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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a painless leg ulcer that has been present for a few weeks. Upon examination, the GP observes a superficial erythematous oval-shaped ulcer above her medial malleolus, with hyperpigmentation of the surrounding skin. The patient's ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is 0.95. What is the initial management strategy that should be employed?
Your Answer: Hydrocolloid dressings
Correct Answer: Compression bandaging
Explanation:The recommended treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, which is appropriate for this patient who exhibits typical signs of the condition such as hyperpigmentation and an ulcer located above the medial malleolus. Before initiating compression treatment, an ABPI was performed to rule out arterial disease, which was normal. Hydrocolloid dressings have limited benefit for venous ulceration, while flucloxacillin is used to treat cellulitis. Diabetic foot ulcers are painless and tend to occur on pressure areas, while arterial ulcers have distinct characteristics and are associated with an abnormal ABPI.
Venous Ulceration and its Management
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.
The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old man, who is typically healthy, arrives at the Emergency Department with a three-day history of a red, itchy eye that is only slightly painful when touched over the redness. He had previously visited his General Practitioner and was given chloramphenicol ointment to apply to his eyes four times daily. However, he noticed no improvement in his red eye.
During the examination, his visual acuities are 6/6 in both eyes. His affected eye displays a red spot on the medial side of the eyeball. After administering phenylephrine 10% eye drops, the redness appeared to have improved.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Episcleritis
Explanation:Differentiating Eye Inflammations: Symptoms and Characteristics
Episcleritis is a mild inflammation that causes grittiness and tenderness on palpation, with sectorial redness that is deeper than conjunctivitis. Scleritis, on the other hand, causes severe pain, tenderness, and blueish-red tinge due to deeper inflamed vessels in the sclera. Conjunctivitis presents with superficial inflammation and is not tender to palpation. Iritis causes acute pain, photophobia, and circumcorneal redness, while keratitis also causes acute pain and circumcorneal redness, with fluorescein staining indicating corneal epithelial defect. Knowing these symptoms and characteristics can help in accurately diagnosing and treating eye inflammations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with an abnormal mammogram and a small fixed lump in her right breast. What type of breast cancer is most frequently encountered?
Your Answer: Tubular breast cancer
Correct Answer: Invasive ductal carcinoma (no special type)
Explanation:The most prevalent form of breast cancer is invasive ductal carcinoma, without any distinctive features.
Breast Cancer: Understanding Types and Classification
Breast cancer can be classified based on the type of tissue it originates from, namely duct or lobular tissue. Ductal carcinoma and lobular carcinoma are the two main types of breast cancer, which can further be classified as either carcinoma-in-situ or invasive. Invasive ductal carcinoma, also known as No Special Type, is the most common type of breast cancer. Lobular carcinoma and other rare types of breast cancer are classified as Special Type.
Apart from the common types, there are several rarer types of breast cancer, including medullary breast cancer, mucinous breast cancer, tubular breast cancer, adenoid cystic carcinoma of the breast, metaplastic breast cancer, lymphoma of the breast, basal type breast cancer, phyllodes or cystosarcoma phyllodes, and papillary breast cancer. Paget’s disease of the nipple is another type of breast cancer that is associated with an underlying mass lesion. Inflammatory breast cancer is a rare type of breast cancer that results in an inflamed appearance of the breast due to cancerous cells blocking the lymph drainage.
Understanding the different types and classifications of breast cancer is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment. It is important to note that some types of breast cancer may be associated with underlying lesions seen in the common types, rather than being completely separate subtypes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of increasing shortness of breath, especially during physical activity. He has also been experiencing a persistent dry cough for the past 8 weeks. The doctor suspects pulmonary fibrosis and orders spirometry testing.
