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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.
The man experiences periods of 'highs', where he engages in impulsive behavior and sleeps very little. He denies ever having delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.
The man also has 'lows' where he experiences severe depression; he feels hopeless, loses interest in his usual activities and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Type 1 bipolar disorder
Correct Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder
Explanation:The woman’s symptoms of hypomania alternating with severe depression are indicative of type 2 bipolar disorder. There is no indication of an anxiety disorder in the question. While cyclothymia is characterized by mild symptoms of hypomania and depression lasting at least two years, the severity of the woman’s symptoms suggests type 2 bipolar disorder, even though the symptoms have only been present for one year. Major depressive disorder is not the correct diagnosis as there are also symptoms of hypomania present. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also not the correct answer as the symptoms of the ‘high’ periods are more consistent with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.
Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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For which condition has St John's wort (Hypericum perforatum) been proven to be beneficial?
Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Correct Answer: Dysthymia
Explanation:St John’s Wort for Depression: Clinical Evidence and Considerations
There is clinical evidence to support the use of St John’s wort in treating mild to moderate depression and dysthymia. However, the active ingredient and mechanism of action are still unclear from the latest psychiatry evidence. Hyperforin is responsible for St John’s wort’s enzyme induction effect, but it is not yet shown to be directly active in lifting mood.
A Cochrane review of 29 clinical trials found that St John’s wort was superior to placebo for treating mild to moderate depression but not severe depression. However, most of the studies were from German-speaking countries, and some were small. There is also evidence for efficacy in Gram-negative infection and improving symptoms in Parkinson’s disease. However, there is no reference for its use in multiple sclerosis (MS).
It is important to note that the latest NICE guidance on depression advises against prescribing or advising St John’s wort due to the differing potencies of different formulations and potentially serious interactions with other medicines, such as anticonvulsants and the oral contraceptive pill. Therefore, it is crucial to ask patients if they are taking any herbal or natural remedies and dispel the myth that natural and safe are synonymous.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her parents. They are concerned about uncharacteristic behaviour since she left home to attend university. They ask whether she could have developed schizophrenia.
Which of the following symptoms in this patient would be most concerning for schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Delusional perception
Explanation:Understanding Schneider’s First-Rank Symptoms in Schizophrenia
Schneider’s first-rank symptoms are a set of symptoms that are highly indicative of schizophrenia. These symptoms are rare in other psychotic illnesses, making them a key diagnostic tool for identifying schizophrenia. The first-rank symptoms include auditory hallucinations, such as hearing one’s own thoughts echoed or hearing voices referring to oneself in the third person. Other symptoms include thought removal, insertion, and interruption, thought broadcasting, somatic hallucinations, delusional perception, and feelings, thoughts, or actions being under external control.
In addition to the first-rank symptoms, there are also second-rank symptoms that can be present in schizophrenia. These include other disorders of perception, sudden delusional ideas, perplexity, low or euphoric mood changes, and feelings of emotional impoverishment. Schneider believed that even in the absence of first-rank symptoms, a diagnosis of schizophrenia could be made based on second-rank symptoms and a typical clinical appearance.
One unique symptom of schizophrenia is delusional perception, which occurs in two stages. First, the individual experiences a normal perception, such as seeing traffic lights turn red. Then, they interpret this perception in a delusional way, such as believing that the red traffic lights are a sign that they are the devil and someone is trying to kill them.
It’s important to note that cognitive impairment is a feature of dementia, not schizophrenia. Additionally, hyperactivity is more commonly associated with mania than schizophrenia. Understanding the specific symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly the first-rank symptoms, can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a recent visit to the psychiatrist who recommended an increase in her lithium dose for better symptom control. Her renal function is stable and you prescribe the recommended higher dose of lithium. When should her levels be rechecked?
Your Answer: In 3 months
Correct Answer: In 1 week
Explanation:Lithium levels should be monitored weekly after a change in dose until they become stable. This means that after an increase in lithium dose, the levels should be checked again after one week, and then weekly until they stabilize. The ideal time to check lithium levels is 12 hours after the dose is taken. Waiting for a month after a dose adjustment is too long, while checking after three days is too soon. Once the levels become stable, they can be checked every three months for the first year. After a year, low-risk patients can have their lithium testing reduced to every six months, according to the BNF. However, NICE guidance recommends that three-monthly testing should continue indefinitely. Additionally, patients on lithium should have their thyroid function tests monitored every six months.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.
Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.
Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television. You suspect he may have schizophrenia.
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the treatment of schizophrenia.Your Answer: Benzodiazepines have strong evidence to support their use
Correct Answer: Clozapine is indicated for treatment-resistant schizophrenia
Explanation:Antipsychotic Medication for Schizophrenia: Types, Side-Effects, and Treatment Options
Antipsychotic medication is commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly positive symptoms. However, they may not be as effective for negative symptoms. Newer or atypical antipsychotics, such as amisulpride, aripiprazole, clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone, and sertindole, are often preferred as they have a better balance between efficacy and side-effects.
First-generation antipsychotic drugs, also known as typical antipsychotics, primarily block dopamine D2 receptors in the brain, which can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms and elevated prolactin. Second-generation antipsychotic drugs, or atypical antipsychotics, act on a wider range of receptors and have more distinct clinical profiles. Both types of antipsychotics are effective in treating schizophrenia.
Early treatment is recommended to prevent further deterioration of brain functioning. In some cases, long-acting antipsychotic injections may be used to improve compliance. Benzodiazepines may also be used as a short-term adjunct therapy for behavior disturbances, insomnia, aggression, and agitation, although the evidence supporting this is limited.
Clozapine is indicated for patients with schizophrenia who are unresponsive to or intolerant of conventional antipsychotic drugs. It can only be prescribed by a specialist and requires at least two previous trials of antipsychotics, including one newer/atypical antipsychotic, at adequate dosages and treatment periods. However, it carries a risk of life-threatening neutropenia as a potential side-effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the most effective way to distinguish between depression and dementia in older adults?
Your Answer: Short term memory test
Correct Answer: Hospital anxiety and depression (HAD) scale
Explanation:Clinical Tests for Distinguishing Dementia from Depression
Clinical tests are the most reliable way to distinguish between dementia and depression. One such test involves registering three objects and recalling them after five minutes. Dementia patients typically struggle with this task. Another test involves recalling items in a category, such as a list of plants, animals, or furniture items.
On the other hand, scales like the HAD scale do not differentiate between dementia and depression. They only assess the likelihood of depression being present. Blood tests can also be useful in ruling out underlying causes of dementia, such as thyroid function tests and B12 tests. However, liver function tests are unlikely to contribute much to the diagnosis. By using these clinical tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and differentiate between dementia and depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 60-year-old diabetic man is evaluated and found to be experiencing moderate depression. He is dealing with severe osteoarthritis and is waiting for a hip replacement. Despite declining CBT, he agrees with your suggestion that antidepressant medication may be beneficial. What is your top pick for an antidepressant for this individual?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Treatment Considerations for Depression in Patients with Chronic Physical Health Problems
Individuals with chronic physical health problems are at a higher risk of developing depression, with a two to three times greater likelihood than those in good health. This is particularly true for patients with complications of diabetes, such as retinopathy, chronic or end-stage renal disease, and painful peripheral neuropathy, as well as those with limited mobility and independence due to osteoarthritis and severe pain.
While cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a recommended high-intensity intervention for depression, some patients may decline this treatment option. In such cases, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first choice of antidepressant medication, with citalopram and sertraline being preferred options due to their lower propensity for drug interactions.
It is important to note that venlafaxine is more dangerous in overdose than other newer agents that are equally effective, and dosulepin should not be prescribed at all. Tricyclics are also associated with side effects such as blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation, and postural hypotension, which could potentially exacerbate existing health problems.
In addition to optimizing treatments for chronic diseases, healthcare providers should also consider any other medications the patient may be taking, such as aspirin or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for arthritis, which may require gastroprotection. Overall, a comprehensive and individualized approach to treatment is necessary for managing depression in patients with chronic physical health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl has been excluded from school because of her conduct. Her mother wonders if a psychological problem might explain her behaviour. What is conduct disorder and how might it be related to the girl's behaviour?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may be associated with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
Explanation:Understanding Conduct Disorder: Characteristics and Prevalence
Conduct disorder (CD) is a behavioral disorder that is characterized by aggressive, antisocial, and defiant behavior in children. Children with CD exhibit behaviors such as physical cruelty, destructiveness, lying, stealing, and truancy. To be diagnosed with CD, a child must exhibit at least three of these characteristics over the past year, with at least one in the last six months.
CD can be classified into two types: early-onset CD, which occurs before the age of 10 and is less common, and adolescent-onset CD, which is more common and may be associated with ADHD. A UK government report found that 5% of children aged 5-15 years had conduct disorder, and 1% had ADHD/hyperkinetic disorder. The male to female ratio is 3:1.
The severity of CD depends on the number of problems the child has and the effect on others. Children with CD may exhibit persistent antisocial behavior, and temper tantrums are common. Stealing, assault, and destruction of property can lead to legal consequences for the child.
In conclusion, understanding the characteristics and prevalence of conduct disorder is crucial in identifying and addressing this behavioral disorder in children. Early intervention and treatment can help improve outcomes for children with CD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding anorexia nervosa is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If amenorrhoea is present a hormonal disorder needs to be excluded
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is a prevalent mental health condition that primarily affects teenage and young-adult females. It is the most common reason for admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards. The disorder is characterized by a restriction of energy intake, leading to a significantly low body weight in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health. Patients with anorexia nervosa also experience an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though they are underweight. They may also have a distorted perception of their body weight or shape, which can affect their self-evaluation.
- The BMI should be < 16.5 kg/m² before making the diagnosis:
- This is not accurate. The DSM-5 criteria for anorexia nervosa include a significantly low body weight relative to the individual’s age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health, but it does not specify a precise BMI threshold like <16.5 kg/m².
- If amenorrhoea is present a hormonal disorder needs to be excluded:
- This is accurate. While amenorrhoea is a common feature of anorexia nervosa, it is important to rule out other potential causes of amenorrhoea, such as hormonal disorders, to ensure an accurate diagnosis.
- It is the most common cause of admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards:
- This is not accurate. While anorexia nervosa is a significant cause of admissions, other conditions such as depression and anxiety disorders are generally more common causes of psychiatric admissions in this age group.
- Around 75-80% of the patients are female:
- This is accurate in general, but the figure is typically closer to 90%, making it less precise. Anorexia nervosa predominantly affects females, but the exact percentage is often reported higher than 75-80%.
- Has a good prognosis if treated:
- This is not accurate. Anorexia nervosa has a variable prognosis and can be quite severe with significant mortality and morbidity. While some individuals do recover completely, others may have a chronic course with relapses. Unfortunately, the prognosis for patients with anorexia nervosa remains poor, with up to 10% of patients eventually dying because of the disorder.
The management of anorexia nervosa varies depending on the age of the patient. For adults, NICE recommends individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), or specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). In children and young people, NICE recommends ‘anorexia focused family therapy’ as the first-line treatment, followed by cognitive behavioural therapy as the second-line treatment.
- The BMI should be < 16.5 kg/m² before making the diagnosis:
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient presents for a medication review. He has been diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder and was initially prescribed sertraline, but this was discontinued due to gastrointestinal side effects. He has since been taking venlafaxine for a week but has reported experiencing headaches and blurred vision. What is the most appropriate course of action to manage his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to pregabalin
Explanation:For generalised anxiety disorder, pregabalin is suggested as a third line treatment option. If the patient is unable to tolerate SSRIs and SNRIs, pregabalin can be considered as an alternative. However, amitriptyline is not recommended for this condition.
Dealing with anxiety and depression is a common issue, and initial treatments may not always be effective. It is important for healthcare professionals to be knowledgeable about second and third line treatments, which may be initiated by some GPs or prescribed after specialist advice. The GP is responsible for ongoing monitoring and safety, including being aware of potential drug interactions.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a potassium reading of 2.9 mmol/L. As there is no obvious cause, you schedule an in-depth assessment. During the history-taking, you discover that she experiences strong urges to consume large amounts of food and frequently engages in binge eating. She also admits to using laxatives but denies inducing vomiting. These episodes occur approximately three times per week, and her body mass index is 19.5 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:Diagnosis and Explanation of Bulimia Nervosa
The case history presented suggests that the patient is suffering from bulimia nervosa. This disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating, followed by compensatory behaviors such as purging or the use of laxatives. While anorexia is more common in teenagers, bulimia is often seen in older patients, typically in their 20s or beyond.
The patient’s urges to eat large amounts of food, frequent use of laxatives, and low potassium levels are all indicative of bulimia nervosa. It is important to note that this behavior is not a normal variant and requires medical attention. While the patient is only marginally underweight, a BMI of 20 kg/m2 is considered the lower limit of normal.
It is unlikely that the patient is experiencing refeeding syndrome, which is a rare condition typically associated with parenteral nutrition in a hospital setting. Enteral nutrition may also lead to refeeding syndrome after a prolonged period of starvation. However, this is not the case for the patient in question. Overall, a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa is the most appropriate for this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old former paratrooper has joined your practice. He lost his leg during a tour of duty in Afghanistan when he was shelled by opposing forces and witnessed the death of two of his colleagues.
In recent months, he has been experiencing flashbacks, and his wife has noticed that he has become emotionally distant and insensitive towards her. He has also been struggling with sleep and concentration, and has been prone to sudden outbursts of anger.
You suspect that he may be suffering from PTSD and have recommended that he seek psychiatric help. Although he has declined counseling, he is interested in learning more about medication options, having seen the positive effects of sertraline on his wife's depression a few years ago.
According to NICE guidelines, which antidepressant is recommended as a second-line treatment for PTSD after psychological therapy has been refused or proven ineffective?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:NICE’s Guidance on Drug Treatments for PTSD in Adults
According to the latest guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated in 2018, drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, should not be offered to prevent PTSD in adults. However, for those with a diagnosis of PTSD who prefer drug treatment, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, may be considered and should be reviewed regularly.
In addition, antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD who have disabling symptoms and behaviors, such as severe hyperarousal or psychotic symptoms, and have not responded to other drug or psychological treatments. It is important to note that antipsychotic treatment should be started and reviewed regularly by a specialist.
Overall, NICE’s guidance emphasizes the importance of individualized treatment plans for adults with PTSD, taking into account their preferences and response to previous treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has been dieting excessively and has become markedly underweight.
Select from the list the single most worrying feature that would suggest a need for urgent referral.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to rise from a squatting position without using arms for support
Explanation:Assessment of Medical Risk for Eating Disorders: Indicators for Urgent Referral
The Institute of Psychiatry has developed a guide for assessing medical risk in patients with eating disorders. General practitioners can evaluate several parameters to determine if urgent referral is necessary. The following circumstances indicate the need for immediate attention:
Nutrition: A body mass index (BMI) below 14 kg/m2 or weight loss exceeding 0.5 kg per week.
Circulation: A systolic blood pressure below 90, a diastolic blood pressure below 70, or a postural drop greater than 10 mm Hg.
Squat test: The patient is unable to stand up without using their arms for balance or leverage due to muscle weakness.
Core temperature below 35°C.
Liver function tests (LFTs): Low levels of albumin or glucose.
Electrocardiogram (ECG): A pulse rate below 50 or a prolonged QT interval.
By recognizing these indicators, healthcare providers can quickly identify patients who require urgent referral for further evaluation and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with schizophrenia becomes highly agitated while shopping in a supermarket and begins to yell and hurl canned goods off the shelves. The authorities are promptly notified. Which section of the Mental Health Act can be utilized?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Section 136
Explanation:If a person with a mental health condition poses a risk of harm to themselves or others, they can be assessed under the Mental Health Act. Section 136 of the Act permits the police to detain the individual at their current location or take them to a safe place, such as their home or a police station, if they refuse to cooperate.
During this time, the patient should undergo a formal mental health assessment. The Section 136 detention lasts for 24 hours, but it can be extended for an additional 12 hours. After this period, the patient may either be discharged or transferred to a different section of the Mental Health Act.
Understanding Sectioning under the Mental Health Act
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse to be admitted voluntarily for mental health treatment. This process involves different sections, each with its own set of rules and regulations.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP, along with two doctors who have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is a 72-hour assessment order used in emergencies when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in the hospital for 72 hours, while Section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a, also known as Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order), can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety, while Section 136 allows the police to take someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to a Place of Safety for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
Understanding the different sections of the Mental Health Act can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the legal process of sectioning and ensure that they receive the necessary treatment and support for their mental health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man with schizophrenia was admitted to psychiatry due to a change in his medication. He had previously been taking quetiapine, but his behavior had become more erratic and he developed new delusions. Upon receiving his discharge letter, it was requested that the practice perform full blood counts every week for a total of 18 weeks, followed by every 2 weeks until 1 year of treatment. In addition to this new medication regimen, the patient has also been prescribed hyoscine hydrobromide to manage the side effect of hypersalivation. What is the name of the antipsychotic medication that has been prescribed for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine is the correct answer, as it carries a risk of neutropenia and agranulocytosis. It is prescribed for patients with Schizophrenia who do not respond to conventional antipsychotics. Monitoring for olanzapine should include regular checks of blood glucose, lipids, and weight. Haloperidol is not commonly used for schizophrenia, but a baseline ECG is recommended before starting treatment. The BNF doesn’t specify any particular monitoring requirements for paliperidone or aripiprazole.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman is brought to the practice by her mother who is extremely concerned.
For the past three months, she has been low in mood and over the last three weeks is increasingly withdrawn. She has stopped going to work and her evening fitness classes, has lost weight and has eaten nothing for two days. She is not sleeping and is unable to concentrate for any length of time. She had expressed feelings of guilt and hopelessness to her mother but is now barely speaking at all.
She is usually bright and cheerful. Her father has a history of severe depression. Her engagement was broken off about four months ago. She doesn't have any children.
How should this situation be managed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to a counsellor for CBT
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Severe Depression
This patient is experiencing severe depression, with probable psychomotor retardation and an inability to function normally. There is also a family history of severe depression, putting her at risk of harm through self-neglect. Primary care is not equipped to manage this situation adequately, and urgent assessment and probable inpatient treatment are necessary.
In cases where there is a risk to life, severe self-neglect, severe symptoms, or severe impairment, urgent referral is required. Taking the patient to the Emergency department may cause unnecessary delays, and the best course of action is to refer directly to psychiatry. By doing so, the patient can receive the specialist input needed for treatment and further management. It is crucial to act quickly in situations like this to ensure the patient’s safety and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department with suicidal thoughts following the end of his relationship two weeks ago. He expresses fear of being alone as his partner had always made important decisions for him, as he feels incapable of making the right choices. He has attempted to find a new partner through online dating but has been unsuccessful despite going on several dates. He discloses that he has previously been diagnosed with a personality disorder. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dependent personality disorder
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient in the question is dependent personality disorder. This personality disorder is characterized by a need for excessive reassurance from others, a tendency to seek out relationships, and a reliance on others to make major life decisions. Patients with this disorder often struggle to take care of themselves and become anxious when left to do so. They cope best when in a relationship and will urgently seek out new relationships if one fails. They tend to passively comply with the wishes of others.
Borderline personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and intense but unstable relationships with others. While patients with borderline personality disorder may fear abandonment, they do not typically seek out excessive reassurance and are able to make life decisions.
Paranoid personality disorder is another incorrect answer. Patients with this disorder are often suspicious of others, reluctant to confide in friends and family, and may be unforgiving.
Finally, narcissistic personality disorder is also an incorrect answer. Patients with this disorder have an inflated sense of self-importance, lack empathy, and often feel entitled.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to morning surgery and says she thinks she has a recurrence of depression. She has all the same symptoms as during a previous bout. You want to assess the severity of her symptoms by using a questionnaire.
Which one of the following questionnaires is validated for use in primary care?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hamilton Depression Rating Scale
Explanation:Severity Categorisation in Depression Assessment Tools
The severity of depression is an important aspect to consider when assessing and treating patients. There are several depression assessment tools that categorise severity differently. The Patient Health Questionnaire 9 (PHQ-9) categorises severity as minimal, mild, moderate, moderately severe and severe. The Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS-D) categorises depression as normal, mild, moderate and severe. Lastly, the Beck Depression Inventory II categorises severity as minimal, mild, moderate and severe. It is important for healthcare professionals to understand the severity categorisation of each tool to accurately assess and treat patients with depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his son. The son complains that his father's personality has changed completely over the past year. Even at his best, he is forgetful and ‘switched off’. At worst, he is drowsy and unresponsive. He is particularly concerned that his father has been claiming to 'see things that aren't really there'. Over the past few weeks, he has also been tripping a lot on the carpet and is no longer safe on the stairs going to his bedroom unaccompanied. The GP gave the patient a small dose of a neuroleptic which 'made things a million times worse'.
On examination, he has an inexpressive face, with a mild resting tremor and some axial rigidity. There is no other focal neurology. On mini-mental state examination, he scores 20/30.
What is the most likely primary brain pathology?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy bodies
Explanation:Understanding Lewy Body Dementia: A Comparison with Other Neurological Conditions
Lewy body dementia is a neurological condition characterized by extrapyramidal signs, visual hallucinations, and a variable symptom profile. Patients with this condition are also highly sensitive to the anticholinergic side-effects of neuroleptics. The presence of eosinophilic inclusions bodies called Lewy bodies in the limbic areas of the brain is a hallmark of this condition.
It is important to differentiate Lewy body dementia from other neurological conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Normal brain is an unlikely diagnosis given the neurological symptoms seen in patients with Lewy body dementia. Multiple infarcts in the grey matter, on the other hand, typically have a stepwise course with an acute onset and patchy cognitive impairment. Neurofibrillary tangles are characteristic of Alzheimer’s disease, which presents with early impairment of memory that evolves into more general deficits in concentration and attention. Finally, Pick bodies are associated with fronto-temporal dementias and tend to involve disinhibition as an early feature.
In summary, understanding the unique features of Lewy body dementia and its differences from other neurological conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his sister. He has been convinced that aliens are monitoring his every move for 4 months, without any history of substance abuse. He claims to have heard their voices in his head and believes that they are planning to abduct him. His sister is worried that he might harm himself and reports that he has been talking about ways to escape from the aliens. When asked directly, the patient denies having suicidal thoughts but says he will do whatever it takes to avoid being taken by the aliens. He appears to have a blunted affect but is otherwise calm.
What is the percentage of patients with this diagnosis who complete suicide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10%
Explanation:It is common for individuals with schizophrenia to make statements about doing what it takes to avoid their perceived pursuers, such as taking a cyanide pill. However, these statements may not necessarily indicate overt suicidal plans or thoughts, but rather stem from delusions. Therefore, a comprehensive assessment of their mental state and other risk factors is necessary to accurately evaluate their level of risk for suicide.
The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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At her routine check-up, a 75 year old woman is discovered to have a serum sodium level of 128 mmol/L. Despite feeling fine, she is found to have hyponatraemia. What medication is the probable culprit for her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Hyponatraemia is often associated with the use of SSRIs.
The production or action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) can be increased by many drugs, leading to hyponatraemia. Commonly implicated drugs include thiazide diuretics, SSRIs, haloperidol, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories, and carbamazepine.
SSRIs can cause the release of ADH, resulting in hyponatraemia. This side effect typically occurs within the first few weeks of treatment and resolves within two weeks of discontinuing the drug. The risk of hyponatraemia is higher in older patients and those taking diuretics in conjunction with SSRIs.
Side-Effects of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.
When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.
When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male patient who lives independently experiences recurrent episodes of enjoyable visual hallucinations without any impairment of consciousness or disorientation. He acknowledges that the hallucinations are not real. Apart from visual impairment, he is generally healthy.
What is the probable ophthalmic condition that he is suffering from?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:Patients with severe visual impairment often have coexisting CBS and may experience recurrent, persistent, or episodic visual or auditory hallucinations. The most prevalent ophthalmological condition linked to CBS is age-related macular degeneration, making it the correct answer.
While glaucoma, cataract, and other ophthalmic conditions can also cause CBS, they are less common than age-related macular degeneration.
It is crucial to understand that these hallucinations are a result of deteriorating eyesight and not indicative of an underlying psychiatric disorder.
Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.
Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.
Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.
In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You are taking a history from a 21-year-old man. He reports difficulty sleeping at night due to concerns about abusing his special powers. He claims to be able to read other people's thoughts and sometimes feels he can control their hand movements. He believes this to be true because a passage in the Bible can be translated with a special code that dictates his powers. Additionally, he reports hearing voices talking about him.
