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  • Question 1 - A 54-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of constipation, low mood,...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of constipation, low mood, and back pain.

      Her blood results are as follows:
      Hb 125 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Calcium 3.1 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 9.0 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 80 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for the patient’s condition is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is characterized by an excess release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) that stimulates osteoclast activity and causes an increase in blood calcium levels while decreasing phosphate levels. This is different from secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is caused by kidney damage that reduces vitamin D hydroxylation and results in lower/normal calcium levels and higher phosphate levels. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism presents with high levels of PTH, calcium, and phosphate. Hypothyroidism is not the cause as there are no abnormalities in TSH and free T4 levels. Although multiple myeloma also presents with high calcium levels, it is usually accompanied by anemia and renal failure, which are not present in this case as the patient’s hemoglobin and creatinine levels are normal.

      Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism

      Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with iron deficiency anaemia secondary to menorrhagia. She...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with iron deficiency anaemia secondary to menorrhagia. She is prescribed iron supplements to be taken twice daily. However, after four weeks of treatment, she reports no improvement in her fatigue. Her blood tests reveal that her Hb levels have only increased from 95g/L to 101g/L, which is still below the normal range for females (115 - 160). Despite her menorrhagia improving with the use of combined oral contraceptive pills, and her adherence to her medication regimen (omeprazole for dyspepsia and sertraline for depression), her anaemia persists. What could be the most likely reason for this lack of improvement?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole is interacting with her iron tablets

      Explanation:

      According to NICE (2021), this patient should have experienced a rise in haemoglobin levels of 20g/L within 3-4 weeks of taking iron supplements. However, this has not been the case despite the patient adhering to the prescribed dosage. The possible reasons for this could be an increase in blood loss (although there is no evidence of this in the brief as the patient’s menorrhagia has improved) or poor absorption of the iron tablets. Among the options provided, only omeprazole would hinder iron absorption. This is because gastric acid aids in iron absorption, but omeprazole (and other proton-pump inhibitors) reduces gastric acid, leading to decreased iron absorption.

      Sertraline does not affect iron absorption and would not lead to poor absorption of iron.

      Taking iron tablets on an empty stomach is recommended as it enhances absorption. This is because an empty stomach leads to higher levels of gastric acid, which improves iron absorption. Additionally, an empty stomach means that certain food and drink components that can reduce iron absorption (such as milk or tannins) are absent.

      Taking iron with orange juice would not reduce absorption. Instead, it would increase absorption as orange juice contains vitamin C, which enhances iron absorption.

      The combined oral contraceptive pill does not interfere with iron and would not produce these outcomes.

      Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion

      Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.

      The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.

      In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.

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  • Question 3 - A study is conducted for a new anti-aging cream that aims to improve...

    Incorrect

    • A study is conducted for a new anti-aging cream that aims to improve skin elasticity. 200 volunteers are recruited and split into two groups - cream or placebo - without being told which group they are put into. 120 are put in the cream group and 80 in the control (placebo) group. They are asked to apply their cream, not knowing if it is the anti-aging cream or a placebo, and to record whether or not they achieve an acceptable level of improvement in skin elasticity.

      Out of the 120 in the cream group, 90 report successfully achieving adequate improvement in skin elasticity. Out of the 80 in the control group, 20 report achieving adequate improvement in skin elasticity.

      What are the odds of achieving adequate improvement in skin elasticity with the new anti-aging cream?

      Your Answer: 0.75

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio

      When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.

      In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.

      For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.

      Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.

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  • Question 4 - A 63-year-old farmer arrives at the emergency department with elevated heart rate, respiratory...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old farmer arrives at the emergency department with elevated heart rate, respiratory rate, and impaired consciousness. Additionally, he is experiencing increased salivation and incontinence of urine and faeces. Upon examination, his oxygen saturation is found to be 86%. The medical team suspects organophosphate poisoning and initiates treatment with atropine and supportive care. What is the pathophysiology underlying this presentation?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      Organophosphate poisoning is caused by the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase, leading to an increase in acetylcholine levels in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and central nervous systems, as well as the neuromuscular junction. Symptoms include salivation, diarrhea, pupillary changes, hypertension, tachycardia, seizures, muscle fasciculations, respiratory failure, and weakness.

      Unlike ethylene glycol poisoning, organophosphate poisoning does not result in calcium oxalate crystal deposition, which impairs kidney function. Opioid overdose stimulates mu, kappa, and delta receptors, causing impaired consciousness, pinpoint pupils, and respiratory depression, but does not typically cause excessive secretions. Paracetamol overdose results in the release of toxic metabolites within hepatocytes, leading to acute liver failure and hepatic encephalopathy.

      Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning

      Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when an individual is exposed to insecticides containing organophosphates. This type of poisoning inhibits acetylcholinesterase, leading to an increase in nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects.

      The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine, which can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD. These symptoms include salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation/diarrhea, cardiovascular issues such as hypotension and bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.

      The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine to counteract the effects of acetylcholine accumulation. The role of pralidoxime in treating this condition is still unclear, as meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.

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  • Question 5 - A 36-year-old man with a history of psoriasis presents with pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man with a history of psoriasis presents with pain in his left knee, middle finger, and heel. He reports a family history of psoriasis. During examination, red, inflamed, and silvery plaques are observed on his elbows and scalp. Additionally, there is tenderness and swelling in the affected joints. What HLA haplotype is linked to his joint pain?

      Your Answer: HLA-DR3

      Correct Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis is often observed in individuals who possess the HLA-B27 antigen, as evidenced by the presence of asymmetrical and oligoarticular arthritis with enthesitis in the left heel, along with a history of psoriasis and a familial predisposition to the condition.

      HLA Associations: Diseases and Antigens

      HLA antigens are proteins encoded by genes on chromosome 6. There are two classes of HLA antigens: class I (HLA A, B, and C) and class II (HLA DP, DQ, and DR). Diseases can be strongly associated with certain HLA antigens. For example, HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis, HLA-B51 with Behcet’s disease, and HLA-B27 with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, and acute anterior uveitis. Coeliac disease is associated with HLA-DQ2/DQ8, while narcolepsy and Goodpasture’s are associated with HLA-DR2. Dermatitis herpetiformis, Sjogren’s syndrome, and primary biliary cirrhosis are associated with HLA-DR3. Finally, type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with HLA-DR3 but more strongly associated with HLA-DR4, specifically the DRB1 gene (DRB1*04:01 and DRB1*04:04).

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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old healthcare worker from Bangladesh, who migrated to the UK at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old healthcare worker from Bangladesh, who migrated to the UK at the age of six, is undergoing an occupational health assessment that includes an interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA). The worker has no knowledge of their vaccination history and has never experienced symptoms of tuberculosis infection. What is the primary physiological function of the cytokine used in this diagnostic test?

      Your Answer: Promotion of neutrophil chemotaxis

      Correct Answer: Activation of macrophages

      Explanation:

      Macrophage activation is triggered by interferon-γ.

      Interferon-γ is a cytokine produced by Th1 cells that promotes inflammation and activates macrophages. In medical testing, measuring the release of interferon-gamma by leukocytes in response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens can indicate the presence of active or latent TB infection. This test is preferred over the tuberculin skin test as it does not yield a false positive result in individuals who have received the BCG vaccine.

      Macrophages produce cytokines such as interleukin-8 and tumor necrosis factor-α, which attract neutrophils to the site of infection.

      Eosinophil production is stimulated by interleukin-5, GM-CSF, and IL-3, which promote granulocyte maturation.

