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Question 1
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A 58-year-old patient is having a planned hysterectomy. While the surgery is ongoing, her blood pressure suddenly decreases to 60/40 mmHg and her heart rate increases to 102 bpm. The anaesthetist decides to give phenylephrine. After a few minutes, the patient's blood pressure returns to 100/80 mmHg and her heart rate drops to 85 bpm.
What is the mechanism of action of phenylephrine in this scenario?Your Answer: 뱉 agonist
Explanation:Smooth muscle contraction in blood vessels is mediated by α1 adrenergic receptors, which can be activated by α1 agonists such as phenylephrine. This causes an increase in peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure. ÎČâ agonists affect the heart rate and contractility, ÎČâ agonists affect the airways in the lungs, and Mâ antagonists affect heart rate by blocking the vagus nerve.
Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, ÎČ1, and ÎČ2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The ÎČ1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The ÎČ2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A new screening test has been developed for detecting dementia in elderly patients. This was tested on a cohort of 500 patients above the age of 65. 150 of these 500 patients have an existing diagnosis of dementia. Amongst these patients, 120 of them were tested positive using this new screening test. Amongst the remaining patients who do not have dementia, 50 of them were found to be positive using the new screening test.
What is the specificity of this new screening test?Your Answer: 89%
Correct Answer: 75%
Explanation:The specificity of the new screening test is calculated as the ratio of true negative results to the total number of true negative and false positive results, which is 80%.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 3
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A 45-year-old male patient presents to his doctor with complaints of coughing up green phlegm and experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. Upon examination, the doctor detects crackles in the lower region of the patient's left lung and bronchial breathing. The patient also has reduced chest expansion on the left side. The doctor diagnoses the patient with pneumonia and prescribes amoxicillin. What is the most prevalent immunoglobulin found in the patient's serum?
Your Answer: IgG
Explanation:In blood, IgG is the antibody that is present in the highest amount.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Correct
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A fetus is diagnosed with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia, with visible protrusion of bowel into the thoracic cavity and hypoplastic lungs. What is the embryological origin of these internal organs?
Your Answer: Endoderm
Explanation:The endoderm is responsible for the development of the epithelium in the digestive system and respiratory system, as well as the pancreas and liver.
Embryological Layers and Their Derivatives
Embryonic development involves the formation of three primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. Each layer gives rise to specific tissues and organs in the developing embryo. The ectoderm forms the surface ectoderm, which gives rise to the epidermis, mammary glands, and lens of the eye, as well as the neural tube, which gives rise to the central nervous system (CNS) and associated structures such as the posterior pituitary and retina. The neural crest, which arises from the neural tube, gives rise to a variety of structures including autonomic nerves, cranial nerves, facial and skull bones, and adrenal cortex. The mesoderm gives rise to connective tissue, muscle, bones (except facial and skull), and organs such as the kidneys, ureters, gonads, and spleen. The endoderm gives rise to the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal tract, liver, pancreas, thyroid, parathyroid, and thymus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 5
Correct
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A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with an ulcerated mass located at the anal verge. Upon biopsy, the histology reveals squamous cell carcinoma. Which virus infection is most likely to have played a role in the development of this condition?
Your Answer: Human papillomavirus 16
Explanation:Contracting human papillomavirus 16 increases the likelihood of developing intra epithelial dysplasia in the anal skin, which in turn raises the risk of developing invasive cancer.
Understanding Oncoviruses and Their Associated Cancers
Oncoviruses are viruses that have the potential to cause cancer. These viruses can be detected through blood tests and prevented through vaccination. There are several types of oncoviruses, each associated with a specific type of cancer.
The Epstein-Barr virus, for example, is linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, post-transplant lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Human papillomavirus 16/18 is associated with cervical cancer, anal cancer, penile cancer, vulval cancer, and oropharyngeal cancer. Human herpes virus 8 is linked to Kaposi’s sarcoma, while hepatitis B and C viruses are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. Finally, human T-lymphotropic virus 1 is linked to tropical spastic paraparesis and adult T cell leukemia.
It is important to understand the link between oncoviruses and cancer so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent and treat these diseases. Vaccination against certain oncoviruses, such as HPV, can significantly reduce the risk of developing associated cancers. Regular screening and early detection can also improve outcomes for those who do develop cancer as a result of an oncovirus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-week-old premature baby is born and develops tachypnoea, tachycardia, and chest wall retractions shortly after birth. The neonate also shows blue discolouration of the skin. The doctor starts administering intravenous fluids and CPAP and informs the parents that the baby's lungs are lacking surfactant, a substance that aids breathing.
What type of cells produce surfactant?Your Answer: Type 2 pneumocytes
Explanation:Infant respiratory distress syndrome, also known as surfactant deficiency disorder, is caused by a lack of surfactant development and is commonly found in premature infants. To identify the correct answer, we must focus on lung cells, excluding paneth cells and microfold cells found in the intestinal epithelium, as well as alveolar macrophages, which are responsible for clearing infections and debris. The correct answer is type 2 pneumocytes, which produce pulmonary surfactant, while type 1 pneumocytes facilitate gas exchange between the alveoli and the blood.
Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants
Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.
The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.
Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner complaining of persistent fatigue, muscle and joint pain, low-grade fever, and a butterfly-shaped rash on her face. After diagnosis, she is found to have systemic lupus erythematosus, an autoimmune disorder caused by deficiencies in the complement system and the formation of antigen-antibody complexes.
What types of antibodies are commonly involved in this condition?Your Answer: IgA and IgG
Correct Answer: IgM and IgG
Explanation:Complement fixation is only initiated by IgM and IgG immunoglobulins. This is because they activate the classical pathway through antigen-antibody complexes. IgA, IgD, and IgE do not activate the classical complement pathway. IgA provides localized protection through mucous membranes, while IgD and IgE are involved in other immune responses. The alternative pathway, on the other hand, is triggered by polysaccharides such as those found in Gram-negative bacteria.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 8
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding epidemiological measures is accurate?
Your Answer: Cross-sectional surveys can be used to estimate the prevalence of a condition in the population
Explanation:Understanding Incidence and Prevalence
Incidence and prevalence are two terms used to describe the frequency of a condition in a population. The incidence refers to the number of new cases per population in a given time period, while the prevalence refers to the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time. Prevalence can be further divided into point prevalence and period prevalence, depending on the time frame used to measure it.
