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Question 1
Incorrect
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If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per second, what is the estimated wavelength produced if the frequency of a generated ultrasound is 10 megahertz?
Your Answer: 1.5 centimetres
Correct Answer: 0.15 millimetre
Explanation:Wavelength can be computed as follows:
Wavelength = velocity/frequency
In the given problem, the values stated are:
Frequency = 10 x 10^6
Velocity = 1540 meters per secondWavelength = 1540/(10×10^6)
Wavelength = 1540/10,000,000 meters
Wavelength = 0.15 millimetres. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 2
Correct
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At sea level, Sevoflurane is administered via a plenum vaporiser. 100 mL of the fresh gas flow is bypassed into the vaporising chamber. Temperature within the vaporising chamber is maintained at 20°C. The following fresh gas flows approximates best for the delivery of 1% sevoflurane.
Your Answer: 2.7 L/minute
Explanation:The equation for calculating vaporiser output is:
Vaporiser output (VO) mL = Carrier gas flow (mL/minute) × SVP of agent (kPa)
Ambient pressure (kPa) ˆ’ SVP of agent (kPa)The saturated vapour pressure of sevoflurane at 1 atm (100 kPa) and 20°C is 21 kPa.
VO = (100 mL × 21 kPa)/(100 kPa ˆ’ 21kPa) for sevoflurane,
VO = 26.6 mL26.6 mL of 100% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is being added to the fresh gas flow per minute.
2660 mL of 1% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is approximately 2.7 L/minute.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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An 84-year-old woman has a fall. She fractures the neck of her femur and requires emergency surgery. On history and examination, she appears to also have a possible heart failure for which an echocardiogram is scheduled. Her measurements are: End-diastolic volume: 40mL (70-240), End-systolic volume: 30mL (16-140). Calculate her approximate ejection fraction.
Your Answer: 25%
Explanation:An echocardiogram provides real-time visualisation of cardiac structures. The ejection fraction (EF) is normally measured using this system.
The ejection fraction (EF) can be deduced mathematically if the patient’s end-diastolic volume (EDV), end-systolic volume (ESV) and stroke volume (SV) are known, as:
SV = EDV – ESV, and
EF = SV/EDV x 100
The normal range for EF is >55-70%.
For this patient,
SV= 40 – 30 = 10 mL, therefore
EF = 10/40 x 100 = 25%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 4
Correct
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The child-Pugh scoring system can be used, if risk classifying a patient with chronic liver disorder earlier to anaesthesia. Which one is the best combination of clinical signs and examinations used within the Child-Pugh scoring system?
Your Answer: Ascites, grade of encephalopathy, albumin, bilirubin and INR
Explanation:In the Child-Pugh classification system, the following 5 components are determined or calculated in order:
Ascites
Grade of encephalopathy
Serum bilirubin (μmol/L)
Serum Albumin (g/L)
Prothrombin time or INR
Raised liver enzymes are not the component of the classification system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 5
Correct
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International colour coding is used on medical gas cylinders. Other characteristics also play a role in determining the gas's identity within a cylinder. Which of the following options best describes a cylinder containing analgesics for obstetrics?
Your Answer: Blue body, blue/white shoulder, full cylinder; 13700 KPa, gas mixture, requires a dual stage pressure regulator
Explanation:The body of the Entonox cylinder is usually blue (occasionally white), with blue and white shoulders. Entonox contains a 50:50 mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide, with a full cylinder pressure of 13700 KPa (137 bar). The cylinder is equipped with a two-stage pressure regulator for safe operation.
The cylinder body and shoulder of nitrous oxide are (French) blue.
In today’s anaesthetic workstations, carbon dioxide cylinders are no longer used.
The body of an oxygen cylinder is black, with a white shoulder.
The white Heliox (21 percent oxygen and 79 percent helium) cylinder has a brown and white shoulder. The administration of this gas mixture, which is less dense than air, is used to reduce turbulence (stridor) of inspiratory flow in patients with upper airway obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 6
Correct
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Of the stated laws, which is correct?
Your Answer: Boyle's law states that at constant temperature the volume of a given mass of gas varies inversely with absolute pressure.
Explanation:Boyle’s law is correctly stated as it states that the volume of a gas of known mass is inversely proportional with absolute pressure, at a constant temperature.
Beer’s law states that radiation absorption by a solution of known thickness and concentration is identical to that of a solution of double thickness and half concentration.
Bougner’s (or Lambert’s) law states that every layer with the same thickness will absorb the same amount of radiation as it passes through.
Graham’s law states that the diffusion rate of a gas is inversely related to the square root of its molecular weight.
Raoult’s law states that the reduction of a solvent’s vapour pressure is directly proportional to the solute’s molar concentration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 7
Correct
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In reference to confounding variables, which among the given is not true?
Your Answer: In the analytic stage of a study confounding can be controlled for by randomisation
Explanation:Randomisation can be used to provide control over the confounding variables during the design stage of a study however during analytical stage a technique called stratification is used for controlling confounding variables. Since the question asks for the information that is factually incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 8
Correct
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All of the following statements about intravenous induction agents are false except:
Your Answer: Barbiturates include thiopental and methohexitone.
Explanation:Thiopental is a new British Approved Name for thiopentone and is thio-barbiturate.
Methohexitone is an oxy- barbiturate. Both thiopental and methohexitone are intravenous induction agents.Ketamine cannot cause loss of consciousness in less than 30 seconds. At least 30 seconds is needed to cause loss of consciousness following intravenous administration.
Etomidate is an imidazole but it is not used on Intensive therapy unit for sedation because it has an antidepressant effect on the steroid axis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 47-year old man and known alcoholic suffered a fall that resulted to a fracture on his right leg. Radiographic imaging showed a fractured tibial shaft. Following surgery, you were instructed to prescribe intravenous paracetamol as an analgesic. If the patient weighs 49 kg, which of the following would be the best regimen for the patient?
Your Answer: 15 mg/kg with a maximum daily dose of 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
Explanation:A stock dose of Intravenous paracetamol available in the market is 10mg/ml. There is a recommended dose of IV paracetamol according to the profile of the patient (age, co-morbidities, weight).
Weight Recommended Dose Maximum per day
‰¤10 kg 7.5 mg/kg 30 mg/kg
>10 kg to ‰¤33 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 2 g)
>33 kg to ‰¤50 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
>50 kg with additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 3 g
>50 kg with no additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 4 gSpecial precaution must be observed for patients with hepatocellular insufficiency. The maximum dose per day should not exceed 3g.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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During the design phase of a study, which among the given is aimed at addressing confounding factors?
Your Answer: Randomisation
Explanation:Randomisation allows for performance of experimental trials in a random order. Using this method gives us control over the confounding variables that are not supposed to be held constant.
For an instance, by employing randomisation we get to control biological differences among individual human beings during experimental trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 11
Correct
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A study involving 64 patients of diabetes mellitus type 2 was performed. Weight of each patient was recorded and the mean weight of the patients was found to be 81 kg. The data set had a standard deviation of 12 kg. The value of standard error associated with the mean is:
Your Answer: 1.5
Explanation:Standard error can be calculated by the following formula:
Standard Error= (Standard Deviation)/ˆš(Sample Size)
= (12) / ˆš(64)
= 12 / 8
= 1.5 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the given statements is true about standard error of the mean?
Your Answer: It is independent of sample size
Correct Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases
Explanation:The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
SEM = SD / square root (n)
where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size
Therefore, the SEM gets smaller as the sample size (n) increases.
If we want to depict how widely scattered some measurements are, we use the standard deviation. For indicating the uncertainty around the estimate of the mean, we use the standard error of the mean. The standard error is most useful as a means of calculating a confidence interval. For a large sample, a 95% confidence interval is obtained as the values 1.96×SE either side of the mean.
A 95% confidence interval:
lower limit = mean – (1.96 * SEM)
upper limit = mean + (1.96 * SEM)
Results such as mean value are often presented along with a confidence interval. For example, in a study the mean height in a sample taken from a population is 183cm. You know that the standard error (SE) (the standard deviation of the mean) is 2cm. This gives a 95% confidence interval of 179-187cm (+/- 2 SE).
Hence, it would be wrong to say that confidence levels do not apply to standard error of the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 13
Correct
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A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following is correct about the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer: Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition
Explanation:Cephalosporin belongs to a family of beta-lactam antibiotics. All β-lactam antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The β-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place i.e. they inhibit bacterial cell wall formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of these thyroid hormones is considered the most potent and most physiologically active?
Your Answer: T3
Explanation:Triiodothyronine (T3) is more potent than thyroxine (T4). It is able to bind to more receptors (90%) compared to T4 (10%), and the onset of action is more immediate (within 12 hours) than T4 (2 days).
Ninety-three percent of thyroid hormones synthesized is T4, and the remaining 7% is T3. The half-life of T3 is shorter (1 day), and its affinity for thyroxine-binding globulin is lower than T4.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin?
Your Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes
Correct Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.
Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA
Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought to the emergency department and undergoes investigations and treatment. On X-ray of the humerus, she has a mid-shaft fracture. What structure is at the highest risk of damage with a mid-shaft humeral fracture?
Your Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs.
The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.The humeral shaft has two compartments:
1. Anterior:
Brachial artery and vein
Biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis
Musculocutaneous, median, and ulnar nerves
2. Posterior:
Radial nerve
TricepsOther significant nerve injuries are:
1. Axillary nerve – surgical neck fracture of the humerus
2. Brachial Artery – supracondylar fracture of the humerus
3. Axillary artery – surgical neck fracture of the humerus, but is relatively uncommon. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Correct
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The rapid depolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential is caused by:
Your Answer: Rapid sodium influx
Explanation:The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few msPhase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 18
Correct
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Following a traumatic head injury, you are summoned to the emergency department to transfer a patient to the CT scanner. With a Glasgow coma score of 3, he has already been intubated and ventilated. It is important to ensure that cerebral protection strategies are implemented during the transfer. Which of the following methods is the most effective for reducing venous obstruction?
Your Answer: Position with a head-up tilt of 30°
Explanation:ICP is significant because it influences cerebral perfusion pressure and cerebral blood flow. The normal ICP ranges from 5 to 13 mmHg.