What is the SINGLE CORRECT terminology for this type of delusion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusion of reference
Explanation:Understanding Delusions: False Beliefs and Their Types
Delusions are false beliefs that individuals hold onto despite evidence to the contrary. These beliefs are often maintained by altering other beliefs to keep their entire belief system consistent. There are several types of delusions, including delusions of reference, control, paranoia, replacement, and guilt.
Delusions of reference involve the belief that something innocent in the public domain holds a special meaning for the individual. Delusions of control consist of the belief that an external force is controlling the patient, often citing electricity or radio waves as the mediator. Paranoid delusions involve the belief that people or organizations are plotting to harm or harass the patient, while delusions of replacement occur when someone in the patient’s life has been replaced by an impostor. Delusions of guilt involve feeling guilty or remorseful for no valid reason.
Understanding the different types of delusions can help individuals recognize when someone they know may be experiencing them. It is important to seek professional help if someone is experiencing delusions, as they can be a symptom of a larger mental health issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of coronary artery disease and hypertension and has, over the past week, become suspicious of her neighbours and daughter. She has accused her daughter of trying to steal her fiancé (who doesn't exist) and accused her neighbours of entering her house at night and stealing her belongings, although she is unable to state what is missing. The daughter reports that, over the previous year, the patient has become increasingly forgetful and functioned less well, to the point that she is now no longer able to cook or manage her own finances.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dementia
Explanation:Understanding Different Diagnoses in Older Adults
Dementia is a condition that affects memory, thinking, and social abilities, leading to a decline in daily functioning. Symptoms worsen gradually over time, unlike delirium, which has a sudden onset and can coexist with dementia. Late-onset schizophrenia-like psychosis may also occur in older adults, often due to underlying medical conditions. Depression is common but not present in this case. Drug-induced psychosis is a possibility with polypharmacy, but not in this patient’s case, where dementia is the likely diagnosis. Understanding these different diagnoses is crucial in providing appropriate care for older adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which antidepressant is most likely to increase the risk of arrhythmia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Cardiotoxicity of Antidepressants
Both dosulepin and venlafaxine are not recommended for patients with a high risk of arrhythmia due to their potential cardiotoxicity. However, a recent BMJ editorial suggests that venlafaxine may not be less safe than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and that limiting its use based on cardiotoxicity alone may not be appropriate. Therefore, currently, dosulepin and all other tricyclic antidepressants are considered the most concerning in terms of cardiotoxicity. It is important to exercise caution when prescribing any antidepressant to patients with a history of cardiovascular disease or other risk factors. Proper monitoring and individualized treatment plans can help minimize the risk of adverse cardiac events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A client complains of feeling ill after abruptly discontinuing paroxetine. Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of discontinuation syndrome associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:SSRI discontinuation syndrome may manifest with gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and vomiting.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are seeing a young adult patient who frequently attends the clinic and is being treated for depression. She has come today with her mother feeling low, helpless and 'lost'. Looking back at her medical records you can see that the patient has had several suicide attempts and a long history of self harm. She is known to be an impulsive person and has had problems due to this with substance misuse and personal relationships.
Her mother tells you that she has had a series of sexual relationships that have been very intense and often violent. The latest of these relationships ended a few days ago. Her mood tends to vary markedly and is quite unstable. She has been involved in physical fights on a frequent basis which she puts down to feeling angry and having a 'short fuse'.
On talking to her she has a fear of abandonment and a distorted self-image of herself. You are aware that as a child she was sexually abused by a close male family member.
Which of the following personality disorders correlate with her history and the clinical findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antisocial personality disorder
Explanation:Borderline Personality Disorder: Understanding the Challenges
Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) is a complex mental health condition that can present significant challenges in managing both the mental and physical needs of those affected. BPD is the most commonly presenting personality disorder in primary care, and it is important to recognise the signs and symptoms to provide appropriate support.
Individuals with BPD often exhibit a pervasive pattern of behaviour characterised by unstable interpersonal relationships, problems with self-image and mood, and impulsive behaviour. They may experience suicidal tendencies, self-harm, depression, and even psychotic symptoms. Patients can fluctuate rapidly between periods of confidence and complete despair, and they often show fear of abandonment and rejection.
Recognising the signs and symptoms of BPD is crucial in providing appropriate support and treatment for those affected. With the right care and management, individuals with BPD can lead fulfilling lives and achieve their full potential.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Your practice nurse brings her 14-year-old daughter to see you.
She has recently been seen by a child and adolescent psychiatrist, who has diagnosed mild to moderate depression. She is being seen again tomorrow and mother wants to talk through the treatment options with you.
What is the first line treatment for mild to moderate depression in a 14-year-old?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treatment with a tricyclic antidepressant alone
Explanation:First Line Treatment for Psychological Disorders
When it comes to treating psychological disorders, it is important to offer the right therapy as a first line treatment. According to experts, one of the following specific psychological therapies should be offered for at least three months: individual non-directive supportive therapy, group cognitive behavioural therapy, or guided self-help. However, before starting any therapy, it is recommended to wait for up to four weeks and monitor the symptoms. This is known as watchful waiting. If the symptoms persist, then one of the psychological therapies mentioned above should be offered. By following this approach, patients can receive the most effective treatment for their psychological disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to the psychiatry team with complaints of hearing voices and experiencing persecutory delusions. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and blood tests reveal that his prolactin level is within normal range but at the higher end. The team diagnoses him with schizophrenia and recommends starting him on an atypical antipsychotic. Which atypical antipsychotic would be the best choice for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Aripiprazole is the preferred first-line medication for schizophrenia due to its tolerable side effect profile and ability to lower serum prolactin levels. This is particularly beneficial for patients with borderline-high prolactin levels, as other atypical antipsychotics can cause further elevation and associated symptoms such as hirsutism, galactorrhoea, and impotence.
Clozapine is another commonly used atypical antipsychotic, but is typically reserved for patients who have not responded adequately to two other antipsychotics. It may cause drowsiness, dizziness, dry mouth, restlessness, and headache, but doesn’t usually elevate prolactin levels.
Olanzapine should be used with caution in diabetic patients due to its potential for weight gain and elevated blood sugars. Aripiprazole may be a better choice for these patients.
Sertraline, on the other hand, is not used in the treatment of schizophrenia. It is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor indicated for depressive illnesses and obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is accompanied by his father who is concerned that his son may have anorexia nervosa.
Select from the list below the single option that is a feature of this condition.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amenorrhoea
Explanation:Understanding Anorexia Nervosa: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder characterized by a fear of weight gain, relentless dietary habits, and a distorted perception of body weight and shape. To diagnose anorexia nervosa, doctors rely on a patient’s medical history and physical symptoms, such as fatigue, loss of muscle mass, and growth impairment. While secondary amenorrhea (cessation of menstruation) was once considered essential for diagnosis, it is no longer required under the DSM-5 criteria. Instead, a patient’s weight must be below 85% of predicted, or a body mass index below 17.5 kg/m2. Binge eating may also be present, leading to purging behaviors and a cycle of guilt and binging. It is important to recognize the signs of anorexia nervosa and seek professional help for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old cleaner is brought in to see you by her mother and husband because they are worried that she may commit suicide.
In recent months, the couple have lost their home due to debt and are living back home with her parents and her two young sons (aged 4 and 2). She has never attempted suicide before but has expressed fleeting suicidal thoughts, having been depressed for weeks about their current circumstances.
Which one of the following features from this history is a risk factor for suicide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Suicide Risk Factors in Depressed Patients
When managing depressed patients, clinicians should always ask about suicidal intent. It is important to have knowledge of risk factors for suicide during the assessment process. Protective factors include good family support and responsibility for children. However, there are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. These include being male, under 30 years old or advancing in age, single, living alone, having a history of substance abuse, and experiencing feelings of hopelessness. By understanding these risk factors, clinicians can better assess and manage the care of depressed patients who may be at risk for suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old male comes to your clinic expressing feelings of depression due to his belief that his wife is being unfaithful. They recently celebrated their 27th wedding anniversary and have always been devoted to each other. He is also the sole caregiver for his bedridden wife. Given this background, you question the likelihood of his accusations being accurate.
What is the medical term for delusional jealousy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Othello syndrome
Explanation:Othello syndrome is a condition characterized by delusional jealousy, where the individual believes that their partner is being unfaithful. This can be a standalone delusion or a symptom of an underlying mental health condition such as schizophrenia or a personality disorder.
Patients with Othello syndrome may become fixated on finding evidence of their partner’s infidelity, but even when no evidence is found, they remain convinced of their partner’s unfaithfulness. In extreme cases, this can lead to violent behavior.
Understanding Othello’s Syndrome
Othello’s syndrome is a condition characterized by extreme jealousy and suspicion that one’s partner is being unfaithful, even in the absence of any concrete evidence. This type of pathological jealousy can lead to socially unacceptable behavior, such as stalking, accusations, and even violence. People with Othello’s syndrome may become obsessed with their partner’s every move, constantly checking their phone, email, and social media accounts for signs of infidelity. They may also isolate themselves from friends and family, becoming increasingly paranoid and controlling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests following a recent visit to his psychiatrist. The psychiatrist has raised his dosage of lithium and requested that the GP arrange for lithium levels to be checked at the appropriate time after taking the medication. The patient took his first increased dose of lithium at 10AM (two hours ago).
When should the GP schedule the blood test to be taken?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8 hours
Explanation:Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.
Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.
Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 34
Incorrect
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You are asked to visit a 52-year-old businessman at home, following a phone call from a worried neighbour. He lives alone and has been struggling for the past six months with the collapse of his financial services business.
He saw a colleague six weeks ago and was given a prescription for citalopram 20 mg, but this was not renewed and he has not been seen since.
Upon arrival at his home you notice that the curtains were all drawn and there were dirty plates piled high behind the sofa. There are several empty cans of beer strewn across the floor but he is not intoxicated and you cannot smell alcohol on his breath.
Your patient is unshaven and dishevelled. He talked in a low, monotone voice and there was no eye contact. He attributed the collapse of his business to the direct intervention of the Prime Minister, who had been placing hidden cameras in his home. He says that he can hear the whirring of the cameras at night and has not slept for three days. He is not actively suicidal but feels that his life is pointless.
There is no family support and the neighbour who alerted you said that she did not want to get involved.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate way of managing this man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the dose of citalopram to 40 mg
Explanation:Management of Patients with Significant Mental Health Problems
In reality, the management of patients with significant mental health problems often involves a number of options – drug therapy, psychological support and psychotherapy, to name but a few.
However, when a patient lives alone, exhibits psychotic symptoms, and shows evidence of self-neglect, urgent action is required. In such cases, the mental health team should be contacted immediately for an assessment.
It is important to note that this patient has been non-compliant with previous treatment, and there is no guarantee that he would take any medication prescribed at this visit. Additionally, there are clues that he may be drinking heavily, but prescribing without additional support would be inappropriate.
Although there is no evidence of active suicidal ideation, there are a number of risk factors for suicide. Therefore, urgent involvement of the mental health team is strongly recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is currently receiving olanzapine depot injections to manage his psychotic symptoms. Prior to starting the treatment, his psychiatrist conducted a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. If the patient continues to take olanzapine in the long term, how frequently should these parameters be monitored?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annually
Explanation:Before starting a patient on antipsychotics and on an annual basis thereafter, it is recommended to conduct a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. Any other options presented in this scenario are incorrect. It is important to note that different antipsychotics may have varying monitoring requirements, and consulting the BNF is advised if unfamiliar with these drugs.
Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman presents to your morning clinic as an urgent addition. She is in tears and reports feeling very low. She has been experiencing poor sleep and loss of appetite.
In accordance with the NICE guidelines for depression in adults (CG90), which category of depression is recommended for active monitoring for up to two weeks?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mild depression
Explanation:Active Monitoring for Mild Depression
Active monitoring is a recommended approach for individuals who may recover without formal intervention, those with mild depression who do not want treatment, or those with subthreshold depressive symptoms who request an intervention. Practitioners should discuss the presenting problem(s) and any concerns the person may have about them, provide information about the nature and course of depression, and arrange a further assessment within two weeks. It is important to make contact if the person doesn’t attend follow-up appointments. This approach allows for a watchful waiting period, during which the individual’s symptoms can be monitored and evaluated for any changes or progression. By providing information and support, practitioners can help individuals make informed decisions about their mental health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old unemployed man has been seeing you for the past six months as a newly registered patient with depression. He lives alone without support.
He has suffered from depression since he was a young man, taking citalopram 20 mg for the past five months but has frequently defaulted review appointments with you. He last saw a colleague of yours as an emergency appointment eight weeks ago but did not attend follow up with you one week later as advised.
On this occasion, you have been asked to visit by a neighbour who fears that he may have died, because his curtains have been drawn for seven days and when she last saw him, through his lounge window, he looked 'absolutely awful and has lost a lot of weight'.
You phone his house, but there is no reply. You decide to visit, fearing the worst, but he finally answers the door when you shout your name through his letterbox.
On examination he appears to have lost a significant amount of weight and is unshaven. He says that he has not slept or eaten for four days and feels very depressed. He says that he doesn't feel suicidal and that he is still taking the antidepressants, but you notice that there is an unopened box of tablets on his kitchen table. His house is very unkempt.
What is the best way of managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tail off citalopram and switch to dosulepin
Explanation:Consider Inpatient Treatment for High-Risk Patients
You should consider inpatient treatment for individuals who are at a significant risk of suicide, self-harm, or self-neglect. According to the NICE guidance on Depression in adults (CG90), inpatient treatment should be considered for those who are at high risk.
In this case, the patient is showing signs of self-neglect and has little social support. He has missed appointments and may not be taking his medication as prescribed. These factors increase the risk of suicide, although this has not been explicitly stated in the patient’s history.
Changing the patient’s medication may not be appropriate since there is no guarantee that he will comply. Asking a neighbor to check on him may provide some support, but it may not be enough.
Given the available information, the most appropriate course of action would be to consider emergency admission by contacting the mental health team. This will ensure that the patient receives the necessary care and support to manage his risk of self-harm or suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man who works as a software engineer has recently been terminated by his supervisor, citing missed deadlines and a decline in the quality of his work. He disputes this and claims that his supervisor has always had a personal vendetta against him.
He has confided in his family and close friends, but despite their reassurances, he remains convinced that some of his colleagues were colluding with his supervisor to oust him.
During his mental health evaluation, he appears to be generally stable, except for his fixation on his supervisor and coworkers conspiring against him. His family reports that he is easily offended and tends to have a paranoid outlook.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paranoid personality disorder
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of paranoid personality disorder. She appears to be highly sensitive and holds grudges when insulted, while also questioning the loyalty of those around her and being hesitant to confide in others. Her family has also noted her tendency towards paranoia. Borderline personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder, and schizophrenia are unlikely diagnoses as they present with different symptoms.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 39
Incorrect
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You receive a letter from the consultant psychiatrist about one of your elderly patients. The psychiatrist advises that the patient has bipolar disorder and should be started on lithium carbonate.
Assuming the patient is otherwise fit and well, which one of the following is correct in terms of monitoring when on lithium?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:To ensure safe use of lithium therapy, the BNF recommends regular monitoring of various parameters. This includes checking body-weight or BMI, serum electrolytes, eGFR, and thyroid function every 6 months. In particular, thyroid function should be monitored more frequently if there is any indication of deterioration. Similarly, renal function should be assessed at baseline and then every 6 months, with more frequent monitoring if there are any signs of decline or if the patient is taking medications such as ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, or diuretics that increase the risk of renal impairment.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.
Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.
Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has been divorced for five years and now lives alone. He has a history of chronic back pain. He has been fully investigated and he has lumbar spondylosis. He becomes very emotional during a medication review consultation. The General Practitioner wants to screen for depression.
According to current National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance, what would be most appropriate to ask about as an initial part of this screening process?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Having little interest or pleasure in doing things
Explanation:Identifying and Assessing Depression in Patients with Chronic Diseases
Depression is more common in patients with chronic diseases than in those with good health. To identify depression in patients, doctors should be alert to possible symptoms and consider asking two screening questions recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE): During the last month, have you often been bothered by feeling down, depressed or hopeless? and During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things? If a patient answers ‘yes’ to either question, further questions should be asked to improve the accuracy of the assessment of depression. These questions should include exploring thoughts of death, feelings of worthlessness, inability to sleep, and poor concentration. By identifying and assessing depression in patients with chronic diseases, healthcare providers can provide appropriate treatment and support to improve their overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is being discharged on lithium at a dose of 400 mg daily after a prolonged period of inpatient treatment. You receive a discharge summary requesting that you continue her blood monitoring in primary care as long term lithium treatment is planned.
What would be the most suitable monitoring regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measure renal function or thyroid function only if clinically indicated (for example, if intercurrent infection/dehydration or symptoms of hypothyroidism develop)
Explanation:Lithium Monitoring
Lithium is a medication with a narrow therapeutic index, which means that it requires close monitoring. The dosage is adjusted to achieve a serum lithium concentration of 0.4-1 mmol/L. Lithium toxicity can cause symptoms such as blurred vision, ataxia, coarse tremor, nystagmus, dysarthria, and gastrointestinal disturbance (vomiting and diarrhea). Severe toxicity can lead to convulsions, renal failure, and circulatory failure. Therefore, serum lithium levels should be measured every three months on stabilised regimens.
Renal failure and hypothyroidism are potential side effects of lithium use. As such, renal and thyroid function should be measured six monthly on stabilised regimens. Patients should be informed of the symptoms of hypothyroidism and advised to seek medical review if these symptoms develop. It is also important to note that lithium should be prescribed by brand rather than generically because different lithium preparations vary widely in their bioavailability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A teenage female patient has come to see the GP with concerns about her recent experiences.
After a traumatic sexual assault that occurred a year ago, the patient has been having episodes where she feels like she is reliving the event. These episodes are triggered by certain features associated with the assault and are causing her significant distress. She is finding it difficult to cope with these episodes, and they are starting to affect her daily life and mood.
What is the best way to describe this experience?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudohallucination
Explanation:Flashbacks experienced in PTSD can be classified as pseudohallucinations, which are a type of involuntary sensory experience that can be vivid enough to be mistaken for a hallucination, but are considered subjective and unreal. While severe depression can sometimes present with psychotic features, the patient’s intermittent symptoms and primary complaint of low mood do not fit the typical picture of depression. Elemental hallucinations, which are simple and unstructured sounds, and delusions, which are unshakeable false beliefs, are more commonly associated with psychosis.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.
Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity and impulsivity. There is no history of substance abuse, general medical problems, emotional stresses or depressive episodes. Laboratory tests for liver and thyroid functions are normal. Mental status examination reveals a well-oriented woman with pressured speech and mood lability, but no psychotic symptoms.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypomania
Explanation:Understanding Hypomania and Antisocial Personality Disorder
Hypomania is a mood disorder characterized by an elevated and euphoric mood, increased activity, decreased need for sleep, and impaired judgement. It is a feature of bipolar disorder 2 and cyclothymia, and can also occur in drug-induced mood disorders. Antisocial personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by a disregard for and violation of others’ rights since age 15, and typically presents in adulthood. It is important to distinguish between these two disorders, as they have different diagnostic criteria and treatment approaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man presents with a 4-year history of severe itching and sores containing 'white fibers' which he claims are living 'bugs'. He is in good health and doesn't take any regular medication. Upon examination, there are well-defined, scooped-out clean ulcerations with occasional white filaments, some hypopigmented patches, and extensive chronic excoriations. There is sparing between the scapula. Despite numerous dermatology and infectious disease outpatient investigations and treatments, no cause has been found, and symptoms have not improved.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusional parasitosis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing delusional parasitosis, which is a fixed false belief that they are infested with ‘bugs’. This is consistent with the symptoms of ‘Morgellons’, which is a form of delusional parasitosis. The reported fibers or materials are often found to be common household or clothing materials, and the skin lesions are likely caused by repetitive picking. The hypopigmented patches are healed lesions, and the area between the scapula is spared, indicating that the patient is unable to reach that area and no lesions were found there. This is not indicative of body dysmorphic disorder, conversion disorder, or somatic symptom disorder.
Understanding Delusional Parasitosis
Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly seen, but it can be quite distressing for those who experience it. Essentially, it involves a person having a false belief that they are infested with some kind of bug or parasite, such as worms, mites, or bacteria. This belief is fixed and unshakeable, even in the face of evidence to the contrary.
It is important to note that delusional parasitosis can occur on its own, but it may also be a symptom of other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, many people with this condition are otherwise functional and able to carry out their daily activities. However, the belief can cause significant anxiety and distress, and may lead to behaviors such as excessive cleaning or avoidance of certain places or activities. Treatment for delusional parasitosis typically involves a combination of medication and therapy to address the underlying psychiatric condition and help the person manage their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled with fluoxetine, has started to suffer from anxiety, loss of interest and reduced appetite. She also complains of insomnia.
She claims that she is taking her medications regularly according to prescription. You conclude that her depression has not responded to treatment.
What will be the most appropriate management for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to another SSRI
Explanation:Treatment for Non-Responsive Depression
When a patient fails to respond to fluoxetine, which is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), it is recommended to switch to another SSRI first. If this doesn’t work, the NICE update on depression (2010) suggests trying a newer generation antidepressant that is better tolerated. It is important to find the right medication for each individual patient, as depression can have a significant impact on their quality of life. Therefore, healthcare professionals should closely monitor patients and adjust their treatment plan accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his doctor with worries that his spouse is cheating on him. Despite lacking any concrete evidence, he seems extremely agitated and convinced of his suspicions. What could this symptom indicate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Othello's syndrome
Explanation:Erotomania, also known as De Clérambault’s syndrome, is a type of delusion where the patient firmly believes that another person is deeply in love with them.
Understanding Othello’s Syndrome
Othello’s syndrome is a condition characterized by extreme jealousy and suspicion that one’s partner is being unfaithful, even in the absence of any concrete evidence. This type of pathological jealousy can lead to socially unacceptable behavior, such as stalking, accusations, and even violence. People with Othello’s syndrome may become obsessed with their partner’s every move, constantly checking their phone, email, and social media accounts for signs of infidelity. They may also isolate themselves from friends and family, becoming increasingly paranoid and controlling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is brought to your office by her brother. He is concerned about her lack of close friends and her eccentric behavior, speech, and beliefs. The patient believes she has psychic abilities and is fascinated with the paranormal. Her brother reports that she has displayed these behaviors since childhood, but he is only seeking help now as he is moving to another state and worries about leaving her alone with their parents.
What personality disorder could be present in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder
Explanation:Individuals with schizotypal personality disorder exhibit peculiar behavior, speech, and beliefs and typically do not have any close friends outside of their family.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male presents to general practice for an annual general check-up. He has no particular complaints and on examination, no abnormalities were found.
You check the blood test results which were sent by the nurse prior to the appointment:
Na+ 132 mmol/l
K+ 3.5 mmol/l
Urea 4 mmol/l
Creatinine 90 µmol/l
You decide to review his medications.
Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused his electrolyte abnormality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:SSRIs like sertraline are linked to hyponatraemia, while aspirin and bisoprolol are not commonly associated with it. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with hyperkalaemia.
Side-Effects of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.
When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.
When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is taking fluoxetine 20 mg daily for moderately severe depression. She has taken the drug for 2 months and is feeling much better. She now wishes to stop the drug.
Select from the list the single most correct management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise continuing fluoxetine 20 mg daily for a further 6 months
Explanation:Preventing Relapse of Depression: The Importance of Continued Treatment
Depression is a serious mental health condition that can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life. While antidepressant treatment can be effective in managing symptoms, it’s important to continue treatment even after recovery to prevent relapse.
Research has shown that a single episode of depression should be treated for at least 6 months after recovery to reduce the risk of relapse. In fact, if antidepressant treatment is stopped immediately on recovery, 50% of patients will experience a relapse of their depressive symptoms.
To prevent relapse, adults should receive the same dose of medication is used for acute treatment. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dosage and duration of treatment. Once the patient has recovered, the medication should be tapered off over a few weeks to avoid any potential withdrawal symptoms.
In conclusion, continued treatment is crucial in preventing relapse of depression. By following the recommended guidelines and working closely with a healthcare provider, individuals can manage their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female comes to see you with her mother. Her mother is concerned about her daughter's lack of self-confidence and lack of friends.
You talk with the daughter who tells you that she is worried about her weight and feels that she needs to lose weight to be more attractive. She feels that she needs to lose at least another 2 stones for her 'ideal' body weight. Her mother tells you that she is pre-occupied with her eating habits and this has been a persistent problem for a 'long time'. You weigh her and her body mass index is 23.