      Interferon-γ does not directly cause fever. Pyrogenic cytokines such as interleukin-1 and interleukin-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, induce fever.

      Interferon-γ is a Th1 cytokine that promotes the differentiation of Th0 cells into Th1 cells, creating a positive feedback loop.

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

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  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old man from Kenya visits your clinic complaining of feeling constantly fatigued....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man from Kenya visits your clinic complaining of feeling constantly fatigued. He reports having a persistent cough for the past 6 weeks, which has been keeping him up at night. He also mentions coughing up blood on occasion. Additionally, he has been experiencing night sweats, causing his sheets to become drenched. His wife notes that he appears to be at his worst during the evenings and often has a temperature around that time. Upon examination, he appears tired and has a mild fever of 37.9ºC. A sputum sample is taken, which fails to take up a Gram stain but reveals acid-fast bacilli with the Ziehl-Neelsen test. A chest X-ray shows hilar lymphadenopathy and a cavitating lesion in the right apex. If a lung biopsy were to be taken of the surrounding tissues, what histological finding would be observed?

      Your Answer: Reed-sternberg cells

      Correct Answer: Epitheliod histiocytes

      Explanation:

      The presence of epithelioid histiocytes in a granuloma is a common histological finding in patients with Tuberculosis. This is consistent with the patient’s history and geographical origin. Epithelioid histiocytes are elongated macrophages that resemble epithelial cells. In cases where there is necrosis, it is referred to as a Caseating granuloma due to its resemblance to casein in cheese.

      Keratin pearl is a histological finding in squamous cell carcinoma of the lung, which may also present as a cavitating lesion. However, it would not grow acid-fast bacilli, unlike TB.

      Psammoma bodies are typically found in papillary thyroid carcinoma.

      Owls-eye nucleus is a characteristic finding in a CMV infection.

      Reed-Sternberg cells are commonly found in Hodgkin’s lymphoma, which typically presents with B symptoms such as fever, night sweats, and weight loss. However, based on the other findings, this diagnosis is unlikely.

      Types of Tuberculosis

      Tuberculosis (TB) is a disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis that primarily affects the lungs. There are two types of TB: primary and secondary. Primary TB occurs when a non-immune host is exposed to the bacteria and develops a small lung lesion called a Ghon focus. This focus is made up of macrophages containing tubercles and is accompanied by hilar lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. In immunocompetent individuals, the lesion usually heals through fibrosis. However, those who are immunocompromised may develop disseminated disease, also known as miliary tuberculosis.

      Secondary TB, also called post-primary TB, occurs when the initial infection becomes reactivated in an immunocompromised host. Reactivation typically occurs in the apex of the lungs and can spread locally or to other parts of the body. Factors that can cause immunocompromise include immunosuppressive drugs, HIV, and malnutrition. While the lungs are still the most common site for secondary TB, it can also affect other areas such as the central nervous system, vertebral bodies, cervical lymph nodes, renal system, and gastrointestinal tract. Tuberculous meningitis is the most serious complication of extra-pulmonary TB. Understanding the differences between primary and secondary TB is crucial in diagnosing and treating the disease.

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  • Question 8 - What is the characteristic finding on a blood film after a splenectomy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the characteristic finding on a blood film after a splenectomy?

      Your Answer: Reticulocytes

      Correct Answer: Howell-Jolly bodies

      Explanation:

      In cases of hyposplenism, the blood film may show the presence of Howell-Jolly bodies, Pappenheimer bodies, poikilocytes (specifically target cells), erythrocytes containing siderotic granules, and Heinz bodies.

      Splenectomy and its Management

      Splenectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the spleen. After the operation, patients are at a higher risk of infections caused by pneumococcus, Haemophilus, meningococcus, and Capnocytophaga canimorsus. To prevent these infections, patients should receive vaccinations such as Hib, meningitis A & C, annual influenzae, and pneumococcal vaccines. Antibiotic prophylaxis with penicillin V is also recommended for at least two years and until the patient is 16 years old, although some patients may require lifelong prophylaxis.

      Splenectomy is indicated for various reasons such as trauma, spontaneous rupture, hypersplenism, malignancy, splenic cysts, hydatid cysts, and splenic abscesses. Elective splenectomy is different from emergency splenectomy, and it is usually performed laparoscopically. Complications of splenectomy include haemorrhage, pancreatic fistula, and thrombocytosis. Post-splenectomy changes include an increase in platelets, Howell-Jolly bodies, target cells, and Pappenheimer bodies. Patients are at an increased risk of post-splenectomy sepsis, which typically occurs with encapsulated organisms. Therefore, prophylactic antibiotics and pneumococcal vaccines are essential to prevent infections.

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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the surgical clinic with iron deficiency anemia. She...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the surgical clinic with iron deficiency anemia. She has a history of left hemicolectomy but no other medical conditions. Where in the body does dietary iron absorption primarily occur?

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The most efficient absorption of iron occurs in the duodenum and jejunum of the proximal small intestine when it is in the Fe 2+ state. A divalent membrane transporter protein facilitates the transportation of iron across the small intestine mucosa, resulting in better absorption of Fe 2+. Ferritin is the form in which the intestinal cells store the bound iron. When cells require iron, they absorb the complex as necessary.

      Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion

      Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.

      The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.

      In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.

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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old male has received his test results for a recent STD test....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male has received his test results for a recent STD test. He has tested positive. According to a study on the test, 894 patients with a positive test result for the STD are true positives and 496 are false positives. Additionally, out of 1240 patients with a negative test result, 1120 are true negatives and 120 are false negatives. What is the positive predictive value of this test?

      Your Answer: 44%

      Correct Answer: 64%

      Explanation:

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 11 - A researcher wants to determine if amoxicillin is more effective than azithromycin in...

    Correct

    • A researcher wants to determine if amoxicillin is more effective than azithromycin in treating pneumonia in elderly patients. A randomized controlled trial has been designed.

      What is the null hypothesis for this study?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin and azithromycin are equally effective in empirically treating pneumonia

      Explanation:

      The null hypothesis proposes that there is no difference between two treatments in terms of their effectiveness, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference. For example, the statement There is no significant difference in the efficacy of amoxicillin and azithromycin for treating pneumonia represents the null hypothesis.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 12 - A 5-year-old male is taken to his paediatrician by his father due to...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old male is taken to his paediatrician by his father due to a fever and sore throat. During the examination, the doctor notices a sandpaper-like rash all over the child's body and a red, bumpy tongue. The child has no known allergies. The paediatrician prescribes an antibiotic. What is the mechanism of action of the antibiotic most likely prescribed?

      Your Answer: Binds to transpeptidase

      Explanation:

      Scarlet fever is the diagnosis for this patient. The preferred treatment for Scarlet fever is Penicillin, which works by binding to transpeptidase and preventing the cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls.

      The mechanism of action of antibiotics can be categorized into inhibiting cell wall formation, protein synthesis, DNA synthesis, and RNA synthesis. Beta-lactams such as penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit cell wall formation by blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls. Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis include aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, macrolides, tetracyclines, and fusidic acid. Quinolones, metronidazole, sulphonamides, and trimethoprim inhibit DNA synthesis, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis.

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  • Question 13 - A pharmaceutical company is developing a drug to treat atherosclerosis by blocking the...

    Correct

    • A pharmaceutical company is developing a drug to treat atherosclerosis by blocking the enzymatic conversion of phospholipids to arachidonic acid.

      Which specific enzyme is responsible for this conversion process?

