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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of low mood. He reports experiencing anhedonia, fatigue, weight loss, insomnia, and agitation. His PHQ-9 score is 20.
What is the optimal course of action for management?Your Answer: Start fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Start citalopram and refer for CBT
Explanation:Based on the patient’s PHQ-9 score and varied symptoms, it appears that he is suffering from severe depression. According to NICE guidelines, the recommended treatment for severe depression is a combination of an antidepressant and psychological intervention, with an SSRI being the first-line antidepressant of choice. Therefore, in this case, citalopram with CBT would be the appropriate treatment.
While venlafaxine may be considered as a later option if other antidepressants are ineffective, it is not the first choice. Additionally, a referral to psychiatry is not necessary based on the symptoms presented.
Fluoxetine is a suitable first-line antidepressant, but for severe depression, it should be used in combination with psychological intervention.
CBT alone may be appropriate for mild to moderate depression, but for severe depression, the guidelines recommend using an antidepressant in combination.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following medications, when taken with Tamoxifen, may decrease its efficacy and are commonly prescribed to women for anxiety, depression, and hot flashes?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Drug Interactions with Tamoxifen
Tamoxifen is a medication used to treat breast cancer, and its effectiveness is dependent on the bioactivation process catalyzed by the cytochrome CYP2D6. However, studies have shown that certain drugs can inhibit CYP2D6, leading to a decrease in the clinical effectiveness of tamoxifen.
Among the drugs that can inhibit CYP2D6, paroxetine and fluoxetine are considered strong inhibitors. Therefore, concomitant use of these drugs with tamoxifen should be avoided. Other drugs have not been shown to have this problem and can be used safely with tamoxifen. It is important to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure the best possible treatment outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity and impulsivity. There is no history of substance abuse, general medical problems, emotional stresses or depressive episodes. Laboratory tests for liver and thyroid functions are normal. Mental status examination reveals a well-oriented woman with pressured speech and mood lability, but no psychotic symptoms.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Hypomania
Explanation:Understanding Hypomania and Antisocial Personality Disorder
Hypomania is a mood disorder characterized by an elevated and euphoric mood, increased activity, decreased need for sleep, and impaired judgement. It is a feature of bipolar disorder 2 and cyclothymia, and can also occur in drug-induced mood disorders. Antisocial personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by a disregard for and violation of others’ rights since age 15, and typically presents in adulthood. It is important to distinguish between these two disorders, as they have different diagnostic criteria and treatment approaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is brought by her partner because she has threatened suicide. She has come home suddenly from work because she feels abandoned by her colleagues (who she was previously very close with), having made a mistake in a project. She has been going out regularly to bars drinking and has been quite promiscuous, behaving in a risky way with little care for her own safety and her money. She admits to being intermittently depressed.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Borderline Personality Disorder: Symptoms and Criteria
Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) is a mental health condition that is characterized by a pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and emotions. To be diagnosed with BPD, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following symptoms:
1. Frantic efforts to avoid abandonment.
2. Unstable and intense interpersonal relationships.
3. Markedly and persistently unstable self-image.
4. Impulsivity in at least two areas that are risky, such as sex, substance abuse or reckless driving.
5. Recurrent threats of suicide or self-harm.
6. Mood instability.
7. Feelings of emptiness.
8. Inappropriate and intense anger.
9. Transient paranoia or dissociation (detachment).It is important to note that these symptoms must be persistent and pervasive, causing significant distress and impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning. If you or someone you know is experiencing these symptoms, it is important to seek professional help.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who has been experiencing recurrent issues with hand dermatitis for the past few years. Despite trying various topical treatments, she has not found relief and has been referred to the dermatologists by a colleague. During your conversation, you discover that she has been washing her hands frequently since she was a teenager, and if she doesn't wash them, she feels anxious and uptight. Although washing her hands reduces her anxiety, she finds the need to do so distressing and unpleasant. She can spend up to two hours each day washing her hands. Despite attempting to resist hand-washing in the past, she has been unable to do so. She acknowledges that her behavior is excessive and unnecessary but cannot seem to stop. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Correct Answer: Phobic disorder
Explanation:Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by obsessions and compulsions. Obsessions are repetitive, intrusive, and distressing thoughts, images, or impulses that the patient knows are their own but cannot resist. Compulsions are repetitive behaviors that the patient recognizes as unnecessary but feels compelled to perform to relieve the anxiety associated with their obsessions. The most common obsession in OCD is contamination, while the most common compulsion is handwashing.