The patient's predicted spirometry values are as follows:
FEV1 4.25L
FVC 5.10L
Transfer capacity (TLCO) Normal
What are the probable spirometry findings for this individual?Your Answer: FEV1 = 2.65, FVC = 4.19, TLCO = Decreased
Correct Answer: FEV1 = 2.79, FVC = 3.34, TLCO = Decreased
Explanation:Once the predicted values are obtained, the FEV1:FVC ratio can be evaluated. If this ratio is less than 70, it indicates a potential issue.
Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.
The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.
Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.
The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 27-year-old female patient presents to you for her cervical cancer screening and expresses interest in learning more about HPV (human papillomavirus). What is a true statement regarding HPV?
Your Answer: HPV 16 and 18 are most commonly associated with cervical cancer
Explanation:The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly types 16, 18, and 33. Among the approximately 15 types of HPV that are considered high-risk for cervical cancer, HPV 16 and 18 are responsible for about 70% of cases. HPV 6 and 11, on the other hand, are associated with the formation of genital warts.
Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV
Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.
The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.
The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visits his GP complaining of lower back pain that has been gradually worsening over the past 4 years. During a comprehensive back examination, the GP performs a straight leg raise test, which elicits increased pain in the patient's leg. What pathology is suggested by a positive straight leg raise?
Your Answer: Vertebral compression fracture
Correct Answer: Sciatic nerve pain
Explanation:The positive straight leg raise test involves lifting the leg straight up and if this causes pain in the sciatic nerve area, the test is considered positive. Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disease that causes lower back pain, particularly in the morning, and is often relieved by exercise. This condition typically starts in early adulthood and is linked to the human leukocyte antigen B27 (HLA-B27). Spinal stenosis is characterized by back and/or leg pain, numbness, and weakness that worsens with walking but improves with rest. Facet joint pain is felt in the back over the facets of the cervical and lumbar vertebrae and is aggravated by stress on the facet joints, such as extending the back. Vertebral compression fractures, which can be detected by x-ray, usually result from osteoporosis, trauma, or cancer and cause acute or chronic back pain.
Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Correct
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A 60-year-old man with a 20-year history of treatment with antipsychotic medications for bipolar disorder complains of the onset of writhing tongue and finger movements.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Explanation:Understanding Movement Disorders Associated with Anti-Psychotic Medication
Anti-psychotic medication can cause a range of movement disorders, including tardive dyskinesia, akathisia, and Parkinsonism. Tardive dyskinesia is a common side-effect of long-term treatment with anti-psychotics, but can also occur with minimal doses. It is characterized by choreoathetoid movements, often starting in the fingers and tongue and becoming more generalized. Treatment is often unsuccessful, but may involve switching to a different medication or using agents such as tetrabenazine or benzodiazepines. Akathisia is an inner feeling of motor restlessness, with voluntary movements such as pacing or rocking. Parkinsonism is characterized by resting tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. These movement disorders can be mistaken for other conditions such as Huntington’s or Wilson’s disease, but the association with anti-psychotic medication and the specific symptoms make tardive dyskinesia a more likely option. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients on anti-psychotic medication for these potential side-effects and adjust treatment as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and is currently taking Sinemet (co-careldopa) prescribed by her neurologist. However, she is experiencing severe nausea as a side effect. What is the best anti-emetic medication to recommend?
Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Correct Answer: Domperidone
Explanation:Understanding Parkinsonism and Its Causes
Parkinsonism is a term used to describe a group of neurological disorders that share similar symptoms with Parkinson’s disease. The causes of Parkinsonism can vary, with some cases being drug-induced, such as the use of antipsychotics or metoclopramide. Other causes include progressive supranuclear palsy, multiple system atrophy, Wilson’s disease, post-encephalitis, and dementia pugilistica, which is often seen in individuals who have suffered from chronic head trauma, such as boxers. Additionally, exposure to toxins like carbon monoxide or MPTP can also lead to Parkinsonism.