      Your Answer: Phospholipase A2

      Explanation:

      Phospholipase A2 is the enzyme responsible for converting phospholipids into arachidonic acid, which is then utilized to produce additional inflammatory mediators. COX-1 and COX-2, both members of the COX enzyme family, transform arachidonic acid into various inflammatory mediators, including prostaglandins and thromboxane.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

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  • Question 14 - A 2-month-old boy is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with microcephaly....

    Correct

    • A 2-month-old boy is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with microcephaly. He is in the 5th percentile for weight and length, and his head circumference is <3rd percentile for his age. Upon physical examination, his lungs are clear and there are no audible murmurs, but his liver edge is palpable at the level of the umbilicus. Further investigations reveal ventriculomegaly with periventricular calcifications on a CT scan of the head. What is the most likely cause of this congenital infection?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital CMV infection can lead to various symptoms such as hearing loss, low birth weight, petechial rash, microcephaly, and seizures. This condition is typically acquired during pregnancy, and if the fetus is exposed to CMV during the first trimester, it may result in intrauterine growth retardation and central nervous system damage, leading to hearing and sight impairments.

      Infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus is an uncommon cause of congenital defects. Herpes simplex virus may cause skin rashes and microcephaly, but it is not typically associated with calcifications and hepatomegaly. Toxoplasmosis often presents with macrocephaly and diffuse parenchymal calcifications rather than periventricular calcifications. Congenital syphilis can result in various symptoms such as sensorineural deafness, mulberry molars, bone lesions, saddle nose, and Hutchinson’s teeth.

      Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus

      Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three most common congenital infections encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Of these, cytomegalovirus is the most common in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.

      Each of these infections can cause different characteristic features in newborns. Rubella can cause sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease, glaucoma, cerebral calcification, chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, low birth weight, and purpuric skin lesions. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, cerebral palsy, anaemia, and microcephaly. Cytomegalovirus can cause visual impairment, learning disability, encephalitis/seizures, pneumonitis, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, jaundice, and cerebral palsy.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early detection and treatment can help prevent or minimize the health problems associated with these infections.

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  • Question 15 - Which of the following medications used in the treatment of hyperlipidemia is most...

    Correct

    • Which of the following medications used in the treatment of hyperlipidemia is most likely to cause flushing?

      Your Answer: Nicotinic acid

      Explanation:

      Side-effects of drugs used in hyperlipidaemia

      Hyperlipidaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood. Drugs used to treat this condition have different mechanisms of action and can cause various adverse effects. Statins, which are HMG CoA reductase inhibitors, work by reducing the production of cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause myositis (muscle inflammation) and deranged liver function tests (LFTs). Ezetimibe, on the other hand, decreases cholesterol absorption in the small intestine, but it can cause headaches. Nicotinic acid decreases hepatic VLDL secretion, but it can cause flushing and myositis. Fibrates, which are agonists of PPAR-alpha and increase lipoprotein lipase expression, can cause myositis, pruritus, and cholestasis. Cholestyramine decreases bile acid reabsorption in the small intestine, upregulating the amount of cholesterol that is converted to bile acid, but it can cause gastrointestinal side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of each drug when choosing a treatment for hyperlipidaemia.

      Overall, the table above summarizes the different mechanisms of action and adverse effects of drugs used in hyperlipidaemia. It is important to note that each drug has its own set of benefits and risks, and patients should discuss their options with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment. Proper monitoring and management of adverse effects can help ensure the safety and effectiveness of these medications.

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  • Question 16 - A young patient visits the GP complaining of a dry cough and experiencing...

    Correct

    • A young patient visits the GP complaining of a dry cough and experiencing shortness of breath and feverishness. The patient discloses being an intravenous drug user and is referred to the sexual health clinic where HIV is diagnosed through blood tests. What is the cell surface protein utilized by HIV to enter cells?

      Your Answer: CD4

      Explanation:

      The fungus Pneumocystis jiroveci causes Pneumocystis pneumonia, a lung infection that affects patients with weakened immune systems. HIV enters cells by using CD4, which is why T helper cells are specifically reduced in HIV patients. CD3 is a cell surface protein present in all T cells, while CD5 is a cell surface marker typically found in mantle cell lymphomas. CD8 is a cell surface marker found on cytotoxic T cells.

      Cell Surface Proteins and Their Functions

      Cell surface proteins play a crucial role in identifying and distinguishing different types of cells. The table above lists the most common cell surface markers associated with particular cell types, such as CD34 for haematopoietic stem cells and CD19 for B cells. Meanwhile, the table below describes the major clusters of differentiation (CD) molecules and their functions. For instance, CD3 is the signalling component of the T cell receptor (TCR) complex, while CD4 is a co-receptor for MHC class II and is used by HIV to enter T cells. CD56, on the other hand, is a unique marker for natural killer cells, while CD95 acts as the FAS receptor and is involved in apoptosis.

      Understanding the functions of these cell surface proteins is crucial in various fields, such as immunology and cancer research. By identifying and targeting specific cell surface markers, researchers can develop more effective treatments for diseases and disorders.

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  • Question 17 - What is the most frequent chromosomal abnormality seen in individuals with Down's syndrome,...

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    • What is the most frequent chromosomal abnormality seen in individuals with Down's syndrome, and how does it occur?

      Your Answer: Nondisjunction

      Explanation:

      Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.

      There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.

      The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.

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  • Question 18 - A woman presents with complaints of neck stiffness, photophobia, nausea, and vomiting. She...

    Correct

    • A woman presents with complaints of neck stiffness, photophobia, nausea, and vomiting. She is initiated on three different parenteral antibiotics. However, after a few days, she observes a significant decline in her hearing ability in both ears. Which antibiotic is accountable for this adverse reaction?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Aminoglycosides are known to cause ototoxicity, which is an important adverse effect. Among the antibiotics listed, only gentamicin belongs to this class. Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin that can lead to diarrhoea and C. difficile colitis, while penicillin is associated with a higher risk of anaphylactic reactions compared to other antibiotics. Erythromycin, a macrolide, can cause arrhythmias.

      Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic known as an aminoglycoside. It is not easily dissolved in lipids, so it is typically administered through injection or topical application. It is commonly used to treat infections such as infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, gentamicin can have adverse effects on the body, such as ototoxicity, which can cause damage to the auditory or vestibular nerves. This damage is irreversible. Gentamicin can also cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity increases when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Lower doses and more frequent monitoring are necessary to prevent these adverse effects. Gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. To ensure safe dosing, plasma concentrations of gentamicin are monitored. Peak levels are measured one hour after administration, and trough levels are measured just before the next dose. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased.

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  • Question 19 - A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of severe constipation and nausea. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of severe constipation and nausea. She reports feeling excessively thirsty and experiencing increased urination over the past month. Additionally, she admits to feeling low. A blood test reveals elevated calcium levels, and she is referred to an endocrinologist. The diagnosis of a parathyroid adenoma is confirmed through a sestamibi parathyroid scan. Which pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the inferior parathyroid glands?

      Your Answer: Fourth pharyngeal pouch

      Correct Answer: Third pharyngeal pouch

      Explanation:

      The 3rd pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the inferior parathyroid glands, while the 1st pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the Eustachian tube, middle ear cavity, and mastoid antrum. The Palatine tonsils originate from the 2nd pharyngeal pouch, and the superior parathyroid glands develop from the 4th pharyngeal pouch. Additionally, the 5th pharyngeal pouch contributes to the formation of the thyroid C-cells, which are part of the 4th pharyngeal pouch.

