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  • Question 1 - A 21-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of increased thirst throughout the...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of increased thirst throughout the day and difficulty performing everyday tasks. He was recently treated for a UTI with ciprofloxacin. His father has a history of diabetes, but is unsure of the type. He drinks about 8 units of alcohol per week. Fasting plasma glucose is 17.1 mmol/L (3.9-5.6), ketone bodies are 0.4 mmol/L (< 0.6 mmol/L), and C-peptide level is 2.87 ng/mL (0.51-2.72). What is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Type 1 diabetes

      Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes can be achieved through the measurement of C-peptide levels and diabetes-specific autoantibodies.

      Diagnosis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

      Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically diagnosed through symptoms and signs that are similar to those seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), although the diagnosis may take longer. Symptoms of DKA include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and an acetone-smelling breath. To confirm a diagnosis, urine should be dipped for glucose and ketones, and fasting glucose and random glucose levels should be measured. C-peptide levels are typically low in patients with T1DM, and diabetes-specific autoantibodies can be useful in distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD), islet cell antibodies (ICA), insulin autoantibodies (IAA), and insulinoma-associated-2 autoantibodies (IA-2A) are commonly used.

      The diagnostic criteria for T1DM include a fasting glucose level greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or a random glucose level greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l if the patient is symptomatic. If the patient is asymptomatic, the criteria must be demonstrated on two separate occasions. To distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes, age of onset, speed of onset, weight of the patient, and symptoms should be considered. NICE recommends further investigation for adults suspected of having T1DM if the clinical presentation includes atypical features. Conversely, for patients suspected of having type 2 diabetes, if they respond well to oral hypoglycaemic agents and are over the age of 40 years, further testing for T1DM may not be necessary.

      Example scenarios include a 15-year-old with weight loss and lethargy, a 38-year-old obese man with polyuria, a 52-year-old woman with polyuria and polydipsia, and a 59-year-old obese man with polyuria. The appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of feeling unwell for...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of feeling unwell for the past 2 days. She reports weakness in her legs and increasing shortness of breath. The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis and hypothyroidism and is currently taking methotrexate and levothyroxine. She recently received treatment for a urinary tract infection from her GP. The patient's blood results are as follows: Hb 108 g/L (female normal range: 115-160 g/L), platelets 97 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), WBC 1.9 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L), Na+ 139 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145 mmol/L), K+ 4.1 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/L), urea 5.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 mmol/L), and creatinine 87 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120 µmol/L). What is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      If methotrexate and trimethoprim-containing antibiotics are used together, it may lead to severe or fatal pancytopenia and bone marrow suppression. This patient, who takes methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis, has presented with pancytopenia and feeling unwell. Myelosuppression is a known adverse effect of methotrexate, which can be exacerbated by renal impairment and certain medications.

      Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.

      The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.

      When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.

      In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and a haemoglobin level of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and a haemoglobin level of 102 g/L. Iron studies are ordered to investigate for iron-deficiency anaemia. What result would support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ↓ Ferritin, ↓ total iron-binding capacity, ↓ serum iron, ↑ transferrin saturation

      Correct Answer: ↓ Ferritin, ↑ total iron-binding capacity, ↓ serum iron, ↓ transferrin saturation

      Explanation:

      In cases of iron-deficiency anemia, it is common for both the total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) and transferrin levels to be elevated. However, it should be noted that the transferrin saturation level is typically decreased.

      Iron deficiency anaemia is caused by a lack of iron, which is needed to make haemoglobin in red blood cells. It is the most common type of anaemia worldwide, with preschool-age children having the highest prevalence. Causes include excessive blood loss, inadequate dietary intake, poor intestinal absorption, and increased iron requirements. Symptoms include fatigue, shortness of breath, palpitations, and nail changes. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count and serum ferritin test. Treatment involves identifying and managing the underlying cause, as well as taking oral iron supplements and consuming an iron-rich diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are concerned that your patient may be experiencing premature menopause due to...

