drug interactions.
When assessing a patient with bronchopneumonia, their CURB score can determine the need for admission and intravenous antibiotics. In this case, a score of 0 indicates that hospitalization is not necessary. It is important to note that a patient’s well-controlled HIV does not affect their CURB score.
When prescribing antibiotics, it is crucial to consider potential drug interactions. Clarithromycin, for example, is a CYP3A4 inhibitor and should not be used in patients taking efavirenz, nevirapine, or protease inhibitors.
It is important to remember that bronchopneumonia does not necessarily indicate treatment failure in HIV patients. However, their HIV physician should be informed so they can ensure the patient is up to date on their pneumococcal and influenza vaccinations.
While HIV patients may have unique medical considerations, general physicians should still be able to treat common conditions. Therefore, admitting directly to an infectious diseases unit may not always be necessary.
Overall, the relationship between HIV and bronchopneumonia, as well as considering potential drug interactions and vaccination status, can aid in the effective management of pneumonia in HIV patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient undergoing chemotherapy for Hodgkin's lymphoma presents with a persistent fever. Blood tests reveal neutropenia and the patient is started on piperacillin/tazobactam and gentamicin for febrile neutropenia. Despite this, the fever continues and on day 3, the antibiotics are changed to meropenem and vancomycin. Further investigations reveal invasive aspergillosis on a high-resolution CT scan of the chest. What would be an appropriate treatment option in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Voriconazole
Explanation:Antimicrobial Therapy Options for a Neutropenic Patient with Invasive Aspergillosis
Voriconazole is a suitable addition to the antimicrobial therapy of a neutropenic patient with CT findings suggestive of invasive aspergillosis. It has a broad spectrum of activity against both yeasts and moulds and is associated with reduced renal impairment and morbidity compared to amphotericin B. Gentamicin, co-amoxiclav, and ciprofloxacin are unlikely to provide additional cover for the patient who is already receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics. Fluconazole, on the other hand, has no activity against moulds such as Aspergillus, which is the primary concern in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old office worker presents to the clinic with complaints of swollen and tender finger joints that have been present for a few weeks. She has no significant medical history except for a recent viral illness. She denies any recent travel and reports that some of her colleagues at work have also been sick with a similar illness. On examination, there is swelling and tenderness in the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints of both hands. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19 infection
Explanation:Parvovirus B19 is a virus that causes erythema infectiosum in children, but can also lead to more serious complications such as aplastic crisis in patients with haemoglobinopathies. It can also cause a post-infectious arthritis that affects small joints, particularly in adult women. This arthritis does not cause permanent damage to bones or joints and should be considered before diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis, especially if the patient has been around children with viral illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65 year old man, originally from Russia, presents to the hospital with a right sided pleural effusion, night sweats, and weight loss. He is febrile on admission and his pleural effusion is exudative. A CT scan reveals enlarged lymph nodes in his abdomen and mediastinum. A pleural biopsy confirms Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex and he is started on treatment. His HIV serology is positive and he is started on anti-retroviral treatment. Three weeks later, he becomes more unwell with daily fevers and abnormal blood results. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome
Explanation:Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome (IRIS) is a condition where symptoms worsen due to increased inflammation as the immune system recovers. It is commonly seen in patients undergoing anti-retroviral therapy for HIV. To diagnose IRIS, it is important to first confirm the underlying condition, such as tuberculosis (TB), through PCR testing. However, since HIV patients may have multiple opportunistic infections, IRIS is a diagnosis of exclusion. In this case, extensive testing ruled out other possible causes for the patient’s symptoms. The diagnosis of IRIS requires meeting all three criteria: antecedents (such as a confirmed diagnosis of TB and initial response to treatment), clinical symptoms (either one major or two minor criteria), and exclusion of other possible explanations for the worsening symptoms.
Understanding Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome
Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) is a medical condition that is commonly linked to HIV or immunosuppression. It occurs when the immune system starts to recover, but then reacts to a previous opportunistic infection with an excessive inflammatory response. This response can worsen the symptoms of the infection, leading to a paradoxical situation.
IRIS is a result of the immune system’s attempt to fight off infections that were previously suppressed due to immunosuppression. When the immune system starts to recover, it can overreact to these infections, causing inflammation and tissue damage. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including fever, swollen lymph nodes, and skin rashes.