      Embryology of Branchial (Pharyngeal) Pouches

      During embryonic development, the branchial (pharyngeal) pouches give rise to various structures in the head and neck region. The first pharyngeal pouch forms the Eustachian tube, middle ear cavity, and mastoid antrum. The second pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the palatine tonsils. The third pharyngeal pouch divides into dorsal and ventral wings, with the dorsal wings forming the inferior parathyroid glands and the ventral wings forming the thymus. Finally, the fourth pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands.

      Understanding the embryology of the branchial pouches is important in the diagnosis and treatment of certain congenital abnormalities and diseases affecting these structures. By knowing which structures arise from which pouches, healthcare professionals can better understand the underlying pathophysiology and develop appropriate management strategies. Additionally, knowledge of the embryology of these structures can aid in the development of new treatments and therapies for related conditions.

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  • Question 20 - Which of the following genes provides protection against tumors? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following genes provides protection against tumors?

      Your Answer: p53

      Explanation:

      Located on chromosome 17, p53 is a gene that suppresses tumours by inducing neoplastic cells to undergo apoptosis.

      Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.

      In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.

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  • Question 21 - A 4-year-old girl was taken to the pediatrician by her father due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl was taken to the pediatrician by her father due to concerns about her growth and development. During the examination, the pediatrician observed that the girl's teeth are smaller and more widely spaced than usual, with notches on the surfaces of her upper central incisors. What infection could have been passed from the mother to the child during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Correct Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      The presence of Hutchinson’s teeth suggests that the boy may have congenital syphilis, which can occur when a mother with syphilis passes the disease to her child during pregnancy. While infants with congenital syphilis may not show symptoms, they may experience poor feeding and weight gain. Hutchinson’s teeth is a common feature of congenital syphilis in older children (over 2 years old).

      In contrast, the classic triad of congenital rubella syndrome includes eye abnormalities, sensorineural deafness, and congenital heart disease. Parvovirus typically does not cause congenital defects in newborns, but it can lead to spontaneous miscarriage and hydrops fetalis in rare cases. Congenital CMV infection often results in low birth weight, microcephaly, hearing loss, and learning disabilities. Finally, congenital toxoplasmosis primarily affects the central nervous system and is characterized by the presence of chorioretinitis, intracranial calcifications, and hydrocephalus.

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The infection progresses through primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with an incubation period of 9-90 days. The primary stage is characterized by a painless ulcer at the site of sexual contact, along with local lymphadenopathy. Women may not always exhibit visible symptoms. The secondary stage occurs 6-10 weeks after primary infection and presents with systemic symptoms such as fevers and lymphadenopathy, as well as a rash on the trunk, palms, and soles. Other symptoms may include buccal ulcers and genital warts. Tertiary syphilis can lead to granulomatous lesions of the skin and bones, ascending aortic aneurysms, general paralysis of the insane, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll-Robertson pupil. Congenital syphilis can cause blunted upper incisor teeth, linear scars at the angle of the mouth, keratitis, saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness.

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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old first-time pregnant woman visits the antenatal clinic and has researched dietary...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old first-time pregnant woman visits the antenatal clinic and has researched dietary limitations during pregnancy. What foods should she refrain from consuming?

      Your Answer: Packaged ice-cream

      Correct Answer: Soft cheeses

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women are advised to steer clear of soft cheeses as they have a higher risk of contracting Listeria infection. This infection is caused by Listeria monocytogenes, a gram-positive motile rod, which can be eliminated by cooking and pasteurisation. Therefore, consuming foods like raw/smoked meats and soft cheeses can lead to the transmission of this rare disease.

      It is safe for pregnant women to consume packaged ice cream as it is usually pasteurised. However, ice cream made with unpasteurised milk or uncooked eggs may contain Salmonella.

      Sea creatures like lobsters, swordfish, shrimp, and tuna are recommended for pregnant women as they are rich in iodine. Fetal hypothyroidism and impaired neurological development can occur due to iodine deficiency.

      Understanding Listeria: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Listeria monocytogenes is a type of bacteria that can cause serious infections in certain individuals. This Gram-positive bacillus has the unique ability to multiply at low temperatures, making it a common contaminant in unpasteurized dairy products. Those at highest risk for infection include the elderly, neonates, and individuals with weakened immune systems, particularly those taking glucocorticoids. Pregnant women are also at increased risk, as Listeria can lead to miscarriage and other complications.

      Symptoms of Listeria infection can vary widely, ranging from gastroenteritis and diarrhea to more serious conditions like bacteraemia, flu-like illness, and central nervous system infections. In severe cases, Listeria can cause meningoencephalitis, ataxia, and seizures. Diagnosis typically involves blood cultures and cerebrospinal fluid analysis, which may reveal pleocytosis, raised protein, and reduced glucose.

      Fortunately, Listeria is sensitive to certain antibiotics, including amoxicillin and ampicillin. In cases of Listeria meningitis, treatment typically involves a combination of IV amoxicillin/ampicillin and gentamicin. Pregnant women who develop Listeria infections may require treatment with amoxicillin, as fetal/neonatal infection can occur both transplacentally and vertically during childbirth.

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  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old woman receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer presents to the acute medical...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer presents to the acute medical unit with a cough and shortness of breath, accompanied by purulent sputum. Laboratory tests show a decreased white blood cell count. During examination of a blood film under a microscope, which cells can be identified by their multi-lobed nuclei and are the initial white blood cells to be recruited to areas of acute inflammation?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      Neutrophils play a crucial role in innate immunity and are present in large numbers. They possess phagocytic abilities and can produce cytokines. Their nuclei have a distinct multi-lobed appearance when viewed under a microscope. Eosinophils, on the other hand, have nuclei that are bilobed. Macrophages and mast cells have a single nucleus.

      Innate Immune Response: Cells Involved

      The innate immune response is the first line of defense against invading pathogens. It involves a variety of cells that work together to quickly recognize and eliminate foreign invaders. The following cells are primarily involved in the innate immune response:

      Neutrophils are the most common type of white blood cell and are the primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation. They contain granules that contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme, which help to break down and destroy pathogens.

      Basophils and mast cells are similar in function and both release histamine during an allergic response. They also contain granules that contain histamine and heparin, and express IgE receptors on their cell surface.

      Eosinophils defend against protozoan and helminthic infections, and have a bi-lobed nucleus.

      Monocytes differentiate into macrophages, which are involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens. They also act as antigen-presenting cells and are a major source of IL-1.

      Natural killer cells induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells, while dendritic cells act as antigen-presenting cells.

      Overall, these cells work together to provide a rapid and effective response to invading pathogens, helping to protect the body from infection and disease.

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  • Question 24 - A 16-year-old boy comes to the clinic with deteriorating weakness, blurred vision, and...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy comes to the clinic with deteriorating weakness, blurred vision, and vomiting. There are no alterations in his mental state.

      During the examination, it is observed that his power is reduced throughout his body, and his speech is slurred. The ingestion of a potentially lethal toxin is suspected, and a reversal agent is given, resulting in a positive outcome.

      What is the mechanism of the toxin that could lead to this clinical manifestation?

      Your Answer: Blocking the release of acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from botulism, which is caused by ingesting a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum. This toxin blocks the release of acetylcholine, leading to widespread weakness without changes in consciousness. If left untreated, botulism can be fatal.

      Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a condition where the immune system attacks neuromuscular junctions, resulting in impaired acetylcholine release. This syndrome is often associated with cancer and has a slower onset than botulism.

      Diphtheria toxin, secreted by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, blocks protein synthesis in patients who ingest it. It can cause death in most cases due to necrosis of the heart muscle and liver.

