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Question 1
Correct
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In what type of epilepsy is it most common to experience an aura?
Your Answer: Temporal lobe
Explanation:This question is presented in two variations on the exam, with one implying that auras are primarily linked to temporal lobe epilepsy and the other to complex partial seizures. In reality, partial seizures are most commonly associated with auras compared to other types of seizures. While partial seizures can originate in any lobe of the brain, those that arise in the temporal lobe are most likely to produce an aura. Therefore, both versions of the question are accurate.
Epilepsy and Aura
An aura is a subjective sensation that is a type of simple partial seizure. It typically lasts only a few seconds and can help identify the site of cortical onset. There are eight recognized types of auras, including somatosensory, visual, auditory, gustatory, olfactory, autonomic, abdominal, and psychic.
In about 80% of cases, auras precede temporal lobe seizures. The most common auras in these seizures are abdominal and psychic, which can cause a rising epigastric sensation of feelings of fear, déjà vu, of jamais vu. Parietal lobe seizures may begin with a contralateral sensation, usually of the positive type, such as an electrical sensation of tingling. Occipital lobe seizures may begin with contralateral visual changes, such as colored lines, spots, of shapes, of even a loss of vision. Temporal-parietal-occipital seizures may produce more formed auras.
Complex partial seizures are defined by impairment of consciousness, which means decreased responsiveness and awareness of oneself and surroundings. During a complex partial seizure, a patient is unresponsive and does not remember events that occurred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 2
Correct
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Which type of depot injection is the most probable cause of the 23-year-old male's sedation, dysarthria, and ataxia that occurred 30 minutes after administration?
Your Answer: Olanzapine embonate
Explanation:The presentation is indicative of post-injection syndrome related to olanzapine embonate.
, coma, respiratory depression (rare)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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What is a true statement about diazepam?
Your Answer: It is 95% protein bound
Explanation:Pharmacokinetics of Benzodiazepines
Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are easily absorbed when taken orally. They have a high affinity for plasma proteins, with diazepam showing a binding rate of 95%. These drugs are primarily metabolized in the liver. Due to their lipophilic nature, they can quickly cross the blood-brain barrier and placental barrier. This property makes them effective in treating anxiety and other related disorders. Understanding the pharmacokinetics of benzodiazepines is crucial in determining their efficacy and potential side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old individual on lithium treatment experiences a fine tremor that is affecting their handwriting and causing embarrassment. Despite having normal lithium levels, what is the most effective solution to alleviate this issue?
Your Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Lithium-induced tremor is a prevalent issue that can be resolved by discontinuing the medication. Propranolol is the most effective treatment option based on available evidence, while levodopa and anticholinergic agents have not been shown to be effective.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder for several years reports experiencing fatigue, increased weight, and feeling cold. Which psychotropic medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium is well-known for causing various thyroid disorders, including hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, and thyroiditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the duration of time it takes for half of the olanzapine to be eliminated from the body?
Your Answer: 30 hours
Explanation:Given that olanzapine is a once daily medication, it is reasonable to estimate its half-life to fall within the range of 20-30 hours. As it happens, the actual half-life of olanzapine is 30 hours.
Antipsychotic Half-life and Time to Steady State
Antipsychotic medications are commonly used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. Understanding the half-life and time to steady state of these medications is important for determining dosing and monitoring their effectiveness.
Aripiprazole has a half-life of 75 hours and takes approximately 2 weeks to reach steady state. Olanzapine has a half-life of 30 hours and takes about 1 week to reach steady state. Risperidone has a half-life of 20 hours when taken orally and takes 2-3 days to reach steady state. Clozapine and Amisulpride both have a half-life of 12 hours and take 2-3 days to reach steady state. Ziprasidone has a shorter half-life of 7 hours and takes 2-3 days to reach steady state. Quetiapine has the shortest half-life of 6 hours and also takes 2-3 days to reach steady state.
Knowing the half-life and time to steady state of antipsychotic medications can help healthcare providers determine the appropriate dosing and frequency of administration. It can also aid in monitoring the effectiveness of the medication and adjusting the treatment plan as needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which option is the least appropriate for nighttime sedation?
Your Answer: Nitrazepam
Correct Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:It is advisable to avoid agents with longer half lives as they have a tendency to induce drowsiness in patients.
Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders. It is important to have a working knowledge of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life. Half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body.
Some of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life include diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours, clonazepam with a half-life of 18-50 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours, nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, alprazolam with a half-life of 10-15 hours, oxazepam with a half-life of 6-10 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 5-6 hours, zolpidem with a half-life of 2 hours, and zaleplon with a half-life of 2 hours. Understanding the half-life of these drugs is important for determining dosages and timing of administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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A woman in her 60s with type II diabetes and established renal impairment presents with symptoms of depression. Her GP is concerned about the use of psychotropics due to her kidney disease and refers her for a psychiatric opinion. Her blood pressure is within normal limits, and her ECG shows a QTc of 450 ms but is otherwise normal.
