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Question 1
Correct
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What is the likelihood of developing Alzheimer's after the age of 60?
Your Answer: Double every 5 years
Explanation:Alzheimer’s Disease: Understanding the Risk Factors
At the age of 60, the risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease is relatively low, estimated to be around 1%. However, this risk doubles every five years, reaching a significant 30% to 50% by the age of 85. While it was once believed that aluminium exposure was a cause of Alzheimer’s, recent research suggests otherwise. Instead, there appears to be a strong link between serious head injuries and an increased risk of developing Alzheimer’s later in life. Additionally, hypertension and cardiovascular problems have also been identified as risk factors for Alzheimer’s, not just vascular dementia. It is important to understand these risk factors and take steps to reduce them in order to potentially lower the risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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A 30 year old man is referred to a psychiatrist by his GP who is concerned that he had had some memory loss. He attends with his wife who tells you that she has noticed that her husband has recently become quite clumsy and quick to temper. Select the most likely diagnosis.
Huntington's disease
77%
Vascular dementia
2%
CADSIL
12%
Parkinson's disease
2%
Binswanger's disease
7%
Previous Exam Question
The young age of the man makes a diagnosis of Parkinson's, frontotemporal dementia and vascular dementia unlikely. Both CADSIL and Huntington's tend to present in the fourth decade. CADSIL generally presents with stroke, memory impairment, migraine, and severe mood disturbances. The man's motor impairment (clumsiness), along with emotional disturbance, and memory problems all point to a diagnosis of Huntington's disease.Your Answer: Huntington's disease
Explanation:Given the man’s young age, it is unlikely that he has Parkinson’s, frontotemporal dementia, of vascular dementia. Additionally, both CADSIL and Huntington’s disease typically manifest in the fourth decade of life. However, CADSIL is characterized by stroke, severe mood disturbances, memory impairment, and migraines, while Huntington’s disease is marked by motor impairment (clumsiness), emotional disturbance, and memory problems. Based on these symptoms, it is more likely that the man has Huntington’s disease.
Psychiatric and Behavioural Symptoms of Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a condition that affects individuals with a triad of symptoms, including motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. While the symptoms typically begin in the third and fourth decades of life, individuals with a high number of CAG repeats may experience symptoms before the age of 20, known as juvenile Huntington’s disease.
The psychiatric symptoms of Huntington’s disease can include depression, apathy, dementia, psychosis, anxiety, mania, sexual dysfunction, and even suicide. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life and require appropriate treatment. Advances in psychiatric treatment have been made to address these symptoms and improve the overall well-being of individuals with Huntington’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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A 56-year-old man who recently retired and lives in a residential home reports seeing ghosts. He has decreased vision in both eyes and a slit lamp exam shows cataracts in both eyes. There is no evidence of any secondary gain related to his complaints. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome
Explanation:Charles Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition where mentally healthy individuals experience vivid and recurring visual hallucinations, also known as fictive visual percepts. These hallucinations are typically small in size, known as lilliputian hallucinations. CBS is commonly found in individuals who have visual impairments due to old age of damage to the eyes of optic pathways. However, not all individuals with such deficits develop CBS. In some cases, CBS may be triggered by a combination of central vision loss due to conditions like macular degeneration and peripheral vision loss from glaucoma. In this context, bilateral lenticular opacities refer to cataracts. For more information on CBS, please refer to the Royal National Institute of Blind People (RNIB).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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A 67-year-old female with a history of dementia is brought in by her family due to an increase in aggressive behavior. She appears to be in good physical health. What is the most suitable treatment for her outbursts of aggression?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Non-drug approaches should be the first line of defense in managing aggression in Alzheimer’s disease, including identifying triggers and utilizing behavioral techniques. However, in some cases, drug treatment may be necessary. Atypical neuroleptics like quetiapine and haloperidol are not recommended due to increased risk of death of stroke and potential cognitive decline. Risperidone is licensed for short-term treatment of persistent aggression in moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease if non-pharmacological alternatives have been tried and there is a risk of harm. Valproate has been used for calming effects, but evidence of its efficacy is limited. Benzodiazepines are not recommended due to increased risk of falls and worsening cognitive decline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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What is the highest approved dosage of risperidone that can be administered for treating aggression and agitation related to Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: 1 mg BD
Explanation:According to the Maudsley 14th, Risperidone is approved for a maximum dosage of 1 mg twice daily, but the recommended of optimal dose is 500 µg.
Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia
Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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An older woman with Alzheimer's is seen in clinic for review. She was first seen 12 months ago, diagnosed with mild Alzheimer's, and was started on donepezil 5 mg. She was then seen again and the donepezil was increased to 10 mg. She has continued to decline and now has a MMSE of 18.
What recommendations would you make in this case?Your Answer: Continue the donepezil and add in memantine
Explanation:Dosages of donepezil exceeding 10 mg are not recommended, as his Alzheimer’s has advanced from mild to moderate. NICE recommends incorporating memantine alongside an AChE-I at this stage.
Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.
NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.
The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.
In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the options below is not considered a legal requirement for testamentary capacity?
Your Answer: Understands that the will can be revised
Explanation:Testamentary Capacity
Testamentary capacity is a crucial aspect of common law that pertains to a person’s legal and mental ability to create a will. To meet the requirements for testamentary capacity, there are four key factors that a testator must be aware of at the time of making the will. These include knowing the extent and value of their property, identifying the natural beneficiaries, understanding the disposition they are making, and having a plan for how the property will be distributed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 8
Correct
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What MMSE score would suggest the presence of mild Alzheimer's?
Your Answer: 21
Explanation:The categorization of Alzheimer’s severity is based on the MMSE score, where a score of 21-26 is considered mild, 10-20 is moderate, and 0-10 is severe.
Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.
NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.
The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.
In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Question 10
Correct
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What treatment option has the strongest evidence for managing dementia in individuals with Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: Rivastigmine
Explanation:It is difficult to provide a definitive answer to this question as there is currently no consensus on the matter. However, the limited evidence available suggests that both rivastigmine and donepezil may be effective, although donepezil may be associated with higher dropout rates.
Dementia with Parkinson’s Disease: Understanding Cognitive Symptoms
Dementia with Parkinson’s disease is a syndrome that involves a decline in memory and other cognitive domains, leading to social and occupational dysfunction. Along with motor problems, non-motor symptoms such as cognitive, behavioral, and psychological issues can also arise. There is debate over whether Lewy body dementia and dementia due to Parkinson’s are different conditions. Drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can interfere with cognitive function, and people with this type of dementia tend to have marked problems with executive function. Cholinesterase inhibitors can improve cognitive performance, but they are not well tolerated and can cause side effects. Understanding the cognitive symptoms of dementia with Parkinson’s disease is crucial for effective clinical management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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What is true about dementia that occurs at an early age?
Your Answer: The majority of early onset Alzheimer's cases are sporadic rather than inherited
Explanation:While inherited causes of Alzheimer’s are prevalent among younger individuals, the majority of cases are attributed to sporadic causes.
Early-Onset Dementia: A Less Common but Broader Differential Diagnosis
Early-onset dementia refers to the occurrence of dementia before the age of 65, which accounts for only 2% of all people with dementia in the UK. However, the differential diagnosis for early-onset dementia is broader, and younger people are more likely to have a rarer form of dementia. The distribution of diagnoses of dementia differs dramatically between older and younger patients, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause of dementia in both groups. However, it only accounts for a third of cases in younger people, while frontotemporal dementia occurs much more commonly in younger populations. Rarer causes of dementia also occur with greater frequency in the younger population.
It is worth noting that the majority of Alzheimer’s cases are sporadic in early-onset, but inherited cases are more common. Vascular dementia is the second most common dementia in those under 65, and frontotemporal dementias occur more frequently in the younger population, with up to 50% of patients having a positive family history.