      Poliomyelitis, caused by the polio virus, can result in the destruction of central neurons involved in voluntary muscle activation, leading to acute flaccid paralysis. However, it is important to note that poliomyelitis is caused by a virus, not a toxin.

      Exotoxins vs Endotoxins: Understanding the Differences

      Exotoxins and endotoxins are two types of toxins produced by bacteria. Exotoxins are secreted by bacteria, while endotoxins are only released when the bacterial cell is lysed. Exotoxins are typically produced by Gram-positive bacteria, with some exceptions like Vibrio cholerae and certain strains of E. coli.

      Exotoxins can be classified based on their primary effects, which include pyrogenic toxins, enterotoxins, neurotoxins, tissue invasive toxins, and miscellaneous toxins. Pyrogenic toxins stimulate the release of cytokines, resulting in fever and rash. Enterotoxins act on the gastrointestinal tract, causing either diarrheal or vomiting illness. Neurotoxins act on the nerves or neuromuscular junction, causing paralysis. Tissue invasive toxins cause damage to tissues, while miscellaneous toxins have various effects.

      On the other hand, endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are released from Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria meningitidis. These toxins can cause fever, sepsis, and shock. Unlike exotoxins, endotoxins are not actively secreted by bacteria but are instead released when the bacterial cell is lysed.

      Understanding the differences between exotoxins and endotoxins is important in diagnosing and treating bacterial infections. While exotoxins can be targeted with specific treatments like antitoxins, endotoxins are more difficult to treat and often require supportive care.

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  • Question 25 - A 4-year-old girl presented with seizures and loss of consciousness. Magnetic resonance imaging...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl presented with seizures and loss of consciousness. Magnetic resonance imaging of her head showed lipotoxicity-induced diffuse neuroinflammatory demyelination. Laboratory testing revealed high levels of cerotic acid, a very long-chain fatty acid, confirming the diagnosis of X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy.

      What is the most likely affected area in this disease?

      Your Answer: The nucleus

      Correct Answer: Peroxisomes

      Explanation:

      The breakdown of long chain fatty acids is carried out by peroxisomes, specifically through the process of β-oxidation, which is the only way to metabolize very long-chain fatty acids with a carbon chain length of 22 or more.

      Functions of Cell Organelles

      The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.

      The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).

      The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.

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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old man who is HIV-positive comes in for a medication review. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man who is HIV-positive comes in for a medication review. During the discussion of his prescribed drugs, you observe that he is taking an integrase inhibitor, which functions by obstructing the enzyme integrase. This enzyme is responsible for inserting viral genetic material into human genomes.

      Which specific medication is he likely taking?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Correct Answer: Raltegravir

      Explanation:

      Integrase inhibitors, also known as ‘gravirs’, block the enzyme responsible for inserting the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell. Raltegravir is an example of a drug with this mechanism of action, and other drugs with the suffix ‘-gravir’ also function as integrase inhibitors. By preventing HIV viral information from integrating into host DNA, these drugs effectively halt further replication of HIV virions. It is important to note that Maraviroc, Nevirapine, and Rifampicin are not integrase inhibitors and do not function in the same way as ‘gravirs’.

      Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.

      Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.

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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old primigravida comes in for her 12-week prenatal check-up. She reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old primigravida comes in for her 12-week prenatal check-up. She reports experiencing a burning sensation when urinating and increased frequency of urination. The patient has a medical history of migraines and hyperthyroidism. Her current vital signs are a blood pressure of 125/85 mmHg, a pulse of 82 beats per minute, and a temperature of 37 ºC. She is taking antibiotics, painkillers, and antithyroid drugs.

      Which medication from her current regimen is most likely to have adverse effects on her pregnancy at this stage?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 28 - An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease, and type...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease, and type 2 diabetes is admitted to the ICU due to septic shock caused by COVID-19 infection. Despite receiving intravenous fluids, his blood pressure remains low, and he is given noradrenaline (norepinephrine) to correct it.

      What is the function of this neurotransmitter in the body?

      Your Answer: preganglionic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system

      Correct Answer: postganglionic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline is the correct postganglionic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system. It is used as a vasopressor to increase blood pressure by causing vasoconstriction. Acetylcholine is the postganglionic neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system, not noradrenaline. There is no one neurotransmitter that serves as a postganglionic neurotransmitter for both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. Finally, acetylcholine, not noradrenaline, is the preganglionic neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system.

      Understanding Norepinephrine: Its Synthesis and Effects on Mental Health

      Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that is synthesized in the locus ceruleus, a small region in the brainstem. This neurotransmitter plays a crucial role in the body’s fight or flight response, which is activated in response to stress or danger. When released, norepinephrine increases heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate, preparing the body to respond to a perceived threat.

      In terms of mental health, norepinephrine levels have been linked to anxiety and depression. Elevated levels of norepinephrine have been observed in individuals with anxiety, which can lead to symptoms such as increased heart rate, sweating, and trembling. On the other hand, depleted levels of norepinephrine have been associated with depression, which can cause feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and low energy.

      It is important to note that norepinephrine is just one of many neurotransmitters that play a role in mental health. However, understanding its synthesis and effects can provide insight into the complex interplay between brain chemistry and mental health. By studying neurotransmitters like norepinephrine, researchers can develop new treatments and therapies for individuals struggling with anxiety, depression, and other mental health conditions.

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  • Question 29 - During your placement on the respiratory ward, you observe an influenzae outbreak. Besides...

    Incorrect

    • During your placement on the respiratory ward, you observe an influenzae outbreak. Besides haemagglutinin, what is the other antigenic determinant of this illness?

      Your Answer: Variant surface glycoprotein antigen

      Correct Answer: Neuraminidase

      Explanation:

      The major antigenic determinants of influenzae are haemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA). HA attaches to sialic acid residues on the cell surface, while NA catalyzes the cleavage of glycosidic linkages to sialic acid bonds, enabling new progeny viruses to exit the cell. Therefore, the correct answer is neuraminidase.

      Respiratory Pathogens and Associated Conditions

      Respiratory pathogens are microorganisms that cause infections in the respiratory system. The most common respiratory pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, influenzae virus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophilia, and Pneumocystis jiroveci. Each of these pathogens is associated with specific respiratory conditions, such as bronchiolitis, croup, common cold, flu, community-acquired pneumonia, acute epiglottitis, atypical pneumonia, and tuberculosis.

      Flu-like symptoms are often the first sign of respiratory infections caused by these pathogens, followed by a dry cough. Complications may include haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, lymphopenia, deranged liver function tests, and hyponatraemia. Patients with Pneumocystis jiroveci infections typically have few chest signs and develop exertional dyspnoea. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause a wide range of presentations, from asymptomatic to disseminated disease, and may be accompanied by cough, night sweats, and weight loss.

      Overall, understanding the different respiratory pathogens and their associated conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment of respiratory infections.

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  • Question 30 - After complaining of increasing irritability, difficulty concentrating and pain and weakness in his...

    Correct

    • After complaining of increasing irritability, difficulty concentrating and pain and weakness in his limbs, a 45-year-old patient with a history of alcoholism is sent for blood tests. The results reveal a vitamin deficiency and the general practitioner explains he has a condition called beriberi. Which vitamin is this patient deficient in?

      Your Answer: Thiamine (vitamin B1)

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

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  • Question 31 - To investigate the correlation between different genetic loci and ankylosing spondylitis (AS), a...

    Incorrect

    • To investigate the correlation between different genetic loci and ankylosing spondylitis (AS), a genome-wide association study was conducted. The study recruited 2100 individuals diagnosed with AS and 5050 controls.