It is important to note that not all medications that cause extra-pyramidal side-effects will lead to Parkinsonism. For example, domperidone does not cross the blood-brain barrier and therefore does not cause these side-effects. Understanding the various causes of Parkinsonism can help with early diagnosis and treatment, as well as prevention in some cases. By identifying the underlying cause, healthcare professionals can tailor treatment plans to address the specific needs of each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of persistent coloured sputum for the past 2 years. She has a history of frequent chest infections. On examination, bilateral basal crepitations were heard.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Differentiating Bronchiectasis from Other Respiratory Conditions
Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by permanent dilatation of the bronchi and bronchioles due to chronic infection. Patients with bronchiectasis typically present with a persistent cough, copious purulent sputum, and occasional haemoptysis. Bilateral crackles are often found during examination. It is important to differentiate bronchiectasis from other respiratory conditions such as COPD, aspergilloma, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. While patients with COPD may have sputum production and chronic dyspnoea, they are likely to have quiet breath sounds or wheeze. Aspergilloma, on the other hand, is usually asymptomatic with little sputum production, but may cause cough, haemoptysis, lethargy, and weight loss. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis results from a hypersensitivity reaction to fungal spores or avian proteins, causing a dry, non-productive cough. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, which causes a dry cough, exertional dyspnoea, weight loss, and arthralgia, is also different from bronchiectasis. Therefore, a thorough evaluation of symptoms and examination is necessary to accurately diagnose bronchiectasis and differentiate it from other respiratory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A highly active 12-year-old boy who plays football for his local team reports knee pain for several months. Upon examination, tenderness is noted over the tibial tuberosity.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans
Correct Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease
Explanation:Common Causes of Knee Pain in Young Patients
Knee pain is a common complaint among young patients, especially those who are active in sports. Here are some of the most common causes of knee pain in this population:
1. Osgood-Schlatter disease: This condition is caused by overuse of quadriceps, putting strain on the patellar ligament attachment to the tibia, which is not yet fully developed. The key clinical examination finding is tenderness over the tibial tuberosity, and there may well be a bony lump over the area as well.
2. Patellar subluxation: This describes the temporary but recurring lateral subluxation of the patella. Patients may describe the knee ‘giving way’ or feeling it move out of place, most commonly during activity such as running or jumping.
3. Chondromalacia patellae: This is caused by abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella. Patients will describe anterior knee pain, which is worse after sitting for a prolonged length of time, or for activities including walking down the stairs, jumping, running or climbing.
4. Osteoarthritis: This is a disease of older age, owing to degeneration of the articular cartilage. It is often seen in the weight-bearing areas, including the knee and hip, as well as in the hands.
5. Osteochondritis dissecans: This is caused by separation of subchondral bone articular cartilage from the joint surface, and affects the knee in 75% of cases. It tends to present in teenagers and young adults, with a vague and achy joint pain that is made worse by activity, and may be accompanied by swelling.
It is important to note that knee pain in children could also be due to hip pathology, such as SUFE (slipped upper femoral epiphysis). Proper diagnosis and management are crucial for the long-term health of the joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Correct
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A 25-year-old female patient complains of red, itchy, and sore eyelids with crusts on the eyelashes and a gritty feeling in both eyes. What is the primary treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Eyelid hygiene with warm compresses, lid massage and lid margin cleaning
Explanation:The initial step in treating blepharitis is to apply hot compresses to the affected area. This is followed by eyelid hygiene, which involves cleaning the lid margins and massaging them. If this does not work, chloramphenicol eye drops and oral antibiotics may be prescribed. Oily tear eye drops can be used to prevent rapid evaporation of tears caused by blepharitis. While an omega-3 rich diet may help improve the condition, it is not considered a first-line treatment.
Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought to the Accident and Emergency Department after having a blackout. He was walking down the street when he felt nauseated, dizzy and sweaty. He collapsed and lost consciousness for one minute. A friend says that he was pale and had some jerking of his limbs for 10 seconds, but he did not bite his tongue and there was no history of urinary incontinence. He recovered immediately, with no confusion or disorientation. Examination and the electrocardiogram (ECG) are normal. He is otherwise usually fit and well and on no regular medications.