IRIS can occur in people with a range of opportunistic infections, including tuberculosis, cryptococcal meningitis, and cytomegalovirus. It is most commonly seen in people with HIV who are starting antiretroviral therapy. While IRIS can be uncomfortable and even dangerous, it is a sign that the immune system is starting to recover. Treatment may involve managing symptoms with anti-inflammatory medications or adjusting antiretroviral therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to hospital with progressive shortness of breath over the last four days and a low-grade fever. He has a past medical history of mild asthma for which he occasionally needs to use his salbutamol inhaler and has previously had bilateral knee replacements for osteoarthritis. He has smoked on average 5 cigarettes per day for the past 40 years and drinks a couple of glasses of wine per week. His travel history includes a holiday to Cyprus, from which he arrived back in the UK 5 days ago.
Examination revealed some right mid zone crackles and reduced breath sounds over this area. Observations revealed a temperature of 38.8ºC, heart rate of 110 bpm, blood pressure of 105/66 mmHg, respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and oxygen saturations of 91% on room air.
Blood tests revealed:
Hb 145 g/l
Platelets 290 * 109/l
WBC 9.4 * 109/l
Na+ 132 mmol/l
K+ 3.7 mmol/l
Urea 4.1 mmol/l
Creatinine 67 µmol/l
Urinary sodium concentration was measured and found to be 36 mmol/L (normal range 40-220 mmol/d). Which of the following investigations is most useful in the diagnosis of this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urine antigen test
Explanation:The most reliable method of diagnosing Legionella pneumophilia, which is likely the cause of this patient’s illness, is through the urinary antigen test. This infection is commonly associated with air conditioning and heating systems, and the patient may have contracted it while on vacation. Additionally, the patient’s low sodium levels may be a result of syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion.
Legionnaire’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Legionnaire’s disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium. It is commonly found in water tanks and air-conditioning systems, and is often associated with foreign travel. Unlike other types of pneumonia, Legionnaire’s disease cannot be transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. In addition, patients may experience hyponatraemia, deranged liver function tests, and pleural effusion in around 30% of cases.
Diagnosis of Legionnaire’s disease is typically done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics such as erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-rays may show non-specific features, but often include patchy consolidation in the mid-to-lower zones and pleural effusions. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and risk factors associated with Legionnaire’s disease in order to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is undergoing her second round of chemotherapy for breast cancer. She is experiencing two days of vomiting and watery diarrhoea, accompanied by occasional chills and weakness. She has not traveled abroad and has not been in contact with anyone who is ill. Her husband is a farmer, and they recently attended a farm foods show that featured local cheese and meats in the area.
During the examination, the woman's abdomen is soft, with mild tenderness in the right iliac fossa. She has dry mucosa and muscle aches throughout her body.
Hb 110 g/l Na+ 138 mmol/l
Platelets 348 * 109/l K+ 3.9 mmol/l
WBC 2.4 * 109/l Urea 4.3 mmol/l
Neuts 0.7 * 109/l Creatinine 76 µmol/l
Lymphs 1.4 * 109/l CRP 96 mg/l
The stool specimen reveals a gram-positive bacillus. What is the likely causative organism in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Listeriosis
Explanation:Neutropenic individuals are advised to steer clear of soft cheese as it poses a risk of listeriosis. In this scenario, the patient is suffering from neutropenic sepsis, which makes them highly vulnerable to various organisms. It is recommended that they avoid consuming dairy products and cold meats. The patient experienced gastrointestinal symptoms and a gram-positive bacillus was detected through culturing. This rules out the possibility of salmonellosis and shigellosis. Since the bacillus is gram-positive and not staphylococcus, listeria is the most probable cause of the patient’s illness, as it is commonly found in dairy products.
Understanding Neutropenic Sepsis in Cancer Patients
Neutropenic sepsis is a common complication that arises from cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs of clinically significant sepsis. To prevent this condition, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 should be offered a fluoroquinolone.
Immediate antibiotic therapy is crucial in managing neutropenic sepsis. It is recommended to start empirical antibiotic therapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) without waiting for the WBC. While some units add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE does not support this approach. After the initial treatment, patients are assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they can receive outpatient treatment. If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) instead of blindly starting antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old businessman presents to the general medical take with fever, jaundice, and headaches. He recently returned from a business trip to Hong Kong and has been unable to participate in his favorite hobby of river sailing for the past two weeks. On examination, he is tachycardic with a temperature of 39.5°C and appears confused and combative. His chest has scattered crackles bibasally, and he reports right upper quadrant abdominal pain.