Body dysmorphic syndrome is another condition that causes preoccupation and distress over minor or imagined physical defects. Depression and anxiety often coexist with OCD, but in some cases, OCD can be the primary diagnosis.
Phobias, on the other hand, are specific fears that cause anxiety and avoidance of situations where the feared stimulus may be encountered. Phobias related to germs and illness are not uncommon.
It is important to note that OCD is different from psychotic disorders, as patients with OCD recognize that the drive to perform their compulsions is their own and not due to an external force. Delusions of control and other psychotic phenomena are not typically present in OCD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman requests reduction mammoplasty because she is convinced her breasts are grossly large and misshapen. She dresses in elaborate clothing to hide her shape and, although she swims well, has stopped going to the pool. Physical examination reveals breasts well within the normal range of size and shape.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Body dysmorphic disorder
Explanation:Understanding Body Dysmorphic Disorder: Differentiating it from Other Mental Health Conditions
Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) is a mental health condition characterized by a preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance or excessive concern with a slight physical anomaly. To diagnose BDD, the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5) criteria should be followed. It is important to differentiate BDD from other mental health conditions such as agoraphobia, generalized anxiety disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and schizoaffective disorder. By understanding the unique features of BDD, proper diagnosis and treatment can be provided to those who are affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic four weeks after starting treatment with fluoxetine for moderate depressive symptoms. She has no prior experience with antidepressant medication and has no other medical conditions.
During the assessment, she reports no suicidal thoughts and has a supportive partner at home. Despite taking fluoxetine regularly, she has not noticed any improvement in her symptoms and is considering switching to a different medication. She has not experienced any adverse effects with fluoxetine but has heard positive things about St John's wort from a friend.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Continue the current dose of fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Stop the fluoxetine and refer for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Patients with Minimal Response to SSRIs
When a patient has been taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for four weeks without benefit, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. Continuing at the current dose is not a satisfactory plan.
After three to four weeks of minimal or absent response, there are essentially two options in addition to increasing the level of support: increasing the dose of the current antidepressant or changing to an alternative agent if there are side effects or the patient prefers. However, caution is needed when switching from fluoxetine to tricyclics because it inhibits the metabolism. Therefore, after appropriate discontinuation of fluoxetine, a lower than usual starting dose of tricyclic would be required.
It is not recommended to prescribe or advocate for St John’s wort due to lack of clarity regarding doses, duration of effect, and variation in the nature of preparations. Additionally, there are serious drug interactions, particularly with oral contraceptives and anti-epileptics.
According to NICE CG90, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is recommended in addition to medication for moderate depression. If response is absent or minimal after 3 to 4 weeks of treatment with a therapeutic dose of an antidepressant, increase the level of support (for example, by weekly face-to-face or telephone contact) and consider increasing the dose in line with the SPC if there are no significant side effects or switching to another antidepressant as described in section 1.8 if there are side effects or if the person prefers.
In summary, it is important to closely monitor patients who are not responding to SSRIs and consider alternative treatment options in consultation with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is brought to your office by her brother. He is concerned about her lack of close friends and her eccentric behavior, speech, and beliefs. The patient believes she has psychic abilities and is fascinated with the paranormal. Her brother reports that she has displayed these behaviors since childhood, but he is only seeking help now as he is moving to another state and worries about leaving her alone with their parents.
What personality disorder could be present in this patient?Your Answer: Antisocial personality disorder
Correct Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder
Explanation:Individuals with schizotypal personality disorder exhibit peculiar behavior, speech, and beliefs and typically do not have any close friends outside of their family.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are contemplating recommending a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for a middle-aged patient with depression. What category of medication is most prone to interact with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
Your Answer: Beta-blocker
Correct Answer: Triptan
Explanation:Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are seeing a young adult patient who frequently attends the clinic and is being treated for depression. She has come today with her mother feeling low, helpless and 'lost'. Looking back at her medical records you can see that the patient has had several suicide attempts and a long history of self harm. She is known to be an impulsive person and has had problems due to this with substance misuse and personal relationships.
Her mother tells you that she has had a series of sexual relationships that have been very intense and often violent. The latest of these relationships ended a few days ago. Her mood tends to vary markedly and is quite unstable. She has been involved in physical fights on a frequent basis which she puts down to feeling angry and having a 'short fuse'.
