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  • Question 1 - A phrenic nerve palsy is caused by which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • A phrenic nerve palsy is caused by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Ganglioneuroma

      Correct Answer: Aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Phrenic nerve palsy causing hemidiaphragm paralysis is a very uncommon feature of thoracic aortic aneurysm.

      Thoracic aortic aneurysms are usually asymptomatic however chest pain is most commonly reported symptom. Left hemidiaphragm paralysis, because of left phrenic nerve palsy, is a very rare presentation of thoracic aortic aneurysm.
      Thoracic aortic aneurysm may present atypical symptoms such as dysphagia due to compression of the oesophagus; hoarseness due to vocal cord paralysis or compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve; superior vena cava syndrome due to compression of the superior vena cava; cough, dyspnoea or both due to tracheal compression; haemoptysis due to rupture of the aneurysm into a bronchus; and shock due to rupture of the aneurysm.
      Common causes of phrenic nerve palsy include malignancy such as bronchogenic carcinoma, as well as mediastinal and neck tumours. Phrenic nerve palsy can also occur due to a penetrating injury or due to iatrogenic causes arising, for example, during cardiac surgery and central venous catheterization. Many cases or phrenic nerve palsy are idiopathic.

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      • Respiratory
      11.3
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  • Question 2 - A husband visits the clinic with his wife because he wants to be...

    Incorrect

    • A husband visits the clinic with his wife because he wants to be screened for cystic fibrosis. His brother and wife had a child with cystic fibrosis so he is concerned. His wife is currently 10 weeks pregnant. When screened, he was found to be a carrier of the DF508 mutation for cystic fibrosis but despite this result, the wife declines testing. What are the chances that she will have a child with cystic fibrosis, given that the gene frequency for this mutation in the general population is 1/20?

      Your Answer: 1/4

      Correct Answer: 1/80

      Explanation:

      The chance of two carriers of a recessive gene having a child that is homozygous for that disease (that is both genes are transmitted to the child) is 25%. Therefore, the chances of this couple having a child with CF are 25%(1/4) x 1/20 = 1/80.

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      • Respiratory
      26.6
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  • Question 3 - A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty breathing. She was seen by her regular doctor the day before with a sore throat which he diagnosed as tonsillitis and was prescribed oral Amoxicillin for 5 days. Past medical history: Ulcerative colitis diagnosed four years ago. Current medications: Inhaled salbutamol and beclomethasone Mesalazine 400 mg TDS She was observed to be alert and oriented but she had laboured breathing. Inspiratory wheeze was noted. She was pale, sweaty and cyanosed. Her temperature was 36.7ºC, pulse 121/minute and blood pressure 91/40 mmHg. The lungs were clear and the remainder of the examination was normal. She was given high-flow oxygen through a face mask but despite this her breathing became increasingly difficult.   What is the most likely causative agent?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is a life-threatening disorder with serious implications to the anaesthesiologist because of the potential for laryngospasm and irrevocable loss of the airway. There is inflammatory oedema of the arytenoids, aryepiglottic folds and the epiglottis; therefore, supraglottitis may be used instead or preferred to the term acute epiglottitis.

      Acute epiglottitis can occur at any age. The responsible organism used to be Hemophilus influenzae type B (Hib), but infection with group A b-haemolytic Streptococci has become more frequent after the widespread use of Hemophilus influenzae vaccination.

      The typical presentation in epiglottitis includes acute occurrence of high fever, severe sore throat and difficulty in swallowing with the sitting up and leaning forward position in order to enhance airflow. There is usually drooling because of difficulty and pain on swallowing. Acute epiglottitis usually leads to generalized toxaemia. The most common differential diagnosis is croup and a foreign body in the airway. A late referral to an acute care setting with its serious consequences may result from difficulty in differentiation between acute epiglottitis and less urgent causes of a sore throat, shortness of breath and dysphagia.

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      • Respiratory
      37.7
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  • Question 4 - A 68 year old man is admitted with an infective exacerbation of chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old man is admitted with an infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Investigations: blood gas taken whilst breathing 28% oxygen on admission: pH 7.30 p(O2) 7.8 kPa p(CO2) 7.4 kPa Which condition best describes the blood gas picture?

      Your Answer: Compensated type-2 respiratory failure

      Correct Answer: Decompensated type-2 respiratory failure

      Explanation:

      The normal partial pressure reference values are:
      – PaO2 more than 80 mmHg (11 kPa)
      – PaCO2 less than 45 mmHg (6.0 kPa).
      This patient has an elevated PaCO2 (7.4kPa)
      Hypoxemia (PaO2 <8kPa) with hypercapnia (PaCO2 >6.0kPa).
      The pH is also lower than 7.35 at 7.3

      Type 2 respiratory failure is caused by inadequate alveolar ventilation; both oxygen and carbon dioxide are affected. Defined as the build-up of carbon dioxide levels (PaCO2) that has been generated by the body but cannot be eliminated. The underlying causes include:
      – Increased airways resistance (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, suffocation)
      – Reduced breathing effort (drug effects, brain stem lesion, extreme obesity)
      – A decrease in the area of the lung available for gas exchange (such as in chronic bronchitis)
      – Neuromuscular problems (Guillain–Barré syndrome, motor neuron disease)
      – Deformed (kyphoscoliosis), rigid (ankylosing spondylitis), or flail chest.