Investigations reveal hazy lung infiltrates bibasally, a white cell count of 17.8 × 109/L, a neutrophil count of 15.7 × 109/L, and a platelet count of 413 × 109/L. His serum C-reactive protein is 345 mg/L, serum urea is 13.3 mmol/L, serum total bilirubin is 110 mol/L, serum alanine aminotransferase is 117 U/L, serum alkaline phosphatase is 110 U/L, and serum gamma glutamyl transferase is 61 U/L.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leptospirosis
Explanation:Leptospirosis: A Tropical Disease with Early and Late Phases
Leptospirosis is a disease caused by the bacterium Leptospira interrogans, which is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often associated with certain occupations such as sewage workers, farmers, and vets, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases: an early phase characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever, and a later immune phase that can lead to more severe symptoms such as acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, but treatment typically involves high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You see Mr Johnson, a 36-year-old man-who-has-sex-with-men (MSM) in clinic. He was diagnosed with HIV 4 years ago, commencing combination antiretroviral therapy (cART). Following a number of alterations to his cART due to side effects he responded well to a combination of tenofovir, emtricitabine and ritonavir boosted atazanavir. His plasma viral load (pVL) of HIV RNA has remained undetectable and his adherence has been good.
In clinic today Mr Johnson reports 4 weeks of drenching night sweats, a dry cough and some subjective weight loss, going up a belt buckle during this time period. On examination you note that he appears pale and auscultation of the chest elicits crepitations in the left upper zone. Your perform a chest X-ray which demonstrates a cavitating lesion in the left upper lobe. You arrange induced sputum samples which confirm a diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis.
You explain your diagnosis to Mr Johnson and the need to urgently commence him on anti-tuberculosis chemotherapy. Whilst he is happy to commence treatment, he is adamant that he does not want to risk his viral control and states that he is not willing to consider altering his cART regimen at present.
What is the most appropriate management step to treat Mr Johnson?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence rifabutin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrazinamide
Explanation:To avoid potential drug interactions with the patient’s current antiretroviral therapy, the recommended treatment for tuberculosis in this scenario is to use rifabutin, isoniazid, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide. Rifampicin, a common rifamycin agent used in tuberculosis treatment, can induce liver enzymes and reduce the absorption of certain medications, including protease inhibitors. As the patient is stable on their current antiretroviral therapy and not willing to switch, substituting rifampicin with rifabutin or rifapentine is suggested by the British HIV Association. Regimes containing rifabutin have shown similar treatment outcomes in small observational studies in patients with HIV/TB co-infection.
Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications
Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months with a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves rifampicin and isoniazid. For latent tuberculosis, treatment involves three months of isoniazid and rifampicin or six months of isoniazid with pyridoxine. Patients with meningeal tuberculosis require prolonged treatment of at least 12 months with the addition of steroids.
Directly observed therapy may be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients with poor concordance. However, treatment can also lead to complications. Immune reconstitution disease can occur 3-6 weeks after starting treatment and often presents with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects can also occur, such as hepatitis, orange secretions, flu-like symptoms, peripheral neuropathy, agranulocytosis, hyperuricaemia causing gout, arthralgia, myalgia, and optic neuritis. It is important to monitor patients for these complications and adjust treatment as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old HIV positive patient arrives at the emergency department with complaints of gradual onset of mild generalised headache and fever. His most recent CD4 count was 120 (1000-1500). He reports one episode of vomiting. Upon physical examination, he has a temperature of 38°C and mild nuchal rigidity, but no photophobia or papilloedema. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the recommended treatment to initiate after a diagnostic lumbar puncture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amphotericin B
Explanation:Cryptococcal Meningo-Encephalitis: A Fungal Infection in Immunocompromised Patients
Cryptococcus meningo-encephalitis is a severe fungal infection caused by Cryptococcus neoformans, which affects patients with weakened cell-mediated immunity. This illness is considered an AIDS-defining condition and is commonly observed when the CD4 count is below 100. The symptoms of this infection develop gradually over one to two weeks. The diagnosis of Cryptococcal meningo-encephalitis is made by examining the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) with India ink, which reveals the presence of encapsulated yeast forms.