On talking to her she has a fear of abandonment and a distorted self-image of herself. You are aware that as a child she was sexually abused by a close male family member.
Which of the following personality disorders correlate with her history and the clinical findings?Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Correct Answer: Antisocial personality disorder
Explanation:Borderline Personality Disorder: Understanding the Challenges
Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) is a complex mental health condition that can present significant challenges in managing both the mental and physical needs of those affected. BPD is the most commonly presenting personality disorder in primary care, and it is important to recognise the signs and symptoms to provide appropriate support.
Individuals with BPD often exhibit a pervasive pattern of behaviour characterised by unstable interpersonal relationships, problems with self-image and mood, and impulsive behaviour. They may experience suicidal tendencies, self-harm, depression, and even psychotic symptoms. Patients can fluctuate rapidly between periods of confidence and complete despair, and they often show fear of abandonment and rejection.
Recognising the signs and symptoms of BPD is crucial in providing appropriate support and treatment for those affected. With the right care and management, individuals with BPD can lead fulfilling lives and achieve their full potential.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A concerned mother brings her hesitant teenage daughter to your clinic, convinced that she is struggling with an eating disorder. The family has been worried about her eating habits for several months and suspects that she may have either anorexia or bulimia. After taking a thorough medical history and conducting a brief examination, which of the following is a common characteristic of bulimia nervosa that you may observe in this adolescent patient?
Your Answer: Lanugo hair
Correct Answer: Shortness of breath
Explanation:Characteristics and Differences between Bulimia Nervosa and Anorexia Nervosa
Bilateral parotid gland swelling is a common characteristic of bulimia nervosa, while amenorrhoea and lanugo hair are typical of anorexia nervosa. Unlike anorexics who tend to be teenagers, bulimics usually present when they are in their twenties. Bulimics have a fear of gaining weight but tend to maintain a normal weight. On the other hand, anorexics have a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, leading to severe weight loss. Shortness of breath is not a feature of bulimia. Understanding the differences between these two eating disorders is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and support for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 12
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman has been dieting excessively and has become markedly underweight.
Select from the list the single most worrying feature that would suggest a need for urgent referral.Your Answer: Inability to rise from a squatting position without using arms for support
Explanation:Assessment of Medical Risk for Eating Disorders: Indicators for Urgent Referral
The Institute of Psychiatry has developed a guide for assessing medical risk in patients with eating disorders. General practitioners can evaluate several parameters to determine if urgent referral is necessary. The following circumstances indicate the need for immediate attention:
Nutrition: A body mass index (BMI) below 14 kg/m2 or weight loss exceeding 0.5 kg per week.
Circulation: A systolic blood pressure below 90, a diastolic blood pressure below 70, or a postural drop greater than 10 mm Hg.
Squat test: The patient is unable to stand up without using their arms for balance or leverage due to muscle weakness.
Core temperature below 35°C.
Liver function tests (LFTs): Low levels of albumin or glucose.
Electrocardiogram (ECG): A pulse rate below 50 or a prolonged QT interval.
By recognizing these indicators, healthcare providers can quickly identify patients who require urgent referral for further evaluation and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Samantha, a 50-year-old woman, visits her doctor complaining of feeling fatigued, experiencing a low mood, and losing interest in activities she typically enjoys for the past two weeks. As per ICD-10 guidelines, how long must Samantha's symptoms persist to be diagnosed with a depressive episode?
Your Answer: 4 weeks
Correct Answer: 2 weeks
Explanation:The criteria for diagnosing depressive illness according to ICD-10 include a depressed mood, loss of interest in activities that were once enjoyable, and decreased energy levels. Other common symptoms include reduced concentration, low self-esteem, feelings of guilt, pessimistic views of the future, and thoughts or actions of self-harm or suicide. Disturbed sleep, diminished appetite, psychomotor agitation or retardation, and loss of libido are also common.
To diagnose a mild depressive episode, at least two of the main three symptoms and two of the other symptoms should be present, but none of the symptoms should be intense. The episode should last for a minimum of two weeks, and individuals should still be able to function socially and at work, despite being distressed by the symptoms.
For a moderate depressive episode, at least two of the main three symptoms and three or four of the other symptoms should be present for a minimum of two weeks. Individuals will likely have difficulty continuing with normal work and social functioning.