On clinical examination you note skin abrasions and some callous formation on the dorsum of her hands overlying the metacarpophalangeal joints and the presence of some dental erosion affecting the teeth.
What is the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Substance misuse
Explanation:Bulimia Nervosa: Characteristics and Physical Signs
Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by persistent preoccupation with eating, cravings for food that cannot be resisted, episodes of binge eating, and compensatory methods to counter the effects of food on body weight and shape. Unlike anorexia nervosa, body weight may be normal with bulimia. Physical signs of bulimia include arrhythmias, electrolyte abnormalities, upper GI erosions, ulcers, and dental erosions. Russell’s sign, skin abrasions, lacerations, and calluses overlying the dorsal aspect of the small joints of the hands, is a clinical sign caused by repetitive friction between the teeth and skin when sufferers use their fingers/hand to self-induce vomiting. Bulimia is often associated with other psychiatric comorbidities such as depression and alcohol/substance misuse. This behavior is not normal adolescent behavior as it is persistent and causing significant psychological symptoms and demonstrable physical signs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female presents after her partner encouraged her to see the GP. She has had hyperarousal to loud noises and difficulty concentrating at work following a car accident 4 weeks ago. Her partner did some reading online and feels she is suffering from an acute stress disorder. You advise her that she has post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and discuss treatment options. She asks what the difference is, so that she can explain it to her partner. You advise there are similarities in the presentation and the main difference is temporal.
At what point after the event can you confirm a diagnosis of PTSD?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:Acute stress disorder is characterized by an acute stress reaction that occurs within 4 weeks of a traumatic event, while PTSD is diagnosed after 4 weeks have passed. Symptoms presented at 2 weeks would indicate acute stress disorder. PTSD and acute stress disorder share similar symptoms, including re-experiencing, avoidance, hyperarousal, and emotional numbing. Re-experiencing symptoms may include flashbacks, nightmares, and intrusive images, while avoidance symptoms may involve avoiding people, situations, or circumstances associated with the traumatic event. Hyperarousal symptoms may include hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response, sleep disturbances, irritability, and difficulty concentrating. Emotional numbing may manifest as a lack of ability to experience feelings or feeling detached.
Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.
The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old teacher presents in a routine GP appointment feeling like everything is falling apart. Despite never taking a day off work, the patient is struggling to keep it together. The patient's spouse has noticed an increase in cleaning around the house, and the patient becomes easily irritated with others' inability to meet their personal standards. The patient has a history of perfectionism and avoids spending money on unnecessary items.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality
Explanation:Individuals who exhibit obsessive-compulsive personality traits tend to be inflexible when it comes to their principles, beliefs, and standards, and frequently exhibit hesitancy in delegating tasks to others.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her recent blood test results. She reports feeling unwell for the past month, experiencing rapid heart rate, hot flashes, and tremors. She also notes sweating and an inability to sit still during these episodes. She reports that these symptoms began after an episode of shingles. Thyroid function tests, full blood count, fasting glucose, and renal function are all normal. On examination, she appears slightly agitated with a pulse of 98 bpm and blood pressure of 155/98. She has a history of severe depression, which has been in remission for two months, and post-herpetic neuralgia. She denies alcohol use and has never had elevated blood pressure in the past. Her current medications include Sertraline 200 mg, Gaviscon as needed, topical ibuprofen cream for osteoarthritis, paracetamol for osteoarthritis, and carbamazepine 100 mg four times daily for post-herpetic neuralgia. How would you manage this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer her to a neurologist
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest serotonin syndrome, which can be caused by excessive stimulation of serotonergic receptors due to interactions or overdosage of serotonergic drugs. The offending drug in this case is carbamazepine, which should be withdrawn. Other drugs that can interact with SSRIs include lithium, triptans, codeine, and St John’s wort. It is not appropriate to withdraw the patient’s Sertraline or prescribe nifedipine for her mildly elevated blood pressure. There is no basis for stopping the paracetamol. Referring to a neurologist or repeating her thyroid function is also not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman with a long history of depression is brought to see you by his neighbour. He is distressed and tells you that he feels he has nothing to live for. He is single and is recently unemployed. His neighbour happened to call to his house earlier and found him in a 'terrible state' and persuaded him to come to the clinic. He shows you a suicide note he wrote earlier today and says that he feels his life is hopeless and that he has no reason to live. He tells you that he has been feeling increasingly low over the last few months and today has been at home all day drinking whiskey alone. He also tells you that last week he went to see his solicitor and made a will leaving his possessions to his niece. Which of the following factors suggests the greatest risk of suicidal intent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He visited his solicitor last week and made a will
Explanation:Assessing Suicide Risk in Patients:
Assessing the risk of suicide in a patient can be a challenging task. However, a sensitive and thorough enquiry into the details can help in identifying and managing the risk. It is crucial to ask all patients who present with low mood or anxiety about suicidal thoughts.
In this case, the patient has consumed large quantities of alcohol, which may affect his impulsivity but is not a reliable indicator of current or future intent. The patient’s unemployment, unmarried status, and living alone are important considerations as they indicate a lack of social support and potential financial difficulties.
The presence of a suicide note would show a certain amount of forethought and is a marker of serious intent and ongoing risk. It is important to determine whether the note was written under the influence of alcohol or not. Either way, it demonstrates significant persistent consideration of suicide.
However, the most critical sign of suicidal intent is that the patient visited his solicitor last week to put his affairs in order. This act shows considerable planning far in advance and demonstrates the highest risk of suicide. It is not impulsive or acutely reactive but measured and requires arrangement and planning.
Sources such as the Oxford Centre for Suicide Research and the Royal College of Psychiatrists provide guidance on assessing suicide risk using structured professional judgement. By conducting a sensitive and thorough enquiry, healthcare professionals can identify and manage the risk of suicide in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old male presents with persistent fatigue, myalgia, poor concentration and irritability following a flu like illness 18 months previously.
A diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is made.
What is the appropriate initial management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psychoanalysis
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment of Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a debilitating condition that affects many individuals. To receive a diagnosis of CFS, a patient must have severe chronic fatigue lasting four months or longer (three months in children or young people) and have other medical conditions excluded by clinical diagnosis. Additionally, they must have four or more of the following symptoms: impaired memory or concentration, sore throat, tender lymph nodes, muscle pain, joint pain without swelling or redness, headaches, unrefreshing sleep, or post-exertional malaise lasting more than 24 hours.
For those with mild or moderate CFS, cognitive behavioral therapy and/or graded exercise therapy should be offered and provided to those who choose these approaches. These interventions have the clearest research evidence of benefit. Other treatment options have not been shown to be effective in treating CFS. It is important for individuals with CFS to work with their healthcare provider to find the best treatment plan for their specific needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A patient in their early twenties reports experiencing auditory hallucinations of a simple and unstructured whistling tune, occurring when they are alone. How would you best describe this hallucination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elementary hallucinations
Explanation:There are various types of hallucinations, including elementary, reflex, autoscopic, first person auditory, and haptic. Elementary hallucinations are basic sounds like buzzing or whistling. Reflex hallucinations occur when a sensory stimulus in one modality triggers a hallucination in another. Autoscopic hallucinations involve seeing oneself in external space. First person auditory hallucinations involve hearing one’s own thoughts aloud. Haptic or tactile hallucinations involve feeling sensations like being touched, pricked, or pinched, and may include formication, which is the sensation of insects crawling on the skin and can be associated with long-term cocaine use or alcohol withdrawal.
Schizophrenia: Symptoms and Features
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by a range of symptoms. One of the most prominent classifications of these symptoms is Schneider’s first rank symptoms. These symptoms can be divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can include thought insertion, thought withdrawal, and thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or experiences that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions can involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.
Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that not all individuals with schizophrenia will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity of symptoms can vary from person to person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behavior. Her husband reports that the changes have occurred mostly in the past week and he has never seen this behavior before. He often wakes up to find her walking around the house and talking to people who are not there. During the consultation, the patient appears distracted and occasionally smiles and waves at the wall behind the doctor. There is no history of psychiatric illness in the patient or her family. The patient doesn't seem distressed and politely asks if she can leave as she believes the appointment is a waste of time.
The patient takes loratadine 10 mg once daily for hay-fever, salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma, and has recently started a combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception. She is also taking a course of prednisolone tablets following a recent exacerbation of her asthma.
Which medication is most likely responsible for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:When a person experiences sudden onset psychosis after taking corticosteroids, it is important to consider the possibility of steroid-induced psychosis. Although both the beclomethasone inhaler and prednisolone are corticosteroids, the higher dose of prednisolone makes it the more likely culprit for the patient’s symptoms.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 58
Incorrect
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Olivia is a 27 year old who comes to you with symptoms of severe obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD). As per NICE guidelines, what is the recommended first line pharmacological treatment for OCD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:According to the 2005 NICE Guidance on the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder and body dysmorphic disorder, adults with OCD should be prescribed one of the following SSRIs as their first pharmacological treatment: fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline, or citalopram.
Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that affects 1 to 3% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of obsessions, which are unwanted intrusive thoughts, images, or urges, and compulsions, which are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform. These symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and distress.
Risk factors for OCD include a family history of the condition, age (with peak onset between 10-20 years), pregnancy/postnatal period, and a history of abuse, bullying, or neglect.
The management of OCD involves classifying the level of impairment as mild, moderate, or severe using the Y-BOCS scale. For mild impairment, low-intensity psychological treatments such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP) are recommended. If this is insufficient, a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) can be offered. For moderate impairment, a choice of either an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) is recommended, with clomipramine as an alternative first-line drug treatment to an SSRI if necessary. For severe impairment, referral to the secondary care mental health team for assessment is necessary, with combined treatment of an SSRI and CBT (including ERP) or clomipramine as an alternative while awaiting assessment.
ERP is a psychological method that involves exposing a patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. This helps them confront their anxiety, leading to the eventual extinction of the response. Treatment with an SSRI should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement. Compared to depression, the SSRI usually requires a higher dose and a longer duration of treatment (at least 12 weeks) for an initial response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male is admitted to the acute medical unit after a paracetamol overdose. He later admits to multiple episodes of impulsive self-harm and overdoses. He reports that his recent overdose was triggered by a fight with his mom and concerns that she will no longer want to see him. He describes long-standing feelings of emptiness and doesn't like the way he looks.
What is the most probable personality disorder underlying this behavior?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient described is borderline personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, fear of abandonment, and unstable self-image. Patients often experience feelings of emptiness and engage in self-harm. Childhood trauma or abuse is often associated with the development of this disorder.
Narcissistic personality disorder is not the correct diagnosis. This disorder is characterized by an exaggerated sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and entitlement.
Paranoid personality disorder is also not the correct diagnosis. Patients with this disorder are suspicious of others and may see hidden meanings in things or believe in conspiracy theories.
Dependent personality disorder is not the correct diagnosis either. Patients with this disorder struggle to make decisions and require reassurance and support from others. They fear being alone and cope best in relationships. However, there is no evidence of this in the patient described.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man complains of ongoing fatigue over the last 10 months. What is the least indicative feature for a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Having a busy day improves the symptoms
Explanation:The symptoms typically worsen with physical or mental exertion.
Understanding Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
Chronic fatigue syndrome is a condition that is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue that affects mental and physical function more than 50% of the time, in the absence of other diseases that may explain the symptoms. It is more common in females, and past psychiatric history has not been shown to be a risk factor. Fatigue is the central feature of this condition, and other recognized features include sleep problems, muscle and/or joint pains, headaches, painful lymph nodes without enlargement, sore throat, cognitive dysfunction, physical or mental exertion that makes symptoms worse, general malaise or ‘flu-like’ symptoms, dizziness, nausea, and palpitations.
To diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome, a large number of screening blood tests are carried out to exclude other pathology, such as FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, TFT, ESR, CRP, calcium, CK, ferritin*, coeliac screening, and urinalysis. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, which is very effective, with a number needed to treat of 2. Graded exercise therapy is also recommended, which is a formal supervised program, not advice to go to the gym. ‘Pacing’ is another management technique, which involves organizing activities to avoid tiring. Low-dose amitriptyline may be useful for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic is recommended if pain is a predominant feature. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the General Practice Surgery by his father with a 3-month history of nocturnal enuresis. On examination, there is bruising on his inner thigh. On further questioning, his father is unable to explain why the boy has bruises and also mentions that teachers have raised concerns about inappropriate sexual behaviour towards classmates.
Which is the single most appropriate intervention?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contact the local children’s Social Care Team
Explanation:Appropriate Actions for Child Welfare Concerns
When dealing with concerns about a child’s welfare, it is important to take appropriate actions to ensure their safety and wellbeing. Here are some scenarios and the recommended actions:
Actions for Child Welfare Concerns
1. Contact the local children’s Social Care Team if there are unexplained bruises on a child’s inner thigh and inappropriate sexual behavior. This could indicate sexual abuse, and an urgent referral to Social Services is necessary.
2. Refer to the specialist Continence Service if a child has bladder and bowel problems that are not resolved by behavioral strategies. This service offers assessment, treatment, advice, and support.
3. Arrange a meeting with the child’s teacher to improve communication between all services. However, if there are concerns about sexual abuse, this will be handled by the police and Social Services.
4. Prescribe desmopressin for nocturnal enuresis only after addressing concerns about sexual abuse. Behavioral strategies are the first line of treatment for this condition.
5. Refer to the school nurse for support with nocturnal enuresis only after addressing concerns about sexual abuse. School nurses are specialists in improving the health and wellbeing of school-aged children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old nursing student comes to you with a 2-year history of low mood, anhedonia, and poor concentration. She has been taking fluoxetine for 6 months and wants to switch to a different antidepressant. What important factors do you need to consider when changing her medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Long half-life
Explanation:Compared to other SSRIs, fluoxetine has a longer half-life. Therefore, it is recommended to wait for about 4-7 days after discontinuing fluoxetine before starting a new antidepressant. Although fluoxetine undergoes first-pass metabolism and is excreted through the kidneys, this doesn’t affect the process of switching to another antidepressant. Instead, it may impact the appropriateness of fluoxetine for a specific patient.
Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants
When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.
Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old lady who you have looked after during her recent breast cancer diagnosis and treatment comes to see you one year after undergoing a total mastectomy followed by chemotherapy and radiotherapy.
Her disease is now in remission and she is taking tamoxifen. She has a history of a perforated duodenal ulcer and has had bouts of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. She complains of feeling very tearful and low in mood, and feels traumatised by her experiences. She is also having some chest wall neuropathic type pain, probably due to the radiotherapy. A PHQ9 depression questionnaire confirms that she is suffering from moderately severe depression.
Which of the following would be most appropriate to treat her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amitriptylline
Explanation:Treatment for Depression in a Patient with Previous Medical History
When treating a patient with depression who has a previous medical history, it is important to consider potential drug interactions and contraindications. In the case of a patient with a history of gastric bleeding and atrial fibrillation, SSRIs and tricyclic antidepressants should be avoided due to their associated risks. Fluoxetine should also not be prescribed as it reduces the efficacy of tamoxifen.
Instead, the best course of action would be to offer an antidepressant and a high-intensity psychological intervention. This approach addresses the patient’s mood problems stemming from her experiences during diagnosis and treatment, while also avoiding potential harm from medication. It is important to note that using amitriptyline for neuropathic pain in this case would be off license and carries a higher risk of arrhythmias.
In summary, when treating depression in a patient with a previous medical history, it is crucial to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of medication options and to include psychological intervention as part of the treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 64
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is diagnosed with colon cancer. Unfortunately by the time he is diagnosed it has spread to the liver.
The oncologist feels that palliative care is best in this situation and the patient is started on painkillers and other treatments to relieve his symptoms. He has a past history of osteoarthritis and bipolar disorder and takes lithium for this.
He comes to you a few weeks later with a range of symptoms that he thinks may be side effects of lithium. His lithium levels are within the therapeutic range.
Which of the following is most likely to be a side effect of lithium?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:Lithium Side Effects
A common side effect of lithium is a fine tremor, which can occur even when lithium levels are within the therapeutic range. However, a coarse tremor suggests that lithium levels are toxic. It is important to monitor lithium levels regularly to avoid toxicity. While tinnitus is not a side effect of lithium, vertigo can occur. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. Proper monitoring and management can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure the safe and effective use of lithium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man lives alone. His neighbours have been increasingly concerned about rubbish piling up inside his flat and sometimes he isn't seen for days. His family tell you that over the last year he has become very odd and isolated. On examination, he is withdrawn and quiet and you find it difficult to understand his answers as he frequently wanders off the point, as if he is answering a different question. Although spontaneous movements are reduced, there are no neurological signs and he is not on any medication, prescribed or illicit. His mother and two older brothers have both had episodes of major depression.
Select from the list of options the single feature that would suggest a possible favourable outcome from this episode.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Family history of depression
Explanation:Understanding Schizophrenia: Symptoms, Predictors of Outcome, and Prevalence
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder characterized by a range of symptoms, including positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, and negative symptoms such as asocial behavior, reduced spontaneous movements, and disorganized speech. In this case, the individual exhibits mainly negative symptomatology, indicating a poor prognosis.
Several factors can predict the outcome of schizophrenia. Young age, insidious onset, poor premorbid social function, negative symptomatology, neurological signs, no recognized precipitating factor, and family history of schizophrenia are all associated with a poor outcome. On the other hand, older age, acute onset, recognizable precipitant, good premorbid social function, being married, prominent mood disorder, family history of mood disorder, and positive symptomatology are associated with a better outcome.
The overall prevalence of schizophrenia is 1% in all populations, and only 10-20% of patients will make a full recovery from one episode. It is important to understand the symptoms, predictors of outcome, and prevalence of schizophrenia to provide appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is constantly in trouble at school. She will not sit still and be quiet or get on with her work. She is equally troublesome at home and her mother cannot take her anywhere. She wonders if she has attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Select from the list the single correct statement about ADHD.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Some impairment from symptoms must be evident in two or more settings
Explanation:Understanding ADHD: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Comorbidities
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that is more severe than what is typically observed in individuals at a comparable level of development. In the UK, ADHD affects between 2-5% of children, with boys being more commonly affected. Diagnosis is usually made in children aged 3-7 years, but it can also be recognized later in life.
To diagnose ADHD, symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity and/or inattention should be present. However, the ICD-10 classification requires all three problems of attention, hyperactivity, and impulsiveness to be present. About 70% of children with ADHD also have other conditions, such as learning difficulties, dyspraxia, Gilles de la Tourette syndrome, or tic disorder. Oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder is present in most children with ADHD, and depression and anxiety are common comorbidities.
While about 1 in 3 children with ADHD can grow out of their condition and not require any treatment when they are adults, the remainder either continue with ADHD or retain some symptoms and functional impairment. Therefore, early diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to improve outcomes for individuals with ADHD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. Her spouse reports that she had a disagreement with their daughter, causing her to leave the house. Following this incident, she has been unable to speak. Physical examination of her chest and throat reveals no abnormalities. What is the most appropriate term to describe this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psychogenic aphonia
Explanation:Understanding Aphonia: The Inability to Speak
Aphonia is a medical condition that refers to the inability to speak. It can be caused by various factors, including recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, which can occur after a thyroidectomy. In this case, the nerve that controls the vocal cords is damaged, leading to difficulty in speaking.
Another cause of aphonia is psychogenic, which means that it is related to psychological factors. This can include anxiety, depression, or other mental health conditions that affect the ability to communicate verbally.
It is important to note that aphonia is different from mutism, which is the inability to speak due to a physical or neurological condition. In contrast, aphonia is typically a temporary condition that can be treated with appropriate medical or psychological interventions.
Overall, understanding aphonia is crucial for identifying and addressing the underlying causes of this condition. Whether it is related to a physical or psychological issue, seeking medical attention can help individuals regain their ability to speak and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man states he has special powers that allow him to know what other people are thinking. He also believes he is related to the Royal family. He has been overactive, elated in mood and not sleeping.
Select from the list the term that best describes his delusions.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grandiose delusions
Explanation:Understanding Delusions: Types and Associated Mental Illnesses
Delusions are false beliefs that persist despite evidence to the contrary and are not accepted by others in the person’s culture or subculture. There are various types of delusions, each associated with different mental illnesses.
Grandiose delusions are beliefs of exaggerated importance and are often seen in mania. Nihilistic delusions involve a persistent denial of the existence of things or everything, including oneself, and are common in schizophrenia. Delusions of guilt are found in depressive illnesses, while delusions of reference are seen in schizophrenia and mania.
Persecutory delusions involve the belief that the person or someone close to them is being mistreated or spied on, and are common in schizophrenia, depression, and organic mental states. Understanding the different types of delusions and their associated mental illnesses can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 69
Incorrect
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You are caring for a 34-year-old female patient on the ward when you start to feel uneasy about her behavior towards you. She has been making sexually suggestive remarks and during your last check, she was wearing provocative lingerie. She frequently causes disturbances on the ward and is easily influenced by other patients. Your consultant advises you to refrain from seeing the patient alone and informs you that the patient has a personality disorder.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Histrionic personality disorder
Explanation:Histrionic personality disorder is a condition where individuals have a strong desire to be the center of attention, often displaying inappropriate sexual behavior or dress and being easily influenced by others. They may form intense relationships, but may also misinterpret the level of intimacy in these relationships.
Schizoid personality disorder is unlikely in this case as individuals with this condition typically lack interest in sexual interactions and prefer to be alone rather than forming close friendships.
Schizotypal personality disorder may involve odd or eccentric beliefs or behavior, but individuals with this condition often struggle to form friendships and may be paranoid or suspicious, making it less likely to be the correct diagnosis for this patient.
Antisocial personality disorder involves a disregard for social norms and lawful behavior, often resulting in multiple arrests. These individuals can be aggressive and deceitful, but this doesn’t match the behavior of the patient in the stem.
Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and recurrent self-harm attempts. Like histrionic personality disorder, individuals with borderline personality disorder may form intense relationships, but these relationships are often unstable.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presented with a paranoid psychosis accompanied by visual hallucinations which resolved over the next three days.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diazepam dependence
Explanation:Understanding Alcohol Withdrawal and Hallucinations
The key points in the history are that the patient is experiencing visual hallucinations that resolve over 72 hours. Based on the given options, alcohol withdrawal is the most likely cause, especially since the patient also has paranoid psychosis. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically appear 6-12 hours after cessation and include insomnia, tremors, anxiety, and nausea, among others. Alcoholic hallucinosis can also occur, which includes visual, auditory, and tactile hallucinations. Withdrawal seizures and delirium tremens can also occur, with the latter having a mortality rate of approximately 35% without treatment. It’s important to note that benzodiazepines can cause a protracted withdrawal syndrome, while fluoxetine overdose, heroin withdrawal, and cannabis use have their own distinct symptoms and effects. Understanding the signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal and hallucinations can help in proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to you with a history of multiple recurrent and frequently changing symptoms that are 'functional' in nature (somatisation disorder).
Which of the following statements regarding her management is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be persuaded to understand that her symptoms are psychological
Explanation:Understanding Somatisation Disorder
Somatisation disorder is a complex condition that has been frequently asked about in previous examinations. It is important to note that knowledge of early childhood experiences is not necessary for diagnosis. However, depression is often found in individuals with somatisation disorder, making antidepressants a useful treatment option. In addition, involving relatives in the management of the disorder can be beneficial. It is important to approach management with empathy rather than persuasion. Understanding the complexities of somatisation disorder is crucial for effective treatment and management.
Spacing:
Somatisation disorder is a complex condition that has been frequently asked about in previous examinations. It is important to note that knowledge of early childhood experiences is not necessary for diagnosis. However, depression is often found in individuals with somatisation disorder, making antidepressants a useful treatment option.
In addition, involving relatives in the management of the disorder can be beneficial. It is important to approach management with empathy rather than persuasion. Understanding the complexities of somatisation disorder is crucial for effective treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male is admitted after taking an overdose.
Which single feature best suggests a high risk of future suicide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ingestion of alcohol with the overdose drug
Explanation:Factors indicating high risk of suicide
The effort to conceal an overdose suggests a serious intent to complete suicide, which is a significant factor indicating a high risk of suicide. However, previous history of overdoses doesn’t necessarily imply a more serious intent. Other factors that may suggest a more sinister intent include being male, elderly, and having a mental illness.
Protective factors, such as religious beliefs and social support, can reduce the risk of suicide. Additionally, being responsible for children is also a protective factor. However, when assessing a patient’s risk of suicide, it is important to focus on factors that suggest a high risk, rather than protective factors.