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      • Respiratory
      57.2
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  • Question 5 - A 60 year old man who has been complaining of increasing shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old man who has been complaining of increasing shortness of breath had a post-bronchodilator spirometry done. FEV1/FVC 0. 63 FEV1% predicted 63% What is the best interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer: COPD (stage 1 - mild)

      Correct Answer: COPD (stage 2 - moderate)

      Explanation:

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a complex and progressive chronic lung disease. Typically, COPD includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis. COPD is characterized by the restriction of airflow into and out of the lungs. The obstruction of airflow makes breathing difficult. The causes of COPD include smoking, long-term exposure to air pollutants and a rare genetic disorder.

      The Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) developed the GOLD Staging System. In the GOLD System, the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) measurement from a pulmonary function test is used to place COPD into stages. Often, doctors also consider your COPD symptoms.

      COPD has four stages. The stages of COPD range from mild to very severe. COPD affects everyone differently. Because COPD is a progressive lung disease, it will worsen over time.
      The Stages of COPD:
      Mild COPD or Stage 1—Mild COPD with a FEV1 about 80 percent or more of normal.
      Moderate COPD or Stage 2—Moderate COPD with a FEV1 between 50 and 80 percent of normal.
      Severe COPD or Stage 3—Severe emphysema with a FEV1 between 30 and 50 percent of normal.
      Very Severe COPD or Stage 4—Very severe or End-Stage COPD with a lower FEV1 than Stage 3, or people with low blood oxygen levels and a Stage 3 FEV1.

      This patient has a FEV1 percent of 63 which falls within the stage 2 or moderate COPD.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 6 - A 35 year old factory worker presents with a history of episodic dyspnoea....

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old factory worker presents with a history of episodic dyspnoea. The complaint worsens when he is working. He starts to feel wheezy, with a tendency to cough. Which diagnostic investigation would be the most useful in this case?

      Your Answer: Patch testing

      Correct Answer: Serial peak flow measurements at work and at home

      Explanation:

      Serial Peak Expiratory Flow measurement at work and home is a feasible, sensitive, and specific test for the diagnosis of occupational asthma. For a diagnosis of occupational asthma, it is important to establish a relationship objectively between the workplace exposure and asthma symptoms and signs. Physiologically, this can be achieved by monitoring airflow limitation in relation to occupational exposure(s). If there is an effect of a specific workplace exposure, airflow limitation should be more prominent on work days compared with days away from work (or days away from the causative agent). Airflow limitation can be measured by spirometry, with peak expiratory flow (PEF) and/or forced expiratory volume in 1 s(FEV1) being the most useful for observing changes in airway calibre. Other tests mentioned are less reliable and would not help in establishing a satisfactory diagnosis of occupational asthma.

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  • Question 7 - Which type of cell is responsible for the production of surfactant? ...

    Correct

    • Which type of cell is responsible for the production of surfactant?

      Your Answer: Type II pneumocyte

      Explanation:

      Type I pneumocyte: The cell responsible for the gas (oxygen and carbon dioxide) exchange that takes place in the alveoli. It is a very thin cell stretched over a very large area. This type of cell is susceptible to a large number of toxic insults and cannot replicate itself.
      Type II pneumocyte: The cell responsible for the production and secretion of surfactant (the molecule that reduces the surface tension of pulmonary fluids and contributes to the elastic properties of the lungs). The type 2 pneumocyte is a smaller cell that can replicate in the alveoli and will replicate to replace damaged type 1 pneumocytes. Alveolar macrophages are the primary phagocytes of the innate immune system, clearing the air spaces of infectious, toxic, or allergic particles that have evaded the mechanical defences of the respiratory tract, such as the nasal passages, the glottis, and the mucociliary transport system. The main role of goblet cells is to secrete mucus in order to protect the mucous membranes where they are found. Goblet cells accomplish this by secreting mucins, large glycoproteins formed mostly by carbohydrates.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 8 - An 80 year old woman is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia....

    Correct

    • An 80 year old woman is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. There is consolidation and a moderate sized pleural effusion on the same side. An ultrasound guided pleural fluid aspiration is performed. The appearance of the fluid is clear and is sent off for culture. Whilst awaiting the culture results, which one of the following is the most important factor when determining whether a chest tube should be placed?

