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Question 1
Incorrect
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A senior citizen visits her physician with a complaint of painful sensation on the outer part of her thigh. The doctor diagnoses her with meralgia paraesthetica.
Which nerve provides sensation to the lateral aspect of the thigh?Your Answer: Obturator nerve
Correct Answer: Branch of the lumbar plexus
Explanation:Nerves of the Lower Limb: Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica and Other Neuropathies
Meralgia paraesthetica is a type of entrapment neuropathy that affects the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh. This nerve arises directly from the lumbar plexus, which is a network of nerves located in the lower back. Compression of the nerve can cause numbness, tingling, and pain in the upper lateral thigh. Treatment options include pain relief and surgical decompression.
While meralgia paraesthetica affects the lateral cutaneous nerve, other nerves in the lower limb have different functions. The pudendal nerve, for example, supplies sensation to the external genitalia, anus, and perineum, while the obturator nerve innervates the skin of the medial thigh. The sciatic nerve, on the other hand, innervates the posterior compartment of the thigh and can cause burning sensations and shooting pains if compressed. Finally, the femoral nerve supplies the anterior compartment of the thigh and gives sensation to the front of the thigh.
Understanding the different nerves of the lower limb and the types of neuropathies that can affect them is important for diagnosing and treating conditions like meralgia paraesthetica. By working with healthcare professionals, individuals can find relief from symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is a metabolic effect of exenatide?
Your Answer: Accelerates gastric emptying
Correct Answer: Suppresses appetite
Explanation:The Metabolic Effects of Exenatide
Exenatide is a medication that imitates the actions of GLP-1, a hormone produced in the gut. It has been found to have beneficial effects on the metabolism of individuals with diabetes mellitus. One of the main effects of exenatide is its ability to suppress appetite, which can help individuals with diabetes to manage their weight. Additionally, exenatide inhibits glucose production in the liver, which can help to regulate blood sugar levels. It also slows gastric emptying, which can help to prevent spikes in blood sugar after meals. Finally, exenatide stimulates insulin release, which can help to lower blood sugar levels. It is important to note that exenatide does not increase insulin sensitivity, which is achieved by other medications such as metformin and the glitazones. Overall, exenatide has a range of metabolic effects that can be beneficial for individuals with diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department accompanied by her mother. She complains of a 3-day history of right iliac fossa and suprapubic pain. She does not complain of vomiting, although she does mention that she has lost her appetite. Her bowel habit is regular and she describes no urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was 4 weeks ago and she should be starting her period soon. On asking, she states that she has never been sexually active.
Examination reveals suprapubic tenderness and some right iliac fossa tenderness, inferior to McBurney’s point. Her vitals are normal otherwise. Her blood test results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 123 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 11.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 290 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 4.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 35 mmol/l 50–120 mmol/l
Amylase 35 U/l < 200 U/l
LFTs Normal
Her urine dipstick shows 1+ of leukocytes, 1+ of proteins and a trace of blood, but is otherwise normal.
Which of the following tests is the next step in investigating this girl?Your Answer: Beta human choriogonadotropin (β-hCG) test
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests and Imaging for Lower Abdominal Pain in Women
Lower abdominal pain in women can have various causes, including appendicitis, urinary tract infection, ovarian or tubal pathology, pelvic inflammatory disease, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, mesenteric adenitis, and other less common pathologies. To determine the cause of the pain, several diagnostic tests and imaging techniques can be used.
Beta human choriogonadotropin (β-hCG) test is essential for every woman of reproductive age admitted with lower abdominal pain. This test helps determine the pregnancy status, which can guide further investigations. An abdominal/pelvic ultrasound can detect acute ovarian and other gynecological pathology. It is also useful in assessing biliary pathology and involvement in pancreatitis. However, it is not very sensitive in detecting appendicitis.
If the diagnosis is uncertain, admitting the patient for observation and review in 12 hours can help determine if any other signs or symptoms develop or change. A CT scan would be inappropriate without checking the patient’s pregnancy status, as it could be harmful to the fetus. However, it can be useful in delineating acute intestinal pathology such as inflammatory bowel disease, bowel obstruction, and renal calculi.
Finally, an erect chest X-ray can help determine if there is bowel perforation by assessing for air under the diaphragm. This investigation is critical in the presence of a peritonitic abdomen.
