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  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old man was brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance following a...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man was brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance following a knife altercation in the city on a Saturday evening. He sustained a chest wound from the stabbing. Upon resuscitation and stabilization, it was observed that he had left scapular winging. Which nerve was affected to result in this injury?

      Your Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Shoulder Movement

      The human body is a complex system of nerves and muscles that work together to facilitate movement. Injuries to specific nerves can have a significant impact on the ability to move certain parts of the body. Here are some examples of nerve injuries and their effects on shoulder movement:

      1. Long Thoracic Nerve: This nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle, which is responsible for protracting the scapula and holding it against the thoracic wall. Damage to this nerve can lead to difficulty in lifting the arm above the head.

      2. Axillary Nerve: The axillary nerve innervates the deltoid muscle, which is a powerful shoulder abductor. Injury to this nerve can cause problems with shoulder abduction, making it difficult to lift the arm away from the body.

      3. Intercostobrachial Nerve: This nerve provides sensation to the armpit area. Damage to this nerve can cause pain and tingling in the armpit.

      4. Thoracodorsal Nerve: The thoracodorsal nerve innervates the latissimus dorsi muscle, which is responsible for adduction, extension, and medial rotation of the arm. Injury to this nerve can lead to paralysis of the latissimus dorsi, making it difficult to perform these movements.

      5. Medial Pectoral Nerve: This nerve innervates the pectoralis major and minor muscles, which are responsible for adduction, flexion, and medial rotation of the arm. Damage to this nerve can cause paralysis of these muscles, leading to difficulty in performing these movements.

      In conclusion, nerve injuries can have a significant impact on shoulder movement. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any symptoms of nerve damage to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old man undergoes surgery to remove his left lung due to advanced...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man undergoes surgery to remove his left lung due to advanced non-small cell lung cancer. What is the most fatal complication that may arise from this treatment?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      After a pneumonectomy, patients may experience various complications. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema affects a small percentage of patients but can be fatal. Treatment involves supportive measures and may require mechanical ventilation or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation. Pneumonia is a common complication but does not have a high mortality rate. Anastomotic dehiscence, particularly in right pneumonectomies involving the carina, is the most significant cause of mortality. Arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, can occur but are not typically fatal. Pulmonary embolism affects a small percentage of patients but can be deadly if not recognized early. Mortality rates can be reduced to 10% or less with prompt treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset, severe chest pain,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset, severe chest pain, radiating to the intrascapular area, which he describes as a tearing-type pain.
      The patient is usually well, with the only other medical history of note being a diagnosis of Ehlers–Danlos syndrome. He is a non-smoker and rarely drinks.
      On examination, the patient appears to be in a significant amount of pain. He is apyrexial, with oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Of note, the patient has a blood pressure of 175/100 mmHg in the right arm and 150/80 mmHg in the left. An early diastolic murmur is also heard in the aortic area.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Aortic Dissection

      Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that occurs when there is a tear in the aortic intima, creating a false lumen between the intima and media. This condition is more likely to occur in men, older individuals, and those with hypertension or connective tissue disorders such as Marfan and Ehlers-Danlos syndromes.

      The classic presentation of aortic dissection includes abrupt chest pain that is often described as a shearing or tearing-type pain that may radiate to the back. Other symptoms may include differences in blood pressure between the right and left arm, aortic regurgitation, and signs of malperfusion.

      While a chest X-ray may show widening of the mediastinal shadow, imaging such as computed tomography (CT) or transoesophageal echocardiography is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment involves stabilizing the patient’s heart rate and blood pressure to prevent further damage, followed by surgical repair.

      Although myocardial infarction is a differential diagnosis, the classical history of presentation, age, and connective tissue disorder diagnosis make aortic dissection more likely in this scenario. Other differentials, such as ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm, acute pancreatitis, and pulmonary embolism, can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and examination findings.

      In conclusion, aortic dissection should be considered in any patient presenting with sudden-onset chest pain, especially those with risk factors for the condition. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      50.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - At the bifurcation of the trachea, a lesion of the carina is observed...

    Correct

    • At the bifurcation of the trachea, a lesion of the carina is observed during bronchoscopy. Can you determine the vertebral level where this lesion is located?

      Your Answer: T4/5

      Explanation:

      The Vertebral Levels of the Trachea and Suprasternal Notch

      The trachea is a flexible tube that starts at the C7 vertebral level in the lower neck and ends at the T4/5 vertebral level in the mediastinum. At this level, it splits into the right and left main bronchi, which can be seen during bronchoscopy at the carina. The suprasternal notch is located at the T2/3 vertebral level. None of the other choices provided are correct for the vertebral levels of the trachea and suprasternal notch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department (ED) via ambulance with sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department (ED) via ambulance with sudden and severe central chest pain that radiates to his back and down his left arm. He has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus (controlled by diet), and hypercholesterolemia. Upon examination, he appears pale and sweaty with a heart rate of 120 bpm and blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg on the right arm and 80/50 mmHg on the left arm. An early diastolic murmur is also present. A chest X-ray shows a slightly widened mediastinum with a normal-sized heart and no consolidation or pleural effusions. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST elevation in leads I, II, and aVF. What immediate management should be implemented?