After assessing the patient, you determine that antidepressant medication is necessary. What would be the most appropriate medication to prescribe in this case?Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Renal Impairment and Psychotropic Drugs
The following table provides recommendations for drug treatment in patients with renal impairment, based on the Maudsley 14th guidelines. When a new drug treatment is required, the suggestions below should be followed.
Drug Group Recommendation
Antipsychotics: It is recommended to avoid sulpiride and amisulpride. Otherwise, no agent is clearly preferable to another. For first-generation antipsychotics, haloperidol (2-6 mg/day) is the best choice. For second-generation antipsychotics, olanzapine (5mg/day) is the best choice.
Antidepressants: No agent is clearly preferable to another. Reasonable choices include sertraline (although there is poor efficacy data in renal disease), citalopram (with care over QTc prolongation), and fluoxetine (with care over long half-life).
Mood stabilizers: Lithium is nephrotoxic and contraindicated in severe renal impairment. Otherwise, no agent is clearly preferable to another. Valproate of lamotrigine are suggested.
Anxiolytics: No agent is clearly preferable to another. Lorazepam and zopiclone are suggested.
Anti-dementia drugs: No agent is clearly preferable to another. Rivastigmine is suggested.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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Which of the following is an example of an open question?
Your Answer: How did you feel when you were told you had schizophrenia?
Explanation:Interview Techniques: Open and Closed Questions
When conducting an interview, it is important to use the appropriate types of questions. Open questions are designed to encourage a detailed response and can help to open up the conversation. In contrast, closed questions typically result in a yes of no answer and are useful for clarifying specific details. By using a combination of open and closed questions, interviewers can gather more information and gain a better understanding of the interviewee’s perspective. It is important to use these techniques effectively to ensure a successful interview.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 10
Correct
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A 16 year old teenager wants to pursue a career in art, but their parents insist that they must focus on becoming a doctor of engineer. The teenager is not allowed to take art classes and is forbidden from participating in any art competitions. The parents also dictate what clothes the teenager wears and how they style their hair, expecting them to look presentable at all times.
According to Erikson's theory, what developmental stage is being challenged by the parents' actions?Your Answer: Identity vs. role confusion
Explanation:Erik Erikson and Daniel Levinson expanded the understanding of adult development. Erikson proposed a life-span model of human development consisting of eight successive psychosocial stages, each associated with an inherent conflict of crisis that the individual must encounter and successfully resolve to proceed with development. Levinson proposed a developmental theory consisting of universal stages of phases that extend from the infancy state to the elderly state, based on biographical interviews of 40 men in America. Both theorists maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order and builds upon each previous stage, and that failure to successfully negotiate a stage can result in a reduced ability to complete further stages and therefore a more unhealthy personality and sense of self. However, Levinson’s theory is age-based rather than event-based, and his model proposed a ‘life sequence’ consisting of a series of alternating stable (structure-building) periods and cross-era transitional (structure-changing) periods, with transitional periods typically lasting 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the name of the alcohol screening tool with 10 questions that was developed by WHO?
Your Answer: CAGE
Correct Answer: AUDIT
Explanation:Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What drug states are capable of eliciting a biological response?
Your Answer: A drug deposited in fat
Correct Answer: A drug unbound in the plasma
Explanation:The biological response to a drug can only be triggered by the portion of the drug that is not bound.
Drug Distribution in the Body
After being absorbed, drugs can distribute to different parts of the body, such as fat, plasma, muscle, brain tissue, and glands like the thyroid. However, for a drug to have an effect, it must be present in the plasma in an unbound state. This means that the drug molecules are not attached to any other molecules and are free to interact with their target receptors. The concentration of unbound drug in the plasma is what determines the drug’s effectiveness and potential side effects. Therefore, understanding a drug’s distribution in the body is crucial for determining the appropriate dosage and monitoring its effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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What is a true statement about Angelman syndrome?
Your Answer: It is caused by deleted material from the maternal chromosome
Explanation:Genomic Imprinting and its Role in Psychiatric Disorders
Genomic imprinting is a phenomenon where a piece of DNA behaves differently depending on whether it is inherited from the mother of the father. This is because DNA sequences are marked of imprinted in the ovaries and testes, which affects their expression. In psychiatry, two classic examples of genomic imprinting disorders are Prader-Willi and Angelman syndrome.
Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a deletion of chromosome 15q when inherited from the father. This disorder is characterized by hypotonia, short stature, polyphagia, obesity, small gonads, and mild mental retardation. On the other hand, Angelman syndrome, also known as Happy Puppet syndrome, is caused by a deletion of 15q when inherited from the mother. This disorder is characterized by an unusually happy demeanor, developmental delay, seizures, sleep disturbance, and jerky hand movements.
Overall, genomic imprinting plays a crucial role in the development of psychiatric disorders. Understanding the mechanisms behind genomic imprinting can help in the diagnosis and treatment of these disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient is referred by their GP to the psychiatric out-patient clinic. The GP feels that they have depression, and reports that they smoke 50 per day. When you see them you notice that their left eyelid is drooping, and that the drooping becomes more pronounced on sustained upgaze. The pupils appear normal. On further questioning the patient reports intermittent double vision. Which of the following do you most suspect?
Your Answer: Pancoast tumor
Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:The presence of fluctuating double vision and ptosis are characteristic symptoms of extraocular muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis. The Simpson test, which involves observing fatigue during sustained lid and eye elevation, is also indicative of myasthenia. Unlike myotonic dystrophy, ptosis in myasthenia gravis worsens with sustained upgaze and is typically unilateral. Additionally, the absence of abnormal pupil size suggests that conditions such as Horner’s syndrome, diabetes-related III nerve palsy, and Pancoast tumor are not present.
Myasthenia Gravis and Psychiatric Disorders
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease that results from the binding of circulating antibodies to acetylcholine receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. This condition is characterized by weakness and fatigue, which typically starts in the extraocular muscles, leading to ptosis and diplopia. However, in addition to these physical symptoms, psychiatric disorders are also common in patients with myasthenia gravis.
Depressive and anxiety disorders are the most frequently reported psychiatric conditions in individuals with myasthenia gravis. These disorders can significantly impact the quality of life of patients, and may even worsen the physical symptoms of the disease. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for psychiatric comorbidities in patients with myasthenia gravis and to provide appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What was the first neurotransmitter to be recognized?
Your Answer: Dopamine
Correct Answer: Acetylcholine
Explanation:Henry Dale was the first to identify acetylcholine in 1915 through its effects on cardiac tissue, and he was awarded the Nobel Prize in Medicine in 1936 alongside Otto Loewi for their work. Arvid Carlsson discovered dopamine as a neurotransmitter in 1957, while von Euler discovered noradrenaline (also known as norepinephrine) as both a hormone and neurotransmitter in 1946. Oxytocin is typically classified as a hormone, while substance P is a neuropeptide that functions as both a neurotransmitter and neuromodulator and was first discovered in 1931.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 16
Correct
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What is the suggested way in which St John's Wort works?
Your Answer: SNRI and MAOI
Explanation:Antidepressants: Mechanism of Action
Antidepressants are a class of drugs used to treat depression and other mood disorders. The mechanism of action of antidepressants varies depending on the specific drug. Here are some examples:
Mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant (NaSSa). It works by blocking certain receptors in the brain, including 5HT-1, 5HT-2, 5HT-3, and H1 receptors. It also acts as a presynaptic alpha 2 antagonist, which stimulates the release of noradrenaline and serotonin.
Venlafaxine and duloxetine are both serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). They work by blocking the reuptake of these neurotransmitters, which increases their availability in the brain.
Reboxetine is a noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (NRI). It works by blocking the reuptake of noradrenaline, which increases its availability in the brain.
Bupropion is a noradrenaline and dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI). It works by blocking the reuptake of these neurotransmitters, which increases their availability in the brain.
Trazodone is a weak serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SRI) and 5HT agonist. It works by increasing the availability of serotonin in the brain.
St John’s Wort is a natural supplement that has been used to treat depression. It has a weak monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) effect and a weak SNRI effect.
In summary, antidepressants work by increasing the availability of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, such as serotonin, noradrenaline, and dopamine. The specific mechanism of action varies depending on the drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What behavior is the patient displaying when she consistently answers every question during an MMSE with the phrase Keep calm and carry on?
Your Answer: Perseveration
Correct Answer: Verbal stereotypy
Explanation:Verbal Stereotypy, Logoclonia, Neologism, Perseveration – Understanding Repetitive Language Behaviors
Repetitive language behaviors can manifest in various forms, including verbal stereotypy, logoclonia, neologism, and perseveration. Verbal stereotypy involves the use of the same word of phrase regardless of the situation. Logoclonia is the repetition of the last syllable of a word. Neologism refers to the creation of a new word of the use of a known word with a different meaning. Perseveration is the repetition of the same response to different stimuli, which continues beyond the point of relevance. It is different from verbal stereotypy because the response is meaningful but inappropriate. Understanding these different forms of repetitive language behaviors can help in identifying and addressing them appropriately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History And Mental State
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Question 18
Correct
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What is an example of a type of passive thinking?