What further investigation is required to make a diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No investigation
Explanation:When to Investigate Transient Loss of Consciousness: A Guide for Clinicians
Transient loss of consciousness (LOC) can be a concerning symptom for patients and clinicians alike. However, not all cases require extensive investigation. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients presenting with a transient LOC should undergo a thorough history, examination, and electrocardiogram (ECG). If these are normal and the patient meets certain criteria, further work-up may not be necessary.
For example, uncomplicated vasovagal syncope can be diagnosed if there are no features suggesting an alternative diagnosis and if the patient experiences the 3 Ps of posture-prolonged standing, provoking factors, and prodromal symptoms. Doppler ultrasonography of the carotids would only be indicated if there was suspicion of carotid artery stenosis, while a single syncopal episode is not an indication for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain.
Electroencephalogram (EEG) may be considered if the history is suggestive of epilepsy, but it should not be routinely used in the work-up for transient LOC. Features strongly suggestive of epilepsy include a bitten tongue, head turning to one side during transient LOC, no memory of abnormal behavior witnessed by someone else, unusual posturing, prolonged limb jerking, confusion following the event, and prodromal déjà vu or jamais vu. If any of these are present, the patient should be reviewed by a specialist within 2 weeks, who would then make a decision regarding EEG.
In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary for all patients presenting with a transient LOC. However, if the patient meets certain criteria and there are no features suggesting an alternative diagnosis, further investigation may not be required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of back pain and fever that have persisted for two weeks. During the examination, it is discovered that he has weakness in his right lower limb. The patient has a history of stroke and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Although he has not traveled recently, discitis is suspected. What is the probable organism responsible for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Understanding Discitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Discitis is a condition characterized by an infection in the intervertebral disc space, which can lead to serious complications such as sepsis or an epidural abscess. The most common cause of discitis is bacterial, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most frequent culprit. However, it can also be caused by viral or aseptic factors. The symptoms of discitis include back pain, pyrexia, rigors, and sepsis. In some cases, neurological features such as changing lower limb neurology may occur if an epidural abscess develops.
To diagnose discitis, imaging tests such as MRI are used due to their high sensitivity. A CT-guided biopsy may also be required to guide antimicrobial treatment. The standard therapy for discitis involves six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The choice of antibiotic depends on various factors, with the most important being the identification of the organism through a positive culture, such as a blood culture or CT-guided biopsy.
Complications of discitis include sepsis and epidural abscess. Therefore, it is essential to assess the patient for endocarditis, which can be done through transthoracic echo or transesophageal echo. Discitis is usually due to haematogenous seeding of the vertebrae, which implies that the patient has had a bacteraemia, and seeding could have occurred elsewhere. Understanding the causes, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of discitis is crucial in managing this condition and preventing its complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old Jewish woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and found to be BRCA1-positive. What type of cancer is she most susceptible to developing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ovarian cancer
Explanation:BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 Mutations and Their Association with Cancer
BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 are tumour suppressor genes that play a crucial role in repairing damaged DNA and preventing uncontrolled cell division. Mutations in these genes have been linked to an increased risk of developing various types of cancer, including breast, ovarian, prostate, pancreatic, and colorectal cancers. Ashkenazi Jews have a higher incidence of BRCA mutations, and women with a family history of breast cancer can be tested for these mutations. The risk of developing breast cancer is high for women with abnormal BRCA-1 or -2, but the risk for ovarian cancer is lower. There is currently no association between BRCA-1 mutations and cervical, endometrial, gastric, or lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of a fishy-smelling watery discharge from her vagina, which worsens after sexual activity. What test would be the most helpful in diagnosing her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Test vaginal pH
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Bacterial Vaginosis
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by a shift in the vaginal flora, resulting in a change in pH. Here are some diagnostic tests that can be used to identify BV:
1. Test vaginal pH: A vaginal pH of > 4.5 in conjunction with a fishy odour and the characteristic discharge is diagnostic of BV.