      Your Answer: pH of the pleural fluid

      Explanation:

      In adult practice, biochemical analysis of pleural fluid plays an important part in the management of pleural effusions. Protein levels or Light’s criteria differentiate exudates from transudates, while infection is indicated by pleural acidosis associated with raised LDH and low glucose levels. In terms of treatment, the pH may even guide the need for tube drainage, suggested by pH <7.2 in an infected effusion, although the absolute protein values are of no value in determining the likelihood of spontaneous resolution or chest drain requirements. pH is therefore the most important factor.

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  • Question 9 - A 26 year old male from Eastern Europe has been experiencing night sweats,...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old male from Eastern Europe has been experiencing night sweats, fevers, and decreased weight for several months. He also has a chronic cough which at times consists of blood. He is reviewed at the clinic and a calcified lesion was detected in his right lung with enlarged calcified right hilar lymph nodes. His leukocytes are just below normal range and there is a normochromic normocytic anaemia. Acid-fast bacilli (AFB) are found in one out of five sputum samples. Sputum is sent for extended culture.   Which diagnosis fits best with his signs and symptoms?

      Your Answer: Active pulmonary tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Classic clinical features associated with active pulmonary TB are as follows (elderly individuals with TB may not display typical signs and symptoms):
      – Cough
      – Weight loss/anorexia
      – Fever
      – Night sweats
      – Haemoptysis
      – Chest pain (can also result from tuberculous acute pericarditis)
      – Fatigue

      Test:
      Acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear and culture – Using sputum obtained from the patient.
      AFB stain is quick but requires a very high organism load for positivity, as well as the expertise to read the stained sample. This test is more useful in patients with pulmonary disease.
      Obtain a chest radiograph to evaluate for possible associated pulmonary findings. If chest radiography findings suggest TB and a sputum smear is positive for AFB, initiate treatment for TB.

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  • Question 10 - A 66 year old man visits the clinic because he has been experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 66 year old man visits the clinic because he has been experiencing increasing breathlessness for the past five months while doing daily tasks. His exercise tolerance is now limited to 75 metres while on a flat surface and walking up the stairs makes him breathless. He sleeps on four pillows and has swollen ankles in the morning. He occasionally coughs up phlegm. Past Medical history of importance: 36 pack year smoking history Hypertension Ischaemic heart disease Coronary artery stenting done 10 months ago Pulmonary function testing revealed: FEV1 0.90 L (1.80 – 3.02 predicted) FVC 1.87 L (2.16 – 3.58 predicted) Diffusion capacity 3.0 mmol/min/kPa (5.91 – 9.65 predicted) Total lung capacity 4.50 L (4.25 – 6.22 predicted) Residual volume 2.70 L (1.46 – 2.48 predicted)   Which condition does he have?

      Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Explanation:

      Whilst asthma and COPD are different diseases they cause similar symptoms, which can present a challenge in identifying which of the two diseases a patient is suffering from. COPD causes chronic symptoms and narrowed airways which do not respond to treatment to open them up. In the case of asthma the constriction of the airways through inflammation tends to come and go and treatment to reduce inflammation and to open up the airways usually works well.

      COPD is more likely than asthma to cause a chronic cough with phlegm and is rare before the age of 35 whilst asthma is common in under-35s. Disturbed sleep caused by breathlessness and wheeze is more likely in cases of asthma, as is a history of allergies, eczema and hay fever. Differentiating between COPD and asthma requires a history of both symptoms and spirometry. The spirometry history should include post bronchodilator measurements, the degree of reversibility and, ideally, home monitoring which gives a history of diurnal variation.

      Airflow Obstruction: Both asthma and COPD are characterised by airflow obstruction. Airflow obstruction is defined as a reduced FEV1 and a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio, such that FEV1 is less than 80% of that predicted, and FEV1/FVC is less than 0.7.

      These episodes are usually associated with widespread, but variable, airflow obstruction within the lung that is often reversible either spontaneously or with treatment.

      COPD: COPD is a chronic, slowly progressive disorder characterised by airflow obstruction (reduced FEV1 and FEV1/VC ratio) that does not change markedly over several months. The airflow obstruction is not fully reversible.

      Spirometry COPD Asthma
      VC Reduced Nearly normal
      FEV1 Reduced Reduced in attack
      FVC (or FEV6) Reduced Nearly normal
      FEV1 Ratio
      (of VC/FVC/FEV6) Reduced in attack

      This man has a low FEV1 and FVC. His diffusions capacity is also low despite having a normal total lung capacity. These values confirm a diagnosis of COPD.

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  • Question 11 - A 51 year old obese female, with a history of smoking, presents to...

    Correct

    • A 51 year old obese female, with a history of smoking, presents to the clinic with worsening dyspnoea. She is currently on oestrogen therapy for menopausal symptoms. Clinical examination, ECG and radiological findings correspond to right sided heart failure. There are no signs of left ventricular dysfunction. Which of the following is the most likely cause of cor pulmonale?