To calculate prevalence, one can use the formula prevalence = incidence * duration of condition. This means that in chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence, while in acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence are similar. For example, the incidence of the common cold may be greater than its prevalence.
Understanding the difference between incidence and prevalence is important in epidemiology and public health, as it helps to identify the burden of a disease in a population and inform healthcare policies and interventions. By measuring both incidence and prevalence, researchers can track the spread of a disease over time and assess the effectiveness of prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a hot and painful leg. Upon examination, the lower right limb shows a distinct area of erythema that is warm to the touch. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications, but has a penicillin allergy. The GP decides to prescribe clindamycin. What is the mechanism of action of this antibiotic?
Your Answer: Binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome
Explanation:Clindamycin hinders bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of the ribosome, leading to the eventual death of bacterial cells. Quinolone antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin, prevent bacterial replication by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase, which is responsible for unwinding and duplicating bacterial DNA. Beta-lactam antibiotics, like penicillins and cephalosporins, impair the bacterial cell wall, causing damage that ultimately results in bacterial cell death. Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase, which reduces the amount of purines available for DNA synthesis within the bacteria, thereby reducing bacterial replication. Tetracyclines, on the other hand, inhibit the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes, which has a similar effect to inhibiting the 50S subunit, leading to reduced protein synthesis.
Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 10
Correct
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Mrs. Johnson is a 54-year-old woman who underwent a left hemicolectomy for bowel cancer 5 days ago and is currently recovering on the surgical ward. The nurse is concerned as she has been complaining of constant left-sided chest pain, cough, and shortness of breath. The following are her recent observations and blood tests:
Blood pressure: 100/90 mmHg
Temperature: 38.5oC
SpO2: 91%
Respiratory rate: 22 breaths/min
Heart rate: 100 beats/min
Hb: 130 g/L
Platelets: 480 Ă 109/L
WCC: 14.5 x 109/L
CRP: 170 mg/L
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Lobar pneumonia
Explanation:The question is asking for the possible causes of postoperative fever, including Wind, Water, Wound, and What did we do? The patient in this scenario has an infection indicated by an elevated white blood cell count and CRP levels due to tissue damage during surgery. Basal atelectasis is not a likely cause as it occurs within the first 48 hours and does not result in a raised white cell count. Lobar pneumonia is the correct answer as it fits with the timing of the fever and the patient’s infective blood test results. Pulmonary embolism is not a suitable answer as it does not explain the raised white cell count and typically occurs 5-7 days post-op. Myocardial infarction is also not a suitable answer as it is a complication that can occur during or after surgery due to stress and does not explain the raised white cell count.
Understanding postoperative Pyrexia
postoperative pyrexia, or fever, can occur after surgery and may be caused by various factors. Early causes of post-op pyrexia, which typically occur within the first five days after surgery, include blood transfusion, cellulitis, urinary tract infection, physiological systemic inflammatory reaction, and pulmonary atelectasis. However, the evidence to support the link between pyrexia and pulmonary atelectasis is limited.
Late causes of post-op pyrexia, which occur more than five days after surgery, include venous thromboembolism, pneumonia, wound infection, and anastomotic leak. To remember the possible causes of post-op pyrexia, the memory aid of ‘the 4 W’s’ can be used, which stands for wind, water, wound, and what did we do? (iatrogenic).
It is important to identify the cause of post-op pyrexia to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in monitoring patients for signs of fever and investigating the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A young woman with a history of intravenous drug use presents to the emergency department with cellulitis of her arm. Upon admission, a blood culture is obtained and reveals the growth of a Gram-positive coccus that forms clusters. What molecular tests would be most beneficial in identifying this bacterium?
Your Answer: Catalase
Correct Answer: Coagulase
Explanation:Staphylococcus species can be sub-grouped based on the presence of coagulase. The presence of coagulase determines the two most common groups of staphylococci. Staphylococcus aureus is a coagulase positive staphylococcus, while Staphylococcus epidermis is the most common coagulase negative staphylococcus.
Understanding Staphylococci: Common Bacteria with Different Types
Staphylococci are a type of bacteria that are commonly found in the human body. They are gram-positive cocci and are facultative anaerobes that produce catalase. While they are usually harmless, they can also cause invasive diseases. There are two main types of Staphylococci that are important to know: Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis.
Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase-positive and is known to cause skin infections such as cellulitis, abscesses, osteomyelitis, and toxic shock syndrome. On the other hand, Staphylococcus epidermidis is coagulase-negative and is often the cause of central line infections and infective endocarditis.
It is important to understand the different types of Staphylococci and their potential to cause disease in order to properly diagnose and treat infections. By identifying the type of Staphylococci present, healthcare professionals can determine the appropriate course of treatment and prevent the spread of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 12
Correct
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A 28-year-old primigravida at 31 weeks gestation experiences spontaneous labor. Why is she administered betamethasone intramuscularly?
Your Answer: To enhance foetal lung maturation
Explanation:The development of the respiratory system in a foetus begins at around the 4th week of gestation. Type II alveolar epithelial cells, also known as pneumocytes, secrete pulmonary surfactant which helps to lower surface tension at the air-liquid interface of the alveolus. The secretion of surfactant by foetuses starts at 24-28 weeks, but the lungs are not considered fully mature until around 35 weeks when alveoli have developed following the saccular phase and surfactant production is sufficient to prevent airway collapse.
In cases where premature labour is a concern, betamethasone, a corticosteroid, can be administered antenatally to stimulate foetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory complications in the newborn.
Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants
Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.
The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.
Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 13
Incorrect
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The complement cascade can be activated through the classical pathway by forming antibody-antigen complexes. Which antibody type is most efficient in carrying out this task?
Your Answer: IgG
Correct Answer: IgM
Explanation:Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Correct
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A 17-year-old female comes to the doctor's office. She had unprotected sex five days ago and is now five days into her pregnancy. At what stage is the fertilized tissue?
Your Answer: Blastocyst
Explanation:After the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte, the germinal vesicle breakdown is stimulated by the LH surge, leading to the completion of meiosis and the formation of the first polar body. Following fertilization, pronuclear and zygote formation occur, followed by rapid cleavage, compaction, and polarization.