2. Blood serology testing: BV cannot be diagnosed through blood serology testing as it is not caused by a single organism.
3. High vaginal swab for sexually transmitted infections: BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but the presence of other STIs can increase the prevalence of BV.
4. Low vaginal swab: A culture of the vaginal organisms via a low vaginal swab is not a useful way to diagnose BV.
5. Urinary microscopy, sensitivity, and culture: Urinary culture is not used to diagnose BV. Diagnosis is based on characteristic findings at examination.
In conclusion, a combination of a high vaginal swab for STIs and a test for vaginal pH can be used to diagnose BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female patient comes in seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex with her ex-partner four days ago. She is determined to prevent a pregnancy. The patient has a history of ectopic pregnancy four years ago, which led to a salpingectomy. She is currently on day 14 of a 28-day cycle. What is the best course of action among the available options?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insert an intrauterine device
Explanation:Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old man has just undergone an emergency repair for a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. Preoperatively he was taking aspirin and warfarin; intraoperatively he received unfractionated heparin prior to application of the aortic cross-clamp. His observation findings are heart rate 120 bpm, BP 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 23/min, oxygen saturation 98% on air, temperature 38ºC. His blood results on admission to the critical care unit are as follows:
Hb 110 g/L
Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 30 * 109/L
(150 - 400)
WBC 15 * 109/L
(4.0 - 11.0)
Fibrinogen 0.5 g/L
(2-4 g/L)
PT 20 seconds
(10-12 seconds)
APTT 60 seconds
(35-45 seconds)
FDP 60 ug/mL
(<10 ug/mL)
What is the most likely explanation for the blood abnormalities seen in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the patient’s deranged vital signs after a major operation and suspected sepsis is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). This is characterized by low platelets, increased clotting time, and raised fibrin degradation products (FDPs). DIC is often caused by the release of tissue factor (TF) in response to cytokines, tumor necrosis factor, and endotoxin. Anastomotic leak, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, warfarin use, and aspirin use are unlikely causes based on the patient’s history and blood results.
Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) Diagnosis
Under normal conditions, coagulation and fibrinolysis work together to maintain homeostasis. However, in DIC, these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One key factor in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. Normally, TF is not in contact with the general circulation, but it is exposed after vascular damage or in response to certain cytokines. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which then triggers the intrinsic pathway. DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy.
To diagnose DIC, a typical blood picture will show decreased platelets and fibrinogen, increased fibrinogen degradation products, and the presence of schistocytes due to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Additionally, both the prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are prolonged, while bleeding time and platelet count are often low. Understanding the diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old comes in for a check-up. Over the last 3 months, he has been experiencing frequent headaches. These headaches are now happening almost every day and can be quite intense. What characteristic in this patient should trigger an investigation for a secondary cause of headaches?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Headache triggered by coughing
Explanation:When dealing with an older patient, it is important to rule out glaucoma if they are experiencing severe unilateral eye pain. However, for a 23-year-old patient, this is not a top concern. Migraine and cluster headaches are common causes of unilateral eye pain, as well as sinusitis which can cause pain behind the eye.
Red Flags for Headaches
Headaches are a common complaint in clinical practice, but some symptoms may indicate a more serious underlying condition. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has identified several red flags that should prompt further investigation. These include compromised immunity, a history of malignancy, sudden-onset headache, new-onset neurological deficit, impaired level of consciousness, recent head trauma, and symptoms suggestive of giant cell arteritis or acute narrow-angle glaucoma. Other red flags include vomiting without an obvious cause, worsening headache with fever, new-onset cognitive dysfunction, change in personality, orthostatic headache, and a substantial change in the characteristics of the headache. If any of these symptoms are present, it is important to seek medical attention promptly. By identifying these red flags, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive appropriate care and treatment for their headaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with a history of angina and a recent episode of dizziness is prescribed clopidogrel.