A severe depressive episode is diagnosed when all three typical symptoms are present, along with at least four other symptoms, some of which should be severe. The episode should last for a minimum of two weeks, but an early diagnosis may be appropriate if the symptoms are particularly severe. Individuals may also experience psychotic symptoms and show severe distress or agitation.
Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of recurrent hallucinations. He reports seeing faces that are smaller than usual or other objects that are out of proportion. Although he acknowledges that these episodes are not real, they still cause him distress. The patient has a history of macular degeneration and experienced depression 15 years ago after his wife passed away. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities are found. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: Charles-Bonnet syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.
Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.
Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.
In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old woman presents for review. Her daughter is very concerned because her mother is becoming increasingly apathetic, some days not getting out of bed and wearing the same clothes for a number of days in a row. She appears to be having difficulty with word finding. You understand that her husband died three months earlier. Apart from hypertension, she is otherwise physically well.
Physical examination is unremarkable. Her body mass index is 23 kg/m2. Her heart rate is 72 bpm and regular.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Alcohol abuse
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Differentiating between types of dementia and depression
When assessing a patient with cognitive decline, it is important to consider the various possible diagnoses. In the case of a patient who recently lost their spouse and is experiencing symptoms such as apathy and sleep disturbance, depression is the most likely diagnosis. Cognitive behavioural therapy is the recommended intervention in this situation.
Multi-infarct dementia, on the other hand, is typically seen in patients with vascular risk factors such as diabetes and atrial fibrillation. This type of dementia is characterized by a stepwise decline in functioning, with personality traits remaining relatively intact until late in the disease.
Alcohol abuse can also lead to cognitive decline, with weight loss and signs of chronic liver disease being common physical manifestations.
Alzheimer’s dementia is associated with progressive short-term memory loss, difficulties with language and decision-making, and problems with planning. While patients may present with dementia after the death of a partner, the symptoms described here are more consistent with depression.
Finally, frontal lobe dementia is characterized by early symptoms of inappropriate social behaviour, disinhibition, and loss of empathy and sympathy. Memory loss is a late feature of this disease. By carefully considering the patient’s symptoms and medical history, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is taking fluoxetine 20 mg daily for moderately severe depression. She has taken the drug for 2 months and is feeling much better. She now wishes to stop the drug.
Select from the list the single most correct management option.Your Answer: Reduce the dose slowly over 4 weeks and then stop
Correct Answer: Advise continuing fluoxetine 20 mg daily for a further 6 months
Explanation:Preventing Relapse of Depression: The Importance of Continued Treatment
Depression is a serious mental health condition that can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life. While antidepressant treatment can be effective in managing symptoms, it’s important to continue treatment even after recovery to prevent relapse.
Research has shown that a single episode of depression should be treated for at least 6 months after recovery to reduce the risk of relapse. In fact, if antidepressant treatment is stopped immediately on recovery, 50% of patients will experience a relapse of their depressive symptoms.
To prevent relapse, adults should receive the same dose of medication is used for acute treatment. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dosage and duration of treatment. Once the patient has recovered, the medication should be tapered off over a few weeks to avoid any potential withdrawal symptoms.
In conclusion, continued treatment is crucial in preventing relapse of depression. By following the recommended guidelines and working closely with a healthcare provider, individuals can manage their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 17
Correct
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A 56-year-old man has been attending community services for his hazardous alcohol abuse. He no longer enjoys activities that he used to and has difficulty concentrating when watching television. His appetite is variable and he struggles to fall asleep most nights. Upon further assessment using the PHQ-9, he has developed symptoms of moderate depression. Despite still drinking 34 units of alcohol a week, it has been decided to treat his depression medically. Which antidepressant is most likely to be effective?
Your Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:When deciding to start an antidepressant for someone with comorbid alcohol abuse and depression, NICE recommends treating the alcohol disorder first. However, if an antidepressant is still chosen, it should be noted that SSRIs may not be effective in this situation. Instead, evidence suggests that mirtazapine can improve depression and also reduce alcohol intake. (Source: Journal of Dual Diagnosis, 2012;8(3):200)
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman with a long history of depression is brought to see you by his neighbour. He is distressed and tells you that he feels he has nothing to live for. He is single and is recently unemployed. His neighbour happened to call to his house earlier and found him in a 'terrible state' and persuaded him to come to the clinic. He shows you a suicide note he wrote earlier today and says that he feels his life is hopeless and that he has no reason to live. He tells you that he has been feeling increasingly low over the last few months and today has been at home all day drinking whiskey alone. He also tells you that last week he went to see his solicitor and made a will leaving his possessions to his niece. Which of the following factors suggests the greatest risk of suicidal intent?