Around day 5, the blastocyst is formed, and implantation occurs between days 5 and 6. On day 1, the zygote is formed, and by late day 1, it reaches the 2-cell stage. The 4-cell stage is reached early on day 2, the 8-cell stage early on day 3, and the 16-cell stage late on day 3. The morula is formed on day 4, and the blastocyst is formed on day 5.
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.
As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 15
Correct
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As a junior doctor on the infectious diseases ward, you come across a 42-year-old man who has been experiencing shortness of breath, haemoptysis, weight loss, and cough for the past two months. He has lost 5kg in weight and has recently returned from India where he worked for 18 months. Blood tests show no abnormalities, but a chest x-ray reveals left upper zone consolidation surrounding a round, mass lesion. Further evaluation through high-resolution CT (HRCT) of the chest shows left upper lobe consolidation surrounding a 1.7cm, smooth rimmed lesion with a degree of calcification, with no evidence of cavitation or other acute lung pathology. The diagnosis is primary tuberculosis with evidence of tuberculoma formation. Which cytokine is integral to the development of this man's CT findings?
Your Answer: Interferon-gamma
Explanation:Interferon-gamma is primarily produced by natural killer cells and T helper cells, and plays a key role in macrophage activation, leading to the formation of granulomas. It is also important in preventing tuberculosis by inhibiting intracellular phagolysosomal maturation, allowing for the destruction of infected cells. Interferon-alpha, produced by leukocytes and dendritic cells, has strong antiviral action and activates natural killer cells to form an antiviral and anti-tumor response. Interferon-beta, produced primarily by fibroblasts, also has strong antiviral action and is important in the formation of antiviral and anti-tumor responses. Interleukin-12 is important in tuberculosis infection by activating T helper cell differentiation and natural killer cell activation, and aiding in interferon-gamma release for further macrophage activation, but it does not lead to granuloma formation.
Understanding Interferons
Interferons are a type of cytokine that the body produces in response to viral infections and neoplasia. They are categorized based on the type of receptor they bind to and their cellular origin. IFN-alpha and IFN-beta bind to type 1 receptors, while IFN-gamma binds only to type 2 receptors.
IFN-alpha is produced by leucocytes and has antiviral properties. It is commonly used to treat hepatitis B and C, Kaposi’s sarcoma, metastatic renal cell cancer, and hairy cell leukemia. However, it can cause flu-like symptoms and depression as side effects.
IFN-beta is produced by fibroblasts and also has antiviral properties. It is particularly useful in reducing the frequency of exacerbations in patients with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis.
IFN-gamma is mainly produced by natural killer cells and T helper cells. It has weaker antiviral properties but plays a significant role in immunomodulation, particularly in macrophage activation. It may be beneficial in treating chronic granulomatous disease and osteopetrosis.
Understanding the different types of interferons and their functions can help in the development of targeted treatments for various diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 16
Correct
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You have been asked to review a 63-year-old man on the medical ward who was recently treated for an exacerbation of pulmonary oedema. His past medical history includes heart failure. He is currently on a course of antibiotics for prostatitis.
His blood results from yesterday are shown below:
Na+ 141 mmol/l
K+ 4.3 mmol/l
Urea 6 mmol/l
Creatinine 60 ”mol/l
His blood results from today are shown below:
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 4.6 mmol/l
Urea 15 mmol/l
Creatinine 180 ”mol/l
What is the most probable reason for the change in kidney function?Your Answer: Concomitant use of furosemide and gentamicin resulting in renal failure
Explanation:The risk of renal failure increases when furosemide and gentamicin are used together. Furosemide is the primary diuretic for treating acute pulmonary edema, but its concurrent use with gentamicin can lead to kidney failure. The patient’s blood test results indicate acute kidney injury, which is likely caused by gentamicin toxicity.
Acute kidney injury can result from pre-renal causes such as sepsis and dehydration, and in such cases, the blood test would show a significant increase in urea levels disproportionate to the rise in creatinine.
Bendroflumethiazide is not a commonly used medication for managing acute pulmonary edema.
Metronidazole is not significantly associated with nephrotoxicity.
Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic known as an aminoglycoside. It is not easily dissolved in lipids, so it is typically administered through injection or topical application. It is commonly used to treat infections such as infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, gentamicin can have adverse effects on the body, such as ototoxicity, which can cause damage to the auditory or vestibular nerves. This damage is irreversible. Gentamicin can also cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity increases when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Lower doses and more frequent monitoring are necessary to prevent these adverse effects. Gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. To ensure safe dosing, plasma concentrations of gentamicin are monitored. Peak levels are measured one hour after administration, and trough levels are measured just before the next dose. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An Emergency Department receives a 75-year-old male patient with an intracranial haemorrhage. The patient has been undergoing heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. What medication is used as a heparin antagonist to treat major bleeds associated with heparin therapy?
Your Answer: Vitamin K
Correct Answer: Protamine
Explanation:Protamine sulphate can reverse an overdose of heparin.
Heparin is a type of anticoagulant medication that comes in two main forms: unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin forms a complex that inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. Adverse effects of heparins include bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia. LMWH has a lower risk of causing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) and osteoporosis compared to unfractionated heparin. HIT is an immune-mediated condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. Treatment for HIT includes direct thrombin inhibitors or danaparoid. Heparin overdose can be partially reversed by protamine sulfate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old cattle farmer who complains of nonspecific discomfort in the right upper quadrant. He denies any gastrointestinal symptoms but reports feeling generally unwell. Upon physical examination, the liver edge is palpable 6 cm below the costal margin and he has no fever.
An ultrasound is ordered and reveals a solitary large cyst in the liver. Due to the cyst's size, the decision is made to perform surgical resection in conjunction with optimal medical therapy.
What is the most probable causative organism responsible for this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Entamoeba histolytica
Correct Answer: Echinococcus granulosus
Explanation:On ultrasound, hepatic cysts are detected in a sheep farmer.
Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A consultant physician is presenting his innovative research on antibiotics to a group of colleagues. He mentions that the antibiotics he is studying target the 50s ribosomal unit to inhibit protein synthesis.
Which specific antibiotic is the consultant referring to?Your Answer: Quinolones
Correct Answer: Tetracyclines
Explanation:Tetracyclines, including doxycycline and lymecycline, hinder protein synthesis by binding to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, which prevents the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA.
Rifampicin suppresses RNA synthesis and causes cell death by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
Trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which is necessary for the synthesis of DNA.