      Out of the participants, 150 were found to have a particular single nuclear polymorphism (SNP) in the IL23R gene, with 100 of them having AS.

      What is the odds ratio of individuals with the IL23R SNP developing AS compared to those without?

      Your Answer: 0.05

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio

      When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.

      In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.

      For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.

      Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.

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  • Question 32 - An 80-year-old woman comes to the doctor with a painful and red left...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman comes to the doctor with a painful and red left leg that has gradually worsened over a few days. The doctor notes that the patient has a fever and suspects that she may have cellulitis. The doctor also confirms that the patient is not allergic to penicillin.

      What is the initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      The preferred initial treatment for cellulitis is flucloxacillin, which is a type of penicillin antibiotic that is resistant to beta-lactamase. This enzyme is produced by some gram-positive bacteria that can break down beta-lactam antibiotics. Since some of the common bacteria that cause cellulitis produce beta-lactamase, an antibiotic that is resistant to its action is necessary.

      If flucloxacillin is not appropriate, clarithromycin, doxycycline, or erythromycin may be used as second-line antibiotics. Co-amoxiclav is typically reserved for patients with facial cellulitis affecting the eyes and/or nose, or in cases of bacterial resistance. Erythromycin is considered safe for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, so it may be used as a first-line treatment in these cases.

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

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  • Question 33 - A three-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father, who reports...

    Correct

    • A three-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father, who reports that his daughter has been scratching her perianal area frequently for the past 3 weeks. He mentions that she has been waking up at night due to the itchiness in that area.

      During the examination, the GP observes slight inflammation in the perianal region, which is consistent with persistent scratching.

      What is the most probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Enterobius vermicularis

      Explanation:

      A 3-year-old child is experiencing perianal itching that is particularly severe at night, which is likely caused by Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm. This condition is common in children worldwide and can be treated with anthelmintics like mebendazole, as well as promoting good hygiene practices. Other conditions, such as Trichinella spiralis (pork worm), typically present with different symptoms like diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting after consuming undercooked pork. Anal fissures, on the other hand, usually cause intense pain during bowel movements and may be visible upon examination. It’s important to note that persistent pruritus that disrupts sleep is not a normal occurrence and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional.

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

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  • Question 34 - A 65-year-old male presented with a headache, feeling unwell, and muscle aches for...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male presented with a headache, feeling unwell, and muscle aches for the past 6 days. He also reported feeling feverish but says it comes and goes over a period of about 3 days. He suspects it's the flu but decided to get checked as he recently returned from a 4-week holiday in Kenya. He mentioned taking prophylaxis while he was there but stopped after a few days due to feeling sick.

      Upon admission, the man had a fever (38.5º) and was slightly tachycardic (110 bpm), but the rest of the initial examination was unremarkable. Initial blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and chest x-ray, were all normal. However, the blood film revealed trophozoites and schizonts of plasmodium falciparum with a parasitaemia of 3.2%.

      After five hours of admission, the man became drowsy and confused. Despite initial management, he was diagnosed with severe malaria and transferred to the intensive care unit where IV artesunate was initiated.

      What is the target of IV artesunate in the malaria parasite?

      Your Answer: Blood schizonts and gametocytes

      Explanation:

      Artesunate is a potent treatment for eliminating blood schizonts and gametocytes in malaria, but it is not effective against liver parasites. Different antimalarial drugs target specific stages of the parasite’s life cycle, with artemisinins, quinoline derivatives, and antibiotics being effective against blood schizonts, while primaquine and atovaquone-proguanil are used to target liver schizonts.

      Understanding Malaria: Causes, Types, and Protective Factors

      Malaria is a disease caused by Plasmodium protozoa, which is transmitted through the bite of a female Anopheles mosquito. There are four different species of Plasmodium that can cause malaria in humans, with Plasmodium falciparum being the most severe. The other three types, including Plasmodium vivax, cause a milder form of the disease known as benign malaria.

      Several protective factors against malaria have been identified, including sickle-cell trait, G6PD deficiency, HLA-B53, and the absence of Duffy antigens. These factors can help reduce the risk of contracting the disease.

      To better understand the life cycle of the malaria parasite, an illustration is provided by the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases (NIAID). By understanding the causes, types, and protective factors of malaria, we can work towards preventing and treating this deadly disease.

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  • Question 35 - A 25-year-old male visits his doctor with worries about his appearance, specifically his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male visits his doctor with worries about his appearance, specifically his hair loss. He is unsure of the cause and is generally health-conscious, regularly attending the gym. Lately, he has been increasing his protein intake to aid muscle growth.

      During the examination, the doctor observes a red, scaly rash around the patient's nose and diffuse hair loss on his scalp.

      What could be the potential cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Using creatine supplements

      Correct Answer: Drinking raw eggs

      Explanation:

      Excessive consumption of raw eggs can lead to a deficiency in biotin. This deficiency can cause symptoms similar to those seen in individuals with a lack of vitamin b7. L-arginine is known to be a precursor for nitric oxide, which is a powerful vasodilator and is often used to enhance muscle pumps and vascularity. Protein shake supplements are not known to cause biotin deficiency. However, the use of anabolic steroids can lead to side effects such as male-pattern balding and skin rash.

      Biotin, also known as vitamin B7, is a type of water-soluble B vitamin that serves as a cofactor for various carboxylation enzymes. Its primary function is to assist in the metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins. However, excessive consumption of raw eggs can lead to biotin deficiency, which can cause symptoms such as alopecia and dermatitis. Therefore, it is important to maintain a balanced diet and avoid overconsumption of certain foods to prevent biotin deficiency.

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  • Question 36 - A 30-year-old male refugee arrives at the emergency department complaining of night sweats...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male refugee arrives at the emergency department complaining of night sweats and a productive cough that has been ongoing for 2 weeks. Upon performing a chest X-ray, signs of tuberculosis are detected. The patient is prescribed a combination of antibiotics, including rifampicin. How does rifampicin work to combat the bacteria's protein synthesis?

      Your Answer: Inhibits RNA polymerase

      Explanation:

      Rifampin causes cell death by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which leads to the suppression of RNA synthesis.

      Rifampicin disrupts DNA synthesis by halting the action of RNA polymerase, resulting in the suppression of RNA synthesis and cell death.

      Quinolones inhibit DNA gyrase to function.

      Tetracyclines and aminoglycosides inhibit the 30s subunit to work.

      Macrolides work by inhibiting the 50s subunit of bacteria, leading to their death.

      Beta lactams, such as penicillin, disrupt cell wall synthesis to function.

      Understanding Rifampicin: An Antibiotic for Treating Infections

      Rifampicin is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat various infections, including tuberculosis. It is often prescribed in combination with other medications to effectively combat the disease. Rifampicin can also be used as a prophylactic treatment for individuals who have been in close contact with tuberculosis or meningitis.

      The mechanism of action of Rifampicin involves inhibiting bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. This action helps to stop the growth and spread of bacteria in the body.

      However, Rifampicin is known to be a potent CYP450 liver enzyme inducer, which can cause hepatitis in some individuals. Additionally, it can cause orange secretions and flu-like symptoms. Therefore, it is important to use Rifampicin only as prescribed by a healthcare professional and to monitor any adverse effects that may occur.

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  • Question 37 - In 2015, The New England Journal of Medicine published a study on the...