What is the primary mechanism of action of this medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blocks platelet adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptors
Explanation:Clopidogrel inhibits platelet activation by blocking the binding of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to the platelet P2Y12 receptor. This is achieved by preventing the activation of the glycoprotein GPIIa/IIIb. It is recommended by NICE for secondary prevention following a cerebrovascular accident or in peripheral arterial disease. It can also be used in combination with aspirin for the management of ischaemic heart disease or for patients undergoing percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention.
Tirofiban and abciximab are drugs that block glycoprotein IIIb/IIIa receptors, preventing platelet aggregation by blocking fibrinogen from binding to platelet receptors. These drugs are used under specialist supervision only for the treatment of acute ST elevation myocardial infarction or during percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention.
Hirudin, produced by leeches, blocks thrombin receptors. Bivalirudin, a hirudin analogue, is used for the acute management of acute coronary syndrome or during PCI.
Aspirin inhibits thromboxane production by blocking the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX).
Heparin binds to antithrombin III, activating it, which reduces the activity of thrombin and factor Xa. Heparin is an anticoagulant and plays a role in the treatment of venous thromboembolism, while clopidogrel is an anti-platelet agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female presents to a dermatology appointment with several new scaly plaques on her scalp that are causing itching and redness, especially around the occipital region. She has a past medical history of chronic plaque psoriasis that is typically managed well with topical treatment and emollients. The dermatologist confirms a diagnosis of scalp psoriasis. What is the best course of action for treating her recent diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical betamethasone valerate
Explanation:When it comes to managing scalp psoriasis, the approach is slightly different from managing plaque psoriasis. The first-line treatment typically involves using potent corticosteroids topically. Among the options, betamethasone valerate is the best answer as it is a potent corticosteroid that can be prescribed as a shampoo or mousse for easier application. For severe and extensive psoriasis, oral methotrexate may be recommended, but this is not applicable to the patient in question. Phototherapy is also an option for extensive psoriasis, but not for this patient who has well-controlled chronic plaque psoriasis. If no improvement is seen after 8 weeks of using a topical potent corticosteroid, second-line treatment may involve using topical vitamin D.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents with right-sided facial droop, dysphasia, and right-sided hemianopia. He has a medical history of gout, recurrent UTIs, dementia, and diabetes mellitus. A CT head is unremarkable, and an MRI head reveals a left-sided infarct. Which of the patient's pre-existing conditions elevate his chances of experiencing an ischemic stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation:The following factors increase the risk of ischaemic stroke: age, hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidaemia, diabetes mellitus, and atrial fibrillation. However, gout, recurrent UTIs, and dementia do not have an impact on stroke risk. Taking aspirin can lower the risk of stroke.
Understanding Stroke: A Basic Overview
Stroke is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality, with over 150,000 cases reported annually in the UK alone. It is the fourth leading cause of death in the country, killing twice as many women as breast cancer each year. However, the prevention and treatment of strokes have undergone significant changes in the past decade. What was once considered an untreatable condition is now viewed as a brain attack that requires emergency assessment to determine if patients can benefit from new treatments such as thrombolysis.
A stroke, also known as a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), occurs when there is a sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain. This interruption can lead to irreversible damage as neural tissue is entirely dependent on aerobic metabolism. There are two main types of strokes: ischaemic and haemorrhagic. Ischaemic strokes occur when there is a blockage in the blood vessel that stops blood flow, while haemorrhagic strokes happen when a blood vessel bursts, leading to a reduction in blood flow.
Symptoms of a stroke include motor weakness, speech problems, swallowing difficulties, visual field defects, and balance problems. The Oxford Stroke Classification is a formal system used to classify strokes based on initial symptoms. Patients with suspected stroke require emergency neuroimaging to determine if they are suitable for thrombolytic therapy to treat early ischaemic strokes. If the stroke is haemorrhagic, neurosurgical consultation should be considered for advice on further management.