In conclusion, when presented with a patient who may be at risk of suicide, it is crucial to consider the effort to conceal an overdose and other factors such as age, gender, and mental health history. While protective factors such as social support and religious beliefs are important, they should not distract from the assessment of high-risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with a range of physical symptoms that have been ongoing for the past 7 years. Despite multiple investigations and consultations with various specialists, no organic cause has been found for his symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder
Explanation:The appropriate diagnosis for a patient who is experiencing persistent, unexplained symptoms is somatisation disorder, as they are primarily concerned with the symptoms rather than a specific underlying diagnosis like cancer (which would be indicative of hypochondria). It is important to note that intentional production of symptoms, such as self-poisoning, would fall under the category of Munchausen’s syndrome.
Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry
In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is brought by her partner because she has threatened suicide. She has come home suddenly from work because she feels abandoned by her colleagues (who she was previously very close with), having made a mistake in a project. She has been going out regularly to bars drinking and has been quite promiscuous, behaving in a risky way with little care for her own safety and her money. She admits to being intermittently depressed.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Borderline Personality Disorder: Symptoms and Criteria
Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) is a mental health condition that is characterized by a pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and emotions. To be diagnosed with BPD, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following symptoms:
1. Frantic efforts to avoid abandonment.
2. Unstable and intense interpersonal relationships.
3. Markedly and persistently unstable self-image.
4. Impulsivity in at least two areas that are risky, such as sex, substance abuse or reckless driving.
5. Recurrent threats of suicide or self-harm.
6. Mood instability.
7. Feelings of emptiness.
8. Inappropriate and intense anger.
9. Transient paranoia or dissociation (detachment).It is important to note that these symptoms must be persistent and pervasive, causing significant distress and impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning. If you or someone you know is experiencing these symptoms, it is important to seek professional help.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 75
Incorrect
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The risk of developing bipolar disorder if one monozygotic twin is affected is approximately:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding the Epidemiology of Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. While the exact cause of schizophrenia is still unknown, research has identified several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing the condition. The most significant risk factor is having a family history of schizophrenia, which increases the relative risk by 7.5. For example, if a parent has schizophrenia, the risk of developing the condition is between 10-15%, while having a sibling with schizophrenia increases the risk to 10%. In contrast, individuals with no relatives with schizophrenia have a 1% risk of developing the condition.
Aside from family history, other risk factors for developing psychotic disorders include Black Caribbean ethnicity, migration, urban environment, and cannabis use. Black Caribbean ethnicity increases the relative risk by 5.4, while migration and urban environment increase the risk by 2.9 and 2.4, respectively. Cannabis use, which is a common recreational drug, increases the relative risk by 1.4.
Understanding the epidemiology of schizophrenia is crucial in identifying individuals who are at high risk of developing the condition. By identifying these individuals, healthcare professionals can provide early interventions and treatments that can help manage the symptoms of schizophrenia and improve the quality of life of affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 76
Incorrect
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How can dissociative non-epileptic attacks (pseudoseizures) be differentiated from generalised tonic clonic seizures based on their features?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Post episode sleepiness
Explanation:Pseudoseizures vs. Genuine Seizures
A gradual onset is indicative of non-epileptic attacks, while other features suggest genuine generalised tonic clonic seizures. However, pseudoseizures have additional characteristics, such as being mainly observed in females (8:1), previous illness behavior, and childhood physical and/or sexual abuse. Diagnosing pseudoseizures can be challenging and is typically not done with certainty in primary care. A neurologist is usually involved in the diagnosis, and video EEG can be helpful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old female attends surgery. She has recently been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and her BMI is 12.8 kg/m2. She is under the care of the local psychiatrist and has come to see you regarding her physical health.
Which one of the following is typically associated with anorexia nervosa?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolonged QT interval
Explanation:Physical Consequences of Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that requires both psychological and physical assessment. The malnutrition associated with anorexia nervosa can have significant physical consequences. One of the physical consequences is the loss of pubic and axillary hair, but sufferers develop lanugo hair which results in an overall increase in body hair.
Classically, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism ensues, which results in amenorrhoea rather than menorrhagia. Hypokalaemia is normally found, which is a consequence of poor nutrient intake and can be exacerbated by the abuse of diuretics and laxatives. Hypotension (low blood pressure) usually features, rather than hypertension. Prolonged QT interval is typically associated with anorexia, and ECG should always be performed as part of the physical assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old retiree comes to see you after being found crying by a neighbour. Over the past six months she has lost her husband to cancer and has become increasingly isolated and withdrawn. She has never experienced depression before and her PHQ depression score is 20.
She enjoys gardening and reading, but has lost interest in these activities recently. She has also been experiencing difficulty sleeping and has lost her appetite. She takes medication for high blood pressure and has a history of smoking, but quit 10 years ago.
You decide to initiate treatment with sertraline, but which other drug may be helpful in addition to this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disulfiram
Explanation:Considerations for prescribing medication to an older person
When prescribing medication to an older person, it is important to consider potential interactions and side effects. For example, if the person is already taking a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), gastro protection should be considered when prescribing a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). In this case, omeprazole would be the best option.
It is also important to consider the person’s lifestyle and habits. If they are drinking regularly, but not excessively, there may be no need to add acamprosate or disulfiram. Similarly, if an SSRI has already been prescribed, there may be no need to add dosulepin.
While adding ibuprofen or prednisolone may theoretically reduce inflammation related to arthritis, it poses a significant risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, taking two NSAIDs at the same time should be avoided.
Finally, it is important to be aware of potential interactions with other medications or supplements the person may be taking. St John’s wort, for example, is often used by those who feel depressed, but can interact with other antidepressants and have varying levels of active ingredient depending on the preparation. Overall, careful consideration and monitoring is necessary when prescribing medication to an older person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents for follow-up of her depression. Despite taking citalopram 20 mg once daily for 4 months, she has not experienced any significant improvement in her symptoms. The decision is made to switch her medication to imipramine. What is the recommended approach for transitioning to imipramine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Period of cross-tapering of the two drugs
Explanation:Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants
When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.
Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male presents to the GP with persistent difficulty in leaving his home without performing a cleaning ritual that takes over 3 hours to finish. He has an intense fear that if he doesn't complete the process, his family will be harmed. The patient is currently undergoing cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT).
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe sertraline
Explanation:Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is the likely diagnosis for this patient, who is exhibiting symptoms of fear of harming her children and compulsive cleaning. The first-line treatment for OCD is cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT) or exposure and response prevention. However, since the patient has not responded to CBT and is still experiencing intrusive symptoms, it would be appropriate to prescribe an SSRI, such as sertraline.
Continuing with CBT alone would not be appropriate for this patient, given her ongoing and intrusive symptoms. Therefore, the most suitable course of action is to add an SSRI to her treatment plan.
Benzodiazepines are not recommended for this patient, as they have a high potential for addiction and are typically used for acute relief of panic attacks. The patient is not displaying any overt anxiety symptoms that would warrant a prescription of benzodiazepines.
Zopiclone may be prescribed for severe sleeping difficulties, but it is not indicated for this patient, who is not experiencing any acute issues with sleeping.
Since the patient has not responded to CBT, it is appropriate to add an SSRI rather than referring her for exposure and response prevention.
Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that affects 1 to 3% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of obsessions, which are unwanted intrusive thoughts, images, or urges, and compulsions, which are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform. These symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and distress.
Risk factors for OCD include a family history of the condition, age (with peak onset between 10-20 years), pregnancy/postnatal period, and a history of abuse, bullying, or neglect.
The management of OCD involves classifying the level of impairment as mild, moderate, or severe using the Y-BOCS scale. For mild impairment, low-intensity psychological treatments such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP) are recommended. If this is insufficient, a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) can be offered. For moderate impairment, a choice of either an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) is recommended, with clomipramine as an alternative first-line drug treatment to an SSRI if necessary. For severe impairment, referral to the secondary care mental health team for assessment is necessary, with combined treatment of an SSRI and CBT (including ERP) or clomipramine as an alternative while awaiting assessment.
ERP is a psychological method that involves exposing a patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. This helps them confront their anxiety, leading to the eventual extinction of the response. Treatment with an SSRI should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement. Compared to depression, the SSRI usually requires a higher dose and a longer duration of treatment (at least 12 weeks) for an initial response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presented with palpitations, breathlessness and chest pain, radiating to the left arm. These symptoms had started seven weeks ago, following the death of her father from a heart attack. Over the last decade, she had undergone investigations for abdominal pain, headaches, joint pains, and dyspareunia, but no significant cause was identified for these symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder
Explanation:Somatisation Disorder: A Likely Diagnosis
Somatisation disorder is a condition characterized by recurrent physical complaints such as pains, gastrointestinal, sexual, and pseudo-neurologic symptoms that persist over a period of years. Although the brief scenario doesn’t provide enough criteria to make a definitive diagnosis, the symptoms described suggest that somatisation disorder is the most likely answer.
To meet the diagnostic criteria for somatisation disorder, the patient’s physical complaints must not be intentionally induced and must result in medical attention or significant impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. Typically, the first symptoms appear in adolescence, and the full criteria are met by 30 years of age.
Among the other disorders, factitious disorder is the least likely, while the other three are possible but not as probable as somatisation. Overall, the scenario suggests that somatisation disorder should be considered as a potential diagnosis, and further evaluation is necessary to confirm or rule out this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female presents with a 3-week history of low mood. On further questioning, she reveals that she witnessed a violent altercation outside her apartment complex when returning from work 4 weeks ago. She now has nightmares related to the incident and is avoiding leaving her apartment, which is causing her to miss work. She has no past medical history and is not on any medications. What would be your first-line management recommendation for this patient, given the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trauma focussed cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Acute Stress Disorder (ASD): Symptoms appear within 3 days to 4 weeks after the traumatic event. The condition lasts for a minimum of 3 days and a maximum of 4 weeks. If symptoms persist beyond 4 weeks, the diagnosis may be revised to PTSD.
For this patient with acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) is the recommended first-line management. This therapy involves a combination of exposure therapy and trauma-focused cognitive therapy, tailored to the patient’s age and development, and may involve parents or carers for children.
While eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) can be used as a management option for PTSD, it is not required in this case as the patient doesn’t have PTSD.
Risperidone, an antipsychotic, may be used in PTSD under mental health team supervision, but is not necessary for this patient with acute stress disorder.
If the patient prefers drug treatment, has significant comorbid depression, or cannot engage in psychological treatments, sertraline or venlafaxine, both antidepressants, may be started in primary care for PTSD. They can also be used as an adjunct to psychological treatments or when there has been a poor response to psychological treatments.
Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.
The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 83
Incorrect
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Which patient from the list is the most suitable candidate for a benzodiazepine prescription?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 55-year-old woman who is anxious about having to fly to Australia next week
Explanation:Benzodiazepines for Short-Term Treatment of Anxiety and Sleeping Disorders
Benzodiazepines are commonly prescribed for short-term treatment of anxiety or sleeping disorders. For instance, patients with anxiety related to flying may benefit from a small number of diazepam tablets before and during the flight. However, long-term use of benzodiazepines can lead to tolerance and addiction, which are significant risks for patients with an anxious personality. Elderly patients are also at risk of daytime drowsiness, confusion, and falls, making the use of benzodiazepines discouraged. It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of benzodiazepines before prescribing them for any patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old plumber has come for a medication review. He has had three separate episodes of depression in the past four years, resulting in several absences from work. He is currently employed by a competitor and finds the reduced stress level beneficial. He has been taking citalopram 20 mg for the past nine months and reports feeling well. He is interested in discontinuing his medication and seeks your guidance. What is the recommended duration of antidepressant withdrawal after achieving remission?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He can withdraw 24 months into his recovery
Explanation:Duration of Antidepressant Treatment for Patients with Recurrent Depression
Guidance from NICE on Depression (CG23) recommends that patients who have experienced two or more episodes of depression in the recent past or suffered significant functional impairment should continue antidepressants for at least two years into remission. This recommendation was reiterated in the 2009 publication of Depression in adults (CG90). However, for patients who have suffered a single episode of depression without significant functional impairment, the duration of treatment after remission is six months. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these guidelines when treating patients with depression to ensure appropriate and effective management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old nursing home resident, with advanced dementia, has become increasingly verbally disruptive at meal times, often shouting out incoherent phrases at staff and other residents. A general examination, urine dipstick and baseline blood tests were normal.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Restrain the patient at meal times in case of violent behaviour
Explanation:Managing Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia
With Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia (BPSD), it is crucial to identify and treat any reversible causes. However, in cases where there are no other symptoms and normal examination and investigations, empirical antibiotics should be avoided as they may lead to adverse clinical events such as Clostridium difficile. If conservative measures fail, it is advisable to seek advice from an elderly care physician who may recommend short-term use of medications such as haloperidol or lorazepam. It is important to note that restraining the patient during anticipated bad behaviour is not appropriate. By following these guidelines, we can effectively manage BPSD and improve the quality of life for patients with dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has recently started taking amitriptyline for the management of depression, and you suspect he may be experiencing symptoms of the anticholinergic syndrome.
Choose the accurate statement regarding the anticholinergic syndrome.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hot, dry skin occurs
Explanation:Anticholinergic Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment
Anticholinergic syndrome is a condition that is commonly caused by certain medications such as tricyclic antidepressants, atropine, anti-parkinsonian drugs, antispasmodics, and H1-antihistamines. The symptoms of this syndrome include hot and dry skin, hypertension, tachycardia, dry mouth, urinary retention, dilated pupils, and agitated delirium.
In the past, physostigmine was recommended as a treatment for anticholinergic syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that it is ineffective and can even increase the risk of cardiac toxicity. Therefore, the recommended treatment now is supportive and symptomatic care. Once the medication causing the syndrome has been excreted, the symptoms usually subside.
It is important to be aware of the symptoms of anticholinergic syndrome and to seek medical attention if you suspect that you or someone you know may be experiencing it. With proper care and treatment, the condition can be managed effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of recurrent hallucinations. He reports seeing faces that are smaller than usual or other objects that are out of proportion. Although he acknowledges that these episodes are not real, they still cause him distress. The patient has a history of macular degeneration and experienced depression 15 years ago after his wife passed away. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities are found. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charles-Bonnet syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.
Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.
Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.
In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman, who has a history of panic attacks, visits her General Practitioner as she has been experiencing a feeling of detachment from her surroundings during her attacks. She describes it as as if there is a veil between me and the outside world. What is the most appropriate term for this symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Derealisation
Explanation:Differentiating between psychological experiences: Derealisation, Delusion, Depersonalisation, Flight of Ideas, and Hallucination
Psychological experiences can be complex and difficult to differentiate. Here are some explanations of five different experiences: derealisation, delusion, depersonalisation, flight of ideas, and hallucination.
Derealisation is the feeling that the external world is unreal, distant, or distorted. Patients may describe it as a veil between themselves and their surroundings.
Delusion is a fixed false belief that doesn’t change despite conflicting evidence. This is different from derealisation, where patients feel detached from their surroundings. Delusions are commonly associated with schizophrenia, not anxiety.
Depersonalisation is the feeling of being a detached observer of oneself. This is different from derealisation, where patients feel detached from their surroundings.
Flight of ideas is a rapid flow of thoughts that often connect and is part of the hyperexcitable state of mania. It is not typically seen in anxiety with derealisation.
Hallucination is a false sensory perception in the absence of a real external stimulus. For example, hearing voices when no one has spoken. This patient has not described any false sensory perception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male presents with a 12 month history of deteriorating memory.
He has otherwise been well and takes no medication.
Which one of the following is most typical of frontal lobe dysfunction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to perform serial 7s
Explanation:Understanding Different Manifestations of Neurodegenerative Conditions
Frontal lobe dementia is a common neurodegenerative condition that typically affects individuals between the ages of 45 and 65. One way to test for frontal lobe dysfunction is to assess a patient’s ability to generate a list rapidly, such as naming animals in 60 seconds or words beginning with a specific letter.
Dyscalculia, on the other hand, is a manifestation of the dominant parietal lobe. This condition affects an individual’s ability to perform mathematical calculations and solve problems. Sensory inattention is another manifestation of parietal lobe dysfunction, which can cause an individual to ignore or neglect one side of their body or environment.
Visual field defects are also common manifestations of neurodegenerative conditions. Homonymous hemianopia, which is a loss of vision in one half of the visual field, is typically associated with occipital lobe dysfunction. Superior quadrantanopia, which is a loss of vision in one quarter of the visual field, is associated with temporal lobe dysfunction. Finally, inferior quadrantanopia, which is also a loss of vision in one quarter of the visual field, is associated with parietal lobe dysfunction. Understanding these different manifestations can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat neurodegenerative conditions more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 90
Incorrect
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What could be the probable reason for visual hallucinations in an 85-year-old woman named Edith who sees frightening faces on the walls and insects on the floor, despite being aware that they are not real? She has a medical history of hypertension, depression, hearing loss, and macular degeneration.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome
Explanation:Charles Bonnet syndrome can lead to distressing visual hallucinations in approximately one-third of those affected. While Lewy body dementia may also cause visual hallucinations and cognitive impairment, it is less likely in the absence of other neuropsychiatric symptoms. Acute psychosis typically involves auditory hallucinations and delusions, while psychotic depression is characterized by severe depression and the emergence of psychotic symptoms.
Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.
Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.
Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.
In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old accountant presents with persistent anxiety symptoms that are significantly impacting his daily functioning. Despite completing a self-help program and undergoing CBT, he has not experienced any significant improvement after taking Sertraline for 6 months. What is the recommended next step in treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of an alternative SSRI such as Escitalopram or a SNRI such as Venlafaxine
Explanation:If non-pharmacological treatments have not effectively managed symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD), the first line of medication recommended is an SSRI such as Sertraline or Escitalopram. If this proves to be ineffective or not well-tolerated, an alternative SSRI or SNRI like Venlafaxine should be tried. It is important to allow 12 weeks to see the full effects of the medication. Benzodiazepines, Propranolol, and low dose Amitriptyline are not recommended in this situation. If the patient cannot tolerate or has contraindications to the aforementioned medications, a trial of Pregabalin is recommended. Referral to a mental health team is not necessary at this time as the patient has not yet tried the different management options.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 92
Incorrect
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You see a 20-year-old male patient who is worried about his erections. He has been experiencing problems for the past 8 months. He is generally healthy with no medical history. He doesn't use any illegal drugs and is a non-smoker. He drinks occasionally on weekends. He lives with his parents and has recently started dating a girl from his university.
Which of the following history findings would indicate a psychogenic cause rather than an organic cause for his erectile dysfunction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The presence of self stimulated or morning erections
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is the inability to achieve and maintain an erection sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. It can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors, as well as certain medications.
Symptoms that suggest a psychogenic cause of ED include a sudden onset, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or morning erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, relationship problems or changes, major life events, and psychological issues.
Symptoms that suggest an organic cause of ED include a gradual onset, normal ejaculation, normal libido (except in hypogonadal men), a history of medical risk factors (such as cardiovascular, endocrine, or neurological conditions), pelvic or scrotal trauma, radiotherapy or surgery, current use of medications known to cause ED, smoking, high alcohol consumption, or use of recreational or bodybuilding drugs.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes to your clinic with his sister. She is worried about him as he has been acting differently lately. Until about a year ago, he was doing well in his job and spent a lot of time with his friends. However, over the past 6 months, he has become increasingly withdrawn and appears to be depressed. He rarely leaves his apartment, preferring to stay inside all day. His sister has noticed that he has been smoking marijuana and has become increasingly suspicious of her. He has lost interest in his hobbies and his work performance has suffered. Their father is no longer in the picture, but she remembers him as being a very suspicious man who had difficulty trusting others.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prodromal schizophrenia
Explanation:Recognizing the Schizophrenia Prodrome and Differentiating it from Normal Teenage Behaviour
The early signs of schizophrenia, known as the prodrome, are often overlooked and misdiagnosed as typical teenage behaviour or depression. These symptoms include a loss of motivation and performance, increased withdrawal and preference for solitary activities, personality changes with heightened suspicion, poor sleep, and irritability. While not all individuals with these symptoms will develop schizophrenia, there is a higher risk. It is crucial to be vigilant in recognizing and managing the first episode of psychosis to ensure proper treatment and a better prognosis. On the other hand, normal teenage behaviour may involve aloofness, a desire for more independence, feeling misunderstood, rejecting parental affection, or appearing moody. Conduct disorder, characterized by oppositional and defiant behaviour and antisocial activities, and paranoid personality disorder, marked by pervasive distrust and suspicion, are distinct from the schizophrenia prodrome and require different approaches to treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with his father who is concerned about him and reports a 6-month history of weight loss, apathy and poor self-care. He dropped out of university soon after starting his course. He has no friends and now spends most of his time alone in his room playing video games. He has recently accused his father of trying to spy on him. During the consultation, he is suspicious and reluctant to speak directly to the GP.
What is the most likely reason for this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Understanding Possible Diagnoses for a Teenager’s Behaviour Changes
When a teenager’s behaviour changes, it can be difficult to determine whether it is normal teenage behaviour or a sign of a mental health issue. In the case of schizophrenia, social withdrawal and odd ideas, such as the belief that someone is trying to poison them, are classic symptoms. Amphetamine misuse can exacerbate underlying mental health problems, but there is no indication of drug abuse in this scenario. Severe depression can also manifest with delusions, which are false beliefs held with absolute certainty. Normal teenage behaviour may include changes in appearance and some withdrawal from family life, but excessive neglect of personal hygiene and never going out with friends may be signs of mental illness. Finally, personality disorders such as schizotypal and schizoid personality disorder may involve discomfort in close relationships and a preference for being alone, but do not typically include delusions or other features of schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man was robbed two weeks ago while walking home alone. He frequently experiences flashbacks of the incident. His companions have observed that he is more cautious of his environment when they accompany him. He is having difficulty sleeping and refrains from going out by himself.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder
Explanation:Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.
The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman is taking haloperidol and reports experiencing a sensation of restlessness and an incapacity to remain seated since commencing her medication.
What is the appropriate term for this adverse effect of the drug?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Akathisia is a condition characterized by a feeling of restlessness and an uncontrollable urge to move, which can lead to difficulty staying still. Symptoms may include foot stamping, leg crossing and uncrossing, and pacing. It is important to distinguish akathisia from psychotic agitation, as increasing the antipsychotic dose can worsen symptoms. Akathisia can occur within the first two weeks of taking a neuroleptic drug or even after several months of treatment. It has been linked to suicidal behavior and aggression towards others.
Dystonic reaction is a reversible extrapyramidal effect that can occur immediately or after a few hours or days of taking a neuroleptic drug. It causes sustained muscle contractions that lead to abnormal postures or repetitive movements, which may resemble a tremor. Oculogyric crisis is a type of dystonic reaction characterized by prolonged involuntary upward deviation of the eyes.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic medications. It is characterized by fever, muscular rigidity, altered level of consciousness, and autonomic instability. It usually occurs shortly after starting neuroleptic treatment or after a dose increase.
Drug-induced Parkinsonism (DIP) is a condition that can be mistaken for Parkinson’s disease. It is the second most common cause of Parkinsonism in the elderly. Symptoms may persist even after stopping the medication. DIP can be caused by typical and atypical antipsychotics, gastrointestinal prokinetics, calcium channel blockers, and antiepileptic drugs.
Tardive dyskinesia is a condition characterized by involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. It occurs in patients who have been treated with long-term neuroleptic drugs. Symptoms may persist even after stopping the medication, but they usually disappear within three years in about 60% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A first time mother in her early 20s presents to the clinic with complaints of feeling exhausted, tearful without any reason, easily irritated, occasionally overjoyed, and sensitive to criticism 48 hours after giving birth.
What course of action would you recommend?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral for urgent psychiatric assessment
Explanation:Understanding postpartum Blues
postpartum blues are a common experience for 50-70% of women after giving birth. Symptoms typically resolve within 10-14 days, but it’s important for women to receive appropriate support from their GP, health visitor, and family during this time. If symptoms persist, urgent assessment is recommended according to NICE guidelines. Women who are at a higher risk of developing postpartum depression may have a history of psychiatric issues, lack supportive mechanisms, or have experienced stressful life events. It’s important to note that postpartum blues do not require medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman comes to see you. She is 31 weeks pregnant and lives with her partner. The pregnancy has so far been uneventful.
She says that over the past few days she has started to feel anxious and tearful, and is finding it hard to concentrate. She is not sure if this is just 'normal' at this stage of pregnancy. She denies any disturbance of sleep or appetite, and her PHQ-9 score is only five. She has had no thoughts of self-harm.