In summary, early-onset dementia is a less common but important condition to consider, as it presents a broader differential diagnosis and may have a genetic component. Understanding the distribution of diagnoses in younger populations can aid in early detection and appropriate management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 12
Correct
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A 68-year-old man develops a major depressive illness following a stroke. During the discussion of treatment options, he discloses that he had a gastric bleed 4 years ago. What would be the recommended treatment approach in this scenario?
Your Answer: Nortriptyline
Explanation:Considering his past GI bleed, it would be wise to steer clear of prescribing an SSRI as they have been linked to a higher likelihood of future bleeding.
Depression is a common occurrence after a stroke, affecting 30-40% of patients. The location of the stroke lesion can play a crucial role in the development of major depression. Treatment for post-stroke depression must take into account the cause of the stroke, medical comorbidities, and potential interactions with other medications. The Maudsley guidelines recommend SSRIs as the first-line treatment, with paroxetine being the preferred choice. Nortriptyline is also an option, as it does not increase the risk of bleeding. If the patient is on anticoagulants, citalopram and escitalopram may be preferred. Antidepressant prophylaxis has been shown to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression, with nortriptyline, fluoxetine, escitalopram, duloxetine, sertraline, and mirtazapine being effective options. Mianserin, however, appears to be ineffective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 13
Correct
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You are seeing a 70-year-old woman and her husband in a memory clinic. She reports subjective memory difficulties, but her daily functioning is not affected. Her MMSE score is 28/30, with a loss of two points on recall. Her husband asks you about the likelihood of her developing dementia within the next year. What advice do you give them?
Your Answer: 10%
Explanation:Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a diagnosis that encompasses a diverse group of individuals, some of whom may be in the early stages of dementia. To diagnose MCI, there must be a reported concern about changes in cognitive functioning, impairment in one of more cognitive domains, preservation of functional abilities, and a score above the cut-off for dementia on cognitive tests. While some patients with MCI may return to normal cognition, approximately 10% of patients progress to dementia per year, with 85% of cases being Alzheimer’s and 15% being vascular dementia. The exact number of patients with MCI who will develop dementia is difficult to determine due to challenges in long-term follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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For which patient group does NICE not recommend the use of HMPAO SPECT to distinguish between Alzheimer's disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia?
Your Answer: Cases of previous head injury
Correct Answer: Down's syndrome
Explanation:Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 15
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman is referred to your clinic. Her husband has noticed that she has become more forgetful over the last six months and has also noticed that there are episodes of confusion.
There is a history of repeated falls but no serious head injury. She does not drink alcohol but has a tremor and is slow in her movements. Her elderly husband is also perplexed as she frequently states that she sees a bird in the living room, which he cannot see.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:The individual is exhibiting typical symptoms of Lewy body dementia, such as cognitive decline, fluctuating confusion, Parkinson’s-like motor symptoms, frequent falls, and early onset visual hallucinations. Treatment with the cholinesterase inhibitor rivastigmine has been found to be effective in managing the associated delusions and hallucinations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 16
Correct
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What is a distinguishing trait of the initial phase of Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: Impaired short term memory
Explanation:Dementia: Types and Clinical Characteristics
Dementia is a progressive impairment of cognitive functions occurring in clear consciousness. There are over 100 different causes of dementia, and a detailed knowledge is required for the more common types. The following are some of the subtypes of dementia, along with their early features, neuropathology, and proportion:
– Alzheimer’s disease: Impaired memory, apathy, and depression; gradual onset; cortical amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles; 50-75% proportion.
– Vascular dementia: Similar to AD, but memory less affected, and mood fluctuations more prominent; physical frailty; stepwise onset; cerebrovascular disease; single infarcts in critical regions, of more diffuse multi-infarct disease; 20-30% proportion.