      Your Answer: Immediate treatment as per acute coronary syndrome (ACS) protocol, urgent referral to cardiology

      Correct Answer: Limited fluid resuscitation, CT scan, urgent referral to cardiothoracic surgery

      Explanation:

      Management of Aortic Dissection

      Explanation: Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and management. Patients typically present with sudden-onset severe central chest pain, shock, and markedly unequal blood pressure in the arms. The chest X-ray may show mediastinal widening, which is a characteristic feature of aortic dissection.

      The first step in management is careful fluid resuscitation, aiming for a systolic blood pressure of 100-120 mmHg (permissive hypotension). This is followed by a chest-abdo-pelvis CT scan to identify the type and extent of the dissection. Type A dissections, which occur proximal to the left subclavian artery origin, require urgent surgery, while type B dissections, which are distal to the left subclavian artery, are treated medically.

      Urgent referral to the cardiothoracic surgery team is essential for patients with aortic dissection. Thrombolysis is rarely used to treat ST-elevation myocardial infarction now, with the success of primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Therefore, immediate treatment as per acute coronary syndrome (ACS) protocol is not appropriate for aortic dissection.

      In summary, aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. Careful fluid resuscitation, CT scan, and urgent referral to cardiothoracic surgery are the key steps in managing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      75.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old retired teacher is found to have a 5.7 cm aortic aneurysm,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old retired teacher is found to have a 5.7 cm aortic aneurysm, following her abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) ultrasound screening test. She is referred to the vascular surgeon to discuss surgical repair of the aneurysm. Which of the following is correct regarding surgical repair of AAAs?

      Your Answer: Long-term mortality rates are significantly improved in patients undergoing EVAR, compared to open repair

      Correct Answer: EVAR cannot be performed for aneurysms that occur above the renal arteries

      Explanation:

      Myth-busting EVAR: Clarifying Misconceptions About Endovascular Aneurysm Repair

      Endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR) is a minimally invasive alternative to open repair for treating abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA). However, there are several misconceptions about EVAR that need to be clarified.

      Contrary to popular belief, EVAR cannot be performed for aneurysms that occur above the renal arteries. In such cases, open repair is the only option as there is not enough normal aorta to attach the graft, increasing the risk of endoleaks.

      Another myth is that the risk of immediate post-operative complications is higher for EVAR than open repair. In reality, EVAR is associated with shorter recovery times and reduced lengths of stay, making it a preferred method for treating AAA.

      However, the graft attachment is less secure following EVAR, and approximately 1 in 10 patients may need further intervention after the procedure. Additionally, long-term mortality rates do not differ significantly between EVAR and open repair.

      Finally, while both EVAR and open surgical methods can be used to treat a ruptured aortic aneurysm, EVAR is not currently recommended for such cases, except in the context of research.

      In conclusion, it is important to dispel these myths and clarify the facts about EVAR to ensure that patients receive the most appropriate treatment for their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 58-year-old man undergoes a right middle lobectomy of his lung for lung...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man undergoes a right middle lobectomy of his lung for lung cancer. A chest drain is inserted at the time of surgery to allow full lung reinflation. Three days after the operation, you notice that air bubbles escape through the chest drain into the water seal whenever the patient coughs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Air leak from the area of resected lung

      Explanation:

      Causes of Air Leak from the Area of Resected Lung

      Following a lung resection, air may escape through the chest drain due to an air leak from the edge of the resected lung. This can be worsened by talking or coughing, which increases airway pressure. If the chest drain is removed, the patient is at risk of developing a pneumothorax. Conservative management is the first-line approach, which involves leaving the existing chest drain in place and on suction. If significant air leakage occurs, a second drain may be inserted. If the air leak persists, a second operation may be necessary to repair the defect.

      Other potential causes of bubbling in the chest drain when the patient coughs include a blocked chest drain, empyema with gas-forming organisms, and recurrent lung cancer. However, these conditions would present differently and have additional symptoms that are absent in cases of air leak from the area of resected lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      71.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A school caretaker receives a letter inviting him to attend for an ultrasound...

    Correct

    • A school caretaker receives a letter inviting him to attend for an ultrasound scan, as part of the NHS Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) Screening Programme. He has never attended AAA screening before.

      What is the age range of patients who are typically invited to attend AAA screening for the first time?

      Your Answer: 65

      Explanation:

      AAA Screening Guidelines for Men Aged 65 and Over

      Men aged 65 and over are at the highest risk of developing an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). To detect this condition early, ultrasound scanning is offered to men during the year they turn 65. If the scan shows no signs of AAA, the patient will not be invited for further screening tests as the condition is unlikely to develop in their lifetime.