      Your Answer: Recurrent small pulmonary embolisms

      Explanation:

      Postmenopausal oestrogen therapy and hormone therapy are associated with an increased risk of thromboembolism. The relative risk seems to be even greater if the treated population has pre-existing risk factors for thromboembolism, such as obesity, immobilization, and fracture. Cor pulmonale can occur secondary to small recurrent pulmonary embolisms. Pneumonias and bronchiectasis usually present with purulent sputum, and in case of carcinoma there may be other associated symptoms like weight loss, etc.

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      • Respiratory
      66.3
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  • Question 12 - A 24 year old female, 28 weeks pregnant presents to the clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old female, 28 weeks pregnant presents to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath and right sided pleuritic chest pain. The doctor suspects pulmonary embolism. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the management of this case?

      Your Answer: D-dimer levels are of no use

      Correct Answer: Ventilation-perfusion scanning exposes the foetus to less radiation than computed tomographic pulmonary angiography

      Explanation:

      V/Q scanning carries a slightly increased risk of childhood cancer compared with CTPA – 1/280,000 versus less than 1/1,000,000 – but carries a lower risk of maternal breast cancer. The rest of the options are true.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 13 - A 40 year old farmer who is a non-smoker is experiencing increasing shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old farmer who is a non-smoker is experiencing increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He has been having chest tightness and a non-productive cough which becomes worse when he is at the dairy farm. He has no respiratory history of note. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis is the suspected diagnosis. Which factor would be responsible for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cow faeces

      Correct Answer: Contaminated hay

      Explanation:

      Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) refers to a group of lung diseases that can develop after exposure to certain substances. The name describes the origin and the nature of these diseases:

      ‘extrinsic’ – caused by something originating outside the body
      ‘allergic’ – an abnormally increased (hypersensitive) body reaction to a common substance
      ‘alveolitis’ – inflammation in the small air sacs of the lungs (alveoli)

      Symptoms can include: fever, cough, worsening breathlessness and weight loss. The diagnosis of the disease is based on a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and a range of clinical tests which usually includes: X-rays or CT scans, lung function and blood tests.

      EAA is not a ‘new’ occupational respiratory disease and occupational causes include bacteria, fungi, animal proteins, plants and chemicals.

      Examples of EAA include:

      Farmer’s lung
      This is probably the most common occupational form of EAA and is the outcome of an allergic response to a group of microbes, which form mould on vegetable matter in storage. During the handling of mouldy straw, hay or grain, particularly in a confined space such as a poorly ventilated building, inhalation of spores and other antigenic material is very likely.

      There also appears to be a clear relationship between water content of crops, heating (through mould production) and microbial growth, and this would apply to various crops and vegetable matter, with the spores produced likely to cause EAA.

      Farmer’s lung can be prevented by drying crops adequately before storage and by ensuring good ventilation during storage. Respiratory protection should also be worn by farm workers when handling stored crops, particularly if they have been stored damp or are likely to be mouldy.

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  • Question 14 - A 41 year old man who has had two episodes of pneumonia in...

    Correct

    • A 41 year old man who has had two episodes of pneumonia in succession and an episode of haemoptysis is observed to have paroxysms of coughing and increasing wheezing. A single lesion which is well-defined is seen in the lower right lower lobe on a chest x-ray. There is no necrosis but biopsy shows numerous abnormal cells, occasional nuclear pleomorphism and absent mitoses. Which diagnosis fits the clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoid

      Explanation:

      Bronchial carcinoids are uncommon, slow growing, low-grade, malignant neoplasms, comprising 1-2% of all primary lung cancers.
      It is believed to be derived from surface of bronchial glandular epithelium. Mostly located centrally, they produce symptoms and signs of bronchial obstruction such as localized wheeze, non resolving recurrent pneumonitis, cough, chest pain, and fever. Haemoptysis is present in approximately 50% of the cases due to their central origin and hypervascularity.
      Central bronchial carcinoids are more common than the peripheral type and are seen as endobronchial nodules or hilar/perihilar mass closely related to the adjacent bronchus. Chest X-ray may not show the central lesion depending on how small it is.

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  • Question 15 - A 20 year old woman presents to the hospital with sharp, left-sided chest...

    Correct

    • A 20 year old woman presents to the hospital with sharp, left-sided chest pain and shortness of breath. On examination her pulse is 101 beats per minute and blood pressure is 124/61 mmHg. She is seen to be mildly breathless at rest but her oxygen saturation on air was 98%. CXR reveals a left pneumothorax with a 4 cm rim of air visible. Which management strategy is appropriate in this patient?