    Incorrect

    • You are concerned that your patient may be experiencing premature menopause due to her irregular menstrual cycle and hot flashes. Which of the following situations would provide evidence for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patient age 46 with raised follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), raised luteinising hormone (LH) and low oestradiol

      Correct Answer: Patient age 39 with raised FSH/LH and low oestradiol

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause is characterized by irregular menstrual cycles occurring before the age of 45, along with elevated FSH/LH levels and low oestradiol levels in blood tests. The pituitary gland releases more hormones in an attempt to stimulate the failing ovary to produce oestrogen, resulting in a negative feedback loop. Therefore, options 1, 3, 4, and 5 are incorrect. Option 5 depicts primary pituitary failure.

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.

      Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe loin to groin...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe loin to groin pain that had been intermittent throughout the day. She tells the doctor that she has a previous history of gout.
      What is the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Renal ultrasonography

      Correct Answer: Abdomino-pelvic/KUB CT (non-contrast)

      Explanation:

      A non-contrast abdomino-pelvic/KUB CT scan is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosing nephrolithiasis in patients with a history of gout. This test has a high sensitivity and specificity and can also detect other pathologies.
      Intravenous urography is less sensitive and requires IV contrast material, which can cause allergic reactions or renal failure.
      Renal ultrasonography is useful in pregnancy or in combination with a KUB radiograph but is less accurate for diagnosing ureteral stones.
      Retrograde ureterography is rarely performed for diagnostic purposes but is essential when surgery is necessary.
      Uric acid stones are associated with low urine pH, high purine intake, or malignancy, and can be treated with allopurinol or alkali therapy depending on the patient’s uric acid levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      84.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old otherwise healthy man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old otherwise healthy man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath on minimal exertion that have been worsening over the past few months. Investigations reveal normal angiogram and chest x-ray results, but an echocardiogram shows severe aortic stenosis. What is the most suitable management option?

      Your Answer: Aortic balloon valvuloplasty

      Correct Answer: Surgical aortic valve replacement

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis (AS) is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment. The gold standard treatment for symptomatic AS is surgical aortic valve replacement, which involves open-heart surgery and the use of mechanical or biological valves. However, for patients who are deemed too high risk for open-heart surgery, aortic balloon valvuloplasty or transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) may be considered as less invasive options.

      Annual echocardiography monitoring is necessary to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. It is important to note that oral nitrates are contraindicated in patients with AS as they can cause profound hypotension. Direct oral anticoagulants are also not licensed or indicated for the treatment of valvular heart disease. Overall, the choice of treatment depends on the patient’s individual risk factors and overall health status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 59-year-old man with known cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C infection attends for...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man with known cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C infection attends for review. There is a past history of intravenous heroin abuse and alcoholism. He has been feeling progressively more unwell over the past six months, with weight loss and worsening ascites. He is on long-term sick leave and has been closely monitored by his live-in partner, who maintains that there has been no further drug abuse or consumption of alcohol.
      What is the most probable diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Superimposed hepatitis B infection

      Correct Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Worsening Ascites

      Worsening ascites can be a sign of various underlying conditions. One possible diagnosis is hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), which is a primary malignancy of the liver that often occurs in patients with chronic liver disease and cirrhosis. Another possible diagnosis is chronic active hepatitis, which is caused by the hepatitis C virus and can result in joint and muscle pain, nausea, and exhaustion. Superimposed hepatitis B infection can also cause liver injury and jaundice. Alcoholism, which can lead to alcoholic hepatitis, is another possible diagnosis, but it is not consistent with the clinical scenario given if there has been no further alcohol consumption. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is an acute bacterial infection of ascitic fluid that can cause fever, abdominal pain, and other symptoms. It is important to consider these and other possible diagnoses when evaluating a patient with worsening ascites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is most commonly linked to elevated levels of CA...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most commonly linked to elevated levels of CA 19-9?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cancer

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic cancer

      Explanation:

      CA 19-9 and Pancreatic Cancer

      Understanding Tumour Markers

      Tumour markers are substances that can be found in the blood, urine, or tissues of people with cancer. They are often used to help diagnose and monitor cancer, as well as to determine the effectiveness of treatment. Tumour markers can be divided into different categories, including monoclonal antibodies against carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens, tumour antigens, enzymes, and hormones.