In conclusion, understanding the basics of stroke is crucial in identifying and managing the condition. Early intervention and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with a two-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. She has drunk only small amounts and is becoming more lethargic. She has opened her bowels five times but has only passed urine once today. She is usually fit and well. Her 7-year-old sister was unwell with the same symptoms a few days before but has since recovered well.
On examination, she appears restless with sunken eyes, dry mucous membranes and capillary refill time (CRT) of 2 seconds, and she is tachycardic with a pulse of 150 beats per minute.
What would be your assessment of her clinical fluid status?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clinical dehydration
Explanation:Understanding Dehydration in Children: Symptoms and Management
Dehydration is a common concern in children, especially when they are suffering from illnesses like gastroenteritis. It is important to recognize the different levels of dehydration and manage them accordingly.
Clinical dehydration is characterized by symptoms such as restlessness and decreased urine output. Signs of clinical dehydration include irritability, sunken eyes, dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, and normal capillary refill time (CRT).
Children with no clinically detectable dehydration do not show any signs or symptoms of dehydration and can be managed with oral fluids until the illness subsides.
Clinical shock is a severe form of dehydration that requires immediate medical attention. Symptoms of clinical shock include a decreased level of consciousness, pale or mottled skin, cold extremities, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, weak peripheral pulses, and a prolonged CRT. Children with clinical shock require admission and rehydration with intravenous fluids and electrolyte supplementation.
A euvolemic child, on the other hand, has a normal general appearance, normal eyes, a moist tongue, and present tears. They have a normal CRT and are not tachycardic.
It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of dehydration in children and manage it accordingly to prevent further complications. Fluid overload is also a concern, but in cases of gastroenteritis-induced dehydration, rehydration is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother who is concerned that he has had diarrhoea for three days. He has been experiencing 2–3 loose, watery stools every day. He has also vomited twice at the onset of the illness but not since.
On examination, he is afebrile and well hydrated. His abdomen is soft and nontender. The family recently returned from a trip to Australia. While away, the patient was admitted to hospital for two days with a lower respiratory tract infection.
Which of the patient’s features is most likely to indicate the need for a stool sample for culture and sensitivity?
Select the SINGLE factor from the list below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The recent hospital admission
Explanation:Assessing the Need for Stool Culture in a Child with Gastroenteritis
Gastroenteritis is a common illness characterized by diarrhea, abdominal pain, and nausea. In most cases, it is caused by a viral, bacterial, or parasitic infection and is self-limiting. However, recent hospital admission or antibiotic treatment can increase the risk of Clostridium difficile toxin as the cause, making stool culture necessary. Additionally, patients who have recently traveled to certain countries or are under the age of five and attend nursery, pre-school, or school may require stool culture. If symptoms persist beyond seven days or if there is blood or mucus in the stool, stool samples should be taken. Vomiting is not a red-flag feature unless it leads to dehydration. Parents should be given safety-net advice on when to seek further medical attention if their child’s condition worsens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following medications for treating diabetes is most likely to result in cholestasis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gliclazide
Explanation:Cholestasis can be caused by sulphonylureas.
Understanding Drug-Induced Liver Disease
Drug-induced liver disease is a condition that occurs when certain medications or drugs cause damage to the liver. This condition is generally divided into three categories: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there is often overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of changes to the liver.
Hepatocellular drug-induced liver disease is characterized by damage to the liver cells. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include paracetamol, sodium valproate, phenytoin, MAOIs, halothane, anti-tuberculosis medications, statins, alcohol, amiodarone, methyldopa, and nitrofurantoin.
Cholestatic drug-induced liver disease, on the other hand, is characterized by a reduction in bile flow from the liver. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include the combined oral contraceptive pill, antibiotics such as flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, and erythromycin, anabolic steroids, testosterones, phenothiazines such as chlorpromazine and prochlorperazine, sulphonylureas, fibrates, and rare reported causes such as nifedipine. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone can cause both hepatocellular and cholestatic damage.