Cephalosporins hinder the synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls by competing with penicillin-binding proteins, which are responsible for cross-linking the peptidoglycan layer. The peptidoglycan layer is crucial for maintaining the structural integrity of the cell wall.
Quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, prevent DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyrase.
Understanding Tetracyclines: Antibiotics Used in Clinical Practice
Tetracyclines are a group of antibiotics that are commonly used in clinical practice. They work by inhibiting protein synthesis, specifically by binding to the 30S subunit and blocking the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA. However, bacteria can develop resistance to tetracyclines through increased efflux by plasmid-encoded transport pumps or ribosomal protection.
Tetracyclines are used to treat a variety of conditions such as acne vulgaris, Lyme disease, Chlamydia, and Mycoplasma pneumoniae. However, they should not be given to children under 12 years of age or to pregnant or breastfeeding women due to the risk of discolouration of the infant’s teeth.
While tetracyclines are generally well-tolerated, they can cause adverse effects such as photosensitivity, angioedema, and black hairy tongue. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to use tetracyclines only as prescribed by a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You have been asked to assist with the write-up of the data analysis section of a research paper on the topic of the effects of a new medication on blood pressure in patients over 60 years old. As part of this, you have been given the result of the sample size calculation, which determined the number of patients that needed to be recruited into the trial. One of the factors affecting this sample size was the fact that a power of 0.8 was selected.
What is the significance of selecting a power of 0.8 in the sample size calculation for this study on the effects of a new medication on blood pressure in patients over 60 years old?Your Answer: Probability of a Type 2 error
Correct Answer: 1 - probability of a Type 2 error
Explanation:What is the meaning of statistical power and how is it related to the different types of error in statistical analysis?
Statistical analysis involves two types of error: Type 1 error, which is the probability of falsely rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true, and Type 2 error, which is the probability of falsely accepting the null hypothesis when it is false. The p-value for a study represents the probability of a Type 1 error occurring.
Statistical power, on the other hand, is the probability of detecting a true effect or difference in a study. It is calculated as 1 minus the probability of making a Type 2 error (represented by ÎČ). Therefore, the higher the statistical power, the lower the chance of making a Type 2 error and the more likely it is to detect a true effect or difference.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 21
Correct
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A 9-year-old male child is brought to the pediatrician by his father who is very worried about his child. The father reports that his son often forgets to flush the toilet, and has noticed his urine is usually brown-black by the time he sees it.
During the examination, the child appears to be in good spirits and health, and the only notable finding is discoloration of his ear cartilage.
The pediatrician explains to the father that the most likely cause of his child's presentation is alkaptonuria, a metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency of a crucial enzyme.
Which enzyme is the pediatrician referring to?Your Answer: Homogentisic dioxygenase deficiency
Explanation:The lack of homogentisic dioxygenase is the root cause of Alkaptonuria, while Pompe disease is a rare and fatal muscular disease that results from a deficiency of the enzyme acid alpha-glucosidase (GAA). In Alkaptonuria, the inability to metabolize phenylalanine and tyrosine leads to the accumulation of toxic homogentisic acid. To manage this condition, patients are advised to limit their intake of phenylalanine and tyrosine and take high doses of vitamin C. Conversely, a deficiency of vitamin C can cause scurvy, which is characterized by symptoms such as prolonged wound healing and bleeding gums.
Alkaptonuria, also known as ochronosis, is a rare genetic disorder that affects the metabolism of phenylalanine and tyrosine. It is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme homogentisic dioxygenase (HGD), which leads to the accumulation of toxic homogentisic acid in the body. While the kidneys are able to filter out the acid, it eventually builds up in cartilage and other tissues, resulting in various symptoms. These may include pigmented sclera, black urine upon exposure to air, back pain due to intervertebral disc calcification, and the formation of renal stones.
Despite its potential complications, alkaptonuria is generally considered a benign and often asymptomatic condition. However, treatment is still necessary to manage its effects. This may involve high-dose vitamin C supplementation and dietary restrictions on phenylalanine and tyrosine intake. By following these measures, individuals with alkaptonuria can help prevent the accumulation of homogentisic acid and reduce the risk of associated symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of a fever that has been gradually increasing over the past three days. He has also experienced multiple episodes of diarrhea. He recently returned from a one-month trip to rural villages in India, where he frequently played with stray dogs and helped with farming activities. During his trip, he spent a few days hiking in the forest and swimming in a lake. He mainly drank water from wells. His vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 102/80 mmHg, pulse 50 beats per minute, and temperature 39.6ÂșC. Blood cultures reveal Salmonella typhi, and he was treated with ciprofloxacin. From which activity could he have contracted the organism?
Your Answer: Hiking, resulting in mosquito bites
Correct Answer: Drinking water from wells
Explanation:Typhoid is most commonly transmitted through contaminated food and water, as it is spread via the faecal-oral route. In rural villages where sanitation may be lacking, drinking water from wells can be a major source of transmission.
Burkholderia pseudomallei is typically associated with soil exposure, which is more commonly found in farming environments than Salmonella typhi.
Rabies, a virus transmitted through the saliva of infected animals, is a risk for those who come into contact with stray dogs.
Depending on the species of mosquito, bites can transmit diseases such as malaria or dengue fever, which are both viral haemorrhagic fevers.
Enteric fever, also known as typhoid or paratyphoid, is caused by Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi respectively. These bacteria are not normally found in the gut and are transmitted through contaminated food and water or the faecal-oral route. The symptoms of enteric fever include headache, fever, and joint pain, as well as abdominal pain and distension. Constipation is more common in typhoid than diarrhoea, and rose spots may appear on the trunk in 40% of patients with paratyphoid. Possible complications of enteric fever include osteomyelitis, gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation, meningitis, cholecystitis, and chronic carriage. Chronic carriage is more likely in adult females and occurs in 1% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 23
Correct
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A 42-year-old male visits the HIV clinic for regular blood tests to monitor his condition. Which type of cells are utilized to assess the advancement of HIV in affected individuals?
Your Answer: CD4 T cells
Explanation:The progression of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is measured using CD4 count. If the CD4 count is below 200cells/mm3, it indicates a diagnosis of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). Although the number of NK cells decreases in HIV, it is not used to determine disease progression. HIV often activates polyclonal B cells. The reticulocyte count may decrease in HIV, but it is not linked to disease progression.