      Your Answer: Needle aspiration

      Explanation:

      Pneumothorax is defined as air in the pleural space and may be classified as spontaneous, traumatic or iatrogenic. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs in patients without clinically apparent lung disease.
      Primary pneumothorax has an incidence of 18-28 per 100,000 per year for men and 1.2-6 per 100,000 per year for women. Most patients present with ipsilateral pleuritic chest pain and acute shortness of breath. Shortness of breath is largely dependent on the size of the pneumothorax and whether there is underlying chronic lung disease.

      Young patients may have chest pain only. Most episodes of pneumothorax occur at rest. Symptoms may resolve within 24 hours in patients with primary spontaneous pneumothorax. The diagnosis of a pneumothorax is confirmed by finding a visceral pleural line displaced from the chest wall, without distal lung markings, on a posterior-anterior chest radiograph.

      Breathless patients should not be left without intervention regardless of the size of pneumothorax. If there is a rim of air >2cm on the chest X-ray, this should be aspirated.
      Aspiration is successful in approximately 70 per cent of patients; the patient may be discharged subsequently. A further attempt at aspiration is recommended if the patient remains symptomatic and a volume of less than 2.5 litres has been aspirated on the first attempt.

      If unsuccessful, an intercostal drain is inserted. This may be removed after 24 hours after full re-expansion or cessation of air leak without clamping and discharge may be considered.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 16 - A 26 year old man with a history of 'brittle' asthma is admitted...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old man with a history of 'brittle' asthma is admitted with an asthma attack. High-flow oxygen and nebulised salbutamol have already been administered by the Paramedics. The patient is unable to complete sentences and he has a bilateral expiratory wheeze. He is also unable to perform a peak flow reading. His respiratory rate is 31/minute, sats 93% (on high-flow oxygen) and pulse 119/minute. Intravenous hydrocortisone is immediately administered and nebulised salbutamol given continuously. Intravenous magnesium sulphate is administered after six minutes of no improvement. These are the results from the blood gas sample that was taken after another six minutes: pH 7.32 pCO2 6.8 kPa pO2 8.9 kPa What is the most appropriate therapy in this patient?

      Your Answer: Intubation

      Explanation:

      The normal partial pressure reference values are: oxygen PaO2 more than 80 mmHg (11 kPa), and carbon dioxide PaCO2 lesser than 45 mmHg (6.0 kPa).
      This patient has an elevated PaCO2 of 6.8kPa which exceeds the normal value of less than 6.0kPa.
      The pH is also lower than 7.35 at 7.32

      In any patient with asthma, an increasing PaCO2 indicates severe airway obstruction that is leading to respiratory muscle fatigue and patient exhaustion.

      According to the British Thoracic Society guidelines:
      Indications for admission to intensive care or high-dependency units include
      patients requiring ventilatory support and those with acute severe or life-threatening asthma who are failing to respond to therapy, as evidenced by:
      • deteriorating PEF
      • persisting or worsening hypoxia
      • hypercapnia
      • arterial blood gas analysis showing fall in pH or rising hydrogen concentration
      • exhaustion, feeble respiration
      • drowsiness, confusion, altered conscious state
      • respiratory arrest

      Transfer to ICU accompanied by a doctor prepared to intubate if:
      • Deteriorating PEF, worsening or persisting hypoxia, or hypercapnia
      • Exhaustion, altered consciousness
      • Poor respiratory effort or respiratory arrest

      A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate is safe and may improve lung function and reduce intubation rates in patients with acute severe asthma. Intravenous magnesium sulphate may also reduce hospital admissions in adults with acute asthma who have had little or no response to standard treatment.

      Consider giving a single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate to
      patients with acute severe asthma (PEF <50% best or predicted) who have not had a good initial response to inhaled bronchodilator therapy.
      Magnesium sulphate (1.2–2 g IV infusion over 20 minutes) should only be used following consultation with senior medical staff.

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  • Question 17 - An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and night sweats on a few nights per week for the past four months. He is known to smoke 12 cigarettes per day and he had previously undergone treatment for Tuberculosis seven years ago. His blood pressure was found to be 143/96mmHg and he is mildly pyrexial 37.5°C. Evidence of consolidation affecting the right upper lobe was also found. Investigations;   Hb 11.9 g/dL, WCC 11.1 x109/L, PLT 190 x109/L, Na+ 138 mmol/L, K+ 4.8 mmol/L, Creatinine 105 μmol/L, CXR Right upper lobe cavitating lesion Aspergillus precipitins positive Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactivated tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Aspergilloma

      Explanation:

      An aspergilloma is a fungus ball (mycetoma) that develops in a pre-existing cavity in the lung parenchyma. Underlying causes of the cavitary disease may include treated tuberculosis or other necrotizing infection, sarcoidosis, cystic fibrosis, and emphysematous bullae. The ball of fungus may move within the cavity but does not invade the cavity wall. Aspergilloma may manifest as an asymptomatic radiographic abnormality in a patient with pre-existing cavitary lung disease due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or other necrotizing pulmonary processes. In patients with HIV disease, aspergilloma may occur in cystic areas resulting from prior Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Of patients with aspergilloma, 40-60% experience haemoptysis, which may be massive and life threatening. Less commonly, aspergilloma may cause cough and fever.