The components within the skull include the brain (80%/1400 ml), blood (10%/150 ml), and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) (10%/150 ml).
Because the skull is a rigid box, if one of the three components increases in volume, one or more of the remaining components must decrease in volume to compensate, or the ICP will rise (Monroe-Kellie hypothesis).
Primary brain injury occurs as a result of a head injury and is unavoidable unless precautions are taken to reduce the risk of head injury. A reduction in oxygen delivery due to hypoxemia (low arterial PaO2) or anaemia, a reduction in cerebral blood flow due to hypotension or reduced cardiac output, and factors that cause a raised ICP and reduced CPP are all causes of secondary brain injury. Secondary brain injury can be avoided with proper management.
The most important initial management task is to make certain that:
There is protection of the airway and the cervical spine
There is proper ventilation and oxygenation
Blood pressure and cerebral perfusion pressure are both adequate (CPP).Following the implementation of these management principles, additional strategies to reduce ICP and preserve cerebral perfusion are required. The volume of one or more of the contents of the skull can be reduced using techniques that can be used to reduce ICP.
Reduce the volume of brain tissue
Blood volume should be reduced.
CSF volume should be reduced.The following are some methods for reducing the volume of brain tissue:
Abscess removal or tumour resection
Steroids (especially dexamethasone) are used to treat oedema in the brain.
To reduce intracellular volume, use mannitol/furosemide or hypertonic saline.
To increase intracranial volume, a decompressive craniectomy is performed.The following are some methods for reducing blood volume:
Haematomas must be evacuated.
Barbiturate coma reduces cerebral metabolic rate and oxygen consumption, lowering cerebral blood volume as a result.
Hypoxemia, hypercarbia, hyperthermia, vasodilator drugs, and hypotension should all be avoided in the arterial system.
PEEP/airway obstruction/CVP lines in neck: patient positioning with 30° head up, avoid neck compression with ties/excessive rotation, avoid PEEP/airway obstruction/CVP lines in neckThe following are some methods for reducing CSF volume:
To reduce CSF volume, an external ventricular drain or a ventriculoperitoneal shunt is inserted (although more a long term measure).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 19
Correct
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Regarding the basal metabolic rate (BMR), one of the following is correct.
Your Answer: Is the single largest component of energy expenditure
Explanation:BMR is lower in females than males.
It decreases with increasing age.
There is an increase in BMR with increased muscle (i.e. lean tissue)
BMR is increased in stress and illness. There is also an catabolic state in these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 20
Correct
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Iron is one of the most important micronutrients in the body. Out of the following, which one has the most abundant storage of iron in the body?
Your Answer: Haemoglobin
Explanation:Iron is a necessary micronutrient for proper erythropoietic function, oxidative metabolism, and cellular immune responses. Although dietary iron absorption (1-2 mg/d) is tightly controlled, it is only just balanced by losses.
The adult body contains 35-45 mg/kg iron (about 4-5 g)
Iron can be found in a variety of forms, including haemoglobin, ferritin, haemosiderin, myoglobin, haem enzymes, and transferrin bound proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 21
Correct
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A cannula is inserted into the cephalic vein of a 30-year-old man. Which of the following structures does the cephalic vein pass through?
Your Answer: Clavipectoral fascia
Explanation:The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. The superficial group of upper limb veins begin as an irregular dorsal arch on the back of the hand.
The cephalic vein originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the arch and travels laterally up, within the superficial fascia to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.
Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Correct
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A 24-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She has just been involved in a car accident. She is examined and undergoes various diagnostic investigations. Her X-ray report states that a fracture was noted on the surgical neck of her humerus. What structure is most likely to the damaged as a result of a surgical neck fracture of the humerus?
Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:Fractures to the surgical neck of the humerus are common place as it is the weakest point of the proximal humerus bone.
The structures most likely to be damaged are the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery as they surround the surgical neck.
The radial nerve runs along the radial groove, so injury to it would likely occur with a mid-shaft fracture of the humerus.
The brachial artery is most likely to be injured as a result of a supracondylar fracture of the humerus which increases the risk of volkmaan’s ischemic contractures.
Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve is least likely to happen and it very uncommon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Correct
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Following an acute appendicectomy, a 6-year-old child is admitted to the recovery unit. Your consultant has requested that you prescribe maintenance fluids for the next 12 hours. The child is 21 kg in weight. What is the most suitable fluid volume to be prescribed?
Your Answer: 732 ml
Explanation:After a paediatric case, you’ll frequently have to calculate and prescribe maintenance fluids. The ‘4-2-1 rule’ should be used as a guideline:
1st 10 kg – 4 ml/kg/hr
2nd 10 kg – 2 ml/kg/hr
Subsequent kg – 1 ml/kg/hrHence
1st 10 kg = 4 × 10 = 40 ml
2nd 10 kg = 2 × 10 = 20 ml
Subsequent kg = 1 × 1 = 1 ml
Total = 61 ml/hr61 × 12 = 732 ml over 12 hrs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Cells use adenosine-5-triphosphate (ATP) as a coenzyme and is a source of energy. Glucose metabolism produces the most ATP from which of the following biochemical processes?
Your Answer: Anaerobic respiration in the cytoplasm
Correct Answer: Electron transport phosphorylation in the mitochondria
Explanation:Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It converts 1 glucose molecule (6-carbon) to pyruvate (two 3-carbon molecules) and produces 4 ATP molecules and 2NADH but uses 2 ATP in the process with an overall net energy production of 2 ATP.
Pyruvate is then oxidised to acetyl coenzyme A (generating 2 NADH per pyruvate molecule). This takes place in the mitochondria and then enters the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle). It produces 2 ATP, 8 NADH and 2 FADH2 per glucose molecule.
Electron transport phosphorylation takes place in the mitochondria. The aim of this process is to break down NADH and FADH2 and also to pump H+ into the outer compartment of the mitochondria. It produces 32 ATP with an overall net production of 36ATP.
In anaerobic respiration which occurs in the cytoplasm, pyruvate is reduced to NAD producing 2 ATP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 25
Correct
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Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old woman with pneumonia admitted to ICU. Which of the following statements is true regarding Noradrenaline?
Your Answer: Has a short half life about 2 minutes
Explanation:Noradrenaline has a short half-life of about 2 minutes. It is rapidly cleared from plasma by a combination of cellular reuptake and metabolism.
It acts as sympathomimetics by acting on α1 receptors and also on β receptors.
It decreases renal and hepatic blood flow.
Norepinephrine is metabolized by the enzymes monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase to 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid and 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG).
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Correct
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The muscle that lies behind the first part of the axillary nerve is?
Your Answer: Subscapularis
Explanation:The axillary nerve lies behind the axillary artery initially, and in front of the subscapularis. It passes downward to the lower border of the subscapularis muscle.
In company with the posterior humeral circumflex artery and vein, it winds backward through a quadrilateral space bounded above by the subscapularis (anterior) and teres minor (posterior), below by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps brachii, and laterally by the humerus (surgical neck).
It then divides into an anterior and a posterior part. The anterior division supplies the deltoid (anterior and middle heads) while the posterior division supplies the teres minor and posterior part of deltoid
The posterior division terminates as the superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Correct
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Which of these structures will cause the biggest reduction in hepatic blood flow when occluded surgically?
Your Answer: Portal vein
Explanation:The portal vein arises from the splenic and mesenteric veins, and is the biggest vessel in the portal venous system, accounting for about 75% of the hepatic blood flow.
It is responsible for draining blood from parts of the gastrointestinal system, the spleen, the pancreas and the gallbladder into the liver.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Correct
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The following statements are about burns patients. Which one is true?
Your Answer: High protein diets may improve survival
Explanation:Patients who have sustained thermal injuries are at high risk of becoming hypercatabolic with larger cardiac outputs and oxygen consumptions.
The hypermetabolic states increase with an increase in the burn severity and surface area of the skin affected. A patient with thermal injuries affecting 60% of the total surface area of the body will have twice the normal metabolic rate.
The optimal temperature for nursing patients with burn injuries is 30°C to conserve the energy usage. The areas affected by the burn injuries should be covered to reduce loss of fluid via evaporation. Resetting hypothalamic thermoregulation will cause a 1-2°C increase in core temperature.
Burn injuries will have an immediate effect on the intestine, destroying the barrier function and allowing for the movement of bacteria and endotoxins within hours.
Enteral nutrition allows for the delivery of nutrients directly to the stomach or intestine. It has correlation with a dampened hypermetabolic response to a thermal and injury, especially when initiated early as it helps to protect the integrity of the mucosal lining and prevents the movement of bacteria into circulation.
Diet changes have been linked to reduced mortality due to burn injuries. Diets high in protein especially (calorie: nitrogen ratio of 100: 1), have the highest correlation with improved survival rates.
Parenteral feeds may be required alongside enteral nutrition, even with the increased risks of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about the cricoid cartilage is true?
Your Answer: Regurgitation of gastric contents is prevented by the Sellick manoeuvre
Correct Answer: The lower border is attached to the first tracheal ring
Explanation:The cricoid cartilage is a hyaline cartilage ring surrounding the trachea. It provides support for key phonation muscles.
The inferior border of the cricoid cartilage is attached to the thyroid cartilage and the inferior border is attached to the first tracheal ring through the cricotracheal ligament.
Application of pressure to the cricoid cartilage to reduce risk of aspiration of gastric contents (Sellick manoeuvre) does not stop tracheal aspiration and cannot stop regurgitation into the oesophagus.
A force of 44 newtons to the cricoid cartilage is needed to control regurgitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Antomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A study aimed at assessing the validity of a novel diagnostic test for heart failure is being performed. The curators are worried that not all the patients will get the prevalent gold standard test. Which type of bias is that?
Your Answer: Attention bias
Correct Answer: Work-up bias
Explanation:Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.
Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved.
Attention bias refers to the person’s failure to consider various alternatives when he pre occupied by some other thoughts.
Instrument bias is related to the experience and extent of familiarization of the participating individuals with the test.
Co intervention bias is characterized by the groups receiving different co interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 31
Correct
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Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes. The CYP enzyme most likely to be subject to genetic variability and thus cause adverse drug reactions is which of these?
Your Answer: CYP2D6
Explanation:Approximately 25% of phase-1 drug reactions is made responsible by CYP2D6.