In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic tests and imaging techniques can help determine the cause of lower abdominal pain in women and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman who has never given birth before comes for her first prenatal visit at 29 weeks gestation. She is currently taking fluoxetine and lactulose and is concerned about the potential risks to her baby. What is a possible danger of using fluoxetine during the third trimester of pregnancy?
Your Answer: Intrauterine growth restriction
Correct Answer: Persistent pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, it is important to assess the potential benefits and risks. While using SSRIs during the first trimester may slightly increase the risk of congenital heart defects, using them during the third trimester can lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Additionally, paroxetine has a higher risk of congenital malformations, especially during the first trimester.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after smoking excessive amounts of heroin. He is unresponsive and exhibits pinpoint pupils and symptoms of respiratory depression.
What is the most suitable antidote for this patient?Your Answer: Naloxone
Explanation:Antidotes for Overdose: Understanding the Correct Treatment for Different Types of Overdose
Overdose can be a life-threatening situation that requires immediate medical attention. Different types of overdose require different antidotes for effective treatment. Here is a breakdown of some common antidotes and their uses:
Naloxone: This is the first-line treatment for opioid overdose. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and reversing the effects of opioids. Naloxone can be given intravenously, intramuscularly, subcutaneously, or intranasally.
Vitamin K: This antidote is used for patients with severe bleeding on anticoagulation therapy or those who are vitamin K-deficient. Vitamin K takes time to take effect, with the maximum effect occurring 6-24 hours after administration.
Lithium: This medication is not used as an antidote for overdose. It is commonly used for mania and bipolar disorder.
Flumazenil: This is the first-line treatment for benzodiazepine overdose. It works by competing with benzodiazepines for receptor binding sites. Flumazenil should only be given in cases of known benzodiazepine overdose.
N-acetylcysteine (NAC): This is the first-line antidote for paracetamol overdose. It works by replenishing depleted glutathione reserves in the liver and enhancing non-toxic metabolism of acetaminophen.
In conclusion, understanding the correct antidote for different types of overdose is crucial for effective treatment. Naloxone for opioid overdose, vitamin K for severe bleeding, flumazenil for benzodiazepine overdose, and NAC for paracetamol overdose are some common examples of antidotes used in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A pediatric patient who attends the cardiology clinic is prescribed a new medication as an anti-arrhythmic. The cardiologist informs you that this medication works predominantly by blocking the potassium channels.
Which of the following medications is this most likely to be?Your Answer: Diltiazem
Correct Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Understanding the Vaughan and Williams Classification of Anti-Arrhythmic Drugs
Managing cardiac arrhythmias can be challenging, and clinicians often have their preferred drugs. The Vaughan and Williams classification serves as a guide, but some drugs belong in more than one class, and some are in a final other category. It’s worth noting that sotalol has class II and III activity, and amiodarone has class I, II, III, and IV activity. The classification includes class I sodium-channel blockers (e.g., flecainide), class II beta-blockers (e.g., metoprolol, sotalol), class III potassium-channel blockers (e.g., amiodarone), class IV calcium-channel blockers (e.g., diltiazem), and class V other drugs (e.g., digoxin). Understanding this classification can aid in selecting the appropriate anti-arrhythmic drug for a patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is seeking a referral to an obstetrician as she has been trying to conceive and her menstrual period is now one month late. She has tested positive on a home pregnancy test. She has a history of seropositive rheumatoid arthritis for the past two years and is currently only taking hydroxychloroquine as methotrexate was stopped six months ago in anticipation of conception.
During the physical examination, swelling is noted on the second and third metacarpophalangeal joints of her right hand. The pregnancy test is positive. What is the most appropriate treatment for her at this time?Your Answer: Add steroid
Correct Answer: No change in therapy
Explanation:Pregnant patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) can safely continue using hydroxychloroquine as a treatment without any changes. While the medication does cross the placenta, it has not been shown to cause harm to the fetus at the doses used for RA treatment. Etanercept may be considered if there is a significant flare of disease during pregnancy, but it is not necessary at this time. Leflunomide is strictly contraindicated due to its high teratogenicity. Methotrexate must be discontinued at least 3 months before pregnancy as it is highly teratogenic and abortifacient. Steroids are not necessary for this patient who is not experiencing a flare.
Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects
Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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As a young doctor in obstetrics and gynaecology, you are assisting in the delivery of a patient when suddenly, shoulder dystocia occurs. You quickly call for senior assistance and decide to perform McRobert's manoeuvre by hyper flexing and abducting the mother's hips, moving her onto her back and bringing her thighs towards her abdomen.
What other action can be taken to enhance the effectiveness of the manoeuvre?Your Answer: Fundal pressure
Correct Answer: Suprapubic pressure
Explanation:According to the shoulder dystocia guidelines of the Royal College of Obstetrics and Gynaecology, utilizing suprapubic pressure can enhance the efficacy of the McRoberts manoeuvre.
Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.
If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.
Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his daughter after being found collapsed at home by his caregiver. He is complaining of a headache and appears confused. The patient has a history of an irregular heartbeat and takes digoxin and warfarin. On examination, there is no evidence of trauma or injury. The patient is confused with a Mini Mental score of 24/30 and is slightly drowsy but can be easily awakened. He has mild weakness in his left arm and leg, and the left plantar response is extensor. Urgent blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 111 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), an INR of 5.7 (usual range for this patient: 2-3), and a urea level of 9.6 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-6.5 mmol/l). An urgent CT scan is ordered. What is the most likely finding on the CT scan?
Your Answer: Right sided subarachnoid haemorrhage
Correct Answer: Right sided acute subdural haematoma
Explanation:Different Types of Intracranial Bleeding and Their Causes
Intracranial bleeding can occur in various forms, each with its own causes and symptoms. Here are some of the different types of intracranial bleeding and their associated factors:
1. Right Sided Acute Subdural Haematoma
This type of bleeding can occur in elderly patients who are on anticoagulation therapy, especially if their INR levels are higher than the therapeutic limits. The symptoms include fluctuating confusion and conscious level, and a history of trauma is not always necessary.2. Intraparenchymal Haematoma in the Right Temporal Lobe with Mass Effect
This type of bleeding is usually caused by trauma, hypertension, or an underlying neoplastic lesion. It is less common than subdural haematoma.3. Right Sided Extradural Haematoma
Extradural haematoma is associated with significant head trauma.4. Right Sided Chronic Subdural Haematoma
Chronic subdural haematoma has a longer, insidious course and is often accompanied by headache, impaired conscious level, and focal signs. Over-anticoagulation can increase the likelihood of this type of bleeding.5. Right Sided Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
Subarachnoid haemorrhage is usually caused by significant trauma or a ruptured aneurysm.Overall, the elderly are more at risk of subdural haematomas due to factors such as thinner cortical bridging veins, increased subdural space, and increased probability of falls and use of medications that alter blood clotting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosurgery
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Question 10
Correct
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A 20-year-old man visits his GP clinic with a chief complaint of headaches. During the physical examination, no abnormalities are detected, but his blood pressure is found to be 178/90 mmHg. The doctor suspects a renal origin for the hypertension and wants to perform an initial screening test for renovascular causes. What is the most appropriate investigation for this purpose?
Your Answer: Abdominal duplex ultrasound
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Renal Hypertension
Renal hypertension, or high blood pressure caused by kidney disease, can be diagnosed through various diagnostic tests. The appropriate initial screening investigation is an abdominal duplex ultrasound, which can detect renal vascular or anatomical pathologies such as renal artery stenosis or polycystic kidney disease. If abnormalities are found, more advanced testing such as a CTA, magnetic resonance angiography, or nuclear medicine testing may be necessary. However, an ultrasound is the best initial screening investigation for renal hypertension.
A CTA is a follow-up test that may be performed if an initial abdominal duplex ultrasound suggests a renal cause for the hypertension. It is an advanced, specialist test that would not be appropriate as an initial screening investigation. On the other hand, a magnetic resonance angiography is an advanced, gold-standard test that can be performed if an initial abdominal duplex ultrasound suggests a renal cause for the hypertension.
HbA1c is a blood test that tests your average blood glucose levels over the last 2–3 months. It can indicate if diabetes may have contributed to the hypertension, but will not clarify whether there is a renal cause. Lastly, a urine albumin: creatinine ratio tests for the presence of protein in the urine, which is a reflection of kidney disease, but does not give us any indication of the cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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