Her parents, and her older sister have been treated for depression and she suffered a brief depressive episode in her early teens.
Which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Only women at high risk for postnatal depression, like this lady, need active monitoring of their mood in the postnatal period
Explanation:Managing Depression in Pregnancy and Postpartum
This patient has a history of depressive illness and is at high risk for developing a depressive episode during pregnancy or postpartum. While her current symptoms are common in later pregnancy, close monitoring is necessary to detect any changes that may require treatment. If treatment is necessary, SSRIs such as Sertraline are now considered safe for use during pregnancy.
Postpartum depression is a common concern, and all patients should be closely monitored by health visiting teams and community midwives. GPs should also have a low threshold for considering depression in mothers of young babies and should inquire about the mother’s mood at the six-week postnatal check. If a mother experiences tearfulness and difficulty sleeping at six weeks postpartum, this should be taken seriously, as the baby blues typically resolve by 10 days postpartum. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old shopkeeper has returned to see you with depression. You have seen him on a number of occasions over the past 20 years with a moderate depression and you conclude that his symptoms have returned.
When he was first seen, as a student, he was given lofepramine, then dosulepin but responded poorly. This was switched to fluoxetine and he appeared to respond well and finished his medication six months later.
Then in his 30s he suffered from another bout of depression following the failure of a business venture. He was given fluoxetine and was treated successfully, stopping his therapy eight months later.
One month before your consultation, your primary care organisation advised that you should consider initiating treatment for newly diagnosed depressed patients with citalopram, due to cost benefits. Your choice is further enhanced by a recent meeting with a pharmaceutical representative who presents a convincing argument for treating patients with a new selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which is claimed to have greater efficacy than existing treatments.
What would be the most appropriate treatment for his current exacerbation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Choosing the Right Antidepressant
When it comes to treating depression, finding the right medication can be a challenge. However, if a patient has responded well to a particular drug in the past, it is recommended to consider that drug for a recurrent episode. In the case of this patient, he has responded well to fluoxetine but not to lofepramine or dosulepin. While it is possible that an alternative SSRI could work, such as citalopram or a new SSRI from a pharmaceutical representative, the best course of action is to consider the drug that has worked for him in the past. By doing so, the patient has a higher chance of responding positively to the medication and experiencing relief from their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has a history of bipolar disorder. She is brought by her husband who is concerned that she is entering a manic phase.
Select from the list the single feature that would NOT suggest a diagnosis of mania.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loss of interest in pleasurable activities
Explanation:Understanding Mania and Hypomania in Bipolar Disorder
Mania and hypomania are two terms used to describe the elevated mood states experienced by individuals with bipolar disorder. Mania is a more severe form of elevated mood, often accompanied by psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations. Hypomania, on the other hand, is a milder form of mania without psychotic symptoms.
To diagnose mania, at least three of the following symptoms must be present: inflated self-esteem, decreased need for sleep, rapid and emphatic speech, flight of ideas, distractibility, psychomotor agitation, and excessive involvement in pleasurable activities without regard for consequences.
It’s important to note that nearly all cases of mania will eventually lead to episodes of depression, which is why bipolar disorder is often grouped with mania. Understanding the symptoms of mania and hypomania can help individuals with bipolar disorder and their loved ones recognize when they may need to seek professional help.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man is brought in by his sister who is very upset as she found him this morning acting strangely. Looking at his record he has a history of depression and substance misuse.
When you see him he is very paranoid at having been brought to the doctor's surgery and says that you are 'working for them'. He can see 'little men with guns lying on the floor trying to shoot him' and tells you that he is wanted by the government because he works as a secret spy.
He is somewhat agitated and whilst trying to talk to him he is obviously distracted and displays pressure of speech. Which of the symptoms displayed by this patient most strongly suggests that the psychosis is related to substance misuse rather than a schizophrenic illness?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paranoia
Explanation:Discriminating between Psychosis due to Drug Abuse and Schizophrenic Illness
Visual hallucinations are a common symptom in organic brain disorders and drug and alcohol intoxication and withdrawal. They are often associated with diagnoses such as stimulant/hallucinogen abuse, delirium tremens, dementia, and certain brain tumors. On the other hand, auditory hallucinations are more commonly seen in functional psychoses, particularly in schizophrenia. The first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia include auditory hallucinations in the form of third person, running commentary, and thought echo. By identifying these specific features, it is possible to discriminate between psychosis due to drug abuse and psychosis due to a schizophrenic illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old male who has been on long term chlorpromazine presents with repetitive eye blinking. He reports he is unable to control this and is concerned about the underlying cause. Despite this, he is generally in good health and has no visual impairment. Upon examination, his face and eyes appear normal except for excessive rapid blinking.
What is the probable reason for his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Explanation:The correct term is tardive dyskinesia, which is characterized by abnormal involuntary choreoathetoid movements that occur late in patients who have been on conventional antipsychotics. Symptoms may include lip-smacking, jaw pouting, chewing, repetitive blinking, or tongue poking. This condition is often difficult to treat, but replacing the antipsychotic or trying tetrabenazine may provide some relief.
Parkinsonism, which can also occur in patients taking conventional antipsychotics, presents with symptoms similar to those of Parkinson’s disease, such as tremor, blank facies, bradykinesia, and muscle rigidity. However, this option is incorrect as there is no mention of other symptoms in the stem, and repetitive blinking is not a typical symptom of Parkinsonism.
While dry eyes may lead to eye twitching, repetitive blinking is unlikely, and other symptoms such as visual disturbance or watering of the eyes would be expected.
Sjogren’s syndrome, which can cause dry eyes, is also an unlikely cause of repetitive involuntary blinking.
Blepharospasm, which is characterized by involuntary twitching or contraction of the eyelid, is a focal dystonia that may last only a few days or be lifelong. While stress or fatigue may trigger it, the patient in the stem is more likely suffering from tardive dyskinesia due to extrapyramidal side effects of chlorpromazine, a typical antipsychotic.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A client is initiated on clozapine for treatment resistant schizophrenia. What is a known adverse effect of clozapine treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersalivation
Explanation:Clozapine therapy often leads to excessive salivation, which is a commonly observed side effect. However, this issue can be effectively managed with the use of hyoscine hydrobromide.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman comes to the clinic. She has been feeling down for the past 10 weeks, experiencing a loss of appetite, weight loss, and waking up at 4 am every morning. She often struggles to focus.
She was laid off from her job four months ago, and her elderly father recently suffered a stroke. Her partner is supportive but works odd hours, so he cannot accompany her today. Her daughter is away at college, and she has not talked to anyone about her current issues.
She had a bout of moderate depression five years ago and was successfully treated with Fluoxetine for two years. She currently has no suicidal thoughts and is eager to seek help early this time. You discuss CBT with her, and she agrees to it.
What other intervention is likely to be the most helpful for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange to see her again in one week
Explanation:Treatment Plan for a Patient with Depression and a Recent Life Event
This patient has a history of moderate depression that responded well to SSRI treatment. She is currently experiencing cognitive and biological symptoms of depression, likely exacerbated by a recent life event – redundancy. Additionally, her mother’s illness is a concern and her potential role as a caregiver will need to be explored. While her partner is supportive, their shift work may make providing day-to-day support difficult.
To address her symptoms, the patient will require frequent support and advice on sleep hygiene, as well as medication. Given her previous successful treatment with fluoxetine, this will be the first medication to try. A tricyclic antidepressant is less likely to be well-tolerated and carries a higher risk of overdose.
If the patient is at significant risk of self-harm, has psychotic symptoms, or has complex disease, referral to specialist mental health services is recommended for expert opinion on treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with ongoing sleep issues due to tension in his relationship with his girlfriend. He expresses concerns that she may be spending time with her ex-boyfriend who works in the same office as her. He has had similar experiences in past relationships and feels as though he will never find the perfect partner, leading to mood swings and feelings of loneliness. He also admits to self-harming but denies any suicidal thoughts. Following a risk assessment, he is referred to psychiatry and diagnosed with borderline personality disorder.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this 28-year-old man with borderline personality disorder?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)
Explanation:Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) is an effective treatment for borderline personality disorder, as it is specifically designed to help individuals who experience intense emotions. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is not a targeted therapy for personality disorder patients and is more beneficial for those with depression or anxiety-related conditions. Exposure and response prevention therapy (ERP) is a treatment option for patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder, while eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy (EMDR) is a treatment option for patients with post-traumatic stress disorder.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 106
Incorrect
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You are contemplating prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant for a patient who has not shown improvement with two different selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Which of the following tricyclic antidepressants is the most hazardous in overdose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dosulepin
Explanation:It is recommended to avoid Dosulepin as it can be dangerous in case of overdose.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their side-effects and potential for toxicity in overdose. However, they are still widely used for the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. The common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of QT interval. When choosing a TCA, low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prevention of headaches. Lofepramine is preferred due to its lower incidence of toxicity in overdose, while amitriptyline and dosulepin are considered the most dangerous in overdose. The sedative effects of TCAs vary, with amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone being more sedative, while imipramine and nortriptyline are less sedative. Trazodone is technically a ‘tricyclic-related antidepressant’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman from Sierra Leone comes to your clinic and reveals that she underwent female genital mutilation (FGM) at the age of 16 and is still struggling with the trauma. She mentions that her three sisters also went through the same procedure but don't appear to be affected mentally. She feels embarrassed that she is the only one struggling while her sisters seem to be doing fine.
What would be the best course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to local safeguarding procedures and refer to mental health services
Explanation:If a female under 18 discloses that she has undergone genital mutilation, the mandatory reporting duty applies. However, in this case, the individual is over 18, so the duty doesn’t apply, and there is no need to involve the police.
Instead, it is important to follow local safeguarding procedures and refer the individual to mental health services. It is recommended to refer her to mental health services rather than suggesting she self-refer or seek private counseling, as she may be hesitant to do so on her own. It is crucial to provide support and resources to help her cope with her feelings and experiences.
If the individual chooses to involve the police, it is her decision to make.
Understanding Female Genital Mutilation
Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a practice that involves the partial or total removal of the external female genitalia or other forms of injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. This practice is classified into four types by the World Health Organization (WHO). Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while Type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A patient with chronic depression in their 50s comes for advice about changing medication. They have been to the psychiatrist who wants to change them from their monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) to a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).
The patient cannot remember how long they were told to wait between stopping the MAOI and starting the SSRI.
What is the recommended time interval between stopping the MAOI and starting the SSRI?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:Recommended Interval Before Starting Antidepressants After Stopping MAOI
After stopping a MAOI, it is recommended to wait before starting most other antidepressants. The interval should be two weeks, except for imipramine or clomipramine, where the interval should be three weeks. This is important to avoid potential adverse reactions and interactions between the medications. It is crucial to follow the recommended interval to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the antidepressant treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled for some time with fluoxetine, has started to suffer from anxiety, loss of interest and reduced appetite. She also complains of insomnia.
She claims to taking her medications regularly according to prescription.
What will be the most appropriate management for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to another group of antidepressant
Explanation:Switching Antidepressants: Consider Mirtazapine
When a patient stops responding to fluoxetine, switching to another group of antidepressants is a feasible approach. One such option is mirtazapine, a newer antidepressant that exhibits both noradrenergic and serotonergic activity. Studies have shown that mirtazapine is effective in treating a substantial proportion of patients who did not respond well to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or found them difficult to tolerate. Therefore, if a patient is no longer responding to fluoxetine, it may be worth considering switching to mirtazapine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old beauty therapist has come to see you because she is constantly arguing with her partner. They have been living together for the past six months. She says that the arguments are making her feel miserable and that her only enjoyment in life is her work and occasional nights out clubbing with her friends.
She says that her boyfriend resents her lifestyle and is very possessive of her time. She feels depressed when she arrives home and he is there, unless he is working a late shift or it is a night out with her friends. On examination, she appears physically fit, tanned, and smartly dressed. She talked about her partner's deficiencies for most of the consultation. Her past medical history includes a tonsillectomy and Chickenpox as a child. She is a non-smoker and visits the gym three times a week. A colleague advised her to visit you to help her with her problems.
What would be the most appropriate way to manage this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise her to take St John's wort
Explanation:Relationship Issues vs. Depression: Understanding the Difference
There is no clear indication of depression in this patient’s history. Despite experiencing disharmony in her relationship, she is still able to lead a normal life and enjoy most of it. Therefore, there is no need to prescribe antidepressants or refer her to a psychiatrist. Instead, offering support and guidance towards relationship counseling is the best course of action. It is important to understand the difference between relationship issues and depression, as they require different approaches to treatment. By addressing the root cause of the problem, the patient can work towards resolving her relationship issues and improving her overall well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man finds it difficult and is reluctant to have close friends as he fears rejection. He has a low self-esteem, feels inadequate and often becomes anxious in the presence of others. He has no hobbies and has been working in the same job since he left high school.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoidant personality disorder
Explanation:Understanding Personality Disorders: Avoidant Personality Disorder
Personality disorders are a group of mental health conditions that affect the way individuals think, feel, and behave. One such disorder is avoidant personality disorder, which is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation.
To be diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder, an individual must exhibit at least four of the following behaviors: avoiding occupational activities that involve interpersonal contact, reluctance to engage with people unless certain of being liked, showing restraint in intimate relationships due to fear of ridicule, preoccupation with criticism or rejection in social situations, inhibition in new interpersonal situations due to feelings of inadequacy, viewing oneself as socially inept or inferior, and reluctance to take personal risks or engage in new activities due to fear of embarrassment.
It is important to note that avoidant personality disorder is distinct from other personality disorders, such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and schizoid personality disorders. While individuals with antisocial personality disorder may disregard the feelings of others and act outside of social norms, those with borderline personality disorder may display significant instability in relationships and mood. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by dramatic and self-indulgent behavior, while schizoid personality disorder involves detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotions.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and behaviors associated with avoidant personality disorder can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old medical student presents to the emergency department accompanied by his friend, reporting a 24-hour history of aggressive behaviour, irritability, and hallucinations. The friend suspects that the patient has experienced a mental breakdown due to sleep deprivation from studying for exams. Laboratory tests reveal no evidence of drug use or infection. The patient is admitted to the hospital for observation and returns to his usual behaviour the following day.
What is the probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brief psychotic disorder
Explanation:The correct answer is brief psychotic disorder, which is a short-term condition characterized by the sudden onset of at least one positive psychotic symptom, such as delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or catatonic behavior. Unlike other disorders, brief psychotic disorder often resolves with a return to baseline functioning. Adjustment disorder, bipolar disorder, and schizoaffective disorder are not the correct answers as they have different symptoms and characteristics.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 113
Incorrect
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What option indicates managing depression through monitoring and providing general guidance only?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No obvious trigger factors
Explanation:Managing Depression Symptoms
A patient experiencing symptoms of depression for less than two weeks or with intermittent symptoms can initially be managed through non-invasive methods. This approach is also suitable if there is a clear stressor or if the patient has good social support. However, if the patient has a family history of depression or has had suicidal thoughts, more active intervention may be necessary. It is important to carefully assess each patient’s individual situation and provide appropriate treatment to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 114
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old patient is presented to you by his spouse due to concerns about his hallucinations. The wife reports that he frequently sees cats wandering around the house despite never having a pet cat. Apart from this, he is in good health with no other complaints and doesn't appear to be bothered by the visions. He has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and cataracts and consumes around 20 units of alcohol per week.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Explanation:Individuals with Charles-Bonnet syndrome typically have full awareness of their condition despite experiencing ongoing and intricate visual or auditory hallucinations.
Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.
Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.
Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.
In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about her mental health. She was involved in a serious car accident three months ago and has been avoiding driving ever since. She experiences flashbacks and nightmares and has become increasingly isolated and anxious. The doctor suspects post-traumatic stress disorder.
What is a diagnostic criterion for post-traumatic stress disorder?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoidance of people associated with the event
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnostic Criteria for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event that threatens physical integrity or life. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fifth edition (DSM-5), outlines the core diagnostic criteria for PTSD, which include recurrent intrusive symptoms such as memories, nightmares, and flashbacks. Additionally, individuals with PTSD may exhibit persistent avoidance of thoughts, feelings, or external factors associated with the traumatic event, as well as negative changes in mood or thoughts and changes in arousal or reactivity.
It is important to note that anxiety and depression often coexist with PTSD, but they are not diagnostic features. Similarly, substance abuse cannot be the primary cause of the disturbance in order for a PTSD diagnosis to be made. Recurrent early awakening, a symptom of dysthymia, is not part of the diagnostic criteria for PTSD.
Overall, understanding the diagnostic criteria for PTSD can help individuals and healthcare professionals identify and treat this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 116
Incorrect
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For which patient would cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) be the most effective?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 12-year-old boy with autism
Explanation:Conditions that Benefit from Cognitive Behavioural Therapy
Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is an effective treatment for individuals experiencing depression, anxiety, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and post-traumatic stress disorder. However, it may not be as effective for those with borderline personality disorder, psychosis, bereavement, and schizophrenia.
It is important to note that CBT is not a one-size-fits-all approach and should be tailored to the individual’s specific needs. Understanding which conditions are most responsive to CBT can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about treatment options for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of restlessness and confusion that have been present for one day. Upon further examination, she is found to have an elevated heart rate and body temperature.
The patient has a history of depression and has been taking sertraline for several years without any changes in dosage or indications of overdose. However, her partner reports that she recently began taking a new medication prescribed by her general practitioner. It is suspected that this medication may have interacted with her regular medication.
Which medication is the most likely culprit for this interaction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zolmitriptan
Explanation:Patients who are taking a SSRI should not use triptans.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man with known bipolar disorder is brought in by his mother because she has noticed that he has become drowsy over the past week and he has also been off balance, with diarrhoea and vomiting. He has a complicated past medical history including labile hypertension, bipolar disease and asthma and he is multi-medicated.
His oral medication list is:
- codeine
- lithium
- paracetamol
- quetiapine
- ramipril, and
- theophylline
He also takes inhalers for his asthma. His blood tests show elevated lithium levels of 1.5 mmol/L. Which of his medications is most likely to have interacted with the lithium, resulting in elevated levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Quetiapine
Explanation:Understanding Lithium Interactions
Lithium is a medication used to treat bipolar disorder, but it has a narrow therapeutic ratio, meaning that concentrations must be carefully monitored to avoid toxicity. Symptoms of lithium toxicity include tremors, ataxia, dysarthria, nystagmus, renal impairment, and convulsions. To prevent toxicity, routine lithium levels should be checked and maintained between 0.4-1 mmol/L.
When taking lithium, it is important to be aware of potential drug interactions that could increase the risk of toxicity. Paracetamol and codeine are not known to interact with lithium, but theophylline can reduce plasma concentration of lithium. Quetiapine, a medication used to treat schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, can increase extrapyramidal side effects when taken with lithium. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can reduce excretion of lithium, leading to increased plasma concentration.
Patients with bipolar disorder may also develop hypertension, so it is important to monitor for potential drug interactions that could result in lithium toxicity. By understanding these interactions, healthcare providers can ensure safe and effective treatment for patients taking lithium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman has a history of recurrent moderately severe depression. She has recently started citalopram and has found it effective. She prefers drug treatment to cognitive behavioural therapy, which she has had in the past. However, she has just become pregnant and is concerned about the risks of fetal malformation due to citalopram.
Select from this list the option that seems most appropriate in these circumstances.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue citalopram
Explanation:Managing Depression During Pregnancy: Considerations for Antidepressant Use
Depression affects up to 20% of pregnant women and can have negative impacts on both maternal and fetal health. While concerns about potential harm to the developing fetus may lead some women to discontinue antidepressant medication, doing so can increase the risk of relapse for those with a history of recurrent depression. Additionally, depressed women may engage in behaviors that contribute to poorer obstetric and neonatal outcomes.
Decisions about treating depression during pregnancy should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the severity of depression, past history of affective disorder, and maternal preference. While there are no antidepressants licensed for use during pregnancy, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly prescribed. While the risks are thought to be low, some severe birth defects have been reported. Tricyclics are considered safer, but carry a greater risk of overdose.
In cases where a woman wishes to discontinue antidepressant medication, a gradual reduction in dose is recommended. Alternative treatments, such as psychological therapy, may also be considered. St. John’s wort should be avoided due to insufficient data on its safety in pregnancy. Ultimately, the decision to continue or discontinue antidepressant medication during pregnancy should be made in consultation with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old crystal healer who lives alone says she doesn't have a best friend and thinks that people judge her unfairly. She says that the power of crystals will cure leukaemia and sometimes feels that her life story appears in magazine stories.
Select from the list the single best description of her personality type.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizotypal
Explanation:Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Characteristics
Personality disorders are not easy to diagnose, but they can be seen as extreme versions of normal behavior that affect an individual’s social functioning. Psychotherapy and cognitive behavior therapy can be helpful, and medication may be used in some cases. These disorders can be grouped into three clusters: odd, dramatic, and anxious. The odd PDs include paranoid, schizotypal, and schizoid. The dramatic PDs include histrionic, borderline, narcissistic, and antisocial. The anxious PDs include dependent, obsessive-compulsive, and avoidant. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, and dangerous behavior. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by excessive attention-seeking behavior and a need for approval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A middle-aged couple visits the clinic. The wife reports that her spouse has been displaying unusual behavior, specifically, constantly checking on their son throughout the day and even at night. On average, he would check around ten to twenty times. When questioned, he explains that a few months ago, he had a frightening experience where he lost his son in a crowded mall, and he keeps replaying the incident in his head. The husband avoids going to crowded places, experiences anxiety, and has trouble sleeping. There is no significant medical or psychiatric history.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
Explanation:Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.
Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man with schizophrenia has recently started taking clozapine after struggling to find an effective Antipsychotic treatment. His full blood count results are as follows:
Hb 152 g/l
MCV 87 fL
WBC 2.0 x 109/L
Neutrophils 0.9 x 109/L
Lymphocytes 1.0 x 109/L
Platelets 322 x 109/L
What is the most suitable action to take in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop Clozapine
Explanation:Agranulocytosis and Neutropenia in Clozapine Treatment
Clozapine is a medication used to treat schizophrenia. However, it carries a risk of agranulocytosis and neutropenia, which are conditions that affect the white blood cells. Agranulocytosis occurs in approximately 1% of patients taking clozapine, while neutropenia occurs in about 3%. The highest risk of developing these conditions is between 6 and 18 weeks after starting clozapine treatment.
Before starting clozapine treatment, blood counts must be normal. During the first 18 weeks of treatment, a full blood count is required weekly. Afterward, the frequency can be reduced to every 2 or 4 weeks after 12 months. If the leucocyte count falls below 3000/mm or the absolute neutrophil count falls below 1500/mm, the medication should be stopped, and the patient should be referred to a haematologist.
Patients taking clozapine should report any symptoms of infection immediately. However, an exception is made for patients with benign ethnic neutropenia. If a haematologist approves, they may be started on the medication. It is essential to monitor blood counts regularly to prevent the development of agranulocytosis and neutropenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old teacher has come to see you because she has been feeling down for the past four weeks. She recently ended a long-term relationship and is struggling with the demands of her job. She shares that she still lives with her parents due to financial constraints and that she frequently argues with them and her younger sister. She expresses interest in taking non-addictive medication to improve her mood and seeing a psychotherapist to work through her issues. You administer a PHQ assessment questionnaire and calculate her score. According to the PHQ assessment, what is the recommended threshold score that indicates the need for active treatment with psychotherapy, medication, or a combination of both?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Score 9
Explanation:Recommended Questionnaires for Primary Care
The use of validated questionnaires in primary care can aid clinicians in assessing the severity of depression and guiding management. Three recommended questionnaires are PHQ-9, HADS, and BDI-II. It is important to familiarize oneself with the basic principles of each questionnaire in case of examination.
The PHQ-9 assessment is particularly useful in determining the severity of depression and the need for intervention. The maximum score is 27, with a score of 15 being the threshold for considering intervention. The higher the score, the greater the symptoms.
Based on the limited information provided in the patient’s history, it is unlikely that antidepressant treatment and psychotherapy referral would be necessary. However, the use of these questionnaires can provide a more comprehensive assessment and aid in the management of depression in primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had previously visited with complaints of worsening headaches and insomnia, which you diagnosed as tension-type headaches after ruling out any red flags. Her sleep pattern has continued to deteriorate over the past few months, with early morning waking being a prominent issue. She denies any substance misuse or excessive alcohol consumption.