Immunological Changes in Progressive HIV
In progressive HIV, there are several immunological changes that occur. These changes include a reduction in CD4 count, an increase in B2-microglobulin, a decrease in IL-2 production, polyclonal B-cell activation, a decrease in NK cell function, and reduced delayed hypersensitivity responses. These changes can lead to a weakened immune system and an increased susceptibility to infections. It is important for individuals with HIV to receive proper medical care and treatment to manage these immunological changes and maintain their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 24
Correct
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A 42-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of coughing up blood. He reports experiencing excessive sweating during the night and significant weight loss in recent weeks. He had returned from a trip to Pakistan a little over a month ago. After a sputum PCR test, he is diagnosed with tuberculosis. The doctor prescribes four different antibiotics and also recommends pyridoxine to counteract a potential side effect caused by one of the antibiotics. Which antibiotic is responsible for this side effect?
Your Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:Pyridoxine is often prescribed alongside isoniazid due to its tendency to cause vitamin B6 deficiency. This deficiency can lead to peripheral neuropathy, a common side effect of isoniazid. Rifampicin is known for causing bodily fluids to turn orange, while pyrazinamide can cause arthralgia and liver damage. Ethambutol is associated with optic neuritis.
The Importance of Vitamin B6 in the Body
Vitamin B6 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Once it enters the body, it is converted into pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), which acts as a cofactor for various biochemical reactions such as transamination, deamination, and decarboxylation. These reactions are essential for the proper functioning of the body.
However, a deficiency in vitamin B6 can lead to various health problems such as peripheral neuropathy and sideroblastic anemia. One of the common causes of vitamin B6 deficiency is isoniazid therapy, which is used to treat tuberculosis. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin B6 to maintain optimal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old, nursing student arrives at the emergency department with profuse epistaxis. The bleeding is controlled with silver nitrate cautery.
Coincidentally, the doctor attending to her is also her nursing instructor. During their conversation about bleeding and clot formation, the nursing instructor explains that platelet disorders or a deficiency in thromboxane, a type of eicosanoid that aids in platelet aggregation and halts bleeding, can cause bleeding. Additionally, the nursing instructor mentions that thromboxane has another crucial role.
What is another function of thromboxane?Your Answer: Activates antithrombin
Correct Answer: Causes vasoconstriction
Explanation:Thromboxane, which is produced by the action of thromboxane-A synthase on prostaglandin H2, not only promotes platelet aggregation but also acts as a powerful vasoconstrictor and hypertensive agent. By causing vasoconstriction, thromboxane reduces blood flow to the area where a clot has formed. It should be noted that thromboxane does not activate antithrombin or promote platelet degradation, contrary to the given incorrect answers.
Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides
Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.
Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.
Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of low mood, fatigue, constipation, and urinary frequency. The doctor orders a standard blood test to investigate the possible cause. After reviewing the results, the GP diagnosis the woman with primary hyperparathyroidism.
What blood test results are expected for this patient?Your Answer: Raised calcium, raised phosphate
Correct Answer: Raised calcium, low phosphate
Explanation:Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is responsible for increasing plasma calcium levels and decreasing plasma phosphate levels. Hyperparathyroidism is a condition where there is an excess of PTH, either due to an overactive parathyroid gland (primary) or a low serum calcium level (secondary). Primary hyperparathyroidism results in raised calcium levels and low phosphate levels, while secondary hyperparathyroidism is typically seen in chronic kidney disease. PTH acts by increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and digestive tract, as well as increasing bone resorption. This helps to prevent the formation of calcium phosphate crystals, which can cause renal stones. Symptoms of hyperparathyroidism include constipation and low mood, which are typical of hypercalcaemia.
Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism
Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 27
Correct
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You are consulting with a 25-year-old woman in a genetics clinic. During the discussion of family planning, she reveals that her brother and maternal uncle have been diagnosed with Fabry disease, and her uncle passed away in his 30s due to heart disease. She is currently in a relationship and considering starting a family in the near future. Apart from her well-controlled epilepsy, she has no other health issues and feels healthy overall. Her parents are also in good health. What is the likelihood that she has inherited the gene for Fabry disease?
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding Fabry Disease
Fabry disease is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It is caused by a deficiency of alpha-galactosidase A, an enzyme that breaks down a type of fat called globotriaosylceramide. This leads to the accumulation of this fat in various organs and tissues, causing a range of symptoms.
One of the earliest symptoms of Fabry disease is burning pain or paraesthesia in childhood, particularly in the hands and feet. Other common features include angiokeratomas, which are small red or purple spots on the skin, and lens opacities, which can cause vision problems. Proteinuria, or the presence of excess protein in the urine, is also a common finding in people with Fabry disease.
Perhaps the most serious complication of Fabry disease is early cardiovascular disease, which can lead to heart attacks and strokes. This is thought to be due to the accumulation of globotriaosylceramide in the walls of blood vessels, causing them to become stiff and narrow.
Overall, Fabry disease is a complex condition that can affect many different parts of the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important for managing symptoms and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 28
Correct
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A 27-year-old man who is on tacrolimus, mycophenolate, and prednisolone for a previous kidney-transplant is planning to travel and seeks your advice on which vaccinations he can safely receive.
Which vaccine should be administered with caution to this patient?Your Answer: Yellow fever
Explanation:Yellow fever and intranasal influenzae vaccines are live attenuated, while hepatitis A and rabies vaccines are inactivated. Yellow fever vaccine should be used with caution in immune-deficient patients.
Vaccinations: Types and Precautions
Vaccinations are an important aspect of preventive healthcare. However, it is crucial to be aware of the different types of vaccines and their potential risks, especially for immunocompromised individuals. Live-attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to these patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, such as rabies and hepatitis A, and toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus and diphtheria, are safer options. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, which use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins, respectively, are also available for diseases like pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus.
It is important to note that different types of influenzae vaccines are available, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Additionally, the cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and the recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. The hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology and contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant.
In summary, vaccinations are an essential tool in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their potential risks to make informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 29
Correct
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A 38-year-old cattle farmer has been referred for an ultrasound scan of his liver by his doctor due to experiencing upper abdominal discomfort and nausea for the past 6 months. There are no specific triggers for his symptoms, but he mentions that he has had a stressful year as a few of his cattle have been ill and required treatment for parasites.
Upon examination, he has mild tenderness in the upper right abdominal quadrant, but no other significant findings. The ultrasound reveals hepatic cysts.