    Incorrect

    • In 2015, The New England Journal of Medicine published a study on the effects of empagliflozin, a sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor, on patients with type 2 diabetes over the age of 60 who were at high risk of cardiovascular events. The study found that empagliflozin reduced the incidence of cardiovascular deaths, non-fatal myocardial infarction, and non-fatal stroke compared to a placebo. The event rate for empagliflozin was 37.3/1000 patient years, while the event rate for the placebo was 43.9/1000 patient years. Based on this information, how many patients over the age of 60 and at high risk of adverse cardiovascular outcomes need to be treated with empagliflozin to prevent one cardiovascular death, non-fatal myocardial infarction, or non-fatal stroke?

      Your Answer: 100

      Correct Answer: 150

      Explanation:

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

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  • Question 38 - A 54-year-old dentist has been practicing for many years. Recently, she has started...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old dentist has been practicing for many years. Recently, she has started to observe that her hands are developing blisters and becoming weepy. After diagnosis, it is found that she has a latex allergy. What pathological process is responsible for this situation?

      Your Answer: Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      ACID is an acronym for the four types of hypersensitivity reactions. These include type 1, which is anaphylactic; type 2, which is cytotoxic; type 3, which is immune complex; and type 4, which is delayed hypersensitivity. Unlike the other types, type 4 hypersensitivity reactions are cell mediated rather than antibody mediated. An example of this type of reaction is chronic contact dermatitis.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

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  • Question 39 - A group of researchers and physicians are working on a novel screening method...

    Correct

    • A group of researchers and physicians are working on a novel screening method for detecting pancreatic cancer at an early stage. The trial for this test is underway, and initial findings regarding its accuracy have been released:

      Condition present Condition absent
      Positive test 70 25
      Negative test 10 60

      What is the sensitivity of the new test, rounded to two decimal places?

      Your Answer: 0.84

      Explanation:

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 40 - A 27-year-old female patient complains of lower abdominal pain and dysuria for the...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient complains of lower abdominal pain and dysuria for the past 5 days. Upon examination, her GP orders cultures which reveal visible organism growth on Thayer-Martin agar plate. What is the probable pathogen responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the correct answer. The growth of this organism on Thayer-Martin agar, a heated blood agar plate that inhibits the growth of contaminating bacteria and fungi, is indicative of a possible infection. Escherichia coli, Proteus mirabilis, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are all potential causes of urinary symptoms, but they are not cultured using Thayer-Martin agar. Escherichia coli is cultured using MacConkey’s agar, while Proteus mirabilis and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are cultured using other types of agar.

      Culture Requirements for Common Organisms

      Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).

      To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.

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  • Question 41 - A 32-year-old patient complains of vaginal discharge and symptoms suggestive of a thrush...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient complains of vaginal discharge and symptoms suggestive of a thrush infection. You decide to prescribe fluconazole.

      What is the mode of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Inhibits ergosterol production

      Explanation:

      Azoles prevent the production of ergosterol by inhibiting 14 alpha-demethylase.

      Terbinafine hinders the function of squalene epoxidase.

      Nystatin and amphotericin B attach to ergosterol.

      Griseofulvin interacts with microtubules.

      Caspofungin obstructs the synthesis of beta-glucan, a crucial component of the fungal cell wall.

      Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.

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  • Question 42 - An aged gentleman presents to the ER with symptoms of sepsis and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • An aged gentleman presents to the ER with symptoms of sepsis and abdominal discomfort. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with perforated diverticulitis.

      What group of bacteria is expected to be detected on a blood culture obtained from this elderly patient?

      Your Answer: Gram-positive bacilli

      Correct Answer: Gram-negative bacilli

      Explanation:

      Gram-negative rods are typically responsible for surgical infections that originate from the gut, which occur as a result of bacterial translocation from gut contents.

      Overview of Surgical Microbiology

      Surgical microbiology is a vast topic that covers various organisms causing common surgical infections. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive coccus that is a common cause of cutaneous infections and abscesses. It is ideally treated with penicillin, but many strains have become resistant through beta-lactamase production. Streptococcus pyogenes is a gram-positive bacteria that produces beta haemolysis on blood agar plates. It releases virulence factors into the host, resulting in rapid tissue destruction. Escherichia coli is a gram-negative rod that produces lethal toxins resulting in haemolytic-uraemic syndrome. It is resistant to many antibiotics used to treat gram-positive infections and acquires resistance rapidly. Campylobacter jejuni is a curved, gram-negative, non-sporulating bacteria that is one of the commonest causes of diarrhoea worldwide. Helicobacter pylori is a gram-negative, helix-shaped rod that colonises the gastric antrum and irritates, resulting in increased gastrin release and higher levels of gastric acid.

      In summary, surgical microbiology covers a wide range of organisms that can cause infections. It is essential to understand the characteristics of these organisms to diagnose and treat infections effectively.

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  • Question 43 - An 83-year-old woman visits her general practitioner concerned about her fracture risk. Following...

    Correct

    • An 83-year-old woman visits her general practitioner concerned about her fracture risk. Following a comprehensive assessment, the GP orders tests to measure the woman's calcium and vitamin D levels, which are found to be low. Consequently, the GP prescribes vitamin D supplements.

      What impact does this medication have on the woman's plasma levels of calcium and phosphate?

      Your Answer: Increases calcium levels & increases phosphate levels

      Explanation:

      Plasma calcium and phosphate concentrations are increased by vitamin D.

      Vitamin D enhances the movement of calcium and phosphate in the bone, allowing it to transfer to the plasma. It also boosts the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys and the absorption of both calcium and phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract. Additionally, vitamin D regulates parathyroid hormone.

      Since vitamin D is crucial for bone metabolism and calcium homeostasis, a deficiency can result in impaired bone formation and mineralization. Rickets may develop in children, while osteomalacia may occur in adults with fully developed bones. Furthermore, vitamin D is believed to play a significant role in the immune system and has been linked to the development of various autoimmune disorders.

      Understanding Vitamin D

      Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that is soluble in fat and is essential for the metabolism of calcium and phosphate in the body. It is converted into calcifediol in the liver and then into calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. Vitamin D can be obtained from two sources: vitamin D2, which is found in plants, and vitamin D3, which is present in dairy products and can also be synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight.

      The primary function of vitamin D is to increase the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood. It achieves this by increasing the absorption of calcium in the gut and the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys. Vitamin D also stimulates osteoclastic activity, which is essential for bone growth and remodeling. Additionally, it increases the reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys.

      A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to two conditions: rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Rickets is characterized by soft and weak bones, while osteomalacia is a condition where the bones become weak and brittle. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D to maintain healthy bones and overall health.

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  • Question 44 - A 19-year-old man presents to the acute medical team with symptoms of nausea...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old man presents to the acute medical team with symptoms of nausea and vomiting. He has a history of type 1 diabetes and has been feeling ill lately. Laboratory tests reveal diabetic ketoacidosis, and he is initiated on an insulin infusion. What is the receptor type targeted by this therapy?

      Your Answer: Tyrosine kinase receptors

      Explanation:

      The receptor tyrosine kinase in the cell membrane is bound by insulin.

      Membrane receptors are proteins located on the surface of cells that receive signals from outside the cell and transmit them inside. There are four main types of membrane receptors: ligand-gated ion channel receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, guanylate cyclase receptors, and G protein-coupled receptors. Ligand-gated ion channel receptors mediate fast responses and include nicotinic acetylcholine, GABA-A & GABA-C, and glutamate receptors. Tyrosine kinase receptors include receptor tyrosine kinase such as insulin, insulin-like growth factor (IGF), and epidermal growth factor (EGF), and non-receptor tyrosine kinase such as PIGG(L)ET, which stands for Prolactin, Immunomodulators (cytokines IL-2, Il-6, IFN), GH, G-CSF, Erythropoietin, and Thrombopoietin.