Your Answer: Thought broadcast
Explanation:Patients may feel that they have lost control over their thoughts, which can manifest as passivity of thought. This refers to the belief that an external agency is controlling one’s thoughts. Passivity can take different forms, such as thought withdrawal, thought insertion, and thought broadcasting.
Ego (Boundary) Disturbances
Ego (boundary) disturbances refer to experiences where there is a disturbance in the perception of self as distinct from the environment of the integrity of self. It also includes instances where bodily processes, personal thought processes, feelings, and actions are experienced as being externally directed. These phenomena are referred to as passivity phenomena, and some of the symptom characteristics are classified as bizarre delusional phenomena in the DSM.
Derealization is when a patient experiences their surroundings of time as if they are unreal and changed, losing all feelings of familiarity and trust in the environment. People, objects, and surroundings appear unreal, unfamiliar, of spatially altered. The sensations may be intense of weak in nature.
Depersonalization is when a patient perceives themselves as alien, unreal, changed, of as a stranger. The disturbances of depersonalization may be of a transient nature only of become more persistent over a longer period of time. It is generally felt to be both strange and unpleasant.
Thought broadcasting is when a patient’s personal thoughts are experienced as no longer belonging to the patient alone but accessible by others who will know what the patient is thinking (mind reading). Thought withdrawal is when a patient’s thoughts are being removed of stripped from them. Thought insertion is when patients experience their thoughts and ideas as being externally influenced, made externally, controlled, directed, entered/ of externally imposed.
Other feelings of alien influence refer to feelings, intentions, behavior, of bodily functions that are experienced as externally controlled of made by others (passivity phenomena). The patient feels externally compelled to say something specific, to scream, to act of behave in a particular way, to attack someone, to throw a tantrum, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is the most common side-effect of methylphenidate?
Your Answer: Constipation
Correct Answer: Insomnia
Explanation:ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Who is credited with creating the term 'hebephrenia'?
Your Answer: Kraepelin
Correct Answer: Hecker
Explanation:History of Psychiatric Terms
In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).
It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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In which condition is focal slowing observed in the left temporal region on electroencephalography?
Your Answer: Huntington's
Correct Answer: Normal aging
Explanation:Electroencephalography
Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.
Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.
Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.
Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.
Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.
Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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How can the mode of inheritance that exhibits knights move inheritance be described?
Your Answer: Autosomal dominant
Correct Answer: X-linked recessive
Explanation:Inheritance of knight’s move pattern is observed in disorders that are caused by recessive X-linked genes, rather than dominant X-linked genes.
Modes of Inheritance
Genetic disorders can be passed down from one generation to the next in various ways. There are four main modes of inheritance: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked (sex-linked), and multifactorial.
Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
Autosomal dominant inheritance occurs when one faulty gene causes a problem despite the presence of a normal one. This type of inheritance shows vertical transmission, meaning it is based on the appearance of the family pedigree. If only one parent is affected, there is a 50% chance of each child expressing the condition. Autosomal dominant conditions often show pleiotropy, where a single gene influences several characteristics.
Autosomal Recessive Inheritance
In autosomal recessive conditions, a person requires two faulty copies of a gene to manifest a disease. A person with one healthy and one faulty gene will generally not manifest a disease and is labelled a carrier. Autosomal recessive conditions demonstrate horizontal transmission.
X-linked (Sex-linked) Inheritance
In X-linked conditions, the problem gene lies on the X chromosome. This means that all males are affected. Like autosomal conditions, they can be dominant of recessive. Affected males are unable to pass the condition on to their sons. In X-linked recessive conditions, the inheritance pattern is characterised by transmission from affected males to male grandchildren via affected carrier daughters.
Multifactorial Inheritance
Multifactorial conditions result from the interaction between genes from both parents and the environment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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At what threshold does the membrane potential of a cell need to reach in order to trigger an action potential?
Your Answer: +10 mV
Correct Answer: -55 mV
Explanation:Understanding Action Potentials in Neurons and Muscle Cells
The membrane potential is a crucial aspect of cell physiology, and it exists across the plasma membrane of most cells. However, in neurons and muscle cells, this membrane potential can change over time. When a cell is not stimulated, it is in a resting state, and the inside of the cell is negatively charged compared to the outside. This resting membrane potential is typically around -70mV, and it is maintained by the Na/K pump, which maintains a high concentration of Na outside and K inside the cell.