As much as a 1,000-fold difference in the ability to metabolise drugs by CYP2D6 can happen between phenotypes, and this may result in adverse drug reactions (ADRs).
The metabolism of antiemetics, beta-blockers, codeine, tramadol, oxycodone, hydrocodone, tamoxifen, antidepressants, neuroleptics, and antiarrhythmics is also as a result of CYP2D6.
Patients who take drugs that are metabolised by CYP2D6 but have poor CYP2D6 metabolism are more likely to have ADRs. People with ultra-rapid CYP2D6 metabolism may have a decreased drug effect due to low plasma concentrations of these drugs.
All the other CYP enzymes are subject to genetic polymorphism. Variants are less likely to lead to adverse drug reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 32
Correct
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Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal Alveolar Concentration (MAC)?
Your Answer: Isoflurane
Explanation:The clinical potency of the anaesthetic agent is measured using minimal alveolar concentration(MAC).
MAC and oil: gas partition coefficient is inversely related. Anaesthetic agent Oil/gas partition coefficient and Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is given respectively as
Desflurane 18 6
Isoflurane 90 1.2
Nitrous oxide 1.4 104
Sevoflurane 53.4 2
Xenon 1.9 71With these data, we can conclude Isoflurane is the most potent with the highest oil/gas partition coefficient of 90 and the lowest MAC of 1.2
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 33
Correct
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What is the number of valves between the superior vena cava and the right atrium?
Your Answer: None
Explanation:The inflow of blood from the superior vena cava is directed towards the right atrioventricular orifice. It returns deoxygenated blood from all structures superior to the diaphragm, except the lungs and heart.
There are no valves in the superior vena cava which is why it is relatively easy to insert a CVP line from the internal jugular vein into the right atrium. The brachiocephalic vein is similar as it also has no valves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man, with a history of excessive alcohol intake, presents for the first time in the emergency department with acute abdominal pain in the epigastric region. On examination, the man is sweating and has a high-grade fever. His heart rate is 140/min and a BP of 92/59 mmHg. The patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following is a complication you are most likely to see in this patient?
Your Answer: Bulky, greasy stools
Correct Answer: Blue discolouration of the flank regions
Explanation:Bulky, greasy stools are associated with improper digestion that can be expected if the pancreas loses its exocrine function. This is common in long-term chronic pancreatitis but since this is the patient’s first presentation with such symptoms, this complication is unlikely.
Peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of chronic diabetes but has been reported with cases of chronic pancreatitis too.
Abdominal distention with shifting dullness is a classic symptom of underlying ascites. Ascites is a complication of many diseases but it is not common with the acute first-time presentation of pancreatitis.
Option E: This points towards abdominal obstruction but in the absence of the more common symptoms, nausea and bilious vomiting, this is unlikely.
Option A: Grey Turner’s sign is the pooling of blood in the retroperitoneal space between the last rib and the top of the hip. The pancreas is a retroperitoneal organ and inflammation of the pancreas can cause retroperitoneal haemorrhage. The sign takes 24-48 hours to develop and can predict a severe attack of acute pancreatitis. The patient has presented with acute pancreatitis due to his history of high alcohol intake, and acute on chronic is unlikely as this is his first presentation. He also has low blood pressure and an increased heart rate, which suggest blood loss with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Which of the following derived SI units is correctly expressed as their base units?
Your Answer: Watt: m-1.kg.s-2
Correct Answer: Volt: m2.kg.s-3.A-1
Explanation:The following units are derived SI units of measurement.
Energy or work: kg.m2.s-2
The Joule (J) is the energy transferred to an object when a force of one newton acts on that object in the direction of its motion through a distance of one meter or N.m.Power: kg.m2.s-3
The Watt (W) = rate of transfer of energy or Joule per second J/s.Force: kg.m.s-2
One Newton (N) which is the international unit of measure for force = 1 kilogram meter per second squared. 1 Newton of force is the force required to accelerate an object with a mass of 1 kilogram 1 meter per second per second.Volt: kg.m2.s-3.A-1
The volt (V) is defined as the potential difference across a conductor when a current of one ampere dissipates one watt of power or W/A.Pressure: kg.m-1.s-2
A pascal (Pa) is force per unit area or N/m2. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 36
Incorrect
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All the following statements are false regarding carbamazepine except
Your Answer: Has no active metabolites
Correct Answer: Has neurotoxic side effects
Explanation:Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, and Valproate act by inhibiting the sodium channels when these are open. These drugs also prolong the inactivated stage of these channels (Sodium channels are refractory to stimulation till these reach the closed/ resting phase from inactivated phase)
Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for partial seizures and trigeminal neuralgia
It can have neurotoxic side effects. Major neurotoxic effects include dizziness, headache, ataxia, vertigo, and diplopia
The half-life of carbamazepine is about 13-17 years.
It is metabolized in liver into active metabolite, carbamazepine-10,11-epoxide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 37
Correct
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The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is heterocyclic, small structural changes can alter its pharmacological activity (structure function relationship). Which of the following modifications to the molecule has the greatest impact on the effectiveness of the barbiturate derivative?
Your Answer: Sulphur at C2
Explanation:Barbituric acid is the barbiturates’ pharmacologically inactive precursor. A pyrimidine heterocyclic nucleus is formed by the condensation of urea and malonic acid. Its pharmacological activity can be influenced by minor structural changes (structure function relationship).
The duration of action and potency as a sedative are influenced by the length of the side chains at C5. Barbiturates with three carbon atoms in their chain last longer than those with two. Anticonvulsant properties are enhanced by branched chains.
The addition of a methyl group at N1 causes a faster onset/offset of action, but it also causes excitatory phenomena (twitching/lower convulsive threshold).
The addition of oxygen and sulphur to C2 increases the molecule’s lipid solubility and thus its potency. Thiopentone (thiobarbiturate) has sulphur groups at C2, making it 20-200 times more lipid soluble than oxybarbiturates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 72-year-old female is diagnosed with acute mesenteric ischemia. On CT angiogram, the origin of the superior mesenteric artery is stenosed. At which vertebra level does the superior mesenteric artery branch from the aorta?
Your Answer: L1
Explanation:The superior mesenteric artery branches from the abdominal aorta just 1-2 cm below the origin of the celiac trunk. It lies posterior to the body of the pancreas and splenic vein and is separated from the aorta by the left renal vein. It passes forwards and inferiorly, anterior to the uncinate process of the pancreas and the third part of the duodenum, to enter the root of the small bowel mesentery and supply the midgut.
The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T10 – oesophageal opening in the diaphragm
T12 – Coeliac trunk, aortic hiatus in the diaphragm
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 39
Correct
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An 85-year old female is being investigated and treated for pancytopenia of unknown origin. Her most recent blood test is shown below which shows that he has a low platelet count. Hb-102 g/l, WBC - 2.9* 109/l, Platelets - 7 * 109/l. Which of the following normally stimulates platelet production?
Your Answer: Thrombopoietin
Explanation:Interleukin-4 is a cytokine which acts to regulate the responses of B and T cells.
Erythropoietin is responsible for the signal that initiated red blood cell production.
Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor stimulates the bone marrow to produce granulocytes.
Interleukin-5 is a cytokine that stimulates the proliferation and activation of eosinophils.
Thrombopoietin is the primary signal responsible for megakaryocyte and thus platelet production.
Platelets are also called thrombocytes. They, like red blood cells, are also derived from myeloid stem cells. The process involves a megakaryocyte developing from a common myeloid progenitor cell. A megakaryocyte is a large cell with a multilobulated nucleus, this grows to become massive where it will then break up to form platelets.Immune cells are generated from haematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. They generate two main types of progenitors, myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells, from which all immune cells are derived.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 40
Correct
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A drug with a 2-hour half-life and a first-order kinetics of elimination is administered intravenously. The initial plasma concentration is calculated to be 12 mcg/mL and plasma concentrations is measured hourly. At 6 hours, how much drug will be left?
Your Answer: 1.5 mcg/mL
Explanation:In first order kinetics the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.
Rate of elimination is described by the following equation:
C = C0. e^-kt
Where:
C=drug concentration,
C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated),
k = rate constant and
t = time.The initial concentration of this drug is 12 mcg/ml therefore:
The plasma concentration will have halved to 6 mcg/ml at 2 hours.
The plasma concentration will have halved to 3 mcg/ml at 4 hours and
The plasma concentration will have halved to 1.5 mcg/ml t 6 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 41
Correct
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A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70 kg patient and plasma concentration monitored. The concentration in plasma over time is recorded as follows: Time (hours): 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, Concentration (mcg/mL) 100, 71, 50, 35.5, 25. From the data available, the drug is likely eliminated by?
Your Answer: First-order kinetics with a half-life of 2 hours
Explanation:Elimination of phenytoin from the body follows first-order kinetics. This means that the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.
The rate of elimination can be described by the equation:
C = C0·e-kt
Where:
C = drug concentration
C0 = drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated)
k = Rate constant
t = TimeEnzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations exceed the normal range and elimination of the drug becomes zero-order. At this point, the drug is metabolised at a fixed rate and metabolism is independent of plasma concentration.
Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are other drugs that behave this way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 42
Correct
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A 20-year old male was involved in an accident and has presented to the Emergency Department with a pelvic crush injury. The clinical exam according to ATLS protocol revealed the following: Airway-patent, Breathing - respiratory rate 25 breaths per minute. Breath sounds are vesicular and there are no added sounds. Circulation - Capillary refill time - 4 seconds. Peripheries are cool. Pulse 125 beats/min. BP - 125/95 mmHg. Disability - GSC 15, anxious and in pain. Secondary survey reveals no other injuries. The patient is administered high flow oxygen and IV access is established. The most appropriate IV fluid regimen in this case will be which of the following?
Your Answer: Judicious infusion of Hartmann's solution to maintain a systolic blood pressure greater than 90mmHg
Explanation:These clinical signs suggest that 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.
Pelvic fractures are associated with significant haemorrhage (>2000 ml) that can be concealed. This may require aggressive fluid resuscitation which is initially with crystalloids and then blood. What is also important is including stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:
Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
40% blood volume loss):
Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
Mental state is markedly depressed
Skin cold and pale.
Needs rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.A blood loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.