During today's visit, she reports experiencing a few episodes of palpitations and occasional dizziness. These symptoms do not occur during exercise, and there are no red flags present. Her cardiovascular and neurological exams are unremarkable, and her blood pressure is normal.
All of her blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and thyroid function tests, come back normal.
What would be the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Consider generalised anxiety disorder as a potential underlying diagnosis and explore if psychological distress present
Explanation:Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) can manifest in various ways, including presenting solely with physical symptoms. Patients with GAD may experience headaches, muscle tension, gastrointestinal symptoms, back pain, and insomnia, without reporting any psychological distress or worry. Therefore, it is important to explore the presence of psychological distress during consultations.
Based on the history and examination provided, there is no indication for urgent cardiology referral, and it would not be an appropriate use of resources.
While beta-blockers may be a suitable treatment option for GAD, further discussion with the patient is necessary before reaching a diagnosis, especially in the presence of somatic symptoms.
Similarly, SSRI may be an appropriate treatment option, but it is important to have a thorough discussion with the patient before prescribing.
In this case, prescribing a sleeping tablet is not the most appropriate option. Secondary insomnia resulting from GAD should be treated, and a sleeping tablet should only be prescribed at the lowest possible dose for the shortest period of time, with regular review. Treatment should not exceed 2-4 weeks due to the risk of tolerance and addiction. Depending on the circumstances, other treatment options such as individual guided self-help, psychological interventions, or cognitive behavioural therapy may be considered.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman requests medication from her General Practitioner as she has an overwhelming feeling of dread about her upcoming job interview. She becomes very anxious in situations where she is required to talk to people who are not very well known to her and usually tries to avoid such events. She is happily married and was very happy in her current job until she was made redundant.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Social phobia
Explanation:Differentiating Anxiety Disorders: A Brief Overview
Anxiety disorders are a group of mental health conditions that can cause significant distress and impairment in daily life. Here are some key differences between the most common anxiety disorders:
Social Phobia: This disorder is characterized by fear, worry, or embarrassment in social situations, leading to avoidance. Panic attacks are common, and symptoms are limited to social situations.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder: This disorder is characterized by excessive, uncontrollable worry that is disproportionate to the situation. Physical and psychological symptoms may be present, but the worry is not limited to specific triggers.
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder: This disorder is characterized by intrusive thoughts or images (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors or mental acts (compulsions) that are performed to alleviate anxiety. These symptoms are not present in the scenario described.
Panic Disorder: This disorder is characterized by sudden-onset acute anxiety symptoms, such as palpitations or hyperventilation. Panic attacks may occur without a specific trigger, but can also be triggered by specific situations.
Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder: This disorder develops after exposure to a traumatic event and is characterized by hyperarousal, dissociation, flashbacks, and nightmares. There is no history of trauma in the scenario described, ruling out PTSD as a diagnosis.
Understanding the differences between these anxiety disorders can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old single mother comes to see you complaining of depression. She says that she is constantly tired, due to looking after her two young sons aged 4 and 6.
She feels constantly sad and tearful and has lost interest in watching her favourite television programmes. She is now losing weight and lying awake for most of the night worrying about her debts. She says that she feels like a worthless mother to her children and has recurrent thoughts of death.
You establish a diagnosis of depression, but what would be the usual minimum length of time that she would have to be experiencing core symptoms in order to reach a diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Six weeks
Explanation:Symptoms of Depression
This patient is displaying several symptoms of depression, which include a persistent feeling of sadness and loss of interest, weight loss, insomnia, feelings of worthlessness, and recurrent thoughts of death. The absence of family support and the responsibility of caring for two young children would also raise concern for any GP. It is important to note that symptoms must be present for at least two weeks to make a diagnosis of depression. It is essential not to confuse this with screening questions for depression, which may be used for patients with other medical conditions. These screening questions typically ask about symptoms of depression in the preceding four weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman comes to your clinic accompanied by her husband, who reports that she has been exhibiting strange behavior for the past two weeks. She has planned a trip to Europe, bought a new car with a personal loan, and told her husband that she wants a divorce. She has been unable to sleep and is always out of the house. During your conversation with her, she insists that everything is fine and attempts to leave the room. When you prevent her from leaving, she tries to jump out of the window of your fourth-floor clinic room. You lock the door and call for security, and together you manage to calm her down and keep her in the room. You diagnose her with an acute manic episode. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Place her under Section 4 of the Mental Health Act and arrange emergency hospital admission
Explanation:In this emergency situation, Section 4 of the Mental Health Act can be utilized by GPs to issue a 72-hour assessment order for the patient’s detention. The patient’s nearest relative, her husband, can assist in completing the order or an AMHP can be involved.
Due to the patient’s behavior, waiting for the emergency psychiatry team or a section 2 to be implemented may result in an unacceptable delay. The patient’s attempt to jump out of the window poses a risk to herself. It is unlikely that arranging emergency hospital admission without detaining her under the mental health act would be appropriate as she lacks insight and is unlikely to engage in treatment. Emergency sedation should not be administered as she has calmed down and is not yet under a section.
Understanding Sectioning under the Mental Health Act
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse to be admitted voluntarily for mental health treatment. This process involves different sections, each with its own set of rules and regulations.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP, along with two doctors who have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is a 72-hour assessment order used in emergencies when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in the hospital for 72 hours, while Section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a, also known as Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order), can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety, while Section 136 allows the police to take someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to a Place of Safety for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
Understanding the different sections of the Mental Health Act can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the legal process of sectioning and ensure that they receive the necessary treatment and support for their mental health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic four weeks after starting treatment with fluoxetine for moderate depressive symptoms. She has no prior experience with antidepressant medication and has no other medical conditions.
During the assessment, she reports no suicidal thoughts and has a supportive partner at home. Despite taking fluoxetine regularly, she has not noticed any improvement in her symptoms and is considering switching to a different medication. She has not experienced any adverse effects with fluoxetine but has heard positive things about St John's wort from a friend.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the fluoxetine and refer for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Patients with Minimal Response to SSRIs
When a patient has been taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for four weeks without benefit, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. Continuing at the current dose is not a satisfactory plan.
After three to four weeks of minimal or absent response, there are essentially two options in addition to increasing the level of support: increasing the dose of the current antidepressant or changing to an alternative agent if there are side effects or the patient prefers. However, caution is needed when switching from fluoxetine to tricyclics because it inhibits the metabolism. Therefore, after appropriate discontinuation of fluoxetine, a lower than usual starting dose of tricyclic would be required.
It is not recommended to prescribe or advocate for St John’s wort due to lack of clarity regarding doses, duration of effect, and variation in the nature of preparations. Additionally, there are serious drug interactions, particularly with oral contraceptives and anti-epileptics.
According to NICE CG90, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is recommended in addition to medication for moderate depression. If response is absent or minimal after 3 to 4 weeks of treatment with a therapeutic dose of an antidepressant, increase the level of support (for example, by weekly face-to-face or telephone contact) and consider increasing the dose in line with the SPC if there are no significant side effects or switching to another antidepressant as described in section 1.8 if there are side effects or if the person prefers.
In summary, it is important to closely monitor patients who are not responding to SSRIs and consider alternative treatment options in consultation with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her current medication for depression. She is currently taking reboxetine but is experiencing over-energization and only sleeping for 4.5-5 hours per night. After discussing her options, you both agree that switching to sertraline may be the best course of action.
What advice would you give her regarding the switch to sertraline?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A washout period of two weeks between drugs is needed
Explanation:Switching from Reboxetine to Sertraline
When switching from reboxetine to sertraline, it is recommended to start sertraline immediately but gradually increase the dose as the reboxetine dose is reduced. It is important to note that reboxetine is metabolized by CYP3A4, which means that taking inhibitors such as macrolides and antifungals like fluconazole may increase its effects by raising plasma concentration. Therefore, caution should be exercised when taking these medications together. Proper management and monitoring of the switch from reboxetine to sertraline can help ensure a smooth transition and minimize potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for advice. He lost his wife to cancer and has been a widower for 6 months. The patient has a supportive family and is not clinically depressed, but he was very emotional after his wife's passing. He sometimes feels indifferent and down, but this has improved significantly over time. However, he has been hearing his late wife's voice on several occasions for the past 2 weeks. He also believed he saw her once while shopping with a friend, but he knows this is impossible.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure and safety-net
Explanation:It is possible for pseudo hallucinations to be a normal part of the grieving process. People who are grieving may experience hearing, seeing, or even smelling their deceased loved one. These occurrences are often associated with acute grief but can happen at any stage of bereavement. Therefore, the patient in question can be reassured.
Since there is no evidence of an organic cause for the patient’s symptoms, it would be inappropriate to arrange blood tests and urinalysis.
While antidepressants may be used to treat severe or atypical cases of grief, they are unlikely to provide significant benefits for a patient who is not clinically depressed. Additionally, they may cause harm due to their adverse effects.
The patient is fully aware of the situation and has insight into their condition. Therefore, there is no need for urgent involvement from a psychiatrist or for the patient to be sectioned under the Mental Health Act 1983.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations: A Controversial Topic in Mental Health
Pseudohallucinations are a type of false sensory perception that occur in the absence of external stimuli. Unlike hallucinations, the affected person is aware that they are experiencing a false perception. However, there is no clear definition of pseudohallucinations in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, leading to controversy among mental health specialists.
Some experts argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, ranging from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations. This approach can prevent misdiagnosis or mistreatment of symptoms. For example, hypnagogic hallucinations, which occur during the transition from wakefulness to sleep, are a common type of pseudohallucination that many people experience. These hallucinations are fleeting and can be either auditory or visual.
The relevance of pseudohallucinations in mental health practice is that patients may need reassurance that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness. Pseudohallucinations are also commonly experienced by people who are grieving, which can add to the confusion and distress of the grieving process.
In conclusion, while the definition and role of pseudohallucinations in mental health treatment remain controversial, it is important for mental health professionals to be aware of this phenomenon and provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who experience it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 131
Incorrect
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John is a 55-year-old man who is admitted to an inpatient psychiatric hospital under section 3. He has refused to eat or drink as he believes he is already dead and no longer needs sustenance. What is the name of the syndrome where a person thinks they are non-existent or deceased?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome
Explanation:Cotard syndrome is a condition where individuals believe that they are dead or do not exist, often associated with depression. Capgras syndrome, on the other hand, is a condition where individuals believe that their loved ones have been replaced by identical imposters. Couvade syndrome, also known as sympathetic pregnancy, affects fathers who experience physical symptoms similar to those of their pregnant partners. Finally, De Clerambault’s syndrome is a condition where individuals believe that a celebrity or another person is deeply in love with them, typically affecting females.
Understanding Cotard Syndrome
Cotard syndrome is a mental illness that is characterized by the belief that one is either dead or doesn’t exist. This rare disorder is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is not necessary. This delusion can be challenging to treat and can result in significant problems for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 132
Incorrect
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You encounter a 48-year-old man experiencing his first episode of depression, which appears to have been triggered by losing his job. He reports feeling significantly better after taking an antidepressant for six weeks and inquires about discontinuing it.
What is the suggested duration for continuing antidepressant medication to minimize the likelihood of relapse?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Recommended Duration of Treatment for Depression
According to NICE guidance, individuals who have experienced their first episode of depression should undergo six months of treatment to decrease the likelihood of relapse. However, for those who have recurrent depression, treatment is recommended for a longer period of two years. It is important to note that the duration of treatment may vary depending on the severity of the depression and the individual’s response to treatment. It is crucial for individuals to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate length of treatment for their specific needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 133
Incorrect
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Sarah is an 80-year-old woman with advanced Alzheimer's disease. She has recently been diagnosed with terminal liver cancer and her oncologist contacts you to inquire about her decision-making capacity for future treatment. What would be your recommended course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Capacity assessments should be carried out by the trained health care professional related to the decision being made.
Explanation:Simply having a diagnosis of severe Alzheimer’s disease doesn’t automatically mean that John lacks decision-making capacity. Age, appearance, condition, or behavior alone cannot be used to determine someone’s capacity.
According to the Mental Capacity Act (2005), capacity should be assessed based on the specific decision and time frame. It is crucial to take all possible steps to support individuals in making their own decisions.
The Mental Capacity Act aims to enable healthcare and social care professionals to conduct capacity assessments independently, rather than relying on specialized testing by psychiatrists or psychologists.
The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.
To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.
When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman reports that she regularly needs to check items. She will return repeatedly to check a door is locked or an iron unplugged or an oven switched off etc. She has even occasionally returned to the house after leaving to check things.
Select from the list the single most correct statement concerning obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) in this patient.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obsessions or compulsions must be a source of distress or interfere with functioning for the diagnosis to be made
Explanation:Understanding and Treating Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors. While many people may exhibit some obsessive or compulsive tendencies, the key to diagnosing OCD is whether it causes distress or interferes with daily functioning.
Cognitive behavioral therapy, specifically exposure and response prevention, is the first-line treatment for OCD. This type of therapy helps individuals confront their fears and learn to resist the urge to engage in compulsive behaviors. If a patient cannot participate in therapy or if it is not effective, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may be prescribed. Clomipramine is an alternative medication to SSRIs.
It is important to note that OCD can affect anyone, regardless of gender, and typically has an onset in adolescence or early adulthood. If you or someone you know is struggling with OCD, seeking professional help can lead to effective treatment and improved quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 135
Incorrect
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You assess a patient who has been on citalopram for the last three years to manage depression. He has been stable for the past two years, and you both decide to discontinue the antidepressant. What is the appropriate method to taper off citalopram?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Withdraw gradually over the next 4 weeks
Explanation:Gradual Reduction of SSRI Dose
When discontinuing the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), it is recommended to gradually reduce the dose over a period of four weeks. This allows the body to adjust to the decreasing levels of the medication and can help prevent withdrawal symptoms. However, this gradual reduction may not be necessary for fluoxetine, as it has a longer half-life compared to other SSRIs. The longer half-life means that the medication stays in the body for a longer period of time, allowing for a slower decrease in levels even after the medication is stopped. It is still important to consult with a healthcare provider before stopping any medication and to follow their instructions for discontinuation. Proper management of medication discontinuation can help ensure a safe and effective transition off of SSRIs.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is brought to the General Practitioner by his daughter, who is a Psychiatric Nurse, for a consultation. The daughter reports that she and other relatives have noticed a change in the patient’s behaviour and believes that he is experiencing ‘delirium, but certainly not dementia’.
Which of the following findings is most likely, assuming the daughter’s assessment of the patient is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Altered consciousness
Explanation:Distinguishing Delirium from Dementia: Key Differences to Note
When it comes to altered consciousness, delirium often causes wild fluctuations in consciousness level, while dementia typically only affects consciousness in severe cases. Additionally, delirium has an acute onset over hours to days, while dementia develops more gradually over months to years. Delirium is usually diagnosed within days of onset, while dementia is typically diagnosed 2-3 years after symptoms begin. Symptoms of delirium tend to fluctuate over the course of 24 hours, while dementia symptoms slowly worsen over time. Finally, while delirium can be reversible with early treatment of the underlying cause, dementia cannot be reversed, though treatment may slow its progression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 137
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old boy takes an overdose of 12 paracetamol tablets after a fight with his best friend. He is found by his roommate and rushed to the hospital.
What is the most significant factor that suggests a high likelihood of successful suicide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Making efforts to not be found
Explanation:The risk of completed suicide is heightened when attempts are made to avoid being discovered. Additionally, the presence of certain factors such as writing a note, making plans, sorting out affairs, and using violent methods also increase the risk. However, there is no evidence to suggest that an overdose of paracetamol and alcohol increases the risk of completed suicide. While a history of deliberate self harm does increase the risk of suicide, it doesn’t necessarily increase the risk of completed suicide. Furthermore, an impulsive suicide attempt is considered less concerning than a meticulously planned one.
The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents after a severe panic attack when she was about to board a plane. She reports general uneasiness about travelling in any form of transport and has started avoiding it if possible. Six months earlier, she sustained minor injuries in a fatal plane crash. She has also become irritable and intolerant to noise, has been awoken by dreams about accidents and admits to being depressed.
Which of the following is the most suitable management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behaviour therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a condition that requires appropriate treatment. Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy is the recommended first-line treatment for those with severe symptoms or persistent symptoms beyond the first month after the event. This therapy includes exposure therapy, cognitive therapy, and stress management. Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing is an alternative therapy for prolonged symptoms. Antidepressants may be used as an adjunct to psychological therapy or if patients decline or fail to respond to psychological therapy.
Hypnotics such as temazepam may be considered for short-term use, but they are not first-line treatment for PTSD. Mirtazapine is a suitable second-line treatment if cognitive therapy is unsuitable or ineffective. Relaxation and non-directive therapy should not be routinely offered as they do not address traumatic memories.
For mild symptoms present for less than four weeks after the event, watchful waiting should be considered, with follow-up within one month. It is important to seek appropriate treatment for PTSD to improve symptoms and overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old male patient with a history of paranoid schizophrenia was admitted under the Mental Health Act due to a decline in his mental health. During his inpatient stay, it was decided that Clozapine would be the most appropriate Antipsychotic for him and he was started on this medication. After his mental state stabilized, he was transferred to a rehabilitation unit. However, it was discovered that he had missed his Clozapine doses for two consecutive days. What is the recommended course of action to address these missed doses of Clozapine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Re-titrate the Clozapine doses again slowly
Explanation:If a patient misses their clozapine doses for more than 48 hours, they will need to slowly restart their dose as if they were starting the medication for the first time. This process should be supervised by a Psychiatrist. Restarting clozapine after a break of more than 48 hours can exacerbate side effects such as changes in blood pressure, drowsiness, and dizziness. If the treatment gap exceeds 72 hours, the patient may require more frequent blood tests for a brief period.
Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man with schizophrenia is prescribed a monthly zuclopenthixol depot injection in the community. He visits his General Practitioner two weeks after receiving the third dose, reporting an uncomfortable internal feeling of restlessness. He explains it as a strong urge to move and seems unable to stay still, which is causing him significant distress.
What is the side-effect of antipsychotic medications that the patient is experiencing? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Understanding Common Side Effects of Antipsychotic Medications
Antipsychotic medications are commonly used to treat a variety of mental health conditions, but they can also cause a range of side effects. It’s important for patients and healthcare providers to be aware of these potential side effects and how to manage them.
One common side effect is akathisia, which is severe restlessness that can occur within the first few months of treatment. This can be distressing for patients and increase the risk of suicide, but it typically responds to dose reduction.
Tardive dyskinesia is another potential side effect, which can present as abnormal movements such as sucking, chewing, and choreoathetosis. It’s more common in women and those with diffuse brain pathology, and only responds to cessation of medication in about 50% of cases.
Acute dystonia is a type of stiffness and rigidity that can occur shortly after taking antipsychotics, particularly phenothiazines and butyrophenones. It’s more common in young men.
Anticholinergic side effects can also occur with antipsychotics, including constipation, urinary retention, dry mouth, blurred vision, and cognitive impairment.
Finally, Parkinsonism can present as rigidity, tremors, stooped posture, and a shuffling gait. It may not appear for several months and can occasionally resolve on its own.
By understanding these potential side effects and how to manage them, patients and healthcare providers can work together to ensure the best possible outcomes for those taking antipsychotic medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old patient complains of nausea, headaches, and palpitations. He has been admitted multiple times in the past 2 years with similar symptoms, but no organic cause has been identified. What type of disorder is likely to be the cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder
Explanation:Somatisation refers to the manifestation of physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. On the other hand, hypochondria is a condition where a person constantly worries about having a serious illness, often believing that minor symptoms are signs of a life-threatening disease such as cancer.
Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry
In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman is under evaluation. She is seeking exemption from job search due to weakness in her right leg. During the examination, the clinician instructs her to lift her unaffected leg against pressure while placing a hand under her affected leg. The clinician feels pressure pushing down against the hand under the unaffected leg.
What is the name of this sign and what does it indicate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hoover's sign suggesting malingering
Explanation:Hoover’s sign is a useful clinical tool for distinguishing between organic and non-organic leg paresis. In cases of non-organic paresis, pressure is felt under the affected leg when lifting the unaffected leg against resistance, due to involuntary contralateral hip extension.
In this particular case, the patient is exhibiting Hoover’s sign, which suggests that she may be feigning a unilateral lower limb weakness in order to obtain financial gain. However, this sign doesn’t indicate a somatisation disorder, which is characterized by persistent symptoms and a refusal to accept negative test results for serious conditions.
Lhermitte’s sign, on the other hand, is a sudden electric shock sensation that occurs when the head is bent forward towards the chest in patients with multiple sclerosis. This sign doesn’t suggest malingering or somatisation disorder.
Similarly, Uhthoff’s sign in multiple sclerosis, where symptoms worsen with heat, doesn’t indicate somatisation disorder.
Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry
In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman with mild depression presents for a follow-up appointment. She seeks guidance on whether taking an antidepressant would be helpful. According to the latest NICE recommendations, which of the following factors would support the use of an antidepressant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If her depression complicates a chronic health problem e.g. Compliance with COPD medication
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with symptoms indicative of a first episode of psychosis. He is hesitant about being referred but acknowledges the need for treatment. What is the correct statement regarding prescribing for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start with a low oral dose and titrate upwards
Explanation:Antipsychotic Prescribing Guidelines for GPs: Consultation with Psychiatrists Recommended
Antipsychotic medication can be prescribed by GPs, but it is recommended that they consult with a psychiatrist before doing so. The drug of choice is an oral atypical antipsychotic, but prescribing doesn’t replace the need for a comprehensive multidisciplinary assessment in secondary care. A study among Irish GPs found that just over half reported prescribing antipsychotics for suspected schizophrenia, with positive symptoms being the most common reason. However, the majority always referred patients to psychiatric services. A low dose should be initiated and titrated up slowly to achieve optimum symptom control without side effects. If treatment fails, alternative atypical or low-potency first-generation antipsychotics can be considered. Recovery rates of 80% have been reported after a first episode of psychosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes to his physician complaining of feeling off for the past few weeks. His girlfriend is with him and expresses concern that he hasn't been acting like himself. She thinks he may need to see a psychiatrist. The patient has no prior history of mental health issues. What symptom would be the most indicative of depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early morning waking
Explanation:Depression often presents with early morning waking as a somatic symptom, which may occur before general insomnia. Anxiety is often associated with palpitations and nausea. Excessive gambling may indicate a gambling addiction or a hypomanic/manic disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder frequently involves flashbacks.
Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents to his GP for a review of his depression. He mentions that he recently applied for Universal Credit due to financial struggles after being made redundant. He requests a copy of his medical record to support his claim.
The patient is currently single and resides alone in the UK. He was last employed six months ago with a private car detailing company, where he worked for over five years before leaving due to mental health issues. He has savings of approximately £20,000. He has no siblings or children, and his parents passed away in a car accident seven years ago.
What is the probable outcome of his Universal Credit application?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He is not eligible as he has more than £16,000 in savings
Explanation:If you have savings exceeding £16,000, you are not eligible to receive Universal Credit. To qualify for Universal Credit, you must be 18 or over (with some exceptions for 16 to 17-year-olds), have a low income or be unemployed, be under State Pension age (or have a partner who is), have savings of £16,000 or less between you and your partner, and live in the UK. While medical conditions or dependents do not impact your eligibility, they may affect the amount of payment you receive.
Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies
Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.
The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.
Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.
Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease comes in for a check-up. He is currently taking a combination of a dopamine agonist, levodopa and a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. Although his motor symptoms are well managed, his wife is worried as he is experiencing mild confusion, staying awake for extended periods during the night, and having visual hallucinations accompanied by delusions that she is attempting to poison him. During the clinic visit, he appears quiet and withdrawn. His mini-mental state score is 23, and he is able to walk across the examination room and perform some fine motor tasks, but he is unable to provide a handwriting sample. What is the most effective approach to managing his hallucinations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Quetiapine
Explanation:Appropriate Medications for Managing Hallucinations and Agitation in Parkinson’s Disease
Managing hallucinations and agitation in patients with Parkinson’s disease can be challenging. The lack of dopamine, which is the cause of motor symptoms in Parkinson’s, makes it difficult to use medications that reduce dopamine levels or effects as they can worsen motor symptoms. Therefore, low-dose atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine are the most appropriate intervention for this condition.
However, medications such as lorazepam and benzhexol are not suitable for long-term use in managing Parkinson’s disease. Lorazepam is heavily sedating and has an intermediate duration of action, while benzhexol can cause disturbed sleep and agitation at higher doses. Entacapone, on the other hand, is a COMT inhibitor that prolongs the effects of levodopa in the brain and doesn’t have any role in preventing hallucinations or treating agitation.