To trigger an action potential, the membrane potential must be raised to around -55mV. This can occur when a neurotransmitter binds to the postsynaptic neuron and opens some ion channels. Once the membrane potential reaches -55mV, a cascade of events is initiated, leading to the opening of a large number of Na channels and causing the cell to depolarize. As the membrane potential reaches around +40 mV, the Na channels close, and the K gates open, allowing K to flood out of the cell and causing the membrane potential to fall back down. This process is irreversible and is critical for the transmission of signals in neurons and the contraction of muscle cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 24
Correct
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How would you rephrase the question to refer to an ethical approach that focuses on weighing potential positive and negative outcomes?
Your Answer: Utilitarian
Explanation:Deontological (duty-based) ethics prioritize the actions of individuals over the observable practical consequences of those actions.
Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following combinations is the safest in terms of avoiding serotonin syndrome?
Your Answer: MAOI and sertraline
Correct Answer: MAOI and amitriptyline
Explanation:It is not recommended to combine MAOIs with SSRIs, clomipramine, of ephedrine.
MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions
First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).
MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.
The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.
Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.
Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following may be considered a leading question?
Your Answer: Do you find your mood is worse in the morning?
Explanation:It may be more effective to ask open-ended questions at the beginning of an interview to gather as much information as possible. Closed questions can be used later in the interview to clarify specific points. However, it is important to avoid leading questions that may influence the patient’s response. For example, instead of asking if the patient feels worse in the morning, a more open question such as Can you describe your mood throughout the day? may be more appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History And Mental State
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has just started taking antipsychotic medication for the first time after being diagnosed with schizophrenia. Her spouse asks you when they can expect to see the most significant improvement in her symptoms.
Your advice would be:Your Answer: Week 1 to week 2
Correct Answer: Within week 1
Explanation:The onset of antipsychotic effect is noticeable within the first week of treatment, as reported by a large meta-analysis of almost 7,500 patients. This study found that there was a significant improvement of nearly 22% in the first two weeks of treatment, which contradicts the previous belief that it may take two to four weeks for antipsychotic action to take effect. The reduction in BPRS scores was as follows: 13.8% within the first week, 8.1% in the second week, 4.2% in the third week, and 4.7% in the fourth week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 28
Correct
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With what are balloon cells commonly linked?
Your Answer: Pick's disease
Explanation:Pick’s disease is characterized by swollen and enlarged neurons that have a ballooned appearance, which is why they are commonly referred to as balloon cells. It is important to note that the term ‘balloon cell’ is a general histological term used to describe swollen cells that are often observed in cerebral degeneration. While they can be seen in various conditions, they are particularly prevalent in Pick’s disease and are considered a hallmark feature of the disorder.
Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration (FTLD) is a pathological term that refers to a group of neurodegenerative disorders that affect the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. FTLD is classified into several subtypes based on the main protein component of neuronal and glial abnormal inclusions and their distribution. The three main proteins associated with FTLD are Tau, TDP-43, and FUS. Each FTD clinical phenotype has been associated with different proportions of these proteins. Macroscopic changes in FTLD include atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes, with focal gyral atrophy that resembles knives. Microscopic changes in FTLD-Tau include neuronal and glial tau aggregation, with further sub-classification based on the existence of different isoforms of tau protein. FTLD-TDP is characterized by cytoplasmic inclusions of TDP-43 in neurons, while FTLD-FUS is characterized by cytoplasmic inclusions of FUS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 29
Correct
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Which of the following is categorized as a projection tract in relation to white matter?
Your Answer: Geniculocalcarine tract
Explanation:White matter is the cabling that links different parts of the CNS together. There are three types of white matter cables: projection tracts, commissural tracts, and association tracts. Projection tracts connect higher centers of the brain with lower centers, commissural tracts connect the two hemispheres together, and association tracts connect regions of the same hemisphere. Some common tracts include the corticospinal tract, which connects the motor cortex to the brainstem and spinal cord, and the corpus callosum, which is the largest white matter fiber bundle connecting corresponding areas of cortex between the hemispheres. Other tracts include the cingulum, superior and inferior occipitofrontal fasciculi, and the superior and inferior longitudinal fasciculi.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 20 month old child would be expected to be in which of the following stages of psychosexual development?
Your Answer: Oral
Correct Answer: Anal
Explanation:Psychosexual Development
The psychosexual theory of development, developed by Freud, outlines a number of stages that individuals go through in their development. These stages are quite complex, but tend to come up in exams. The stages include the oral stage, which occurs from birth to 18 months, where pleasure and needs are explored through sucking, swallowing, and biting. The anal stage occurs from 18 to 36 months, where pleasure and needs are explored through bowel and bladder elimination and retention. The phallic stage occurs from 3 to 5 years, where boys pass through the Oedipal complex and girls the Electra complex. Girls are also said to develop penis envy in this stage. The latency stage occurs from 5 to puberty, where the sexual drive remains latent. Finally, the genital stage occurs from puberty to adulthood, where a person achieves independence from their parents and forms intimate relationships with others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Which symptom would indicate a hydrocephalus that is communicating rather than non-communicating?