– Frontotemporal dementia: Personality changes, mood changes, disinhibition, language difficulties; no single pathology – damage limited to frontal and temporal lobes; 5-10% proportion.
– Dementia with Lewy Bodies: Marked fluctuation in cognitive ability, visual hallucinations, Parkinsonism (tremor and rigidity); cortical Lewy bodies (alpha-synuclein); <5% proportion. Other types of dementia include Pick’s disease, Huntington’s disease, pseudodementia, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Each subtype has its own unique clinical characteristics and neuropathology. It is important to accurately diagnose the type of dementia in order to provide appropriate treatment and care. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 17
Correct
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An 87-year-old male is admitted with increasing confusion and lethargy, and his family have been particularly concerned that he has been unable to look after himself.
He has a recent history of hypertension and diabetes for which he takes lisinopril, metformin and amlodipine. On examination, he has a temperature of 36.2°C, and is confused in time and place.
His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg and his pulse 60 bpm regular. Abdominal examination reveals little but PR examination reveals that the rectum is loaded with faeces. Examination of the CNS reveals blunted tendon reflexes but no focal neurology. Initial investigations reveal:
Haemoglobin 130 g/L (120-160)
MCV 98 fL (80-100)
Platelets 200 ×109/L (150-400)
White cell count 7.2 ×109/L (4-11)
Sodium 135 mmol/L (135-145)
Potassium 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 120 mmol/L (60-110)
Glucose 10.5 mmol/L (4-7)
Which one of the following is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?Your Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:The patient has a brief history of growing confusion and struggling to cope, with primary symptoms of confusion, constipation, hypothermia, and reduced tendon reflexes. The tests indicate a higher than normal mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mild hyponatremia. These symptoms are consistent with hypothyroidism, and the most suitable test would be thyroid function tests, which should show a decrease in free thyroxine (T4) and an increase in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 18
Correct
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What is a true statement about depression after a stroke?
Your Answer: Antidepressants used in post-stroke depression may enhance motor recovery
Explanation:The use of mianserin for post-stroke depression has been found to be ineffective.
Depression is a common occurrence after a stroke, affecting 30-40% of patients. The location of the stroke lesion can play a crucial role in the development of major depression. Treatment for post-stroke depression must take into account the cause of the stroke, medical comorbidities, and potential interactions with other medications. The Maudsley guidelines recommend SSRIs as the first-line treatment, with paroxetine being the preferred choice. Nortriptyline is also an option, as it does not increase the risk of bleeding. If the patient is on anticoagulants, citalopram and escitalopram may be preferred. Antidepressant prophylaxis has been shown to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression, with nortriptyline, fluoxetine, escitalopram, duloxetine, sertraline, and mirtazapine being effective options. Mianserin, however, appears to be ineffective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 19
Correct
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Which condition is primarily associated with cortical dementia rather than subcortical dementia?
Your Answer: Pick's disease
Explanation:Distinguishing Cortical and Subcortical Dementia: A Contested Area
Attempts have been made to differentiate between cortical and subcortical dementia based on clinical presentation, but this remains a contested area. Some argue that the distinction is not possible. Cortical dementia is characterized by impaired memory, visuospatial ability, executive function, and language. Examples of cortical dementias include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. On the other hand, subcortical dementia is characterized by general slowing of mental processes, personality changes, mood disorders, and abnormal movements. Examples of subcortical dementias include Binswanger’s disease, dementia associated with Huntington’s disease, AIDS, Parkinson’s disease, Wilson’s disease, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Despite ongoing debate, questions on this topic may appear in exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which option is not advised by NICE for the treatment of delirium?
Your Answer: Provide cognitively stimulating activity
Correct Answer: Avoid regular visits from family
Explanation:Delirium Management
Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.
Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 21
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman is accompanied by her family who are worried about her memory and behavior in the last six months. An evaluation of her cognitive abilities is conducted, which appears to validate the family's concerns. To rule out any reversible causes, a set of blood tests are ordered, including a complete blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and bone profile. What other blood tests should be requested in this case?