The treatment of Cryptococcal meningo-encephalitis involves the use of intravenous amphotericin B, which may be combined with flucytosine in some cases. In certain instances, a prolonged course of fluconazole may be prescribed. It is crucial to diagnose and treat this infection promptly to prevent severe complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female presents with a 5-day history of fevers and joint pain. She has recently returned from a 6 month gap year trip to South America four days ago and reports no ill health during her travels. She has no past medical history, does not smoke, drinks minimal alcohol and denies the use of illicit drugs. During her travels, she reports two episodes of unprotected sexual contact with a non-regular partner. Although she knew she would be entering a malaria area and was indeed bitten by mosquitoes on a number of occasions, she did not take any malaria prophylaxis.
On examination, heart sounds and chest examination are both normal. A maculopapular rash is noted on her left thigh and right upper arm, with bilateral conjunctival injection. Abdominal examination reveals a soft abdomen with no masses. She has significantly joint and muscle pains, limiting your neurological examination. She is alert and orientated to time and place, scoring 10/10 on abbreviated mental testing. Her blood tests are as follows:
Hb 110 g/l
Platelets 50 * 109/l
WBC 3.0 * 109/l
Na+ 138 mmol/l
K+ 3.9 mmol/l
Urea 6.8 mmol/l
Creatinine 95 µmol/l
CRP 75 mg/l
Bilirubin 8 µmol/l
ALP 32 u/l
ALT 160 u/l
Her first malaria film is negative and a chest radiograph is unremarkable.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dengue fever
Explanation:A returning traveller with symptoms of retro-orbital headache, fever, facial flushing, rash, and thrombocytopenia is likely suffering from dengue fever. Other possible differentials include typhoid fever, which presents with a skin rash and gastrointestinal symptoms, and gonorrhoeae, which typically causes migratory arthritis and tenosynovitis with discharge. Leucopenia, a common symptom of dengue fever, does not necessarily indicate immunodeficiency or HIV.
Understanding Dengue Fever
Dengue fever is a viral infection that can lead to viral haemorrhagic fever, which includes diseases like yellow fever, Lassa fever, and Ebola. The dengue virus is an RNA virus that belongs to the Flavivirus genus and is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. The incubation period for dengue fever is seven days.
Patients with dengue fever can be classified into three categories: those without warning signs, those with warning signs, and those with severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever). Symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache (often retro-orbital), myalgia, bone pain, arthralgia (also known as ‘break-bone fever’), pleuritic pain, facial flushing, maculopapular rash, and haemorrhagic manifestations such as a positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, and epistaxis. Warning signs include abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, persistent vomiting, and clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion). Severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever) is a form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) that results in thrombocytopenia and spontaneous bleeding. Around 20-30% of these patients go on to develop dengue shock syndrome (DSS).
Typically, blood tests are used to diagnose dengue fever, which may show leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and raised aminotransferases. Diagnostic tests such as serology, nucleic acid amplification tests for viral RNA, and NS1 antigen tests may also be used. Treatment for dengue fever is entirely symptomatic, including fluid resuscitation and blood transfusions. Currently, there are no antivirals available for the treatment of dengue fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant and recently returned from a business trip to India presents to the clinic. She has been experiencing nausea, flu-like symptoms, and diarrhea for the past few days and has noticed yellowing of her skin. On examination, her blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, temperature 38.2 °C, and pulse 90 bpm and regular. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the right upper quadrant.
Investigations;
Haemoglobin (Hb) 120 g/l 130–170 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 95 µmol/l 60–110 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 1800 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Albumin 35 g/l 35–55 g/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 250 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Bilirubin 110 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
International normalised ratio (INR) 1.1 1.1
She has been vaccinated against hepatitis A and B
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis E
Explanation:Hepatitis E is the Likely Diagnosis for Acute Symptoms
Based on the patient’s acute symptoms and lack of exposure to potential viruses through bodily fluids, hepatitis E is the most probable diagnosis. This virus is transmitted through the fecal-oral route, with genotypes 3 and 4 causing disease in humans. While the mortality rate is low for the general population, pregnant women may experience a higher mortality rate of up to 20%. There is no vaccine for hepatitis E, and treatment is supportive as immunoglobulin is ineffective.
Hepatitis D, on the other hand, always coexists with hepatitis B, which the patient has been vaccinated against. Therefore, there is no chance of the patient having hepatitis D. The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with pharyngitis and abnormal liver function tests, but the large increase in ALT seen in this case is not typical of this virus. Hepatitis C is unlikely as there is no history of exposure to contaminated blood products or bodily fluids. Typhoid fever is associated with intermittent diarrhea, headaches, high fever, and a non-productive cough, but it does not typically cause a significant rise in transaminases as seen in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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