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  • Question 18 - A 39 year old man was admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year old man was admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. He responded to treatment but the medical intern was concerned that Aspergillus fumigatus was cultured from his sputum.   Subsequently arranged serum total, IgE level was elevated at 437 ng/ml (normal 40-180 ng/ml), RAST to Aspergillus fumigatus was class III, Aspergillus fumigatus precipitins were negative.   What would be the most appropriate management step in this patient?

      Your Answer: High dose oral corticosteroids

      Correct Answer: No change in medication

      Explanation:

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a form of lung disease that occurs in some people who are allergic to Aspergillus. With ABPA, this allergic reaction causes the immune system to overreact to Aspergillus leading to lung inflammation. ABPA causes bronchospasm (tightening of airway muscles) and mucus build-up resulting in coughing, breathing difficulty and airway obstruction.

      Blood tests are used to look for signs of an allergic reaction. This includes evaluating your immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. This level is increased with any type of allergy. Many people with asthma have higher than normal IgE levels. In ABPA however, the IgE level is extremely high (more than 1000 ng/ml or 417 IU/ml). In addition to total IgE, all patients with ABPA have high levels of IgE that is specific to Aspergillus. A blood test can be done to measure specific IgE to Aspergillus. A blood or skin test for IgE antibodies to Aspergillus can be done to see if a person is sensitized (allergic) to this fungus. If these skin tests are negative (i.e. does not show a skin reaction) to Aspergillus fumigatus, the person usually does not have ABPA.
      Therefore, there should be no change in medication since this patient does not have ABPA.

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  • Question 19 - A 28 year old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and cough. Over the...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and cough. Over the past three weeks she has also developed painful erythematous nodules on both shins. Respiratory examination is normal. A chest x-ray is performed which is reported as follows: Bilateral mediastinal nodal enlargement. No evidence of lung parenchymal disease. Normal cardiac size. Given the likely diagnosis, what would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Observation

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is an inflammatory disease that affects one or more organs but most commonly affects the lungs and lymph glands. The inflammation may change the normal structure and possibly the function of the affected organ(s).
      The presentation in sarcoidosis varies with the extent and severity of organ involvement, as follows:
      Asymptomatic (incidentally detected on chest imaging): Approximately 5% of cases.
      Systemic complaints (fever, anorexia): 45% of cases
      Pulmonary complaints (dyspnoea on exertion, cough, chest pain, and haemoptysis [rare]): 50% of cases

      Löfgren syndrome (fever, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, and polyarthralgias): Common in Scandinavian patients, but uncommon in African-American and Japanese patients.

      Dermatologic manifestations may include the following:
      – Erythema nodosum
      – A lower-extremity panniculitis with painful, erythematous nodules (often with Löfgren syndrome)
      – Lupus pernio (the most specific associated cutaneous lesion)
      – Violaceous rash on the cheeks or nose (common)
      – Maculopapular plaques (uncommon)

      Staging of sarcoidosis is as follows:
      Stage 0: Normal chest radiographic findings
      Stage I: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
      Stage II: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and infiltrates
      Stage III: Infiltrates alone
      Stage IV: Fibrosis

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are indicated for the treatment of arthralgias and other rheumatic complaints. Patients with stage I sarcoidosis often require only occasional treatment with NSAIDs.

      Treatment in patients with pulmonary involvement is as follows:
      Asymptomatic patients may not require treatment
      In patients with minimal symptoms, serial re-evaluation is prudent
      Treatment is indicated for patients with significant respiratory symptoms
      Corticosteroids can produce small improvements in the functional vital capacity and in the radiographic appearance in patients with more severe stage II and III disease.

      This patient has Stage 1 Sarcoidosis so observation is the most appropriate action.

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      • Respiratory
      84.3
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  • Question 20 - From the options provided below, which intervention plays the greatest role in increasing...

    Correct

    • From the options provided below, which intervention plays the greatest role in increasing survival in patients with COPD?

      Your Answer: Smoking cessation

      Explanation:

      Smoking cessation is the most effective intervention in stopping the progression of COPD, as well as increasing survival and reducing morbidity. This is why smoking cessation should be the top priority in the treatment of COPD. Long term oxygen therapy (LTOT) may increase survival in hypoxic patients. The rest of the options dilate airways, reduce inflammation and thereby improve symptoms but do not necessarily increase survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following statements about smoking is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about smoking is correct?