Your Answer: Thyroid function tests, vitamin B12, folate, HbA1c
Explanation:NICE advises against the routine testing for syphilis and HIV.
As an AI language model, I do not have the ability to perform investigations of provide medical advice. However, I can provide information on the NICE guidelines for investigations in people with dementia. The guidelines suggest routine blood tests to exclude reversible causes, such as full blood count, ESR, CRP, urea and electrolytes, calcium, HbA1c, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and serum B12 and folate levels. Other investigations that may be appropriate if clinically indicated include urine microscopy and culture, chest X-ray, ECG, syphilis serology, and HIV testing. Structural imaging and CSF analysis may also be necessary to exclude other cerebral pathologies and establish the subtype diagnosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred over CT if the subtype is unclear and vascular is suspected. FDG-PET of perfusion SPECT may be considered if the diagnosis is uncertain and frontotemporal dementia of dementia with Lewy bodies is suspected. However, it is important to note that Apolipoprotein E genotyping and electroencephalography should not be used to diagnose Alzheimer’s disease. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 22
Correct
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Which of the following is not considered a known factor that increases the risk of delirium?
Your Answer: Living alone
Explanation:Risk Factors for Delirium
Delirium is a common condition that affects many elderly individuals. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing delirium. These risk factors include age, cognitive impairment, severe medical illness, previous history of delirium of neurological disease, psychoactive drug use, polypharmacy, and anticholinergic drug use.
Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Certain classes of drugs, such as opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics, are strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia. Long-acting benzodiazepines are more troublesome than shorter-acting ones. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients. Pethidine, a member of the opioid class, appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other opioids due to its accumulation in individuals with impaired renal function and conversion to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.
Overall, it is important to be aware of these risk factors and to carefully monitor medication use in elderly individuals to prevent the development of delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 23
Correct
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What is the most frequently observed symptom in cases of delirium?
Your Answer: Disturbance in the sleep-wake cycle
Explanation:The disturbance of the sleep-wake cycle is frequently linked to delirium, which can cause problems such as daytime drowsiness, nighttime restlessness, trouble falling asleep, excessive sleepiness during the day, of staying awake throughout the night. These sleep-wake disruptions are so prevalent in delirium that they have been suggested as a fundamental requirement for diagnosis according to the DSM-V (2013).
Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about Charles Bonnet syndrome?
Your Answer: Visual hallucinations are usually associated with abnormal perceptions in other modalities
Correct Answer: Visual hallucinations are not normally associated with an auditory component
Explanation:While Charles Bonnet Syndrome (CBS) typically only presents with visual hallucinations, some experts have proposed diagnostic criteria that require the absence of hallucinations in other sensory modalities. However, there have been documented cases of CBS with auditory hallucinations, so the presence of such hallucinations should not necessarily exclude a diagnosis of CBS.
Charles Bonnet Syndrome: A Condition of Complex Visual Hallucinations
Charles Bonnet Syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by persistent of recurrent complex visual hallucinations that occur in clear consciousness. This condition is observed in individuals who have suffered damage to the visual pathway, which can be caused by damage to any part of the pathway from the eye to the cortex. The hallucinations are thought to result from a release phenomenon secondary to the deafferentation of the cerebral cortex. CBS is equally distributed between sexes and does not show any familial predisposition. The most common ophthalmological conditions associated with this syndrome are age-related macular degeneration, followed by glaucoma and cataract.
Risk factors for CBS include advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. Well-formed complex visual hallucinations are thought to occur in 10-30 percent of individuals with severe visual impairment. Only around a third of individuals find the hallucinations themselves an unpleasant or disturbing experience. The most effective treatment is reversal of the visual impairment. Antipsychotic drugs are commonly prescribed but are largely ineffective. CBS is a long-lasting condition, with 88% of individuals experiencing it for two years of more, and only 25% resolving at nine years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 25
Correct
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For which condition is AChE-I considered an appropriate initial treatment option?