It is important to note that drug-induced liver disease can be a serious condition and can lead to liver cirrhosis if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with certain medications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of liver damage occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 55-year-old woman who has been experiencing difficulty breathing. She undergoes a spirometry evaluation with the following findings: a decrease in forced vital capacity (FVC), an increase in the forced expiratory volume in one second to forced vital capacity ratio (FEV1:FVC ratio), and a decrease in the transfer factor for carbon monoxide (TLCO), indicating impaired gas exchange. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.
The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.
Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.
The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhoea. She says that her stools float and are difficult to flush away.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Potassium (K+) 3.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.08 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Albumin 29 g/l 35–55 g/l
Haemoglobin (Hb) 91 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 89 fl 76–98 fl
Coeliac disease is suspected.
Which of the following is the initial investigation of choice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG)
Explanation:Diagnosis and Investigation of Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a possible diagnosis in patients presenting with chronic diarrhoea and steatorrhoea. The initial investigation of choice is the anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG) test, which has a sensitivity of over 96%. However, it is important to check immunoglobulin A (IgA) levels concurrently, as anti-TTG is an IgA antibody and may not be raised in the presence of IgA deficiency.
The treatment of choice for coeliac disease is a lifelong gluten-free diet, avoiding gluten-containing foods such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats. Patients with coeliac disease are at increased risk of small bowel lymphoma and oesophageal carcinoma over the long term.
While faecal fat estimation may be useful in estimating steatorrhoea, small bowel biopsy is the gold standard investigation for coeliac disease. However, this would not be the initial investigation of choice as it is invasive. An anti-TTG test is more sensitive and specific than an anti-gliadin test in untreated coeliac disease. Magnesium (Mg2+) levels may be abnormal in coeliac disease, but this would not be diagnostic and therefore not the first investigation of choice.
In summary, the diagnosis of coeliac disease requires a combination of clinical presentation, laboratory investigations, and small bowel biopsy if necessary. The anti-TTG test is the initial investigation of choice, and a gluten-free diet is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy is being evaluated at the Enuresis clinic. Despite using an enuresis alarm for the past three months, he continues to wet the bed at night. He has no issues with urination during the day and has a daily bowel movement. What treatment option is most probable to be suggested?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Desmopressin
Explanation:Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old woman is being evaluated after taking oral flucloxacillin for cellulitis in her right lower limb. The local protocol recommends using oral clindamycin as the next line of treatment. What is the most crucial side effect of clindamycin that she should be cautioned about?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:The use of clindamycin as a treatment is strongly linked to an increased likelihood of contracting C. difficile.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with indigestion has been taking her friend's omeprazole for the past week, which has improved her symptoms. You want to check for the presence of Helicobacter pylori by using a stool antigen test (SAT) or a carbon-13-labelled urea breath test (UBT). What is the recommended waiting period after stopping a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) before conducting these tests?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2-week washout period for either UBT or SAT
Explanation:H. pylori Testing and Treatment Guidelines
To ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment for H. pylori infection, it is recommended that adults with dyspepsia or reflux symptoms undergo a 2-week washout period before testing for H. pylori if they are receiving PPI therapy. This applies to both the carbon-13-labelled urea breath test (UBT) and stool antigen test (SAT). Testing should not be performed within two weeks of PPI use, as this can lead to false negatives.
Patients with dyspepsia should be offered H. pylori ‘test and treat’ using a UBT, SAT, or laboratory-based serology. Office-based serological tests should not be used due to their inadequate performance. Retesting for eradication should be performed using a UBT, as there is insufficient evidence to recommend the SAT for this purpose.
First-line treatment for H. pylori eradication involves a 7-day, twice-daily course of a PPI, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. Multiple regimens are available, and local protocols should be consulted.
Guidelines for Accurate H. pylori Testing and Treatment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. What medications are typically prescribed in combination for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone
Explanation:Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.
During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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