Haloperidol, although effective in treating hallucinations and agitation, is contraindicated for patients with Parkinson’s disease as it is a D2-receptor antagonist that reduces the effect of dopamine in the brain, which can dramatically worsen motor symptoms. Therefore, it is essential to choose appropriate medications that do not worsen motor symptoms while managing hallucinations and agitation in patients with Parkinson’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman was admitted to hospital after she took a paracetamol overdose. She was given a treatment dose of N-acetylcysteine and her baseline and repeat biochemical and haematological indices were normal. She doesn't enjoy her work as a secretary, and she has a regular partner but they have been arguing recently. She didn't intend to kill herself. She denies regularly using alcohol and illicit drugs. She has a past history of an aspirin ‘overdose’, but you note that at the time the blood level was very low and she was not admitted. There is no other significant past medical history. Her parents are divorced and she lives with her mother.
Select from the list the SINGLE FACTOR in the history that suggests she is likely to repeat this behaviour.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 'overdose'
Explanation:Understanding the Risk Factors for Self-Harm and Suicide
Self-harm is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on an individual’s mental and physical health. Previous episodes of self-harm are a strong predictor of future ones, regardless of the severity of the harm done. Other factors that increase the risk of self-harm include a history of psychiatric treatment, substance abuse, negative attitudes towards survival, relationship issues, and unemployment.
When it comes to completed suicide, organic illness, male gender, and middle-age are all risk factors. It’s important to note that around 15% of people who engage in deliberate self-harm will do so again within a year, and 1% will ultimately succeed in committing suicide. Identifying these risk factors is crucial in determining which patients should be referred to psychiatric services for further evaluation and treatment. By understanding these risk factors, we can work towards preventing self-harm and suicide and providing support to those who need it most.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to you after being involved in a car accident 3 weeks ago. He reports experiencing flashbacks of the crash while watching car chase scenes on TV and has been avoiding such shows. He also mentions having trouble falling asleep and feeling more irritable than usual. However, his symptoms have not significantly impacted his work or relationships, and he is generally functioning well. What is the recommended next step in primary care management according to current NICE guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a period of watchful waiting, ensuring a follow-up appointment within 1 month
Explanation:If an individual is experiencing mild to moderate symptoms of PTSD for less than 4 weeks, it may be appropriate to suggest a period of watchful waiting, as per the current NICE guidelines. It is not recommended to use single session interventions that focus on the traumatic event, despite their common practice. Additionally, drug treatments should not be the first-line management for PTSD, whether used by general practitioners or specialist mental health professionals. There is no need for an urgent referral to the adult mental health team in this situation.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.
Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman develops rapid, pressured speech and insomnia for five consecutive nights. She says her energy levels are normal. She has had systemic lupus erythematosus for five years. For two weeks, she has been taking a large daily dose of prednisolone because of a flare-up of this condition. She has no previous personal or family history of psychiatric illness or cardiovascular disease, and she denies using illicit drugs or alcohol.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drug reaction
Explanation:Possible Causes of Psychosis in a Patient with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Psychosis is a rare but possible complication in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus. However, in the case of a patient presenting with symptoms of psychosis, the time frame of symptoms in relation to starting corticosteroids, the patient’s age, and the lack of previous history suggest corticosteroid-induced psychosis. Corticosteroids have been associated with various psychiatric reactions, ranging from psychotic reactions and behavioral disturbances to sleep disturbances and cognitive dysfunction. Symptoms usually appear within days to weeks of starting treatment, and most patients recover after a dose reduction or withdrawal of the medication, with some requiring antipsychotic medication. In adults, severe psychiatric reactions may occur in up to 5-6% of cases.
Other possible causes of psychosis, such as uraemia in end-stage renal failure or acute psychosis, are unlikely in this patient, as there is no history or other symptoms of renal failure, and the symptoms do not match those of acute psychosis. While systemic lupus erythematosus increases the risk of stroke, hypomania/mania after a stroke is rare, occurring in only about 1% of patients. Psychosis is also uncommon in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus, occurring in only 5% of cases at some point during the course of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man is prescribed a prolonged course of oral prednisolone for a flare-up of ulcerative colitis. What is the most commonly associated side effect of extended use of corticosteroids?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insomnia
Explanation:Long-term steroid use often leads to psychiatric issues.
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents due to a 6-month history of cognitive decline. On examination, the General Practitioner notices she has a resting tremor and shuffling gait.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Differentiating Lewy Body Dementia from Other Dementia-Related Disorders
Lewy body dementia (LBD) is a type of dementia that is often misdiagnosed due to its similarity to other dementia-related disorders. One key feature that sets LBD apart is the presence of Parkinsonian symptoms, such as tremors and rigidity. In fact, LBD is diagnosed when a patient develops symptoms of dementia either before or at the same time as Parkinsonian symptoms. Other characteristic features of LBD include fluctuations in cognition and alertness, visual hallucinations, hypersensitivity to neuroleptic medication, and repeated falls.
It is important to differentiate LBD from other disorders, such as Alzheimer’s disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, frontotemporal dementia, and Huntington’s disease. Alzheimer’s disease would not give you Parkinsonian symptoms, while Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rapidly progressing physical and cognitive decline that doesn’t feature Parkinsonian symptoms. Frontotemporal dementia would not give you Parkinsonian symptoms either, and typically presents with prominent changes in personality and social behavior. Huntington’s disease initially presents with chorea, personality changes, and neuropsychiatric symptoms, followed later by dementia, but doesn’t feature Parkinsonian symptoms. By understanding the unique features of LBD and how it differs from other disorders, healthcare professionals can provide more accurate diagnoses and appropriate treatment plans for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 153
Incorrect
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You suspect a 45-year-old man is abusing alcohol. You wish to use the CAGE questionnaire.
Select from the list below the single item that is NOT part of the CAGE questionnaire.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amount of alcohol consumed per week in units
Explanation:The CAGE: A Brief Tool for Screening Alcohol Misuse/Dependence
The CAGE is a concise screening tool used to identify individuals who may be misusing or dependent on alcohol. It consists of four questions, and a positive response to two or more questions indicates probable alcohol misuse/dependence. However, a definitive diagnosis can only be made through a diagnostic evaluation to determine the individual’s actual treatment needs. The four questions ask if the individual has ever considered cutting down on their drinking, if they get annoyed by others commenting on their drinking, if they feel guilty about their drinking, and if they have an eye-opener. The CAGE is a quick and effective way to identify potential alcohol-related issues and guide individuals towards appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman with a 25-year history of treatment with antipsychotic medications for schizophrenia complains of the onset of writhing tongue and finger movements.
Select from the list the single most likely cause.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Explanation:Understanding Tardive Dyskinesia and Differential Diagnosis
Tardive dyskinesia is a condition that can develop in patients who have been on long-term treatment with antipsychotic medications. It is characterized by choreoathetoid movements that typically start in the fingers and tongue before becoming more widespread. While Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease can also present with tremors and choreiform movements, they usually have an earlier onset than tardive dyskinesia. Parkinsonism, on the other hand, is characterized by resting tremors and bradykinesia, while akathisia is characterized by motor restlessness. It is important to note that antipsychotic medications can also cause Parkinson’s symptoms and akathisia. Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat tardive dyskinesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 155
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman requests reduction mammoplasty because she is convinced her breasts are grossly large and misshapen. She dresses in elaborate clothing to hide her shape and, although she swims well, has stopped going to the pool. Physical examination reveals breasts well within the normal range of size and shape.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Body dysmorphic disorder
Explanation:Understanding Body Dysmorphic Disorder: Differentiating it from Other Mental Health Conditions
Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) is a mental health condition characterized by a preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance or excessive concern with a slight physical anomaly. To diagnose BDD, the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5) criteria should be followed. It is important to differentiate BDD from other mental health conditions such as agoraphobia, generalized anxiety disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and schizoaffective disorder. By understanding the unique features of BDD, proper diagnosis and treatment can be provided to those who are affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is hospitalized for acute pancreatitis and has a weekly alcohol intake of 90 units. What is the timeframe for the highest occurrence of delirium tremens after ceasing alcohol consumption?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 72 hours
Explanation:Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within 6-12 hours, seizures may occur after 36 hours, and delirium tremens can also be a potential complication.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. This is due to the fact that chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA-mediated inhibition in the central nervous system (CNS), similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. When alcohol consumption is stopped, the opposite occurs, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission.
Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start within 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at around 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which is characterized by coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, is most likely to occur at around 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is tense and cannot relax. She lies awake at night worrying about work. You suspect she may have generalised anxiety disorder (GAD).
Select from the list the single correct statement about the diagnosis of GAD.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anxiety must have been present for at least 6 months
Explanation:Understanding Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is a mental health condition characterized by excessive and persistent worry about various topics, events, or activities. This worry occurs more often than not for at least six months and is considered to be clearly excessive. In adults, the worry can be related to job responsibilities, health, finances, and other everyday life circumstances. In children, the worry is more likely to be related to their abilities or performance in school.
Individuals with GAD find it challenging to control their worry, which may shift from one topic to another. They also experience at least three of the following symptoms: edginess or restlessness, fatigue, impaired concentration, irritability, increased muscle aches or soreness, difficulty sleeping, and physical symptoms such as sweating, nausea, or diarrhea.
These symptoms make it hard for individuals with GAD to carry out day-to-day activities and responsibilities. It is important to note that these symptoms are unrelated to any other medical conditions and cannot be explained by the effect of substances, including prescription medication, alcohol, or recreational drugs. Additionally, these symptoms are not better explained by a different mental disorder.
Overall, understanding the criteria for diagnosing GAD can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support for this mental health condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 158
Incorrect
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Which of the following medications, when taken with Tamoxifen, may decrease its efficacy and are commonly prescribed to women for anxiety, depression, and hot flashes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Drug Interactions with Tamoxifen
Tamoxifen is a medication used to treat breast cancer, and its effectiveness is dependent on the bioactivation process catalyzed by the cytochrome CYP2D6. However, studies have shown that certain drugs can inhibit CYP2D6, leading to a decrease in the clinical effectiveness of tamoxifen.
Among the drugs that can inhibit CYP2D6, paroxetine and fluoxetine are considered strong inhibitors. Therefore, concomitant use of these drugs with tamoxifen should be avoided. Other drugs have not been shown to have this problem and can be used safely with tamoxifen. It is important to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure the best possible treatment outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 159
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being evaluated by a surgeon. What are the two most effective questions to ask in order to screen for depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 'feeling down, depressed or hopeless' + 'having little interest or pleasure in doing things'
Explanation:Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 160
Incorrect
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What feature is typical of early-stage Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myoclonic jerks
Explanation:Differentiating Alzheimer’s Disease from Other Dementias
Alzheimer’s disease is typically identified by the early onset of short term memory loss. However, other dementias may present with different symptoms that can help differentiate them from Alzheimer’s. For example, gait ataxia and urinary incontinence may suggest normal pressure hydrocephalus, while myoclonic jerks may indicate Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Visual hallucinations may be a sign of delirium or Lewy body dementia. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these alternative diagnoses when evaluating patients with dementia symptoms. By identifying the specific type of dementia, appropriate treatment and management strategies can be implemented to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man and his wife have come to the clinic with concerns about a new treatment he has recently started. He has a lengthy history of severe and debilitating depression that has not responded well to treatment with various selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants. He was referred to specialist mental health services for further management.
His wife reports that he has been prescribed a new medication called 'phenelzine'. Unfortunately, she was unable to attend the psychiatry appointment with him. He informed her that the psychiatrist had advised him to avoid certain foods, but he cannot recall them and left the information leaflet he was given on the bus by mistake.
What is the best way to advise them?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should avoid citrus fruits and bananas
Explanation:Dietary Restrictions for Certain Medical Conditions
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are not commonly prescribed in general practice due to the risk of hypertensive crisis when combined with certain foods or medications. Patients taking MAOIs must avoid tyramine-containing foods and should not take tricyclic antidepressants. Haemodialysis patients are advised to limit their intake of potassium-rich foods such as citrus fruits and bananas. Those with gout should avoid purine-containing foods like offal and shellfish. Patients with coeliac disease must avoid gluten-containing foods like wheat, barley, rye, and sometimes oats. Individuals with oxalate renal stones should avoid oxalate-containing foods like spinach, rhubarb, nuts, and chocolate. By following these dietary restrictions, patients can better manage their medical conditions and avoid potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 162
Incorrect
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You speak to the husband of a patient with depression who was recently discharged from a psychiatry ward after a suicide attempt. He was switched from sertraline to venlafaxine. His husband says his mood is okay but over the last 2 weeks, he became erratic and was not sleeping. He spoke fast about a 'handsome inheritance' he got but was gambling away their savings saying he was going to save the world. When confronted he became angry and accused him of trying to 'steal his energy'. You suspect he's developed mania and refer him to the crisis psychiatry team.
What do you anticipate will be the subsequent step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop venlafaxine and start risperidone
Explanation:The appropriate management for a patient who develops mania while taking an antidepressant is to stop the antidepressant and start antipsychotic therapy. In this case, the patient should stop taking venlafaxine and start taking risperidone. Antidepressants can trigger mania or hypomania as a side effect, particularly with SSRIs and TCAs, and venlafaxine has a particularly high risk. NICE guidance recommends stopping the antidepressant and offering an antipsychotic regardless of whether the antidepressant is stopped. The choice of antipsychotic should be one of haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, or risperidone. Cross-tapering the patient back to sertraline is not recommended, nor is cross-tapering to mirtazapine and adding sodium valproate modified-release. Prescribing a two-week course of oral clonazepam is also not recommended. Starting lithium is effective in manic and depressive relapse prevention in bipolar disorder, but it is not recommended as first-line for the management of acute mania in patients who are not already on antipsychotics.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.
Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 163
Incorrect
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You are contemplating recommending a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for a middle-aged patient with depression. What category of medication is most prone to interact with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Triptan
Explanation:Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 164
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is brought to the General Practitioner by his daughter for a consultation. He has recently been diagnosed with Alzheimer disease, so she asks for more information on the condition and on any associated disorders.
Which of the following disorders is most likely also to be present in this patient because of his recent diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Common Co-Morbidities and Symptoms in Alzheimer Disease
Alzheimer disease is a complex disorder that can present with a variety of co-morbidities and symptoms. One of the most common co-morbidities is depression, which affects 30%-50% of patients. However, depression in Alzheimer patients differs from depression in cognitively intact elderly patients, as it often features motivational disturbances rather than mood symptoms.
Anxiety is also common in people with dementia, particularly in vascular dementia. Panic attacks can occur, but are not significantly more common. Alcohol abuse is another potential comorbidity, as alcohol is a known cause of dementia.
Hallucinations can occur in Alzheimer disease, but are more common in specific forms of dementia such as dementia with Lewy bodies and Parkinson’s disease dementia. Finally, obsessive-compulsive behaviours are more common in frontotemporal dementia, Huntington’s disease, and progressive supranuclear palsy.
Overall, understanding these co-morbidities and symptoms can aid in the differential diagnosis of Alzheimer disease and improve patient care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has been taking with citalopram 40 mg daily for 6 weeks for moderately severe depression. She doesn't feel there has been much improvement. She has had suicidal thoughts but these have been only transient. She does have a history of a previous drug overdose. She has refused psychological treatments.
Select from the list the single most appropriate management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Managing Partial or No Response to Antidepressant Medication
When a patient shows partial or no response to antidepressant medication within 2-4 weeks, it is important to check for adherence to and side-effects from the drug. If these factors are not the issue, the doctor should consider increasing the dose. However, if the patient is already receiving the highest dose of a medication such as citalopram (40 mg daily), switching to an alternative antidepressant may be necessary. This could include another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor or a newer, better-tolerated antidepressant like mirtazapine, moclobemide, or reboxetine. It is important to consult guidance regarding switching, particularly in regards to washout times. Tricyclic antidepressants or venlafaxine should be avoided if there is a risk of overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner over concerns about his behaviour at school. There is concern that he is being bullied.
Which of the following behaviours is most likely to have prompted this enquiry?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Self-harm
Explanation:Understanding Bullying: Signs and Symptoms
Bullying can have serious effects on a child’s mental health, and it should always be viewed as unacceptable. It can take various forms, such as physical or psychological, and can include teasing, name-calling, hitting, kicking, and social exclusion. Signs that a child may be experiencing bullying include unexplained scratches and bruises, crying themselves to sleep, nightmares, depression, self-harm, headaches, abdominal pain, fear of walking to or from school, school refusal or truancy, poor school performance, and changes in behavior such as social isolation. On the other hand, signs that a child may be a bully include aggressive behavior, physical strength, having a high opinion of oneself, expecting people to behave according to one’s wishes, being popular or unpopular with other children, little concern for the feelings of others, and disregard for rules. Children who bully are at risk of failing in school, dropping out of school, getting involved with crime and fights later in life, and using drugs. It is important to recognize these signs and symptoms and take action to prevent and address bullying.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A General Practitioner receives a call from a patient's relative who is worried about the patient's possible manic episode due to bipolar disorder. What symptoms would be commonly observed in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lack of normal social inhibitions
Explanation:Symptoms of Mania in Bipolar Disorder
Mania is a common symptom of bipolar disorder, characterized by a period of elevated or irritable mood, increased energy, and other changes in behavior. Here are some common symptoms of mania:
Lack of normal social inhibitions: Manic episodes can lead to sexual indiscretions and loss of other normal social inhibitions, putting patients at risk of unplanned pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections.
Avoidance of pleasurable activities: Manic patients may engage in excessive spending and other pleasurable activities without considering the consequences.
Increased sleep: While reduced sleep is a common feature of mania, increased sleep can be a symptom of depression in bipolar disorder.
Power of concentration increased: Manic patients may experience distractibility and reduced concentration, rather than increased levels of concentration.
Reduced energy levels: While manic patients may feel elated and full of energy, this often shifts into depression, where they feel sad and hopeless with low energy levels.
It is important to recognize these symptoms and seek appropriate treatment for bipolar disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman is concerned about the possibility of developing dementia. What are the typical initial symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progressive memory impairment, apraxia and dysphasia
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Alzheimer’s Disease
Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is a neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects the brain’s temporoparietal cortex. The most common symptom of AD is progressive memory loss, which is often accompanied by other cognitive deficits such as apraxia, aphasia, acalculia, and visuospatial dysfunction. However, it is important to note that not all cognitive deficits are indicative of AD. For example, the combination of progressive memory impairment and pyramidal signs is an unusual presentation for AD, as pyramidal signs are not typically associated with this condition. Similarly, personality changes and extrapyramidal signs are unlikely to be caused by AD, as these symptoms are more commonly seen in frontotemporal dementia. While some patients with advanced stages of AD may experience seizures or myoclonic jerks, these symptoms are not typically present during the early stages of the disease. Overall, a thorough understanding of the symptoms of AD is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman with a history of anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 16 kg/m2. She has lost 2 kg steadily over the past four weeks. She is unable to sit up from lying flat without using her hands or to stand from the squatting position without using her hands. Lanugo is present. Her hands feel cold to the touch.
Which feature of the patient’s physical examination would be most suggestive of impending high risk to life?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to sit up or squat without using the hands
Explanation:Identifying High Risk Factors in Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that can lead to life-threatening complications. The Royal College of Psychiatrists in the United Kingdom has issued guidance on recognising medical emergencies in eating disorders. Here are some key factors to consider when assessing the risk to life in anorexia nervosa:
Sit up–Squat–Stand (SUSS) test: This test involves asking a patient to sit up from a lying position and to stand up from a squatting position without using their hands. Inability to do this is associated with impending high risk to life.
Rate of weight loss: A weight loss of 500-999 g per week presents a moderate risk to life, whereas weight loss of >1 kg per week confers a high risk.
BMI: A BMI of greater than 15 kg/m2 represents a low impending risk to life, whereas a BMI of <13 kg/m2 is a high risk. Cool peripheries: Although cool peripheries may be seen on examination in anorexia nervosa, they are not associated with a high risk to life. However, a core temperature of less than 35 °C is. Lanugo: Lanugo is a covering of soft downy hair often seen in people with anorexia, but it is not identified as being associated with an increased risk to life in anorexia nervosa. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate interventions to prevent life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 170
Incorrect
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You are conducting a diabetic annual review on a 63-year-old man with type 2 diabetes. As part of the review, you are checking for any indications of depression. NICE suggests using two questions to screen for depression in at-risk patients, such as those with chronic illnesses. What is one of the questions that should be asked as part of the evaluation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?
Explanation:Managing Chronic Medical Conditions in Primary Care
More and more patients with complex, chronic medical conditions are being managed in primary care, such as diabetes where some practices are initiating and managing patients on insulin and newer injectable treatments. However, with this greater workload comes the need for structured regular reviews. Part of reviewing a patient with a chronic medical problem is to consider the psychological impact of their disease and to elicit any depression or mood disorder that may be present.
To approach this scenario, NICE has provided a framework that advises asking two questions. If either question is answered with a ‘yes,’ further inquiry is needed into specific symptoms of depression. The two questions are: During the last month, have you been feeling down, depressed, or hopeless? During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?
By regularly reviewing patients with chronic medical conditions and considering their psychological well-being, primary care providers can provide comprehensive care and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A fax from psychiatry regarding a 35-year-old man has been received, requesting that the patient be initiated on quetiapine. The patient has no significant medical history but has been referred due to experiencing psychotic symptoms. Upon reviewing the patient's medical records, it is noted that a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and fasting blood glucose were conducted in the past two weeks after the patient complained of constant fatigue. What other tests should be performed as a baseline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fasting lipids, weight, blood pressure, prolactin
Explanation:While psychiatrists typically start antipsychotic treatment, it is not unusual for GPs to take over prescribing for stable patients or initiate therapy based on a recommendation from a psychiatrist. As such, it is important for us to have a fundamental understanding of the monitoring necessary for safe prescribing. Additionally, a cardiovascular risk assessment and ECG may be necessary depending on the patient’s medical history.
Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student nurse has come to you feeling depressed. She has had a number of health related problems in the recent past and feels that they may be a contributing factor because she has taken a lot of sick leave and now has to meet with the head of human resources.
She suffers from asthma, thyroid disease and acne. She thinks that one of her medicines may be contributing to her depression.
Which of the following is most likely to cause depression?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone tablets
Explanation:Medications and Depression
Depression caused by medication is not a common occurrence. However, certain medications have been linked to depression. These include isotretinoin, lipid soluble beta blockers like propranolol, methyldopa, and opioid analgesics. Steroids have been associated with mania, but levothyroxine treatment doesn’t cause depression. Antihistamines are rarely linked to depression. Out of the medications listed, isotretinoin is the most likely to cause depression. It is important to discuss any concerns about medication and mental health with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 173
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately reflects the epidemiological risk factors for schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The lifetime risk of developing schizophrenia is 1%
Explanation:Schizophrenia: Prevalence, Onset, and Demographics
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that affects 1% of the global population. Although it can occur at any age, it typically starts in late adolescence or early adulthood, with rare cases before puberty. Men tend to develop schizophrenia earlier than women, and they are more likely to experience severe symptoms. Negative symptoms are also more common in men. The condition is more prevalent among migrants, people in lower social classes, and those living in urban areas. Some studies suggest that schizophrenia is more frequently diagnosed in black individuals than in white individuals, but this finding may be due to cultural biases or healthcare disparities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. His parents brought him to the doctor after noticing he was restricting his food intake and losing weight. What type of treatment is typically recommended for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Family based therapy
Explanation:The primary treatment for anorexia nervosa in children and adolescents is family therapy that specifically targets anorexia.
Anorexia nervosa is a prevalent mental health condition that primarily affects teenage and young-adult females. It is the most common reason for admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards. The disorder is characterized by a restriction of energy intake, leading to a significantly low body weight in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health. Patients with anorexia nervosa also experience an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though they are underweight. They may also have a distorted perception of their body weight or shape, which can affect their self-evaluation.
The diagnosis of anorexia nervosa is based on the DSM 5 criteria, which no longer specifically mention BMI and amenorrhoea. Instead, the criteria focus on the restriction of energy intake, fear of gaining weight, and disturbance in the way one’s body weight or shape is experienced.
The management of anorexia nervosa varies depending on the age of the patient. For adults, NICE recommends individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), or specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). In children and young people, NICE recommends ‘anorexia focused family therapy’ as the first-line treatment, followed by cognitive behavioural therapy as the second-line treatment.
Unfortunately, the prognosis for patients with anorexia nervosa remains poor, with up to 10% of patients eventually dying because of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 175
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl has not been attending school.