Your Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies
Explanation:Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.
NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.
The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.
In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 26
Correct
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What is the recommended course of treatment for a man who experiences depression after a heart attack?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:SSRI for Post-MI Depression
Post-myocardial infarction (MI), approximately 20% of people develop depression, which can worsen prognosis if left untreated. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the preferred antidepressant group for post-MI depression. However, they can increase the risk of bleeding, especially in those using anticoagulation. Mirtazapine is an alternative option, but it is also associated with bleeding. The SADHART study found sertraline to be a safe treatment for depression post-MI. It is important to consider the bleeding risk when choosing an antidepressant for post-MI depression.
References:
– Davies, P. (2004). Treatment of anxiety and depressive disorders in patients with cardiovascular disease. BMJ, 328, 939-943.
– Glassman, A. H. (2002). Sertraline treatment of major depression in patients with acute MI of unstable angina. JAMA, 288, 701-709.
– Goodman, M. (2008). Incident and recurrent major depressive disorder and coronary artery disease severity in acute coronary syndrome patients. Journal of Psychiatric Research, 42, 670-675.
– Na, K. S. (2018). Can we recommend mirtazapine and bupropion for patients at risk for bleeding? A systematic review and meta-analysis. Journal of Affective Disorders, 225, 221-226. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A senior citizen is referred to the memory clinic by their GP due to mild cognitive impairment. You rule out reversible causes and confirm that they are not prescribed any medications which might contribute to cognitive impairment.
The senior citizen is concerned about progression to Alzheimer's disease.
What would you advise has the best evidence to improve their cognitive performance at this stage?Your Answer: Rivastigmine
Correct Answer: Exercise
Explanation:Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a condition where individuals experience cognitive impairment but are still able to perform daily activities with minimal difficulty. However, those with MCI are at a higher risk of developing dementia compared to those without the condition. While there are currently no pharmacological options available, regular exercise has been shown to be the most effective intervention for MCI. It is important to note that some individuals with MCI may remain stable of even return to normal neurological function. These findings were reported in a practice guideline update summary by Peterson in the journal Neurology.
Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.
NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.
The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.
In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 28
Correct
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Which antihistamine is most likely to cause delirium in an elderly patient?
Your Answer: Promethazine
Explanation:Delirium is more likely to occur with first generation H1 antihistamines.
Risk Factors for Delirium
Delirium is a common condition that affects many elderly individuals. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing delirium. These risk factors include age, cognitive impairment, severe medical illness, previous history of delirium of neurological disease, psychoactive drug use, polypharmacy, and anticholinergic drug use.
Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Certain classes of drugs, such as opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics, are strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia. Long-acting benzodiazepines are more troublesome than shorter-acting ones. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients. Pethidine, a member of the opioid class, appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other opioids due to its accumulation in individuals with impaired renal function and conversion to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.
Overall, it is important to be aware of these risk factors and to carefully monitor medication use in elderly individuals to prevent the development of delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What alternative method does NICE recommend for distinguishing between Alzheimer's disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia in the absence of HMPAO SPECT?
Your Answer: FP-CIT SPECT
Correct Answer: FDG PET
Explanation:The first recommended imaging technique is HMPAO SPECT, while FDG PET is considered as a secondary option.
Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 30
Correct
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Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing paraphrenia?
Your Answer: Being male
Explanation:Paraphrenia: A Late-Onset Schizophrenic Type Presentation
Paraphrenia is a type of schizophrenia that typically presents later in life and is not caused by an underlying organic illness. It is more commonly seen in women and is often associated with hearing and visual impairments. Patients with paraphrenia are less likely to be married and have children, and they often experience social isolation. Imaging studies have shown changes consistent with cerebrovascular accidents in these patients. Overall, understanding the risk factors associated with paraphrenia can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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