      Monoclonal antibodies are used to target specific tumour antigens, which are proteins or other molecules that are found on the surface of cancer cells. Some common tumour markers include CA 125 for ovarian cancer, CA 19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and CA 15-3 for breast cancer. However, it is important to note that tumour markers usually have a low specificity, meaning that they can also be found in people without cancer.

      Tumour antigens are proteins that are produced by cancer cells and can be detected in the blood or tissues of people with cancer. Some examples of tumour antigens include prostate specific antigen (PSA) for prostatic carcinoma, alpha-feto protein (AFP) for hepatocellular carcinoma and teratoma, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer.

      Enzymes and hormones can also be used as tumour markers. For example, alkaline phosphatase and neurone specific enolase are enzymes that can be elevated in people with cancer, while hormones such as calcitonin and ADH can be used to detect certain types of cancer.

      In summary, tumour markers are an important tool in the diagnosis and monitoring of cancer. However, they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and imaging studies, as they are not always specific to cancer and can also be elevated in people without cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with a blistering rash around her...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with a blistering rash around her right eye that developed overnight. Upon examination, the eye appears to be unaffected. The GP promptly contacts the nearby hospital rapid access eye clinic for guidance.
      What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, is a reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus that causes chickenpox. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) occurs when the virus affects the trigeminal nerve, resulting in eye involvement in about 50% of cases. Symptoms include patchy erythema and grouped herpetiform vesicles, which may extend to the tip of the nose. Other ophthalmic manifestations include conjunctivitis, scleritis, keratitis, and optic neuritis. Urgent referral to ophthalmology is necessary in the presence of eye involvement, as it poses a risk to vision. Treatment involves oral aciclovir and topical aciclovir for severe eye infection. There is no recommendation for the use of carbamazepine in the management of post-herpetic neuralgia. Topical steroids are not indicated for herpes zoster infection. Complications of HZO include post-herpetic neuralgia and scarring. Aggressive treatment and follow-up monitoring are required for HZO due to the possibility of eye involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 47-year-old woman presents to the Stroke Clinic for review after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman presents to the Stroke Clinic for review after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA). It is suspected that the patient’s TIA was caused by an issue with her carotid arteries.
      A magnetic resonance angiogram (MRA) is requested followed by catheter angiography. The MRA shows a right internal carotid with narrowed eccentric lumen, surrounded by a crescent-shaped mural thrombus and thin annular enhancement. The catheter angiogram shows a ‘string sign’ in the right internal carotid.
      What internal carotid abnormality is most likely the cause of this patient’s TIA?

      Your Answer: Carotid-artery occlusion

      Correct Answer: Carotid-artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Cervico-cerebral arterial dissections (CADs) are a common cause of strokes in younger patients, accounting for almost 20% of strokes in those under 45 years old. The majority of cases involve the extracranial internal carotid artery, while extracranial vertebral dissections make up about 15% of cases. A high level of suspicion is necessary to diagnose CAD, and confirmation can be obtained through various imaging techniques such as Doppler ultrasonography, magnetic resonance imaging/magnetic resonance angiography (MRA), computed tomography angiography (CTA), or catheter angiography. CTA can reveal several characteristic features of CAD, including an abnormal vessel contour, enlargement of the dissected artery, an intimal flap, and a dissecting aneurysm. The traditional method of diagnosing arterial dissections is catheter angiography, which typically shows a long segment of narrowed lumen known as the string sign. Other conditions such as carotid-artery pseudoaneurysm, carotid-artery aneurysm, carotid-artery occlusion, and carotid-artery stenosis can also be identified through imaging techniques, but they are not evident in this particular angiogram.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      35
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (0/1) 0%
Reproductive Medicine (0/1) 0%
Renal Medicine/Urology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
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