      Your Answer: Quitting is associated with average weight gain of 2 kg

      Explanation:

      A study conducted showed that the average post smoking cessation weight gain was about 2 kg.
      Withdrawal symptoms usually peak after 1–3 days and then decrease over a period of 3–4 weeks. After this time, the body has expelled most of the nicotine, and the withdrawal effects are mainly psychological.

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      • Respiratory
      12.3
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  • Question 22 - A 23 year old female presents with a five month history of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old female presents with a five month history of worsening breathlessness and daily productive cough. As a young child, she had occasional wheezing with viral illnesses and she currently works in a ship yard and also smokes one pack of cigarettes daily for the past three years. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Bronchiectasis is a long-term condition where the airways of the lungs become abnormally widened, leading to a build-up of excess mucus that can make the lungs more vulnerable to infection. The most common symptoms of bronchiectasis include:
      – a persistent productive cough
      – breathlessness.

      The 3 most common causes in the UK are:
      – a lung infection in the past, such as pneumonia or whooping cough, that damages the bronchi
      – underlying problems with the immune system (the body’s defence against infection) that make the bronchi more vulnerable to damage from an infection
      – allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) – an allergy to a certain type of fungi that can cause the bronchi to become inflamed if spores from the fungi are inhaled

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      • Respiratory
      16.7
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  • Question 23 - A 65 year old retired postman has been complaining of a two-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old retired postman has been complaining of a two-month history of lethargy associated with dyspnoea. He has never smoked and takes no medication. The chest X-ray shows multiple round lesions increasing in size and numbers at the base. There is no hilar lymphadenopathy.   What condition does he most likely have?

      Your Answer: Silicosis

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary metastases

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary metastasis is seen in 20-54% of extrathoracic malignancies. The lungs are the second most frequent site of metastases from extrathoracic malignancies. Twenty percent of metastatic disease is isolated to the lungs. The development of pulmonary metastases in patients with known malignancies indicates disseminated disease and places the patient in stage IV in TNM (tumour, node, metastasis) staging systems.
      Chest radiography (CXR) is the initial imaging modality used in the detection of suspected pulmonary metastasis in patients with known malignancies. Chest CT scanning without contrast is more sensitive than CXR.
      Breast, colorectal, lung, kidney, head and neck, and uterus cancers are the most common primary tumours with lung metastasis at autopsy. Choriocarcinoma, osteosarcoma, testicular tumours, malignant melanoma, Ewing sarcoma, and thyroid cancer frequently metastasize to lung, but the frequency of these tumours is low.

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      • Respiratory
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which virus is severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) caused by? ...

    Correct

    • Which virus is severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) caused by?

      Your Answer: A coronavirus

      Explanation:

      Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a viral respiratory illness caused by a coronavirus called SARS-associated coronavirus (SARS-CoV). SARS was first reported in Asia in February 2003.
      In general, SARS begins with a high fever (temperature greater than 38.0°C). Other symptoms may include headache, an overall feeling of discomfort, and body aches. Some people also have mild respiratory symptoms at the outset. About 10 to 20 percent of patients have diarrhoea. After 2 to 7 days, SARS patients may develop a dry cough. Most patients develop pneumonia. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      3.7
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  • Question 25 - Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol. ...

    Incorrect

    • Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol.

      Your Answer: Beta2 receptor agonist which increases cGMP levels and leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

      Correct Answer: Beta2 receptor agonist which increases cAMP levels and leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

      Explanation:

      Salbutamol stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which are the predominant receptors in bronchial smooth muscle (beta-2 receptors are also present in the heart in a concentration between 10% and 50%).

      Stimulation of beta-2 receptors leads to the activation of enzyme adenyl cyclase that forms cyclic AMP (adenosine-mono-phosphate) from ATP (adenosine-tri-phosphate). This increase of cyclic AMP relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and decrease airway resistance by lowering intracellular ionic calcium concentrations. Salbutamol relaxes the smooth muscles of airways, from trachea to terminal bronchioles.

      Increased cyclic AMP concentrations also inhibits the release of bronchoconstrictor mediators such as histamine and leukotriene from the mast cells in the airway.

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      • Respiratory
      9.1
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  • Question 26 - A 21 year old university student is taken to the A&E. She lives...