Your Answer: Bradycardia
Correct Answer: Ataxia
Explanation:Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of chronic communicating hydrocephalus, which occurs due to the impaired reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by the arachnoid villi. Although the CSF pressure is typically high, it remains within the normal range, and therefore, it does not cause symptoms of high intracranial pressure (ICP) such as headache and nausea. Instead, patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus usually present with a classic triad of symptoms, including incontinence, gait ataxia, and dementia, which is often referred to as wet, wobbly, and wacky. Unfortunately, this condition is often misdiagnosed as Parkinson’s of Alzheimer’s disease.
The classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus, also known as Hakim’s triad, includes gait instability, urinary incontinence, and dementia. On the other hand, non-communicating hydrocephalus results from the obstruction of CSF flow in the third of fourth ventricle, which causes symptoms of raised intracranial pressure, such as headache, vomiting, hypertension, bradycardia, altered consciousness, and papilledema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 32
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the disconnection between belief, feeling, and behavior that can occur in individuals with severe mental illness?
Your Answer: Vorbeireden
Correct Answer: Double orientation
Explanation:Psychiatric Terminology
Double orientation refers to the separation of belief from feeling and behavior, which is commonly observed in chronic schizophrenics. This condition is characterized by a person holding a grandiose delusion, such as believing they are the King of England, while still living a normal life in a council house and attending a day center. Loosening of associations is a type of thought disorder, while an overvalued idea is a preoccupying belief that is arrived at through normal mental processes. Partial delusion is a delusion that is becoming less fixed of is on its way to becoming a full delusion. Vorbeireden, also known as talking past the point, is another term used in psychiatric terminology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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The developmental stages were organized into how many levels by Vaillant's classification?
Your Answer: Six
Correct Answer: Four
Explanation:Vaillant categorized defenses into four levels of maturity, starting from the most severe psychotic level, followed by immature, neurotic, and finally, mature defenses.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 34
Correct
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Which syndrome would you suspect if a man tells his GP that he believes his wife is having an affair, but his wife denies it and expresses worry about his mental well-being?
Your Answer: Othello
Explanation:Types of Delusions
Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:
– Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
– Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
– Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
– Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
– Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
– Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
– Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
– Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
– Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
– De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
– Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
– Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
– Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
– Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 35
Incorrect
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What type of attachment is demonstrated by a child who is equally comforted by a parent and a stranger?
Your Answer: Disorganised
Correct Answer: Avoidant
Explanation:Attachment (Ainsworth)
Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.
Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 36
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of bupropion?
Your Answer: GABA-A agonist
Correct Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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What methods are used to generate estimates of white matter tracts?
Your Answer: fMRI
Correct Answer: DTI
Explanation:Neuroimaging techniques can be divided into structural and functional types, although this distinction is becoming less clear as new techniques emerge. Structural techniques include computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which use x-rays and magnetic fields, respectively, to produce images of the brain’s structure. Functional techniques, on the other hand, measure brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow of oxygen consumption. These include functional MRI (fMRI), emission tomography (PET and SPECT), perfusion MRI (pMRI), and magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS). Some techniques, such as diffusion tensor imaging (DTI), combine both structural and functional information to provide a more complete picture of the brain’s anatomy and function. DTI, for example, uses MRI to estimate the paths that water takes as it diffuses through white matter, allowing researchers to visualize white matter tracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 38
Incorrect
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What tools of methods are utilized to aid in identifying personality disorders?
Your Answer: PANSS
Correct Answer: IPDE
Explanation:The tools mentioned are used for screening and diagnosing personality disorders. The SAPAS is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete. The FFMRF is self-reported and consists of 30 items rated 1-5 for each item. The IPDE is a semistructured clinical interview compatible with the ICD and DSM and includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview. The PDQ-R is self-reported and consists of 100 true/false questions based on DSM-IV criteria. The IPDS is an interview method that consists of 11 criteria and takes less than 5 minutes. The IIP-PD is self-reported and contains 127 items rated 0-4.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 39
Correct
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Before administering regular doses of which long-acting injectable antipsychotic medication, a test dose must be given?
Your Answer: Zuclopenthixol
Explanation:According to the Maudsley Guidelines, it is recommended to administer a test dose for all first generation antipsychotics. Following the test dose, it is advised to wait 4-10 days before administering the next dose.
, coma, respiratory depression (rare)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Which condition is linked to tardive dyskinesia?
Your Answer: Spastic dysarthria
Correct Answer: Hyperkinetic dysarthria
Explanation:Dysarthria is a speech disorder that affects the volume, rate, tone, of quality of spoken language. There are different types of dysarthria, each with its own set of features, associated conditions, and localisation. The types of dysarthria include spastic, flaccid, hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic.