Fluid resuscitation following trauma is a controversial area.
This clinical scenario points to a 15-30% blood loss. However, further crystalloid and blood replacement may be required after assessing the clinical situation. There is increasing evidence to suggest that transfusion of large volumes of crystalloid in the hospital setting are likely to be deleterious to the patient and hypotensive resuscitation and judicious blood and blood product resuscitation is a more appropriate option. A ratio of 1 unit of plasma to 1 unit of red blood cells is used to replace fluid volume in adults.
This patient does not require immediate transfusion of O negative blood and there is time for a formal crossmatch. The argument about colloids versus crystalloids has existed for decades. However, while they have a role in fluid resuscitation, they are not first line.
There is a risk of anaphylaxis, Hypernatraemia, and acute renal injury with colloidal solutions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 43
Correct
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Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance. Which one of the following factors has most impact on systemic vascular resistance?
Your Answer: Small arterioles
Explanation:Systemic vascular resistance (SVR), also known as total peripheral resistance (TPR), is the amount of force exerted on circulating blood by the vasculature of the body. Three factors determine the force: the length of the blood vessels in the body, the diameter of the vessels, and the viscosity of the blood within them. The most important factor that determines the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is the tone of the small arterioles.
These are otherwise known as resistance arterioles. Their diameter ranges between 100 and 450 µm. Smaller resistance vessels, less than 100 µm in diameter (pre-capillary arterioles), play a less significant role in determining SVR. They are subject to autoregulation.
Any change in the viscosity of blood and therefore flow (such as due to a change in haematocrit) might also have a small effect on the measured vascular resistance.
Changes of blood temperature can also affect blood rheology and therefore flow through resistance vessels.
Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is measured in dynes·s·cm-5
It can be calculated from the following equation:
SVR = (mean arterial pressure ˆ’ mean right atrial pressure) × 80 cardiac output
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 44
Correct
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Regarding bilirubin, which one of the following statement is true?
Your Answer: Conjugated bilirubin is stored in the gall bladder
Explanation:Bilirubin is the tetrapyrrole and a catabolic product of heme. 70-90% of bilirubin is end product of haemoglobin degradation in the liver.
Bilirubin circulates in the blood in 2 forms; unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin.
Unconjugated bilirubin is insoluble in water. It travels through the bloodstream to the liver, where it changes from insoluble into a soluble form (i.e.; unconjugated into conjugated form).
This conjugated bilirubin travels from the liver into the small intestine and the gut bacteria convert bilirubin into urobilinogen and then into urobilin (not urobilin to urobilinogen). A very small amount passes into the kidneys and is excreted in urine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 45
Correct
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A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A fast arrangements inductance is organized. The patient has had a preoperative respiratory tract evaluation and there are no adverse features. The patient is ideally positioned and preoxygenated. The anaesthetic applied cricoid pressure of 10 N. Acceptance of anaesthesia is at that point carried out with 250 mg thiopentone and 100 mg suxamethonium with 30 N of cricoid pressure. Initial laryngoscopy shows a review of grade 4. Three endeavours are made at putting a estimate 7 mm ID tracheal tube; two with a standard laryngoscope and one with a McCoy edge and bougie. Then one advance attempt is made employing a video laryngoscope. At this point the suxamethonium is starts to wear off. Oxygen immersion is 95%. Which one of the following treatment option is the another most suitable arrange of action?
Your Answer: Maintain oxygenation and anaesthesia and declare a failed intubation
Explanation:Firstly, always call for an early help. This understanding is at hazard of gastro-oesophageal reflux, the reason a fast arrangement acceptance has been picked for within the first place. The patient isn’t pregnant and the critical surgery isn’t immediate.
The scheme A is to perform a fast arrangement acceptance under ideal conditions and effectively secure the respiratory tract with a tracheal tube.
Whilst no more than three attempts with coordinate laryngoscope (+ 1 endeavour with video laryngoscope) ought to be made to intubate the trachea, the reality is that the suxamethonium is wearing off ought to be borne in mind. One step is to make certain satisfactory neuromuscular blockade at this level, if oxygenation can be kept up by bag-mask ventilation, this might involve the administration of a non-depolarising relaxant. As the surgery isn’t prompt there should be a baseline to stop scheme A at intubation and resort to scheme B.
An elective procedure can be planned at that time.
The first most vital step is to report a failed intubation as this will halt you from continuing to intubate and notify your collaborator that scheme A has failed. Keeping up oxygenation and anaesthesia is additionally critical earlier to the initiation of scheme B.
Do not administer another dose of suxamethonium. If there’s collapse of oxygenation and failure to preserve satisfactory ventilation, then insert a supraglottic airway. Plan D takes after the affirmation of a CICO.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 46
Correct
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Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis?
Your Answer: Majority of blood passing through the vessels mix together
Explanation:There is minimum mixing of blood passing through the vessels.
The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries. It lies in the subarachnoid space within the basal cisterns that surround the optic chiasma and infundibulum.
Each half of the circle is formed by:
1. Anterior communicating artery
2. Anterior cerebral artery
3. Internal carotid artery
4. Posterior communicating artery
5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar arteryThe circle and its branches supply; the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 52-year old man was placed under general anaesthesia for an emergent open cholecystectomy. As part of the induction, suxamethonium was administered at 1.5mg/kg. Post-operatively, there was failure to restore muscle twitch responses over a course of five hours. Clinical chemistry studies were obtained and showed the following results: Butrylcholinesterase (BChE) activity: 49 U/L (Reference range: 3300-10,300 U/L), Dibucaine number: <4% (Reference range: 83-88%). The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of Suxamethonium Apnoea. What is the most probable phenotype of BChE of the patient?
Your Answer: FS (fluoride resistant/silent)
Correct Answer: S (silent)
Explanation:Silent (S) is the most probable phenotype of the patient. In S phenotype, patients have significantly reduced levels of BChE, the lowest among the four phenotypes. Because of this, individuals with S phenotype are subjected to long periods of apnoea. In addition, their dibucaine number is very low.
Other BChE phenotypes are the following:
Usual (U)
Atypical (A)
Fluoride-resistant (F). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 48
Correct
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Which of the following is the best associated option with Kaplan-Meier survival plot?
Your Answer: An estimate of decreasing survival with time after an event.
Explanation:Also known as the €œproduct limit estimate”, the Kaplan-Meier survival plot is used to estimate the true survival function from the collected data.
Using this plot, probabilities of occurrence of an event at a certain point in time can be computed. The successive probabilities are multiplied by any earlier computed probabilities to get the final estimate. For a given population, the survival probability at any particular time on the plot = (number of subjects living at the start – number of subjects who died)/number of subjects living at the start.
The description of a scatter plot is a graphical representation using Cartesian coordinates to display values for more than two variables for data set. It is used for to assess the relationship between 2 different variables.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 49
Correct
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A 66-year-old man, present to the emergency department with dyspepsia. On history taking, he admits to being a heavy smoker, and on testing is noted to be positive for a helicobacter pylori infection. A few evenings later, he suffers from haematemesis and collapses. What vessel is most likely to be involved?
Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The most likely of the differential diagnosis in this case is a duodenal ulcer located on the posterior abdominal wall.
These can cause an erosion of the abdominal wall, eventually affecting the gastroduodenal artery and resulting in major bleeding and haematemesis.
Gastroduodenal artery supplies the pylorus, proximal part of the duodenum, and indirectly to the pancreatic head (via the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 50
Incorrect
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The most sensitive indicator of mild obstructive airway disease is?
Your Answer: Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
Correct Answer: Forced expiratory flow (FEF25-75%)
Explanation:The volume expired in the first second of maximal expiration after a maximal inspiration is known as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), and it indicates how quickly full lungs can be emptied. It is the most commonly measured parameter for bronchoconstriction assessment.
The maximum volume of air exhaled after a maximal inspiration is known as the ‘slow’ vital capacity (VC). VC is normally equal to FVC after a forced vital capacity (FVC) or slow vital capacity (VC) manoeuvre, unless there is an airflow obstruction, in which case VC is usually higher than FVC.
The FEV1/FVC (Tiffeneau index) is a clinically useful index of airflow restriction that can be used to distinguish between restrictive and obstructive respiratory disorders.
The average expired flow over the middle half (25-75 percent) of the FVC manoeuvre is the forced expiratory volume (FEF25-75). The airflow from the resistance bronchioles corresponds to this. It’s a more sensitive indicator of mild small airway narrowing than FEV1, but it’s difficult to tell if the VC (or FVC) is decreasing or increasing.
The maximum expiratory flow rate achieved is called the peak expiratory flow (PEF), which is usually 8-14 L/second.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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Concerning the intercostal nerves, which one of the following is true?
Your Answer: They represent the dorsal rami of the thoracic spinal nerves
Correct Answer: Each is connected to a ganglion of the sympathetic trunk
Explanation:The intercostal nerves arise from the ventral rami of the first 11 thoracic spinal nerves. they course along the costal groove on the lower margin of the rib.
The twelfth intercoastal nerve is called the subcostal nerve. This is because it is below the 12th rib.
Each intercostal nerve is connected to a ganglion of the sympathetic trunk from which it carries preganglionic and postganglionic fibres that innervate blood vessels, sweat glands, and muscles.
The lateral and medial pectoral nerves innervates pectoralis major muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 52
Incorrect
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Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section delivery. Which of the following feature of rocuronium ensures the neonate shows no clinical signs of muscle relaxation?
Your Answer: Highly protein bound
Correct Answer: Highly ionised
Explanation:Drugs cross the placenta by Simple, Ion channel and Facilitated diffusion; Exocytosis and Endocytosis, Osmosis, and Active transport (primary and secondary)
The following factors influence rate of diffusion across the placenta:
Protein binding
Degree of ionisation
Placental blood flow
Maternal and foetal blood pH
Materno-foetal concentration gradient.
Thickness of placental membrane
Molecular weight of drug <600 Daltons cross by diffusion
Lipid solubility (lipid soluble molecules readily diffuse across the placenta)Rocuronium has a F/M ratios of 0.16, a 30% plasma protein binding, low lipid solubility, a low volume of distribution (0.25L/kg), and a high molecular weight (530Da).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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The following are results of some pulmonary function tests: (Measurement - Predicted result - Test result). Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps): 3.21, - 1.94. Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps): 2.77, 1.82. FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps): 81.9, 93.5. Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second): 6.55, 3.62. Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute): 103, 87.1 Which statement applies to the results?