Which organism is most likely responsible for his condition?Your Answer: Echinococcus granulosus
Explanation:A sheep farmer has been diagnosed with hepatic cysts on ultrasound, which is likely caused by Echinococcus granulosus infection.
Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm commonly found in farmers who raise sheep. The tapeworm is transmitted through the ingestion of hydatid cysts by dogs, which then spread the infection through their feces. Symptoms may not appear for a long time as the cysts grow slowly, but patients may experience abdominal discomfort and nausea. Hepatic cysts can be detected through liver ultrasound.
Clonorchis sinensis infection is caused by consuming undercooked fish and can lead to biliary tract obstruction, resulting in symptoms such as abdominal pain, jaundice, and nausea. It is also a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma.
Enterobius vermicularis, or pinworm, is usually asymptomatic but can cause perianal itching, especially at night. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area under a microscope.
Strongyloides stercoralis is a roundworm commonly found in soil. Infected patients may experience diarrhea, abdominal pain, and papulovesicular lesions where the larvae have penetrated the skin.
Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old is visiting the tuberculosis clinic for a medication check-up. He is currently undergoing treatment for active tuberculosis and is following directly observed therapy, which he is adhering to.
During the appointment, the patient reports experiencing a recent onset of painful and burning sensations in his hands and feet. Upon examination, the patient's radiological results show improvement, and he has gained weight. However, he has a sensory deficit that follows a glove and stocking distribution.
Which medication is most likely causing this patient's adverse reaction?Your Answer: Rifampicin
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:Isoniazid is the correct option as it can lead to peripheral neuropathy, which is evident in this patient’s distal ‘burning’ sensation and peripheral sensory deficit. Isoniazid is known to be a pyridoxine (vitamin B6) antagonist, which is why pyridoxine is co-prescribed to prevent this adverse effect.
While Ethambutol can potentially cause peripheral neuropathy, it is much rarer and is more likely to cause optic neuropathy with associated visual disturbances, making it a less likely/incorrect option.
Pyrazinamide is not known to cause peripheral neuropathy, making it an incorrect option. Its main documented adverse effects are diarrhoea, vomiting, hyperuricemia, and gout.
Pyridoxine is co-prescribed with isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy, making it an incorrect option.
Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.
Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.
Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.
Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 31
Correct
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A 43-year-old woman presents to the respiratory ward with an 8-day history of fever, dry cough, and shortness of breath. She recently returned from a vacation in southern Spain. The patient has a medical history of type 1 diabetes.
The chest x-ray shows bi-basal opacification. Blood tests reveal the following results: Na+ 127 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 5.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Urea 12.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), Creatinine 200 ”mol/L (55 - 120), and CRP 199 mg/L (< 5).
What type of culture medium is required to cultivate the probable causative agent?Your Answer: Charcoal yeast agar
Explanation:Charcoal yeast agar (with cysteine) is the correct culture medium for isolating Legionella pneumophila, the bacterium responsible for atypical pneumonia. This organism is commonly associated with individuals who have recently traveled and stayed in air-conditioned rooms, as seen in this patient’s clinical history. In addition to respiratory symptoms, Legionella pneumophila can also cause extra-pulmonary symptoms such as hyponatremia. Therefore, charcoal yeast agar is the appropriate medium for culturing this organism.
Bordet-Gengou agar, chocolate agar, and Loeffler’s media are all incorrect choices for this patient’s presentation as they are used for culturing different organisms such as Bordetella pertussis, Haemophilus influenzae, and Corynebacterium diphtheriae, respectively.
Culture Requirements for Common Organisms
Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).
To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 32
Correct
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A group of educational researchers want to investigate the effect of technology use on academic performance among middle school students. They plan to select high-achieving, non-tech using students and low-achieving, tech-using students for the study. Then, they will follow up with each group at a later time and compare their academic performance.
The school review board is worried about the study's design. They note a significant risk of selection bias in this study and suggest several modifications.
What is the particular concern of the review board?Your Answer: There is non-random assignment of students to each group
Explanation:Selection bias refers to the non-random allocation of participants to study groups, which can lead to an over or under-representation of certain groups and bias the results. In the case of this study, non-gaming students may perform better due to their prior performance, rather than their lack of gaming experience. To address this, the researchers should ensure that the prior performance of both groups is similar.
The binary categorization of gaming and non-gaming may be imprecise, but it is not a form of bias that would significantly impact the results. To improve the study, the researchers could ask participants to report their average gaming hours and stratify accordingly.
Reporting bias, rather than selection bias, may occur if only the best-performing gamers report their results, leading to an overestimation of the group’s ability.
While there may be confounding variables to consider, such as mental health issues, these are not a form of selection bias.
Attrition bias, where there is a greater loss of participants from one group compared to the other, may occur but is not a form of selection bias. In this study, poor-performing students may be more likely to drop out, leading to a potential underestimation of the effect size.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnoses the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to the neurologist with a complaint of progressive gait disturbance over the past few months. He has no significant medical history and has not seen a healthcare professional in many years due to his busy schedule. He reports a painless lesion on his penile shaft that resolved spontaneously many years ago. His family history is unremarkable, and he travels frequently for business, consuming two glasses of wine per week. He maintains a balanced diet.
During the examination, the patient exhibits a slamming of his feet onto the ground while walking. There is no dysdiadochokinesis, past-pointing, or nystagmus. His peripheral sensation is intact, and his motor function is normal. Upon examination of his cranial nerves, the neurologist notes small pupils that do not respond to light but contract normally to accommodation and convergence.
What is the most likely diagnosis, and which anatomic location's lesions are contributing to his gait disturbance?Your Answer: Lateral corticospinal tract
Correct Answer: Dorsal column of the spinal cord
Explanation:Tabes dorsalis is a manifestation of tertiary syphilis that results in the degeneration of dorsal column fibers. This patient exhibits two key features of the disease, including a sensory ataxic gait (also known as a stomping gait) and Argyll-Robertson pupils, which are bilaterally small and reactive but do not accommodate. A diagnosis of tertiary syphilis can be confirmed by testing the spinal fluid with VDRL or RPR.
While lesions of the cerebellar vermis can also cause gait ataxia, it typically presents as a truncal ataxia rather than a stomping gait. Additionally, the pupillary findings make neurosyphilis more likely.