Spastic dysarthria is characterised by explosive and forceful speech at a slow rate and is associated with conditions such as pseudobulbar palsy and spastic hemiplegia.
Flaccid dysarthria, on the other hand, is characterised by a breathy, nasal voice and imprecise consonants and is associated with conditions such as myasthenia gravis.
Hypokinetic dysarthria is characterised by slow, quiet speech with a tremor and is associated with conditions such as Parkinson’s disease.
Hyperkinetic dysarthria is characterised by a variable rate, inappropriate stoppages, and a strained quality and is associated with conditions such as Huntington’s disease, Sydenham’s chorea, and tardive dyskinesia.
Finally, ataxic dysarthria is characterised by rapid, monopitched, and slurred speech and is associated with conditions such as Friedreich’s ataxia and alcohol abuse. The localisation of each type of dysarthria varies, with spastic and flaccid dysarthria affecting the upper and lower motor neurons, respectively, and hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic dysarthria affecting the extrapyramidal and cerebellar regions of the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 41
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the phenomenon where individuals tend to put in less effort when working in a group compared to when working individually?
Your Answer: Bystander effect
Correct Answer: Social loafing
Explanation:Understanding Social Loafing
Social loafing is a common phenomenon that occurs when people work in groups. It refers to the tendency of individuals to exert less effort when working in a group than when working alone. This can be attributed to the diffusion of responsibility, where individuals feel less accountable for their actions when working in a group. As a result, they may not put in as much effort as they would if they were working alone. Social loafing can have negative consequences for group performance, as it can lead to a lack of motivation and a decrease in productivity. Therefore, it is important to understand the causes of social loafing and take steps to prevent it from occurring in group settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 42
Correct
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What area of the brain is affected in bilateral dysfunction that leads to Klüver-Bucy syndrome?
Your Answer: Amygdala
Explanation:Kluver-Bucy Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms
Kluver-Bucy syndrome is a neurological disorder that results from bilateral medial temporal lobe dysfunction, particularly in the amygdala. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including hyperorality (a tendency to explore objects with the mouth), hypersexuality, docility, visual agnosia, and dietary changes.
The most common causes of Kluver-Bucy syndrome include herpes, late-stage Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia, trauma, and bilateral temporal lobe infarction. In some cases, the condition may be reversible with treatment, but in others, it may be permanent and require ongoing management. If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 43
Incorrect
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Which adverse drug reaction is correctly paired with its corresponding Gell and Coombs classification system?
Your Answer: Type III - cell mediated
Correct Answer: Type II - cytotoxic
Explanation:Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) refer to the harmful effects associated with the use of a medication at a normal dose. These reactions are classified into two types: Type A and Type B. Type A reactions can be predicted from the pharmacology of the drug and are dose-dependent, meaning they can be reversed by withdrawing the drug. On the other hand, Type B reactions cannot be predicted from the known pharmacology of the drug and include allergic reactions.
Type A reactions account for up to 80% of all ADRs, while Type B reactions are less common. Allergic reactions are a type of Type B reaction and are further subdivided by Gell and Coombs into four types: Type I (IgE-mediated) reactions, Type II (cytotoxic) reactions, Type III (immune complex) reactions, and Type IV (cell-mediated) reactions. Proper identification and management of ADRs are crucial in ensuring patient safety and optimizing treatment outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 44
Correct
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The catharsis hypothesis proposes which of the following?
Your Answer: That participating in violent sports such as boxing can provide a means of discharging feelings of anger
Explanation:The Catharsis Hypothesis and Its Effectiveness in Reducing Aggressive Feelings
The catharsis hypothesis proposes that individuals can release their feelings of frustration and aggression through indirect means, such as engaging in aggressive activities like boxing of venting their emotions through talking. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of these methods in reducing aggressive feelings over the long term.
Some individuals believe that engaging in physical activities like boxing can help release pent-up aggression and reduce the likelihood of future aggressive behavior. Others argue that this approach may actually reinforce aggressive tendencies and lead to an increase in violent behavior.
Similarly, some individuals believe that venting one’s emotions through talking can be an effective way to reduce feelings of frustration and aggression. However, others argue that this approach may actually intensify negative emotions and lead to further aggression.
Overall, the effectiveness of the catharsis hypothesis in reducing aggressive feelings remains a topic of debate. While some individuals may find these methods helpful in managing their emotions, others may require alternative approaches to address their aggressive tendencies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 45
Correct
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What is the minimum number of standard deviations below the average that qualifies a person as having a learning disability?