Select from the list of options the single feature that would suggest school refusal rather than truancy.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting on the way to school
Explanation:Understanding School Refusal: Symptoms, Causes, and Consequences
School refusal is a common problem affecting 1-5% of school-aged children, with similar rates in both boys and girls. It typically occurs in children aged 5, 6, 10, and 11, and may be triggered by stressful events at home or school, or after a holiday or illness. Symptoms include fear, panic, crying, temper tantrums, threats of self-harm, and somatic complaints such as dizziness, headaches, and nausea.
Short-term consequences of school refusal include poor academic performance, family difficulties, and problems with peer relationships. Long-term consequences may include academic underachievement, employment difficulties, and increased risk for psychiatric illness. Children with school refusal may suffer from significant emotional distress, particularly anxiety and depression.
School avoidance may serve different functions depending on the child, such as avoidance of specific fears, escape from aversive social situations, separation anxiety, or attention-seeking behaviors. It is important to address school refusal early on, as the longer the child stays out of school, the more difficult it is to return.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, causes, and consequences of school refusal can help parents and caregivers provide appropriate support and intervention for their child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 176
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for his annual review; he has a diagnosis of schizophrenia and he has been stable on olanzapine for three years. He is otherwise fit and well and doesn't take any other medication. The initial screening investigations performed in secondary care were all normal before his medication was initiated.
Which of the following investigations should be included in an annual health check in primary care for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lipid profile
Explanation:Monitoring Health in Patients with Schizophrenia: Recommended Tests and Frequency
Patients with schizophrenia or other psychotic illnesses should undergo an annual health check in primary care to assess their mental and physical health. The following tests are recommended:
– Weight, pulse, and blood pressure measurements
– Full blood count, liver function tests, urea & electrolytes, lipid profile, HbA1c, and fasting glucose
– Prolactin level (annually for patients taking first-generation antipsychotics or risperidone, or if symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia are present)
– Electrocardiogram (ECG) before initiating olanzapine, and annually for patients taking haloperidol, pimozide, or sertindole, or if the patient had an abnormal ECG at initial screening or risk factors of developing a prolonged QTc interval
– Creatinine kinase (CK) only if the patient develops symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
– Thyroid function tests (TFTs) only if there are other indications to do so, such as known thyroid disease or symptoms to suggest co-existing hypo- or hyperthyroidism, except for patients taking lithium who must have their TFTs checked regularly.Regular monitoring is important as atypical antipsychotics can increase the risk of developing cardiovascular disease risk factors. However, not all tests need to be performed annually for all patients, and the frequency of testing may vary depending on the medication and individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with weakness of his right arm - he cannot move the arm at all.
The weakness came on suddenly. He sees a neurologist but no neurological illness can be found. He is a soldier and has just returned from a tour of duty. He has no history of illness and has not missed a day off work for two years. The weakness has been present for nine days.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Diagnosis of a Soldier with Paralysis
The soldier in this case has a previously good sickness record but is now experiencing muscle paralysis. It is reasonable to assume that he has been exposed to considerable stress in the recent past. After seeing a neurologist, it can be concluded that there is no neurological disease present.
This situation is indicative of a conversion disorder, which is a psychological condition where physical symptoms cannot be explained by medical examination. Muscle paralysis is a common symptom of this disorder, and the signs do not support the symptoms. In fact, tone may seem to be increased due to simultaneous flexor and extensor contraction.
Given the soldier’s history and symptoms, it is unlikely that he is malingering. Instead, psychological factors are likely to be important in this case. Overall, the most likely diagnosis for this soldier is a conversion disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl is brought for review. She is typically healthy and hasn't had a doctor's appointment in over four years. Her parents have become increasingly worried about her behavior in the past few weeks. They report her staying up late at night, talking rapidly, and being very irritable. Yesterday she told her parents she was planning to take over the school assembly and give constructive criticism to her teachers in front of the other students. She feels many of her teachers are underperforming and need to be re-taught their subjects by her. She admits to trying cannabis once around eight months ago and has drank alcohol a few times in the past year, the last time being three weeks ago. Prior to her decline a few weeks ago, her parents describe her as a happy, well-adjusted, sociable young woman. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mania
Explanation:It is highly improbable for him to experience issues related to cannabis and alcohol as it has been a considerable amount of time since he last consumed these substances.
Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania
Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they are not the same. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are significant differences between them. Mania is a severe form of mood disorder that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant functional impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to self or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.
On the other hand, hypomania is a milder form of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It doesn’t impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. Hypomania doesn’t exhibit any psychotic symptoms. The length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.
Despite their differences, both hypomania and mania share some common symptoms. These include predominantly elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 179
Incorrect
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You see a 40-year-old woman for a third episode of moderately severe depression in the last 18 months.
She has been stopping and starting her antidepressant medication according to how she is feeling. You advise her that she should take the medication regularly.
What length of time is recommended for continuation of antidepressants for recurrent depression?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Six months
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Antidepressant Use for Recurrent Depression
According to NICE guidance, patients who have experienced two or more depressive episodes in the recent past and have suffered significant functional impairment during these episodes should be advised to continue taking antidepressants for a period of two years. This recommendation is based on evidence that suggests that longer-term use of antidepressants can reduce the risk of relapse and recurrence of depression. It is important to note that this guidance applies specifically to patients with recurrent depression and should be considered on a case-by-case basis in consultation with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 180
Incorrect
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The five stages of change for addictive behaviours are Action, Contemplation, Maintenance, precontemplation, and Preparation. What is the correct rank order for these stages?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 42513
Explanation:The Stages of Change: Understanding Behavioural Transformation
Behavioural change is a process that involves several stages. The precontemplation stage is characterized by a lack of awareness of the problem and no intention to change. In the contemplation stage, individuals acknowledge the problem and consider overcoming it but have not yet committed to taking action. The preparation stage involves intention and behavioural plans, with individuals intending to take action soon. The action stage is where individuals modify their behaviour, experiences, and environment to overcome their problems. The maintenance stage involves preventing relapse and consolidating gains attained during action. It is common for individuals to recycle through these stages several times before terminating the addiction. Understanding where a person is in relation to the stages of change can be helpful to doctors in promoting and supporting change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient presents five days after abruptly discontinuing diazepam, which he had been taking for more than two years. He reports feeling generally unwell. What symptom would indicate a condition other than benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothermia
Explanation:Benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome doesn’t include hypothermia as a symptom.
Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which has an inhibitory effect on the brain. This makes them useful for a variety of purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and as anticonvulsants. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for short periods of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually, reducing the dose every few weeks. If patients withdraw too quickly, they may experience benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms including insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Other drugs, such as barbiturates, work in a similar way but have different effects on the duration or frequency of chloride channel opening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother and she complains that she resists going to school because she wants to stay with her mother. She becomes terrified whenever her parents leave the house. During the day she worries that her family may never come back home.
What is the disorder most closely associated with these symptoms in adulthood?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Panic disorder
Explanation:The Relationship Between Childhood Separation Anxiety and Mental Disorders
Separation anxiety disorder is a condition characterized by excessive anxiety related to separation from an attachment figure, such as a mother. Studies have shown that this disorder is a strong risk factor for developing mental disorders, particularly panic disorder and depression, in people aged 19-30 years. However, there is no proven link between childhood separation anxiety and irritable bowel syndrome, obsessive-compulsive disorder, schizophrenia, or somatic symptom disorder. While negative childhood experiences may play a role in the development of some mental disorders, separation anxiety in childhood is not directly related to these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 183
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is least acknowledged as a possible negative outcome of electroconvulsive therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epilepsy
Explanation:There is no long-term risk of epilepsy associated with electroconvulsive therapy, despite the fact that it induces a controlled seizure.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for individuals who suffer from severe depression that doesn’t respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.
Short-term side effects of ECT may include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events that occurred before the treatment, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and subside after a short period of time.
Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks and side effects, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman is brought to see you by her son, who reports that the family is at their wit's end. She has always been prone to 'melancholy', but over the last few months has become excitable, spending large amounts of money on a television shopping channel and booking a number of expensive holidays for herself and her family. Although she seems to have boundless energy, her home is very untidy and she is irritable when criticized.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder
Explanation:Understanding Bipolar Disorder: Types, Prevalence, and Symptoms
Bipolar disorder, previously known as manic-depressive psychosis, is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating episodes of mania and depression. There are two types of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I and Bipolar II. Bipolar I is characterized by severe manic episodes that result in impaired functioning and frequent hospital admissions, interspersed with major depressive episodes. On the other hand, Bipolar II patients experience hypomanic episodes that are less severe than full mania and do not have psychotic symptoms.
Studies suggest that bipolar disorder has a lifelong prevalence rate of 2.4%. When hallucinations and delusions are present during the manic phase, it can be difficult to differentiate from schizophrenia. However, this patient’s age suggests that it is unlikely to be schizophrenia. Additionally, periods of melancholy suggest interspersed depressive episodes. There is no indication of cognitive dysfunction, and the recent marked change in behavior doesn’t suggest someone who is normally a bit high.
In conclusion, understanding the types, prevalence, and symptoms of bipolar disorder is crucial in identifying and treating this mental health condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 185
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man reports feeling anxious and worried most of the time. He denies depression and is not interested in psychological interventions. He requests medication to help him calm down. What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Treatment for Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is a chronic condition that requires long-term treatment. The recommended approach, according to NICE guidelines, is to start with low-intensity psychological interventions and then move on to high-intensity psychological interventions and/or drug therapy. The first choice of medication is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), with sertraline being suggested. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, another SSRI should be offered. Benzodiazepines should only be used as a short-term measure during a crisis, and buspirone should be used with caution. β blockers and antipsychotic medication are not effective. It is important to note that GAD worsens the prognosis for any other condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman attends with her mother. She has always lived at home and never worked. Over the past few weeks she has become increasingly anxious and begs her mother not to leave her on her own at home. Her mother reveals that her daughter has always needed a lot of reassurance and has never liked being left alone.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dependent personality disorder
Explanation:Common Personality and Mental Health Disorders
Dependent Personality Disorder: This disorder is characterized by a person’s inability to make decisions on their own and a constant need for reassurance and support from others.
Borderline Personality Disorder: Individuals with this disorder experience intense mood swings, unstable relationships, and may engage in self-harm or have suicidal tendencies.
Conversion Disorder: This disorder involves physical symptoms that mimic a medical condition, but have no underlying medical cause.
Depression: A mental health disorder characterized by persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest in activities.
Histrionic Personality Disorder: People with this disorder have a strong desire for attention and may engage in dramatic or seductive behavior to gain approval from others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 187
Incorrect
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According to the Mental Capacity Act (2005), what would indicate that a person doesn't have capacity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to weigh up information and make a decision
Explanation:Understanding Capacity to Make Decisions: The Test and Criteria
The Mental Capacity Act provides a clear and concise test to determine whether a person lacks capacity to make a decision at a particular time. The test involves assessing whether the person has an impairment or disturbance of mental function that prevents them from making the decision in question.
To have capacity, a person must be able to understand the relevant information, retain it, use it to make a decision, and indicate that decision through communication. Age, appearance, and behavior are not factors in determining capacity.
Overall, understanding the criteria for capacity is crucial in ensuring that individuals are able to make informed decisions and have their rights protected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old primiparous woman is brought to the General Practice surgery by her concerned partner. She delivered a healthy baby born seven days ago.
Within two days of delivery, she told her husband that she thought he was poisoning her food. She thinks someone is watching her and they want to take her baby away. She has heard voices telling her she doesn't deserve to have a family. She has not had a bath in six days.
Which is the most appropriate intervention?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to secondary Mental Health services for immediate assessment within four hours
Explanation:Management of Postnatal Psychosis
Postnatal psychosis is a serious mental health condition that requires urgent assessment and management. It is characterized by positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, as well as negative symptoms like emotional apathy and social withdrawal. The recommended treatment for postnatal psychosis is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), which can help manage depression and other symptoms. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) like sertraline are not typically used to treat postnatal psychosis. Midwives can provide additional support for women experiencing postnatal depression, but urgent referral to secondary mental health services is necessary for those with postnatal psychosis. Immediate assessment within four hours is recommended for those with severe symptoms, while urgent assessment within seven days is necessary for those with less severe symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 189
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old teacher has been seeking your help for the past four weeks due to symptoms of mild depression. You have prescribed an antidepressant and would like to suggest cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) as an additional treatment. However, access to CBT in your area is limited. During your latest appointment, the patient has mentioned finding some online CBT therapies and would like your advice on the most suitable options. Which computer-based CBT therapies (CCBT) are recommended by NICE for managing mild to moderate depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beating the Blues
Explanation:CCBT Approved by NICE for Depression and Anxiety Treatment
In 2002, NICE did not recommend any form of computerized cognitive behavioral therapy (CCBT). However, the current packages have been reviewed and two have been approved. Beating the Blues has been recommended as an option in the treatment of mild to moderate depression and should be made available free to all NHS patients. Although approved by NICE, Fear Fighter is aimed at the treatment of panic and phobia. NICE consider that there is insufficient evidence to recommend the use of COPE and Overcoming Depression as clinically cost-effective options, but this may change should further trials prove successful. OC Fighter (previously known as BTSteps) is used to supplement treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder.
If you are a healthcare professional, do you use CCBT in the management of your patients? If so, it is important to note that Beating the Blues is now available for free to all NHS patients with mild to moderate depression. Patients can access this treatment through their GP or mental health professional. It is important to stay up-to-date with NICE guidelines and recommendations for the use of CCBT in the treatment of mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 190
Incorrect
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You receive notification from your local hospital that a 23-year-old patient registered at your practice has passed away after jumping from the top floor of his apartment block. This patient was known to be suffering from depression and had spent some time at an inpatient mental health unit last year.
At what point in his history would it be necessary to refer this patient to the coroner?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Death by suicide
Explanation:If a person is suspected to have died by suicide, it is mandatory to report the death to the coroner. However, the death of a patient under 25 years of age doesn’t require referral to the coroner, while the death of a patient under 18 years of age must be reported to the coroner for safeguarding purposes. Similarly, death in a public place doesn’t necessitate referral to the coroner, and neither does death in a patient with a history of mental illness or previous treatment in an inpatient mental health unit. Nonetheless, deaths of individuals detained under the mental health act must be reported to the coroner.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has been drinking alcohol heavily for over 20 years but now needs to drink more to feel drunk as well as to avoid being irritable. He works as a bank manager and gave up driving 5 years ago at the insistence of his wife. There is no evidence of chronic liver disease on physical examination. Assessment of his mental state reveals episodes of low mood. He no longer goes out with friends.
Select from the list the single most correct diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol dependence
Explanation:Alcohol Dependence and Social Withdrawal: Understanding the Symptoms
Alcohol dependence is a syndrome characterized by withdrawal symptoms, tolerance, and loss of control over alcohol use. The CAGE questionnaire is a useful screening tool for alcohol-related disorders. Episodes of low mood may be related to alcohol dependence. Social withdrawal is a feature of various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia, personality disorders, autism spectrum disorders, depression, social anxiety disorder, and traumatic brain injury. Understanding the symptoms of alcohol dependence and social withdrawal can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 192
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old long-distance runner who is currently preparing for a regional marathon approaches the team doctor with an unusual sensation in her legs. She reports feeling numbness below her knee. Upon examination, the doctor notes sensory loss below the left knee in a non-dermatomal distribution. The doctor suspects a non-organic cause of her symptoms. What type of disorder is this an example of?
Conversion disorder - typically involves loss of motor or sensory function. May be caused by stress.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conversion disorder
Explanation:Conversion disorder is a condition that often results in the loss of motor or sensory function and is believed to be triggered by stress.
Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry
In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, was seen for a routine mental health review and ECG review. He reported no symptoms and was otherwise well. He is on regular oral haloperidol. He has had no changes to medications other than recently being treated for tonsillitis with clarithromycin.
Rate 66
Rhythm Sinus
PR interval 180 ms
QTc 505 ms
RR interval 1 s
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discuss with the on-call medical team for advice
Explanation:Risk of QT Prolongation with Clarithromycin and Haloperidol
Both clarithromycin and haloperidol have been associated with an increased risk of QT prolongation, which can lead to potentially life-threatening arrhythmias. If a patient’s QTc interval exceeds 500 ms, it is crucial to discuss the case with the on-call team immediately. The patient may require inpatient cardiac monitoring and consultation with psychiatry regarding their current antipsychotic medication. It is essential to monitor patients closely for signs of QT prolongation when prescribing these medications and to take appropriate measures to prevent adverse outcomes. Proper management of QT prolongation can help prevent serious cardiac events and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with suicidal ideation after a fight with her partner. She has a history of relationship problems and frequently argues with loved ones. She denies experiencing any paranoid thoughts or unusual beliefs but reports hearing a voice in her head that describes her negative thoughts. Upon examination, you observe several superficial scars on her forearms. There is no evidence of delusions or abnormal speech.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The correct answer is borderline personality disorder, which is characterized by recurrent self-harm and intense interpersonal relationships that alternate between idealization and devaluation. Symptoms also include fluctuating mood and the possibility of paranoid thoughts and hallucinations.
Paranoid personality disorder is not the correct answer, as it primarily involves difficulty trusting others and interpreting situations as threatening. While some degree of paranoia is described in the patient, the other symptoms are more indicative of borderline personality disorder.
Schizoid personality disorder is also not the correct answer, as it involves difficulty forming close relationships and a preference for being alone. The patient in this scenario describes relationships with partners, friends, and family.
Schizophrenia is not the correct answer either, as it primarily involves delusions, auditory hallucinations, and disorders of thought perception.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old lady comes to see you about her husband. He suffers with Alzheimer's dementia and she is finding it difficult to cope. She says that she doesn't drive and has had to resort to employing private carers to allow her time to do the shopping. She says that they are both in receipt of generous pensions but her sister has suggested that she applies for any benefits that are applicable.
What can you tell her about the Attendance Allowance (AA)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To qualify for Attendance Allowance patients must be State Pension age or over
Explanation:Attendance Allowance – A Guide for GPs
Attendance Allowance is a tax-free benefit that provides financial assistance to individuals who are State Pension age or older and have a disability that requires additional help with personal care. This benefit is not affected by income or employment status. To qualify, the individual must have required assistance for at least six months, unless they are terminally ill. There are two levels of Attendance Allowance – lower and higher.
As a GP, you may be asked to complete a statement at the end of the Attendance Allowance claim form by your patient. If the decision maker cannot determine benefit entitlement without further evidence, they may request that you complete a medical report based on your medical records and knowledge of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic after four weeks of starting fluoxetine treatment for moderate depressive symptoms. She has no prior history of taking antidepressants and has no other medical conditions. During the assessment, she denies any suicidal thoughts and has good support from her partner at home. Despite taking fluoxetine regularly, she has not noticed any improvement in her symptoms and is considering switching to a different medication. She reports no adverse effects from fluoxetine but has heard positive feedback about St John's Wort from a friend. What would be the most appropriate action to take for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Change to a tricyclic antidepressant
Explanation:Treatment Options for Patients with Minimal Response to SSRIs
When a patient has been taking a Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for four weeks without benefit, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. Continuing at the current dose is not a satisfactory plan.
There are essentially two options in addition to increasing the level of support: increasing the dose of the current antidepressant or changing to an alternative agent if there are side effects or the patient prefers. However, it is important to note that switching from fluoxetine to tricyclics requires great caution as it inhibits the metabolism. Therefore, a lower than usual starting dose of tricyclic would be required.
Although there is some evidence of the benefit of St John’s Wort, it is not recommended that doctors prescribe or advocate its use due to the lack of clarity regarding doses, duration of effect, and variation in the nature of preparations. Additionally, there are serious drug interactions, particularly with oral contraceptives and antiepileptics.
For moderate depression, Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) is recommended in addition to medication. It is important to monitor the patient’s response to treatment and adjust accordingly to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 197
Incorrect
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You are seeing a teenage patient who has been diagnosed with PTSD.
He has previously been treated with sertraline but wants to stop because of a rash.
He has a review appointment with a psychiatrist in 3 months. Assuming any appropriate cross tapering and initiation, what alternative treatment could you prescribe instead?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Buspirone
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Drug Treatments for PTSD in Adults
The NICE guidance on the management of PTSD was updated in 2018, and there were a few changes from earlier guidance. One of the changes was regarding drug treatments for adults with PTSD. According to the latest NICE guidance NG116, benzodiazepines should not be offered as a drug treatment to prevent PTSD in adults. However, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, can be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if they have a preference for drug treatment. It is important to review this treatment regularly.
In addition, antipsychotics such as risperidone can be considered, along with psychological therapies, to manage symptoms for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if they have disabling symptoms and behaviors, such as severe hyperarousal or psychotic symptoms, and their symptoms have not responded to other drug or psychological treatments. It is important that antipsychotic treatment is started and reviewed regularly by a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old teacher is undergoing treatment for moderate depression with citalopram 20 mg daily. She initially sought help due to a recent break-up and stress at work caused by a difficult colleague. This is her first experience with depression and she has been taking medication for three months. She has a supportive family, including her parents and sister who live nearby.
At her last appointment one month ago, she reported still feeling sad when alone with her thoughts and not fully recovered. However, at her most recent appointment, she reported feeling like her usual self again. She has resolved the work issues with her colleague and is enjoying her social life with friends. She has also started practicing yoga and is interested in tapering off her medication.
Based on her current progress, when is the earliest appropriate time for her to consider tapering off her medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He can tail off in six months
Explanation:Duration of Antidepressant Treatment
This patient, a relatively young individual who has experienced a first episode of depression, has successfully recovered without any lingering issues that would indicate a high risk of recurrence. It is recommended that he continue taking his antidepressants for at least six more months. While there are situations where treatment may need to be extended, such as for older adults or those at a high risk of relapse, this patient is eager to reduce his medication. Therefore, six months is the earliest opportunity for reducing the dose.
It is common for patients to want to stop taking their medication once they feel better. However, it is important to remind them that depression can be a recurrent condition. Continuing treatment for the recommended period can help prevent relapse and will not result in addiction to the medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with dry, eczematous hands. She reports being a very hygienic person, but since the onset of the covid-19 pandemic, she has been washing her hands excessively - up to 50 times a day. She is aware that this is causing her skin to become dry and irritated, but her attempts to reduce her hand washing have led to increased anxiety and a return to her previous routine. She works in a hospital and is worried about her colleagues noticing her frequent hand washing. Given her symptoms, what treatment options are available for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that affects 1 to 3% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of obsessions, which are unwanted intrusive thoughts, images, or urges, and compulsions, which are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform. These symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and distress.
Risk factors for OCD include a family history of the condition, age (with peak onset between 10-20 years), pregnancy/postnatal period, and a history of abuse, bullying, or neglect.
The management of OCD involves classifying the level of impairment as mild, moderate, or severe using the Y-BOCS scale. For mild impairment, low-intensity psychological treatments such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP) are recommended. If this is insufficient, a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) can be offered. For moderate impairment, a choice of either an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) is recommended, with clomipramine as an alternative first-line drug treatment to an SSRI if necessary. For severe impairment, referral to the secondary care mental health team for assessment is necessary, with combined treatment of an SSRI and CBT (including ERP) or clomipramine as an alternative while awaiting assessment.
ERP is a psychological method that involves exposing a patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. This helps them confront their anxiety, leading to the eventual extinction of the response. Treatment with an SSRI should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement. Compared to depression, the SSRI usually requires a higher dose and a longer duration of treatment (at least 12 weeks) for an initial response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 200
Incorrect
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You are caring for a 35-year-old woman who has been struggling with severe depression since a young age. Despite trying various antidepressants, she has not found relief. A consultant psychiatrist has now prescribed phenelzine, an MAOI. The patient has been informed about the dietary restrictions, but has come to you for more information. What foods can she safely consume while taking an MAOI?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fermented foods
Explanation:Potential Side Effects of Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are not commonly prescribed, which can lead to overlooking their potential side effects. One such side effect is the dangerous sympathetic pressor effect induced by eating foods containing tyramine. Tyramine is found in various foods, including mature cheese, meat, and alcoholic drinks. MAOIs also inhibit the metabolism of indirect-acting sympathomimetics found in many over-the-counter cough and decongestant medicines. Therefore, patients should consume fresh unfermented foods as a general rule. It is crucial to avoid stale or off foods, including game, and yeast extracts such as Marmite. Pickled herring and broad bean pods are also risky. This explanation highlights the main principles of foods to be avoided while taking MAOIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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