A lesion of the lateral corticospinal tract would result in suboptimal motor function on neurological examination, and Argyll-Robertson pupils would not be consistent with this answer.
Destruction of the anterior white commissure of the spinothalamic tract is seen in syringomyelia, which presents with bilateral loss of pain and temperature rather than gait disturbance.
Although a disturbance of the vestibulocochlear nerve can result in gait unsteadiness, a stomping gait would not be the typical manifestation, and the pupillary findings make this answer less likely.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The infection progresses through primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with an incubation period of 9-90 days. The primary stage is characterized by a painless ulcer at the site of sexual contact, along with local lymphadenopathy. Women may not always exhibit visible symptoms. The secondary stage occurs 6-10 weeks after primary infection and presents with systemic symptoms such as fevers and lymphadenopathy, as well as a rash on the trunk, palms, and soles. Other symptoms may include buccal ulcers and genital warts. Tertiary syphilis can lead to granulomatous lesions of the skin and bones, ascending aortic aneurysms, general paralysis of the insane, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll-Robertson pupil. Congenital syphilis can cause blunted upper incisor teeth, linear scars at the angle of the mouth, keratitis, saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male visits his GP complaining of feeling unwell for the past 5 days. He reports experiencing fatigue, myalgia, fevers, and overall malaise. After examination, the doctor diagnoses him with influenzae. The patient expresses disbelief, stating that he received the flu vaccine last year and should be immune. What is the reason for the need for annual flu vaccinations?
Your Answer: Temporary adaptive immune response
Correct Answer: Antigenic drift
Explanation:The reason why an annual flu vaccine is necessary is because of the antigenic drift process. The influenzae virus has an enzyme called RNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which does not have the ability to proofread. As a result, errors accumulate during RNA replication, leading to a constantly evolving antigenic site that the immune response is less effective against. This is why the influenzae vaccine needs to be updated with new strains every year.
On the other hand, antigenic shift refers to a sudden and drastic change in one of the antigenic proteins, such as neuraminidase or haemagglutinin. This abrupt change creates a new subtype that the population has very little immunity against, potentially causing a pandemic.
Respiratory Pathogens and Associated Conditions
Respiratory pathogens are microorganisms that cause infections in the respiratory system. The most common respiratory pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, influenzae virus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophilia, and Pneumocystis jiroveci. Each of these pathogens is associated with specific respiratory conditions, such as bronchiolitis, croup, common cold, flu, community-acquired pneumonia, acute epiglottitis, atypical pneumonia, and tuberculosis.
Flu-like symptoms are often the first sign of respiratory infections caused by these pathogens, followed by a dry cough. Complications may include haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, lymphopenia, deranged liver function tests, and hyponatraemia. Patients with Pneumocystis jiroveci infections typically have few chest signs and develop exertional dyspnoea. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause a wide range of presentations, from asymptomatic to disseminated disease, and may be accompanied by cough, night sweats, and weight loss.
Overall, understanding the different respiratory pathogens and their associated conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment of respiratory infections.
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Question 35
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What is the virus being studied by the researchers that is fatal if contracted by pregnant women and affects erythrocyte progenitors and endothelial cells, leading to severe anaemia and potential heart failure, ultimately resulting in fetal loss or accumulation of fluid in the serous cavities of the fetus?
Your Answer: Poxvirus
Correct Answer: Parvovirus
Explanation:Parvovirus B19 is the correct answer for the virus described in the vignette. This virus is the smallest DNA virus and the only single-stranded DNA virus. Infections during pregnancy can be fatal for the baby, as the virus suppresses fetal erythropoiesis, leading to severe anaemia and heart failure, ultimately resulting in hydrops fetalis. In children, infections cause erythema infectiosum or fifth disease, which presents with a characteristic ‘slapped cheek’ appearance.
Ancylostoma duodenale is not the correct answer, as it is a roundworm/nematode, not a virus. Although infections with this parasite can cause microcytic anaemia as the worm sucks blood from the intestinal wall.
Herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1) is also not the correct answer, as it is an enveloped, double-stranded virus, unlike parvovirus. Infections with HSV-1 cause gingivostomatitis, herpetic whitlow, and temporal lobe encephalitis. The virus can also remain latent in the trigeminal ganglia.
Human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8) is also not the correct answer, as it is an enveloped, double-stranded virus, unlike parvovirus. Infections with HHV-8 are mainly seen in patients with HIV/AIDS or post-transplant patients, causing a neoplasm of endothelial cells known as Kaposi sarcoma.
Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations
Parvovirus B19 is a type of DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to other parts of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but it may recur for some months after exposure to triggers such as warm baths, sunlight, heat, or fever. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is no longer infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.
Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, or aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which may lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities such as ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions. This condition is called hydrops fetalis and is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.
It is important to note that parvovirus B19 can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy, she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, school exclusion is unnecessary.
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a productive cough and difficulty breathing. After being diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia, she is given initial treatment. However, she suddenly experiences lip swelling and worsening shortness of breath. Upon examination, a widespread rash and an audible expiratory wheeze are discovered. What is the recommended first-line pharmacological treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Adrenaline 1ml (1 in 1,000) IV
Correct Answer: Adrenaline 0.5ml (1 in 1,000) IM
Explanation:Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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Question 37
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A 43-year-old man presents to the emergency department with confusion, fever, and photosensitivity. He has a history of HIV and is compliant with his antiretroviral therapy. Over the past month, he has been experiencing watery diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, fevers, and fatigue.
Upon examination, his oxygen saturation is 97% on room air, respiratory rate is 18/min, heart rate is 98/min, blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg, and temperature is 38.4ÂșC. A CT head scan reveals meningeal enhancement and recommends a lumbar puncture.
The patient is admitted under the medical team and undergoes a lumbar puncture, which is positive for India ink. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Cryptococcus neoformans
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms of meningitis and a lumbar puncture has revealed the presence of Cryptococcus neoformans, the most common CNS fungal infection in HIV patients. Treatment involves administering IV amphotericin B and flucytosine for two weeks, followed by oral fluconazole for eight weeks. Fluconazole can also be used for relapse prophylaxis until the patient’s immunity recovers. In cases where the patient has high opening pressures on LP, daily LPs may be performed to reduce intracranial pressure during the acute phase.