    Correct

    • A 21 year old university student is taken to the A&E. She lives alone in a small apartment. She is normally fit and well but she has been complaining of difficulty with concentrating in classes. She is a one pack per day smoker and she has no significant past medical history. She is also not on any medication. She had a pulse of 123 beats per minute and her blood pressure was measured to be 182/101mmHg. She looked flushed. Chest x-ray was normal and her oxygen saturations were normal. She has typical features of carbon monoxide poisoning.   Initial investigations showed:
      • Haemoglobin 13.0 g/dL (11.5-16.5)
      • White cell count 10.3 x109/L (4-11 x109)
      • Platelets 281 x109/L (150-400 x109)
      • Serum sodium 133 mmol/L (137-144)
      • Serum potassium 3.7 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      • Serum urea 7.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      • Serum creatinine 83 μmol/L (60-110)
      Drug screen Negative Arterial blood gases on air:
      • pO2 7.9 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      • pCO2 4.7 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      • pH 7.43 (7.36-7.44)
      Which test would confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carboxy haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colourless, odourless gas produced by incomplete combustion of carbonaceous material. Clinical presentation in patients with CO poisoning ranges from headache and dizziness to coma and death. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy can significantly reduce the morbidity of CO poisoning, but a portion of survivors still suffer significant long-term neurologic and affective sequelae.

      Complaints:
      Malaise, flulike symptoms, fatigue
      Dyspnoea on exertion
      Chest pain, palpitations
      Lethargy
      Confusion
      Depression
      Impulsiveness
      Distractibility
      Hallucination, confabulation
      Agitation
      Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
      Abdominal pain
      Headache, drowsiness
      Dizziness, weakness, confusion
      Visual disturbance, syncope, seizure
      Faecal and urinary incontinence
      Memory and gait disturbances
      Bizarre neurologic symptoms, coma

      Vital signs may include the following:
      Tachycardia
      Hypertension or hypotension
      Hyperthermia
      Marked tachypnoea (rare; severe intoxication often associated with mild or no tachypnoea)
      Although so-called cherry-red skin has traditionally been considered a sign of CO poisoning, it is in fact rare.

      The clinical diagnosis of acute carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning should be confirmed by demonstrating an elevated level of carboxyhaemoglobin (HbCO). Either arterial or venous blood can be used for testing. Analysis of HbCO requires direct spectrophotometric measurement in specific blood gas analysers. Elevated CO levels of at least 3–4% in non-smokers and at least 10% in smokers are significant.

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      • Respiratory
      35.7
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements regarding the clinical effects of long-term oxygen therapy...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding the clinical effects of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is the most accurate?

      Your Answer: Reduced sympathetic outflow

      Explanation:

      Studies have shown that benefits of Long-tern oxygen therapy (LTOT) include improved exercise tolerance, with improved walking distance, and ability to perform daily activities, reduction of secondary polycythaemia, improved sleep quality and reduced sympathetic outflow, with increased sodium and water excretion, leading to improvement in renal function.

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      • Respiratory
      26.4
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  • Question 28 - What does Caplan's syndrome refer to? ...

    Incorrect

    • What does Caplan's syndrome refer to?

      Your Answer: Coal miners pneumoconiosis

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid lung nodules and pneumoconiosis

      Explanation:

      Caplan’s syndrome is defined as the association between silicosis and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). It is rare and usually diagnosed in an advanced stage of RA. It generally affects patients with a prolonged exposure to silica.

      Caplan’s syndrome presents with rheumatoid lung nodules and pneumoconiosis. Originally described in coal miners with progressive massive fibrosis, it may also occur in asbestosis, silicosis and other pneumoconiosis. Chest radiology shows multiple, round, well defined nodules, usually 0.5 – 2.0 cm in diameter, which may cavitate and resemble tuberculosis.

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      • Respiratory
      17.5
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following is most likely linked to male infertility in cystic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most likely linked to male infertility in cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer: Impotence

      Correct Answer: Failure of development of the vas deferens

      Explanation:

      The vas deferens is a long tube that connects the epididymis to the ejaculatory ducts. It acts as a canal through which mature sperm may pass through the penis during ejaculation.

      Most men with CF (97-98 percent) are infertile because of a blockage or absence of the vas deferens, known as congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens (CBAVD). The sperm never makes it into the semen, making it impossible for them to reach and fertilize an egg through intercourse. The absence of sperm in the semen can also contribute to men with CF having thinner ejaculate and lower semen volume.

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      • Respiratory
      22.4
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  • Question 30 - A 63 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a 6-month history...

    Correct

    • A 63 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a 6-month history of shortness of breath on exertion and a non-productive cough.   On examination there is clubbing, and crepitations heard at the lung bases. Lung function tests show a reduced vital capacity and an increased FEV1/FVC ratio.   What is his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a condition in which the lungs become scarred and breathing becomes increasingly difficult.
      The most common signs and symptoms of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis are shortness of breath and a persistent dry, hacking cough. Many affected individuals also experience a loss of appetite and gradual weight loss.

      The clinical findings of IPF are bibasilar reticular abnormalities, ground glass opacities, or diffuse nodular lesions on high-resolution computed tomography and abnormal pulmonary function studies that include evidence of restriction (reduced VC with an increase in FEV1/FVC ratio) and/or impaired gas exchange (increased P(A-a)O2 with rest or exercise or decreased diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide [DLCO]).

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      • Respiratory
      19.5
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (15/30) 50%
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