Your Answer: These pulmonary function tests are normal
Correct Answer: The patient has a moderate restrictive pulmonary defect
Explanation:Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (V1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:
Mild 70-80%
Moderate 60-69%
Moderately severe 50-59%
Severe 35-49%
Very severe <35%This patient has a %FVC predicted of 60.4% and this corresponds to a moderate restrictive deficit. V1/FVC ratio is 93.5%.
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture.
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture.
The integrity of the alveolar-capillary barrier is measured by carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) and carbon monoxide transfer coefficient (KCO). These values are seen to be reduced in emphysema, interstitial lung diseases and in pulmonary vascular pathology. However, the KCO (as % predicted) is high in extrapulmonary restriction (pleural, chest wall and respiratory neuromuscular disease), and in loss of lung units provided the structure of the lung remaining is normal. The KCO distinguishes extrapulmonary (high KCO) causes of 'restriction' from intrapulmonary causes (low KCO).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 54
Correct
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A new clinical trial evaluates the effect of a new drug Z on all-cause mortality. The rate of death in the group receiving this drug is 8%, compared with 16% in the control group. What is the number needed to treat with drug Z to prevent death?
Your Answer: 13
Explanation:Number needed to treat is a measure of the impact of a treatment or intervention that is often used to communicate results to patients, clinicians, the public and policymakers. It states how many patients need to be treated for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome (e.g. a death).
It is calculated as the inverse of the absolute risk reduction and is rounded to the next highest whole number.
The absolute risk reduction is 8% (16% – 8%). 100/8 = 12.5, so rounding up the next integer this gives at NNT of 13. i.e. you would need to give the new drug to 13 people to ensure that you prevented one death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 55
Correct
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Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?
Your Answer: Sevoflurane
Explanation:Desflurane is a highly fluorinated methyl ethyl ether used for the maintenance of general anaesthesia. It has been identified as a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia. That, in the absence of succinylcholine, may produce a delayed onset of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 56
Correct
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A breakthrough lipid-lowering therapy for stroke had a number needed to treat (NNT) of 20 for the prevention of the primary end-point. These results can be best described as:
Your Answer: For 1000 patients treated with active therapy, there would be 50 fewer strokes
Explanation:Number needed to treat (NNT) is a time specific epidemiological measure that indicates how many patients would be require for an intervention to prevent one additional bad outcome. A perfect NNT would be 1, where everyone improves with treatment, thus the higher the NNT, the less effective the treatment.
Thus if you treat 1000 patients then you will expect to have 50 fewer strokes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 57
Correct
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A 28-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has been diagnosed with adult respiratory distress syndrome and is being ventilated. His haemodynamic condition is improved using a pulmonary artery flotation. His readings are listed below: Haemoglobin concentration: 10 g/dL, Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 70%, Mixed venous oxygen tensions (PvO2): 50 mmHg. Estimate his mixed venous oxygen content (mL/100mL).
Your Answer: 9.5
Explanation:Mixed venous oxygen content (CvO2) is the oxygen concentration in 100mL of mixed venous blood taken from the pulmonary artery. It is usually 12-17 mL/dL (70-75%). It is represented mathematically as:
CvO2 = (1.34 x Hgb x SvO2 x 0.01) + (0.003 x PvO2)
Where,
1.34 = Huffner’s constant
Hgb = Haemoglobin level (g/dL)
SvO2 = % oxyhaemoglobin saturation of mixed venous blood
PvO2 = 0.0225 = mL of O2 dissolved per 100mL plasma per kPa, or 0.003 mL per mmHgTherefore,
CvO2 = (1.34 x 10 x 70 x 0.01) + (0.003 x 50)
CvO2 = 9.38 + 0.15 = 9.53 mL/100mL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 58
Correct
-
A 240 volt alternating current (AC) socket from a wall is used to charge a direct current (DC) cardiac defibrillator. Name the electrical component that converts AC to DC.
Your Answer: Rectifier
Explanation:There are two types of defibrillators
AC defibrillator
DC defibrillatorAC defibrillator,
consists of a step-up transformer with primary and secondary winding and two switches. Since secondary coil consists of more turns of wire than the primary coil, it induces larger voltage. A voltage value ranging between 250V to 750V is applied for AC external defibrillator. And used to enable the charging of a capacitor.DC defibrillator,
consists of auto transformer T1 that acts as primary of the high voltage transformer T2. Is an iron core that transfers energy between 2 circuits by electromagnetic induction. Transformers are used to isolate circuits, change impedance and alter voltage output. transformers do not convert AC to DC.Diode rectifier composed of 4 diodes made of semiconductor material allows current to flow only in one direction. Alternating current (AC) passing through these diodes produces direct current (DC). Capacitor stores the charge in the form of an electrostatic field.
Capacitor is used to convert the rectified AC voltage to produce DC voltage but capacitors do not directly convert AC to DC.
Inductor induces a counter electromotive force(emf) that reduces the capacitor discharge value.
In step-down transformer primary coils has more turns of wire than secondary coil, so induced voltage is smaller in the secondary coil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A meta analysis takes into consideration five studies each of which is aimed at finding out the relation between a novel drug and upper gastro intestinal bleeding. The relative risk of getting an upper gastrointestinal bleed matched to a control population is recorded by each study. Which among the following studies provides the most compelling evidence that the bleeding is not caused by the new drug?
Your Answer: Dennis et al
Correct Answer: Atkinson et al
Explanation:The research study conducted by Atkinson et al makes the most compelling case for the drug as it indicates the relative risk levels to be lower than 1. Also the study employs large square and a narrow confidence interval that are an indicative of a well performed study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 60
Correct
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During the analysis phase, which of the provided options serves to control confounding factors?
Your Answer: Stratification
Explanation:During analytical stage a technique called stratification is used for controlling confounding variables. This technique involves sorting out the data into discernible groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 61
Correct
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The ED95 of muscle relaxants is the dose required to reduce twitch height by 95% in half of the target population. The dose of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants used for intubation is 2-3 times the ED95. For procedures that need a short duration of muscle relaxation and abrupt recovery, the short-acting drug Mivacurium is given at less than 2 times the ED95. What is the explanation for Mivacurium being an exception to this rule?
Your Answer: Dose related histamine release occurs which frequently leads to tachycardia and hypotension
Explanation:Mivacurium, when administered at doses greater than 0.2 mg/kg,increases the risk for hypotension, tachycardia, and erythema. This is due to the ability of mivacurium to release histamine with increasing dose. Contrary to this fact, anaphylaxis is rare for mivacurium because of the short duration of histamine release.
The effective dose 50 (ED50) of mivacurium is between 0.08-0.15 mg/kg. It is administered slowly to prevent and decrease the risk of developing adverse effects.
Mivacurium has a high potency thus a longer duration of action, however this is not the answer that we are looking for.
Although drug metabolism takes longer for mivacurium than succinylcholine, it has no effect on the dose required for intubation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of doxycycline?
Your Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes
Correct Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 63
Correct
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Substitution at different positions of the barbituric ring give rise to different pharmacologic properties. Substitution with and at which specific site of the ring affects lipid solubility the most?
Your Answer: Sulphur atom at position 2
Explanation:Barbiturates are derived from barbituric acid, which itself is nondepressant, but appropriate side-chain substitutions result in CNS depressant activity that varies in potency and duration with carbon chain length, branching, and saturation.
Oxybarbiturates retain an oxygen atom on number 2-carbon atom of the barbituric acid ring.
Thiobarbiturates replace this oxygen atom with a sulphur atom, which confers greater lipid solubility. Generally speaking, a substitution such as sulphuration that increases lipid solubility is associated with greater hypnotic potency and more rapid onset, but shorter duration of action.
Addition of a methyl group to the nitrogen atom of the barbituric acid ring, as with oxybarbiturate methohexital, also results in a compound with a short duration of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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Which of the following structures does the vertebral artery NOT traverse?
Your Answer: Transverse process of the axis
Correct Answer: Intervertebral foramen
Explanation:The vertebral artery originates from the subclavian artery and ascends through the neck in the transverse foramen of the C1-C6 vertebrae. C2 vertebra is called the axis vertebra. A part of the vertebral artery lies in a groove on the upper surface of the atlas’s (C1) posterior arch. It enters the vertebral canal below the inferior border of the posterior atlantooccipital membrane. The vertebral arteries then enter the skull via the foramen magnum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 65
Correct
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Infrared radiation is absorbed by asymmetric, polyatomic polar molecules like carbon dioxide (CO2). When measuring CO2 in gas samples, mainstream capnography uses this physical principle. Which of the following gases is most likely to interfere with carbon dioxide's absorption spectrum?
Your Answer: Nitrous oxide
Explanation:Carbon dioxide absorbs the most infrared (IR) light between the wavelengths of 4.2-4.4m (4.26m is ideal).
Nitrous oxide absorbs infrared light at wavelengths of 4.4-4.6m (very similar to CO2) and less so at 3.9m.
At a frequency of 4.7m, carbon monoxide absorbs the most IR light.
At 3.3 m and throughout the ranges 8-12 m, the volatile agents have strong absorption bands.
Although oxygen does not absorb infrared light, it collides with CO2 molecules, interfering with absorption. The absorption band is widened as a result of this (so called collision or pressure broadening). A drop of 0.5 percent in measured CO2 can be caused by 95% oxygen.
Nitrous oxide causes a greater inaccuracy of 0.1 percent per ten percent of nitrous oxide.
Water vapour absorbs infrared light as well, resulting in absorption band overlap, collision broadening, and partial pressure dilution. Water traps and water permeable tubing are used to reduce inaccuracies.
Collision broadening is compensated for in modern gas multi-gas analysers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 66
Correct
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Which measurements is the most accurate for predicting fluid responsiveness?
Your Answer: Change in stroke volume following passive straight leg raise
Explanation:The passive leg raising (PLR) manoeuvre is a method of altering left and right ventricular preload and it is done with real-time measurement of stroke volume. It is a simple, quick, relatively unbiased, and accurate bedside test to guide fluid management and avoid fluid overload.