      Guanylate cyclase receptors contain intrinsic enzyme activity and include atrial natriuretic factor and brain natriuretic peptide. G protein-coupled receptors generally mediate slow transmission and affect metabolic processes. They are activated by a wide variety of extracellular signals such as peptide hormones, biogenic amines (e.g. adrenaline), lipophilic hormones, and light. These receptors have 7-helix membrane-spanning domains and consist of 3 main subunits: alpha, beta, and gamma. The alpha subunit is linked to GDP. Ligand binding causes conformational changes to the receptor, GDP is phosphorylated to GTP, and the alpha subunit is activated. G proteins are named according to the alpha subunit (Gs, Gi, Gq).

      The mechanism of G protein-coupled receptors varies depending on the type of G protein involved. Gs stimulates adenylate cyclase, which increases cAMP and activates protein kinase A. Gi inhibits adenylate cyclase, which decreases cAMP and inhibits protein kinase A. Gq activates phospholipase C, which splits PIP2 to IP3 and DAG and activates protein kinase C. Examples of G protein-coupled receptors include beta-1 receptors (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dobutamine), beta-2 receptors (epinephrine, salbuterol), H2 receptors (histamine), D1 receptors (dopamine), V2 receptors (vas

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  • Question 45 - A 57-year-old man is prescribed warfarin for his atrial fibrillation. The doctor explains...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man is prescribed warfarin for his atrial fibrillation. The doctor explains that this is to reduce his risk of a stroke, by preventing clots from forming in his heart. The same man is admitted to the hospital some months later for an upper gastrointestinal bleed, and the medical team seeks to reduce his bleeding by giving him vitamin K.

      What is the mechanism of action of this reversal agent?

      Your Answer: As cofactor in acetylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X

      Correct Answer: As cofactor in the carboxylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K plays a crucial role as a cofactor in the carboxylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, which are essential in secondary haemostasis. In cases where warfarin has reduced the vitamin K dependent carboxylation of these factors, vitamin K can be used as a reversal agent.

      It is important to note that vitamin K is not involved in the acetylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, which are vitamin K dependent. Additionally, factors V and VIII are not vitamin K dependent clotting factors and do not undergo carboxylation or acetylation involving vitamin K.

      Furthermore, vitamin K does not have any role in primary haemostasis, which involves platelet activation and adherence to the endothelium. Its involvement is limited to the clotting cascade and activation of fibrin in secondary haemostasis.

      Understanding Vitamin K

      Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.

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  • Question 46 - A new clinical trial is currently being designed by one of the research...

    Incorrect

    • A new clinical trial is currently being designed by one of the research students in the hospital. As part of this design, the student wants to calculate the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is in fact false. They understand that the calculation of this will improve the reliability of the results.

      Which of the following best describes the calculation above if the research student wants to calculate the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis?

      Your Answer: Hypothesis testing

      Correct Answer: Statistical power

      Explanation:

      The probability of a type II error is inversely related to power, which is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. Type I errors, or false positives, occur when the null hypothesis is wrongly rejected, while type II errors, or false negatives, occur when the null hypothesis is wrongly accepted. Hypothesis testing involves using statistical tests to determine whether the null hypothesis should be accepted or rejected. The standard error is a statistical measure of the accuracy of a sample distribution in representing a population, calculated using the standard deviation.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 47 - A 36-year-old man who is HIV positive presents with flat purple patches in...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man who is HIV positive presents with flat purple patches in his mouth and on his lower legs. He is referred to dermatology and diagnosed with Kaposi's sarcoma. What is the cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Human herpes virus 8

      Explanation:

      HHV-8 (human herpes virus 8) is the cause of Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is commonly found in HIV patients.

      Fifths disease, also known as slapped cheek syndrome, is caused by Parvovirus B19 and can lead to foetal hydrops.

      Genital warts and cervical cancer are associated with the human papillomavirus.

      Infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, which is also linked to Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, gastric cancer, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma.

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8). It is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa, such as in the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract. These skin lesions may eventually ulcerate, while respiratory involvement can lead to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion. Treatment options for Kaposi’s sarcoma include radiotherapy and resection. It is commonly seen in patients with HIV.

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  • Question 48 - A 30-year-old teacher who has recently been diagnosed with melanoma would like to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old teacher who has recently been diagnosed with melanoma would like to know about the prognosis of the disease.

      Which statistical technique is commonly used to forecast survival rates for melanoma patients?

      Your Answer: Time series

      Correct Answer: Kaplan-Meier estimator

      Explanation:

      The Kaplan-Meier estimator is utilized to approximate the probable survival of patients, particularly after being diagnosed with cancer.

      A Weibull distribution is a type of continuous probability distribution. Regression analysis is a statistical method used to estimate the correlation between two variables. The student’s t-test is a widely used technique for testing a hypothesis based on the difference between sample means, and can be employed to determine if two sets of data are significantly distinct from each other. A time series refers to a sequence of data points that are arranged in chronological order.

      Understanding Kaplan-Meier Curves

      When conducting experiments that involve survival time, it is important to compare the survival rates of different groups. This is where Kaplan-Meier curves come in. These curves show the proportion of individuals surviving at each plotted time on the X axis. However, the term ‘survival’ can be misleading as these curves can also be used to study the time required to reach any well-defined endpoint, such as the time to relapse in psychotic illness or the time to an episode of self-harm.

      Kaplan-Meier curves are a useful tool for comparing the survival rates of different groups. The graph illustrates a typical Kaplan-Meier survival curve, with the vertical green line indicating the situation at day 80 of the study. At this point, it is clear that 75% of group A and 40% of group B have survived. By using these curves, researchers can gain valuable insights into the survival rates of different groups and make informed decisions about the best course of action.

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  • Question 49 - A 5-year-old boy is taken to the doctor by his father due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is taken to the doctor by his father due to a sore throat. Upon examination, the doctor determines that it is probably caused by a viral infection.

      What structures will display antigens to activate cytotoxic T cells and initiate an immune response against this infection?

      Your Answer: MHC class II molecules

      Correct Answer: MHC class I molecules

      Explanation:

      Cytotoxic T cells identify antigens that are displayed by MHC class I molecules. CD8 receptors, which are present on cytotoxic T cells, can bind with MHC class I molecules.

      On the other hand, MHC class II molecules can bind with CD4 receptors that are expressed on T helper cells. MHC class III molecules do not exist.

      Antibodies are generated by the body to aid the immune response and do not participate in presenting antigens to immune cells.

      The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.

      B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 50 - A three-year-old boy is presented to the pediatrician by his father due to...

    Incorrect

    • A three-year-old boy is presented to the pediatrician by his father due to repeated episodes of otitis media. The pediatrician has attempted delayed antibiotic treatments in the past, but they have not been effective. As the child has a penicillin allergy, the pediatrician follows hospital protocol and prescribes a course of macrolide antibiotic, clarithromycin.

      What is the mode of action of the prescribed antibiotic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to a ribosomal subunit and blocking translocation

      Explanation:

      Macrolides prevent protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit and blocking translocation through their interaction with 23S rRNA. This is the correct mechanism of action.

      Folate antagonists (such as trimethoprim) inhibit cell division by antagonizing vitamin B9, making this answer incorrect.

      Tetracyclines (such as doxycycline) inhibit bacterial growth by binding to bacterial ribosomes, making this answer incorrect.

      Nitroimidazoles (such as metronidazole) disrupt microbial DNA in anaerobic bacteria and protozoa, inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis, making this answer incorrect.

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.

      However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.

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      • General Principles
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