AIDS dementia complex is a chronic complication that can occur in late stages of HIV infection, resulting in changes in cognitive function, movement, and learning. CT scans may reveal cortical and subcortical atrophy.
Herpes simplex encephalitis can be caused by cytomegalovirus infection or the HIV virus itself, and presents with symptoms such as headache, fever, seizures, and confusion. CT scans may show generalised brain oedema, while LPs may reveal the presence of herpes simplex virus on PCR.
Kaposi sarcoma is a type of cancer that can affect the skin, respiratory system, and GI tract of immunocompromised patients. The lesions of those affected will contain human herpesvirus 8.
Neurological complications are common in patients with HIV. Focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis can cause symptoms such as headache, confusion, and drowsiness. Toxoplasmosis is the most common cause of cerebral lesions in HIV patients and is treated with sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine. Primary CNS lymphoma, which is associated with the Epstein-Barr virus, is treated with steroids, chemotherapy, and whole brain irradiation. Differentiating between toxoplasmosis and lymphoma is important for proper treatment. Generalized neurological diseases such as encephalitis, cryptococcus, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), and AIDS dementia complex can also occur in HIV patients. Encephalitis may be due to CMV or HIV itself, while cryptococcus is the most common fungal infection of the CNS. PML is caused by infection of oligodendrocytes by JC virus, and AIDS dementia complex is caused by the HIV virus itself. Proper diagnosis and treatment of these neurological complications is crucial for improving outcomes in HIV patients.
Neurological Complications in HIV Patients
Introduction to the common neurological complications in HIV patients, including focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis.
Details on the diagnosis and treatment of toxoplasmosis and primary CNS lymphoma, including the importance of differentiating between the two.
Overview of generalized neurological diseases in HIV patients, including encephalitis, cryptococcus, PML, and AIDS dementia complex.
Importance of proper diagnosis and treatment for improving outcomes in HIV patients with neurological complications. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man's prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is 8.2 ng/mL. He wants to know the likelihood of having prostate cancer.
What statistical parameter is required to answer his query?Your Answer: Sensitivity
Correct Answer: Positive predictive value
Explanation:The positive predictive value (PPV) is the probability that a patient has a condition if the diagnostic test is positive. For example, if a patient has a raised PSA level, the PPV would be the chance that they have prostate cancer. It is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the sum of true positives and false positives.
On the other hand, the negative predictive value (NPV) is the probability that a patient does not have the condition if the screening test is negative. For instance, if a patient has low PSA levels, the NPV would be the likelihood that they do not have prostate cancer.
The likelihood ratio is a measure of the usefulness of a diagnostic test. It indicates how much more likely a person with the disease is to have a positive test result compared to a person without the disease. If a patient has already been diagnosed with prostate cancer, a positive likelihood ratio would suggest that the probability of having high PSA levels is higher in patients with prostate cancer than those without it.
Finally, sensitivity is the proportion of patients with the condition who have a positive test result.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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- General Principles
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Question 39
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Her father discovered scattered pills and an unlabelled bottle in her bedroom several hours prior to the onset of symptoms. During the examination, the girl experiences haematemesis and an abdominal x-ray reveals small opacities in the stomach and duodenum. Blood tests are normal, but arterial blood gas analysis shows a high anion gap metabolic acidosis. What is the most likely substance that the girl ingested?
Your Answer: Acetaminophen
Correct Answer: Iron
Explanation:The symptoms and x-ray findings of this patient strongly suggest acute iron poisoning. When consumed in large quantities, elemental iron can corrode the gastrointestinal mucosa, leading to abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and hematemesis within 30 minutes to 6 hours of ingestion. Iron is also harmful to cellular processes and a potent vasodilator. Patients with severe iron poisoning may experience hypotensive shock and metabolic acidosis with anion-gap due to poor perfusion and lactic acid accumulation.
While acute acetaminophen overdose can cause nausea and vomiting, many patients do not exhibit symptoms within 24 hours of ingestion. Additionally, acetaminophen is not associated with hematemesis, making it an unlikely diagnosis.
Acute vitamin A overdose can cause nausea, vomiting, and blurred vision, but it is not linked to hematemesis. Chronic toxicity can lead to increased intracranial pressure (pseudotumor cerebri).
Excessive amounts of vitamin B2 (riboflavin) are typically not absorbed, making it unlikely to cause toxicity.
Iron overdose can have serious consequences, including metabolic acidosis, erosion of gastric mucosa leading to gastrointestinal bleeding, shock, hepatotoxicity, and coagulopathy. The management of iron overdose depends on the amount of iron ingested and the presence of symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, vomiting, and lethargy. Patients who have ingested less than 40mg/kg of elemental iron and are asymptomatic can be observed at home. However, those who have ingested more than 40mg/kg of elemental iron or are symptomatic require medical assessment with serum iron levels measured 2-4 hours post-ingestion and abdominal x-ray.
Whole bowel irrigation is the preferred decontamination procedure and is performed on all patients presenting within 4 hours who have ingested more than 60mg/kg of elemental iron or have undissolved tablets on abdominal x-ray. Activated charcoal is not effective in treating iron poisoning. Desferrioxamine is indicated for patients with serum iron levels greater than 90umol/l, those with serum iron levels between 60-90umol/l who are symptomatic or have persistent iron on abdominal x-ray despite whole bowel irrigation, and any patient with shock, coma, or metabolic acidosis. In cases where whole bowel irrigation is not effective or iron is adhered to the gastric wall, endoscopy or surgery may be necessary.
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- General Principles
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Question 40
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A 35-year-old male visits his GP with a similar complaint. He reports grazing his leg while hiking in the hills. Despite cleaning the wound, he experiences inflammation and tenderness upon touch. Additionally, he has a fever and feels ill. Due to his penicillin allergy, you prescribe clarithromycin. What is the most precise explanation of this drug's mechanism of action?
Your Answer: Inhibition of the 50s ribosome subunit
Explanation:Macrolides prevent the production of proteins by attaching to the 23S rRNA found in the 50S ribosomal subunit, which hinders translocation. Clarithromycin, a macrolide, obstructs protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. Tetracyclines, on the other hand, inhibit the 30S subunit. Bacterial nucleic acid synthesis is disrupted by quinolones, sulfonamides, and trimethoprim. Penicillin and cephalosporins work by interfering with cell wall synthesis, while lincomycins prevent bacterial cell membrane synthesis.
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.
However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.
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