Pulse pressure variation (PPV), Stroke volume variation (SVV), superior vena cava diameter variation (threshold 36%) and end-expiratory occlusion test are used for dynamic tests of fluid responsiveness.
PPV is derived peripherally from the arterial pressure waveform.
Stroke volume variation (SVV) can be derived peripherally through pulse contour analysis of the arterial waveform. PPV and SVV have a threshold of 12% but since they are not used in patients who have cardiac arrhythmias, are spontaneous breathing, and in ventilated patients with low lung compliance and tidal volumes, they are of limited value.
The tests of fluid responsiveness’ accuracy is determined by calculating the area under the receiver operating characteristic curve (UROC) obtained by plotting the sensitivity of the parameter in predicting fluid responsiveness vs. 1-specificity.
Under optimal conditions, the ability to determine the need for fluid is best with PPV>SVV>LVEDA>CVP.
Central venous pressure (CVP) is a static test of preload (not preload responsiveness) and a key determinant of cardiac function. The left ventricular end-diastolic area (LVEDA) a static test of fluid responsiveness, is derived using echocardiography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 67
Correct
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A double blind placebo control clinical trial is done. Which of these is correct about it?
Your Answer: The clinician assessing the effects of the treatment does not know which treatment the patient has been given
Explanation:A ‘double blind crossover study’ happens when every patient receive both treatments.
It is incorrect to say that only half of the patients do not know which treatment they receive because in a double blind placebo control clinical trial ALL of the patients are blind to their treatment choice .
If some of the patients are not treated, they would be aware that they were not being treated and it could not be considered a blind trial.
In a double blind placebo control clinical trial both the clinician and the patient are blind to the treatment choice. The clinician assessing the effects of the treatment, therefore, does not know which treatment the patient has been given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 68
Correct
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Which statement is the most accurate when describing electrical equipment and shock?
Your Answer: Type CF is considered to safe for direct connection with the heart
Explanation:There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:
Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply
Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.
Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.
Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)
Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.
Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour ago, he experienced central chest pain, which moved down his left arm. On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment was noted in the anterior leads. He undergoes emergency percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) which requires the cardiologist to access the heart via the femoral artery. Where is the surface marking for identifying the femoral artery?
Your Answer: Two thirds of the way between the ASIS and the pubic tubercle
Correct Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis
Explanation:The surface marking for locating the femoral artery is the mid-inguinal point, which is the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis.
The other mentioned options are not specific for any landmark.
However, it is important to note the difference between the mid inguinal point and the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is travels from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 70
Correct
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A 60-year-old male is being reviewed in the peri-operative assessment before total knee replacement. He had a history of a heart transplant 10 years back. His resting heart rate is 110 beats per minute. On examination, ECG showed sinus tachycardia. Which of the following explains this tachycardia?
Your Answer: Loss of parasympathetic innervation
Explanation:Normally, at rest vagal influence is dominant producing the heart rate of 60-80 beats per minute even if the intrinsic automaticity of Sinoatrial Node is 100-110 beats per minute.
The transplanted heart has no autonomic nervous supply. So, it will respond to endogenous and exogenous catecholamine. This loss of parasympathetic innervation is responsible for the tachycardia in this patient.
Hypokalaemia can cause myocardial excitability and potential for ventricular ectopic and supraventricular arrhythmias. Hypothyroidism is also unlikely to cause tachycardia in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 71
Correct
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Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) can be used to investigate the function of the heart in patients with suspected heart failure. The aim is to measure the ejection fraction, but to do that, the stroke volume must first be measured. How is stroke volume calculated?
Your Answer: End diastolic volume - end systolic volume
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 72
Incorrect
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All of the following statements about that parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) are true except:
Your Answer: Use Acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter
Correct Answer: The PNS has nicotinic receptors throughout the system
Explanation:With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)
1. It is not under voluntary control
2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.
The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.
There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.
There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.
Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.
The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.
The cranial outflow consists of
1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreasThe sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.
The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
There are:
M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
M5 = brainThe lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 73
Correct
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Which statement most accurately describes the action of increasing the gain in ultrasound imaging?
Your Answer: Amplifies the returning signal
Explanation:A higher frequency ultrasound comes with a better resolution of the digital image. Ultrasound with a frequency of 15 MHz is best used in imaging of superficial organs such as the thyroid gland, muscles, tendons and breasts whereas deep organs are better imaged using a lower frequency of 2-7MHz because of its ability for deeper penetration but lower resolution. These low frequency probes are also used to diagnose ascites, pleural effusions or can be used in echocardiography.
The US probe emits and then absorbs a reflected wave. Similar to brightness control, increasing the gain will amplify the return signal which is then attenuated by the tissue. This increases the signal to noise ratio.
A high frame rate, which basically means the number of times an image is updated onto the screen per second, improves the resolution of a moving 3D image which has become more accurate as the computing power has increased.Widening of the image field can be obtained by altering the penetration depth which is obtained by changing the frequency of the US beam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 74
Incorrect
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Comparing pressure-volume curves in patients during an asthma attack with that of healthy subjects. The increased resistive work of breathing in the patients with asthma is best indicated by?
Your Answer: Longer expiratory time
Correct Answer: Larger hysteresis loop
Explanation:A major source of caloric expenditure and oxygen consumption in the body is work of breathing (WOB) and 70% of this is to overcome elastic forces. The remaining 30% is for flow-resistive work
In a normal patient breathing normally, the total area of hysteresis pressure volume curve represents the flow-resistive WOB.
The area of the expiratory resistive work increases during an asthma attack making the compliance curve larger in area. The larger the area the greater the work required to breathe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) used for the acute treatment of angina is best administered via the sublingual route. Why is this the best route of administration?
Your Answer: Poor gastric absorption
Correct Answer: High first pass metabolism
Explanation:Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) has a significant first pass metabolism. About 90% of a dose of GTN is metabolised in the liver by the enzyme glutathione organic nitrate reductase.
An INSIGNIFICANT amount of metabolism occurs in the intestinal mucosa.
There is approximately 1% bioavailability after oral administration and 38% after sublingual administration.
GTN does NOT cause gastric irritation and it is well absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract.
The volume of distribution of GTN is 2.1 to 4.5 L/kg. This is HIGH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 76
Correct
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About the mechanism of action of bendroflumethiazide, Which of the following is correct?
Your Answer: Sodium-chloride symporter inhibitor
Explanation:Sodium-chloride symporter inhibitor.
The thiazide sensitive sodium chloride symporter is inhibited by thiazides at the proximal portion of the distal convoluted tubule leading to increased sodium and water excretion. Increased delivery of sodium to the distal portion of the distal convoluted tubule promotes potassium loss. This is why thiazides are associated with hyponatraemia and hypokalaemia.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used mainly in the treatment of glaucoma. They act on the proximal convoluted tubule to promote bicarbonate, sodium and potassium loss.
Sodium potassium chloride symporter is inhibited by Loop diuretics.
Epithelial sodium channels are inhibited by Amiloride.
Drugs which lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus such as lithium and demeclocycline, are Inhibitors of vasopressin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 77
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman is a known case of acute myeloid leukaemia and was treated with chemotherapy as a child. She now presents in rhesus, and you are called in to attend this patient as it is getting difficult to gain vascular access in her arms. The medical registrar asks you to site a cannula during the arrest call as intraosseous access is delayed. The ITU SHO wants to assist you in performing a venous cutdown of one of the veins in her ankle that passes anterior to the medial malleolus. Which vessel is this?
Your Answer: Long saphenous vein
Explanation:Venous cutdown is a surgical procedure when venous access is difficult, and other procedures like the Seldinger technique, ultrasound-guided venous access, and intraosseous vascular access have failed.
The vein of choice for venous cutdown is the long/great saphenous vein. It is part of the superficial venous collecting system of the lower extremity. It is the preferred vein as the long saphenous vein has anatomic consistency and is superficially located at the ankle anterior to the medial malleolus. It is also the most commonly used conduit for cardiovascular bypass operations.
Origin- in the foot at the confluence of the dorsal vein of the first digit and the dorsal venous arch of the foot
Route- runs ANTERIOR to the medial malleolus and travels up in the medial leg and upper thigh.
Termination: in the femoral vein within the femoral triangleRegarding the other options:
The short saphenous vein passes posterior to the lateral malleolus.
The dorsalis pedis vein accompanies the dorsalis pedis artery on the anterior foot.
The posterior tibial vein is part of the deep venous system accompanying the posterior tibial artery. There is no significant sural vein (there is a sural nerve), but the sural veins accompany the sural arteries and drain to the popliteal vein. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 78
Correct
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Following a physical assault, a 28-year-old man is admitted to the emergency room. A golf club has struck him in the head. There is a large haematoma on the scalp, as well as a bleeding wound. In response to painful stimuli, he opens his eyes and makes deliberate movements. Because of inappropriate responses, a history is impossible to construct, but words can be discerned. Which of the options below best describes his current Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?
Your Answer: E2V3M5=10
Explanation:The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has been used in outcome models as a measure of physiological derangement and as a tool for assessing head trauma.
Eye opening (E):
4 Spontaneously
3 Responds to voice
2 Responds to painful stimulus
1 No response.Best verbal response (V):
5 Orientated, converses normally
4 Confused, disoriented conversation, but able to answer basic questions
3 Inappropriate responses, words discernible
2 Incomprehensible speech
1 Makes no sounds.Best motor response (M):
6 Obeys commands for movement
5 Purposeful movement to painful stimulus
4 Withdraws from pain
3 Abnormal (spastic) flexor response to painful stimuli, decorticate posture
2 Extensor response to painful stimuli, decerebrate posture
1 No response.In this case, GCS = 2+3+5 = 10.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 40-year old farmer came into the emergency room with a chief complaint of 4 episodes of non-bloody diarrhoea. This was associated with frequent urination, vomiting and salivation. History also revealed frequent use of insecticides. Upon physical examination, there was miosis and bradycardia. Given the different types of bonds, which is the most likely bond formed between insecticide poisoning and receptors?
Your Answer: Ionic
Correct Answer: Covalent
Explanation:Organophosphate poisoning occurs most often due to accidental exposure to toxic amounts of pesticides. Signs and symptoms include diarrhoea, urination, miosis, bradycardia, emesis, lacrimation, lethargy and salivation.