Your Answer: 2
Explanation:Classification of Intellectual Disability
Intellectual disability affects approximately 2% of the general population, with an estimated 828,000 adults aged 18 of older affected in England alone. Those with an IQ below 70 are considered to have an intellectual disability, with the average IQ being 100. The severity of intellectual disability is categorized based on IQ scores, with mild intellectual disability being the most common (85% of cases) and profound intellectual disability being the least common (1-2% of cases). People with intellectual disability may require varying levels of support in their daily lives, depending on their individual needs. It is important to use the preferred term ‘people with intellectual disability’ when referring to individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 46
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)?
Your Answer: Serum creatine kinase is raised
Explanation:Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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What is the most probable cause of electroencephalographic alterations?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Antipsychotics and Their Effects on EEG
The use of antipsychotics has been found to have an impact on the EEG of patients taking them. A study conducted on the subject found that clozapine had the highest percentage of EEG changes at 47.1%, followed by olanzapine at 38.5%, risperidone at 28.0%, and typical antipsychotics at 14.5%. Interestingly, quetiapine did not show any EEG changes in the study. However, another study found that 5% of quetiapine users did experience EEG changes. These findings suggest that antipsychotics can have varying effects on EEG and should be monitored closely in patients taking them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Which statement about Rett syndrome is accurate?
Your Answer: Abnormal development is usually obvious by 1 month of age
Correct Answer: It almost exclusively occurs in females
Explanation:While Rett syndrome is predominantly found in females, there have been studies conducted on boys who have either Rett syndrome of the MECP2 gene defect commonly associated with the syndrome. These studies have shown that boys with the MECP2 gene defect may exhibit symptoms that differ from those typically seen in classic Rett syndrome.
Rett Syndrome: A Rare Neurodevelopmental Disorder
Rett syndrome is a neurodevelopmental disorder that is rare, affecting approximately 1 in 10,000 female births. Although it mostly affects females, there have been cases of males with the disorder. While the exact cause of the disorder is not known, it is believed to have a genetic basis, with mutations in the MECP2 gene (Xq28) being associated with the disorder. Monozygotic twins have been found to have complete concordance in cases of Rett syndrome.
The disorder has a unique presentation, with affected children experiencing a normal period of development until 6-18 months. After this period, they begin to develop problems with language, losing previously acquired speech. Purposeful hand movements are replaced with stereotypic movements, such as hand wringing, and ataxia and psychomotor retardation may occur. Other stereotypical movements, such as finger licking of biting and tapping of slapping, may also be seen. Head circumference is normal at birth, but growth begins to decelerate between 6-12 months, resulting in microcephaly. All language skills are lost, both receptive and expressive, and social skills plateau at developmental levels between 6-12 months.
Seizures are associated with Rett syndrome in 75% of those affected, and almost all affected children have abnormal EEG findings. Breathing problems, such as hyperventilation, apnea, and breath holding, are also seen. Children with Rett syndrome may live for well over a decade after the onset of the disorder, but after 10 years, many patients are wheelchair-bound with virtually no language ability. Additional features of the disorder include seizures, breath holding and hyperventilation, sleep difficulties, and issues with locomotion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 49
Incorrect
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What is an example of a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner?
Your Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Correct Answer: Wilson's disease
Explanation:Inheritance Patterns and Examples
Autosomal Dominant:
Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2, tuberous sclerosis, achondroplasia, Huntington disease, and Noonan’s syndrome are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. This means that only one copy of the mutated gene is needed to cause the condition.Autosomal Recessive:
Phenylketonuria, homocystinuria, Hurler’s syndrome, galactosaemia, Tay-Sach’s disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, Wilson’s disease, and cystic fibrosis are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. This means that two copies of the mutated gene are needed to cause the condition.X-Linked Dominant:
Vitamin D resistant rickets and Rett syndrome are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked dominant inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the condition.X-Linked Recessive:
Cerebellar ataxia, Hunter’s syndrome, and Lesch-Nyhan are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and two copies of the gene are needed to cause the condition.Mitochondrial:
Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy and Kearns-Sayre syndrome are examples of conditions that follow a mitochondrial inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located in the mitochondria and is passed down from the mother to her offspring. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old smoker successfully quit smoking by acknowledging the harm it was causing to their health, considering the benefits of quitting, setting a quit date, and gradually reducing their nicotine intake until they were able to quit completely. This behaviour change is an example of which of the following theories?
Your Answer: The health belief model
Correct Answer: Stage model
Explanation:Behaviour change theories can be categorized into two main groups: social cognition models and stage models. Stage models involve progression through specific stages, while social cognition models focus on beliefs and attitudes as drivers of behaviour change. Examples of social cognition models include the health belief model, protection motivation theory, and self-efficacy theory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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