      However, if the scan shows a small AAA (3.0-4.4 cm), the patient will be invited for annual screening. If the AAA is medium-sized (4.5-5.4 cm), the patient will be invited for screening every three months to monitor the aneurysm’s progress. If the AAA is 5.5 cm or more, the patient will be referred to vascular surgeons and advised to consider surgical repair.

      It’s important to note that the risk of developing AAA is much smaller in patients under 65, so screening is not recommended for this age group. Women are also excluded from the screening program. The NHS screening for AAA is carried out at or around 65 years of age to detect and treat the condition early, reducing the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old woman with shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain, non-productive cough and...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman with shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain, non-productive cough and two documented episodes of pulmonary thromboemboli over the last year undergoes a heart–lung transplant. Her native heart shows massive right ventricular hypertrophy. The lungs show numerous thromboemboli, and the vasculature shows marked medial smooth muscle hypertrophy and atherosclerotic plaques on the main pulmonary arteries.
      With which of the following diagnoses are these findings most consistent?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lung Conditions: Understanding the Unique Characteristics

      Pulmonary Hypertension:
      Pulmonary hypertension causes medial hypertrophy, arterial fibrosis, and narrowing of the arterial lumen, leading to arterial thrombosis. Primary pulmonary hypertension is characterized by plexogenic pulmonary arteriopathy, which causes hypertrophy of the right ventricle.

      Pneumonia:
      Pneumonia is inflammation of the air sacs in the lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or micro-organisms. However, the presence of massive right ventricular hypertrophy and multiple thromboemboli in the lungs is not consistent with a sole diagnosis of pneumonia.

      Atopic Asthma:
      Atopic asthma is characterized by chronic airway inflammation and bronchial hyper-responsiveness. The findings in atopic asthma include copious mucous plugs, numerous bronchial eosinophils and neutrophils, bronchial basement membrane thickening, and hypertrophy of bronchial smooth muscle and submucosal glands.

      Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS):
      ARDS is a rapid onset of respiratory insufficiency due to diffuse alveolar damage. The lung findings include alveoli filled with proteinaceous debris and desquamated alveolar lining cells and alveolar septae lined by hyaline membranes. The heart and pulmonary vasculature show no specific changes in ARDS.

      Goodpasture’s Syndrome:
      Goodpasture’s syndrome is a necrotizing and hemorrhagic pneumonitis accompanied by rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. The lungs are filled with fresh hemorrhage and hemosiderin-laden macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      72.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 62-year-old man with advanced-stage non-small cell lung carcinoma, after completing chemotherapy and...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man with advanced-stage non-small cell lung carcinoma, after completing chemotherapy and radiotherapy, is referred to the Surgical Department by his oncologist. He has been experiencing difficulty breathing and right-sided chest pain for the past two weeks. A chest X-ray and CT scan of the chest are ordered. The chest X-ray reveals a large pleural effusion on the right side with a mediastinal shift on the same side, while the CT scan shows thickening of the mediastinal pleura with nodular areas. The patient undergoes pleural aspiration, and the sample is sent for laboratory analysis.

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment to alleviate the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Pleurectomy

      Correct Answer: Thoracocentesis

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Malignant Pleural Effusions

      Malignant pleural effusions are a common complication of lung tumors and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. The management of these effusions should focus on improving symptoms and providing palliative care, as it does not affect overall survival rates. Here are some management options for malignant pleural effusions:

      Thoracocentesis: This is the first-line management for providing symptomatic relief. It involves using an ultrasound-guided needle and/or catheter to draw around 1-1.5 liters of pleural fluid while monitoring patient symptoms.

      Pleurectomy: This invasive procedure involves a thoracotomy followed by total pleurodectomy and decortication of the parietal fibrous coat. However, it carries a high risk of mortality and morbidity, and there is little evidence to justify the high risk-to-benefit ratio.

      Pleurodesis: This method involves inducing pleural inflammation to ultimately lead to fibrosis and obliteration of the pleural space. It can be done using a chemical sclerosant or talc and is effective in most clinical settings. It can be the next line of management in recurrent malignant pleural effusions with expandable lungs.

      Pleuroperitoneal shunt: This procedure involves creating a shunt between the pleural and peritoneal cavities to drain the pleural fluid. It is performed in refractory malignant pleural effusions as a last resort of treatment following thoracocentesis and pleurodesis.

      Radiotherapy: This treatment is indicated for malignant pleural effusions in lymphomas and lymphomatous chylothorax. However, it is unlikely to provide symptomatic relief for patients who have already received a course of radiotherapy for their primary tumor.

      In conclusion, the management of malignant pleural effusions should be tailored to the patient’s individual needs and goals, with a focus on improving symptoms and providing palliative care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      253.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiothoracic (6/10) 60%
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