Organophosphates are classified as indirect acting cholinomimetics, and their mode of action involves: (1) the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) by forming a stable covalent bond on the active site serine; and, (2) amplification of endogenously release acetylcholine (ACh), hence the clinical manifestation.
There are 4 types of bonds or interactions: ionic, covalent, hydrogen bonds, and van der Waals interactions. Ionic and covalent bonds are strong interactions that require a larger energy input to break apart. When an element donates an electron from its outer shell, a positive ion is formed. The element accepting the electron is now negatively charged. Because positive and negative charges attract, these ions stay together and form an ionic bond. Covalent bonds form when an electron is shared between two elements and are the strongest and most common form of chemical bond in living organisms. Covalent bonds form between the elements that make up the biological molecules in our cells. Unlike ionic bonds, covalent bonds do not dissociate in water.
When polar covalent bonds containing a hydrogen atom form, the hydrogen atom in that bond has a slightly positive charge. This is because the shared electron is pulled more strongly toward the other element and away from the hydrogen nucleus. Because the hydrogen atom is slightly positive, it will be attracted to neighbouring negative partial charges. When this happens, a weak interaction occurs between the slightly positive charge of the hydrogen atom of one molecule and the slightly negative charge of the other molecule. This interaction is called a hydrogen bond.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 80
Correct
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Which statement best describes the bispectral index (BIS)?
Your Answer: It decreases during normal sleep
Explanation:The bispectral index (BIS) is one of several systems used in anaesthesiology as of 2003 to measure the effects of specific anaesthetic drugs on the brain and to track changes in the patient’s level of sedation or hypnosis. It is a complex mathematical algorithm that allows a computer inside an anaesthesia monitor to analyse data from a patient’s electroencephalogram (EEG) during surgery. It is a dimensionless number (0-100) that is a summative measurement of time domain, frequency domain and high order spectral parameters derived from electroencephalogram (EEG) signals.
Sleep and anaesthesia have similar behavioural characteristics but are physiologically different but BIS monitors can be used to measure sleep depth. With increasing sleep depth during slow-wave sleep, BIS levels decrease. This correlates with changes in regional cerebral blood flow when measured using positron emission tomography (PET).
BIS shows a dose-response relationship with the intravenous and volatile anaesthetic agents. Opioids produce a clinical change in the depth of sedation or analgesia but fail to produce significant changes in the BIS. Ketamine increases CMRO2 and EEG activity.
BIS is unable to predict movement in response to a surgical stimulus. Some of these are spinal reflexes and not perceived by the cerebral cortex.
BIS is used during cardiopulmonary bypass to measure depth of anaesthesia and an index of cerebral perfusion. However, it cannot predict subtle or significant cerebral damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 81
Correct
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Which of the following is correct regarding nitric oxide?
Your Answer: Is produced by both inducible and constitutive forms of nitric oxide synthetase
Explanation:Nitric oxide is generated from L-arginine by nitric oxide synthase. It is produced in response to haemodynamic stress by the vascular endothelium, and it produces both smooth muscle relaxation and reduced vascular resistance.
Nitric oxide may be inactivated through interaction with other oxygen free radicals, (e.g. oxidised low-density lipoprotein (LDL)).
Nitric oxide causes the production of the second messenger, cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 82
Correct
-
Concerning the trachea, which of these is true?
Your Answer: In an adult is approximately 15 cm long
Explanation:In an adult, the trachea is approximately 15 cm long. It extends at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra, from the lower border of the cricoid cartilage.
The trachea terminates between T4 and T6 at the carina or bronchial bifurcation. This variation is because of changes during respiration.
The trachea has 16-20 C-shaped cartilaginous rings that maintain its patency.
The trachea is first of the 23 generations of air passages in the tracheobronchial tree (not 25), from the trachea to the alveoli..
The inferior thyroid arteries which are branches of the thyrocervical trunk, arise from the first part of the subclavian artery and supplies the trachea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 83
Correct
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Regarding the blood supply of the heart, are the following statements true?
Your Answer: The left coronary artery originates from the left posterior aortic sinus
Explanation:The left coronary artery arises from the left posterior aortic sinus and divides into the circumflex arteries and the left anterior descending (LAD) artery.
The right coronary artery arises from the anterior aortic sinus and supplies:
– the right ventricle
– part of the interventricular septum
– the atrioventricular (A-V) node and
– in 85% of cases the inferior part of the left ventricle.
The right coronary artery provides a posterior interventricular branch and a marginal branch that anastomoses with the LAD at the apex.The oblique vein together with the small, middle and great cardiac veins drain into the coronary sinus, which drains into the right atrium.
The anterior cardiac vein drains directly into the right atrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 84
Correct
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During a critical liver resection surgery, a 65-year-old man suffers uncontrolled hepatic bleeding. The 'Pringle manoeuvre is performed to stop the bleeding where the hepatic artery, portal vein, and common bile duct are clamped. These structures form the anterior boundary of the epiploic foramen. Which of the following vessels also contributes to the boundary of this region?
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The epiploic foramen (foramen of Winslow or aditus to the lesser sac) is found behind the free right border of the lesser omentum. A short, 3 cm slit serves as the entrance to the lesser sac from the greater sac.
The epiploic foramen has the following boundaries:
Anteriorly: hepatoduodenal ligament, the bile duct (anteriorly on the right), the hepatic artery (anteriorly on the left), and the portal vein (posteriorly) together with nerves and lymphatics
Superiorly: the peritoneum of the posterior layer of the hepatoduodenal ligament runs over the caudate process of the liver
Posteriorly: inferior vena cava
Floor: upper border of the first part of the duodenum
The anterior and posterior walls of the foramen are normally
apposed, which partly explains why patients can develop large fluid
collections isolated to the greater or lesser sacRapid control of the hepatic artery and portal vein can be obtained by compression of the free edge of the lesser omentum (a €˜Pringle’ manoeuvre), which is a potentially useful technique in liver trauma and surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 85
Correct
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A patient's ECG is abnormal, with an abnormal broad complex QRS complexes. This means either a ventricular origin problem or aberrant conduction. The normal resting membrane potential of the heart's ventricular contractile fibres is which of the following?
Your Answer: -90mV
Explanation:The cardiac muscle’s contractile fibres have a much more stable resting potential than its conductive fibres. In the ventricular fibres it is -90mV and in the atrial fibres it is -80mV.
The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms. (QRS complex)Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 86
Incorrect
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You've been summoned to help resuscitate a 6-year-old child who has suffered a cardiac arrest. The ECG monitor shows electrical activity that isn't pulsed. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate during resuscitation?
Your Answer: The rate of chest compressions should be 120-140 per minute
Correct Answer: The dose of intravenous adrenaline is 180 mcg
Explanation:To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:
(Age + 4) 2 = Weight
A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.
10 mcg/kg (0.1 ml/kg of 1 in 10 000 adrenaline) = 180 mcg is the appropriate dose of intravenous or intraosseous adrenaline.
The correct energy level to deliver is 4 J/kg, which equals 72 joules.
The pad size that is appropriate for this patient is 8-12 cm. For an infant, a 4.5 cm pad is appropriate.
To allow adequate separation in infants and small children, the pads should be placed anteriorly and posteriorly on the chest.
When using a bag and mask to ventilate, take two breaths for every 15 chest compressions. If chest compressions are being applied intubated and without interruption, a ventilation rate of 10-20 breaths per minute should be given.
Chest compressions should be done at a rate of 100-120 per minute, the same as an adult.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 87
Correct
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A 72-year-old man complains of severe, central abdominal pain that radiates to the back. He has a past medical history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. A focused abdominal ultrasonography test (FAST) is performed, revealing diffuse dilatation of the abdominal aorta. The most prominent dilatation is at the bifurcation site of abdominal aorta into the iliac arteries. What vertebra level corresponds to the site of the most prominent dilatation as evident on the FAST scan?
Your Answer: L4
Explanation:The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 88
Correct
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What vessel is NOT considered a major branch of the descending thoracic aorta?
Your Answer: Inferior thyroid artery
Explanation:The descending thoracic aorta begins at the lower border of T4 near the midline as a continuation of the arch of the aorta. It descends and ends at the level of T12 at the aortic hiatus in the diaphragm, where it becomes the abdominal aorta.
The aorta gives off the following branches: (descending order)
1. Bronchial arteries
2. Mediastinal arteries
3. Oesophageal arteries
4. Pericardial arteries
5. Superior phrenic arteriesThe posterior intercostal arteries are branches that originate throughout the length of the posterior aspect of the descending thoracic aorta.
The inferior thyroid artery is usually derived from the thyrocervical trunk, a branch of the subclavian artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man, presents to the hospital with bilateral inguinal hernias. After examination and investigation, the surgical team decides to perform a laparoscopic hernia repair using the extraperitoneal approach. After making an infraumbilical incision, the surgeons perform the repair by placing a prosthetic mesh over the affected area, after shifting the inferior aspect of the rectus abdominis muscle anteriorly. Name the structure that would like posterior to the mesh?
Your Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Correct Answer: Peritoneum
Explanation:This question is asking which structure would lie posterior to the rectus abdominis muscle and not the prosthetic mesh, as only peritoneum lies posterior to mesh during a total extraperitoneal (TEP) hernia repair.
The region of the repair lies below the arcuate line, meaning that the transversalis fascia and peritoneum lie posterior to the rectus abdominis.
The bucks fascia lies within the penis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 90
Correct
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Which of the following statements is the most correct about ketamine?
Your Answer: The S (+) isomer is more potent that the R (-) isomer
Explanation:Ketamine, a phencyclidine derivative, is an antagonist at the NMDA receptor. It causes depression of the CNS that is dose dependent and induces a dissociative anaesthetic state with profound analgesia and amnesia.
Ketamine has a chiral centre usually presented as a racemic mixture with two optical isomers, S (+) and R (-) forms. These isomers are in equal proportions. The S (+) isomer is about three times more potent than the R (-) form. The S (+) form is less likely to cause emergence delirium and hallucinations.
Ketamine is extensively metabolised by hepatic microsomal cytochrome P450 enzymes producing norketamine as its main metabolite. Norketamine has a one third to one fifth as potency as its parent compound.
It increases the CMRO2, cerebral blood flow and potentially increase intracranial pressure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 91
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents with bilateral buttock claudication that spreads down the thigh and erectile dysfunction in a vascular clinic. The left femoral pulse is not palpable on examination, and the right is weakly palpable. Leriche syndrome is diagnosed as the blood flow at the abdominal aortic bifurcation is blocked due to atherosclerosis. He is prepared for aortoiliac bypass surgery. Which vertebral level will you find the affected artery that requires bypassing?
Your Answer: L4
Explanation:The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta into common iliac arteries occurs at the level of L4. The bifurcation is a common site for atherosclerotic plaques as it is an area of high turbulence.
Leriche Syndrome is an aortoiliac occlusive disease and affects the distal abdominal aorta, iliac arteries, and femoropopliteal vessels. It has a triad of symptoms:
1. Claudication (cramping lower extremities pain that is reproducible by exercise)
2. Impotence (reduced penile arterial flow)
3. Absent/weak femoral pulses (hallmark)T12 – aorta enters the diaphragm with the thoracic duct and azygous veins
L2 – testicular or ovarian arteries branch off the aorta
L3 – inferior mesenteric artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 92
Correct
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Health workers are at increased risks of anaesthetic exposure. Therefore, The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations require measures implemented to assess and control the risks related to this exposure. Among the following control measures, which one is most likely to limit potentially harmful exposure to anaesthetic agents within an operating theatre?
Your Answer: Total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA)
Explanation:Exposure to anaesthetic hazards is one among the occupational exposures in manipulating toxic agents or inhaling toxic gases during anaesthetic practices.
Toxic gases mainly nitrous oxide, is one of the most gaseous anaesthetic agents that constitutes an important source of pollution. One of the safe and effective technics used in anaesthesia and reducing the amount of pollution is the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia (TIVA) which consists of using opioids in analgesia and propofol for the induction and the maintenance of anaesthesia. It refers to the administration intravenously of an anaesthetic, sedative, and/or tranquilizer. A less polluting but not the best way to get rid of the toxic aesthetic agents is the scavenger system that collects and expels the gas outside the medical environment. Yet, this technique still represents a hazard for the environment and still increase the risk of exposure for the health workers and clinical staff.
Fume cupboards are also not recommended to use because of their high pollution potency, mainly of the air resulting in a great harm for medical workers.
Supraglottic airways as well as the Air Changes per Hour technics could be harmful for both patients and health workers, increasing the risks of transmitted diseases, namely nosocomial infections.
Therefore, the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia technique (TIVA) is most likely to be safe and recommended to use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 93
Correct
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Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result in an inaccurate blood pressure reading, including the damping of an arterial waveform. How does a damped arterial waveform affect blood pressure measurements?
Your Answer: The systolic pressure is lower and the diastolic pressure higher with the same mean
Explanation:Damping is the reduction of energy in a system achieved by reducing the amplitude of oscillations. It is necessary to some degree to prevent wave overshoots.
Critical damping usually causes the system to be slow, so optimal damping is normally applied to provide a balance between speed and distortion.
Damping can cause errors if excessive (overdamping) or inadequate (Underdamping). The amount of damping in a system can be determined using the damping coefficient (D), where:
Undamped: 0
Critically damped: 1
Optimally damped: 0.64An overdamped system will cause an artificial decrease in the systolic blood pressure, and an artificial increase in the diastolic blood pressure.
An underdamped system will cause an artificial increase in systolic blood pressure and an artificial decrease in diastolic blood pressure.
Damping can be caused by a number of factors affecting different parts of the system, including:
The tubing/cannula: The presence of air bubbles, increased blood viscosity or formation of blood clots.
The diaphragm/tubing: Increased malleability/compliance
The tubing: Presence of kinks, narrowing or too many ports of injection.The answer here is a damped system will have a low systolic pressure, a high diastolic pressure with a normal mean pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 94
Correct
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From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength?
Your Answer: X rays
Explanation:Electromagnetic waves are categorized according to their frequency or equivalently according to their wavelength. Visible light makes up a small part of the full electromagnetic spectrum.
Electromagnetic waves with shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies include ultraviolet light, X-rays, and gamma rays. Electromagnetic waves with longer wavelengths and lower frequencies include infrared light, microwaves, and radio and televisions waves.
Different electromagnetic waves according to their wavelength from shorter to longer are X-rays, ultraviolet radiations, visible light, infrared radiation, radio waves. X-ray among electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength and higher frequency with wavelengths ranging from 10*-8 to 10* -12 and corresponding frequencies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 95
Correct
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A 53-year-old-male is being operated on for a right hemicolectomy. In the procedure, the ileocolic artery is ligated. Which vessel does this artery originate from?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The ileocolic artery is the terminal branch of the superior mesenteric artery. It supplies:
1. terminal ileum
2. proximal right colon
3. cecum
4. appendix (via its branch of the appendicular artery)As veins accompany arteries in the mesentery and are lined by lymphatics, high ligation is the norm in cancer resections€”the ileocolic artery branches off the SMA near the duodenum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 96
Correct
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A 5-year-old child is scheduled for squint surgery requiring general anaesthesia. To begin, she is given sevoflurane for the inhalation induction, then intravenous access is established along with the insertion of a supraglottic airway. Anaesthesia is maintained with fentanyl 1 mcg/kg, with an air/oxygen/sevoflurane mix with spontaneous respirations. Once the surgery begins, her pulse rate drastically reduces from 120 beats/min to 8 beats/min. What is the most appropriate next step for this patient?
Your Answer: Tell surgeon to stop surgical retraction
Explanation:This sudden change in pulse rate is due to the oculocardiac reflex. It is a >20% reduction in pulse rate as a result of placing pressure directly on the eyeball. The reflex arc has an afferent and efferent arm:
The afferent (sensory) arm: The trigeminal nerve (CN V)
The efferent arm: The vagus nerve (CN X)
The most appropriate action is to ask the surgeon to stop retraction of the extraocular muscles, Assess for hypoxia, and give 100% oxygen if indicated.
Atropine of glycopyrrolate can be administered to counteract the reflex, and also prevent any further vagal reflexes.
Administration of fentanyl may increase patient’s risk of bradycardia and sinus arrest in this case.
Adrenaline is not indicated here as other treatment options will provide sufficient relief from arrhythmia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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The following statements are about the conjugation of bilirubin. Which is true?
Your Answer: Occurs in the Kupfer cells of the liver
Correct Answer: Is catalysed by a glucuronyl transferase
Explanation:Bilirubin is formed by metabolizing heme, mostly from haemoglobin in red blood cells.
Bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocytes by the glucuronyl transferase enzyme in order to enable it to become soluble and allow for its secretion across the canalicular membrane and into bile.
The conjugation process is increased by rifampicin and decreased by valproate.
Gilbert’s syndrome is caused by a decrease in glucuronyl transferase in the hepatic system, decreasing the transport of bilirubin into the hepatocyte, causing unconjugated bilirubinaemia.
Crigler-Najjer syndrome is caused by mutations in the genes responsible for hepatic glucuronyl transferase, decreasing the activity of the enzyme, meaning bilirubin cannot be conjugated, causing unconjugated bilirubinaemia.
Dubin-Johnson syndrome does not cause an impairment in the conjugation of bilirubin, but it blocks the transport of bilirubin out of the hepatocyte resulting in conjugated bilirubinaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 98
Correct
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Clearance techniques are used to assess renal glomerular function. Which of the following is the most accurate marker for glomerular filtration rate measurement?
Your Answer: Inulin
Explanation:The perfect glomerular filtration marker is:
The human body is not harmed by it.
Chemical or physical methods are used to accurately measure
Extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is freely and evenly diffusible.
Inability to access the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment
Filtration in the kidney is the only way to remove it from the blood.The ideal marker should not be reabsorbed into the bloodstream by the renal tubules or other urinary system components.
Creatinine is an endogenous substance that is filtered freely by the glomerulus and secreted by the proximal tubule. As a result, creatinine clearance consistently underestimates GFR. In healthy people, this overestimation ranges from 10% to 40%, but it is higher and more unpredictable in patients with chronic kidney disease.
The gold standard method of inulin clearance necessitates an intravenous infusion and several hours of timed urine collection, making it costly and time-consuming. Inulin is hard to come by and is difficult to mix and keep as a solution.
Exogenous filtration markers include the following:
Although plasma clearance of 51chromium EDTA is a widely used method in Europe, tubular reabsorption can occur.
Because 125I-iothalamate can be excreted by renal tubules in the urine, it cannot be used in patients who have an iodine assay.Radioactive substances must be stored, administered, and disposed of according to these methods.
The glomerulus filters para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) freely, and any that remains in the peritubular capillaries is secreted into the proximal convoluted tubules. This marker is used to determine the amount of blood flowing through the kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 99
Correct
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A 70-year old male has diverticular disease and is undergoing a sigmoid colectomy. His risk of developing a post operative would infection can be minimized by which of the following interventions?
Your Answer: Administration of single dose of broad spectrum antibiotics prior to the procedure
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.
Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressingIn contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.
2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intentionUse of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 100
Correct
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Which of the following is an expected change in pulmonary function seen during a moderate asthma attack?
Your Answer: Decreased forced expiratory volume in 1 sec (FEV1)
Explanation:Asthma is a lung condition that causes reversible narrowing and swelling of airway passages. It is classified by the frequency and severity of symptoms.
The following are symptoms of moderate asthma:
Symptoms include cough, wheezing, chest tightness, or difficulty breathing which occurs daily
Decreased activity levels due to flare-ups
Night-time symptoms 5 or more times a month
Lung function test FEV1 is 60-80% of predicted normal values
Peak flow has more than 30% variabilityWith moderate asthma attacks, the arterial pCO2 levels may decrease, but as severity increases, so does the pCO2, reaching normal levels, and then exceeding them in severe asthma attacks.
Airway obstruction increases the functional residual capacity.
Concentration of serum bicarbonate would not increase in moderate asthma, but it could possibly increase in life-threatening asthma via the same mechanism as what increases arterial PCO2.
FEV1 is a good measure of airway obstruction. and is reduced in acute asthma attacks.
In the case of a pneumothorax, a decrease in arterial PO2 is higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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