Your Answer: He is recently unemployed
Correct Answer: He visited his solicitor last week and made a will
Explanation:Assessing Suicide Risk in Patients:
Assessing the risk of suicide in a patient can be a challenging task. However, a sensitive and thorough enquiry into the details can help in identifying and managing the risk. It is crucial to ask all patients who present with low mood or anxiety about suicidal thoughts.
In this case, the patient has consumed large quantities of alcohol, which may affect his impulsivity but is not a reliable indicator of current or future intent. The patient’s unemployment, unmarried status, and living alone are important considerations as they indicate a lack of social support and potential financial difficulties.
The presence of a suicide note would show a certain amount of forethought and is a marker of serious intent and ongoing risk. It is important to determine whether the note was written under the influence of alcohol or not. Either way, it demonstrates significant persistent consideration of suicide.
However, the most critical sign of suicidal intent is that the patient visited his solicitor last week to put his affairs in order. This act shows considerable planning far in advance and demonstrates the highest risk of suicide. It is not impulsive or acutely reactive but measured and requires arrangement and planning.
Sources such as the Oxford Centre for Suicide Research and the Royal College of Psychiatrists provide guidance on assessing suicide risk using structured professional judgement. By conducting a sensitive and thorough enquiry, healthcare professionals can identify and manage the risk of suicide in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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While working in psychiatry, you are taking a history from a patient with a new diagnosis of generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). You take a thorough past medical history. Which of the following is a risk factor for GAD development?
Your Answer: Hyperthyroid disease
Correct Answer: Being divorced or separated
Explanation:Generalised anxiety disorder is more likely to occur in individuals who are divorced or separated, as well as those who are aged 35-54, living alone, or a lone parent. Conversely, being married or cohabiting and aged 16-24 are protective factors against the development of GAD. It is important to note that having a hyperthyroid disease or atrial fibrillation may cause symptoms similar to GAD, but they do not increase the risk of developing the disorder.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping and asks for medication to aid his insomnia. The doctor prescribes a brief course of zopiclone.
What is one of the potential risks of administering zopiclone to elderly patients?Your Answer: Hyperventilation
Correct Answer: Increased risk of falls
Explanation:Elderly patients taking zopiclone are at an increased risk of falling.
Zopiclone works by binding to GABA-containing receptors, which enhances the effects of GABA and produces both the desired and undesired effects of the drug. Its mechanism of action is similar to that of benzodiazepines.
Some of the side effects of zopiclone include agitation, dry mouth, constipation, dizziness, decreased muscle tone, and a bitter taste in the mouth. Elderly patients are particularly susceptible to falls when taking zopiclone.
While diarrhoea is not a known side effect of zopiclone, withdrawal from the drug may cause convulsions, tremors, and hyperventilation.
Understanding Z Drugs
Z drugs are a class of medications that have comparable effects to benzodiazepines but differ in their chemical structure. They work by targeting the α2-subunit of the GABA receptor. Z drugs can be categorized into three groups: imidazopyridines, cyclopyrrolones, and pyrazolopyrimidines. Examples of these drugs include zolpidem, zopiclone, and zaleplon, respectively.
Like benzodiazepines, Z drugs can cause similar adverse effects. Additionally, they can increase the risk of falls in older adults. It is important to understand the potential risks and benefits of these medications before use and to follow the prescribed dosage and instructions carefully.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old long-distance runner who is currently preparing for a regional marathon approaches the team doctor with an unusual sensation in her legs. She reports feeling numbness below her knee. Upon examination, the doctor notes sensory loss below the left knee in a non-dermatomal distribution. The doctor suspects a non-organic cause of her symptoms. What type of disorder is this an example of?
Conversion disorder - typically involves loss of motor or sensory function. May be caused by stress.Your Answer: Munchausen's syndrome
Correct Answer: Conversion disorder
Explanation:Conversion disorder is a condition that often results in the loss of motor or sensory function and is believed to be triggered by stress.
Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry
In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 22
Correct
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What feature is typical of early-stage Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: Myoclonic jerks
Explanation:Differentiating Alzheimer’s Disease from Other Dementias
Alzheimer’s disease is typically identified by the early onset of short term memory loss. However, other dementias may present with different symptoms that can help differentiate them from Alzheimer’s. For example, gait ataxia and urinary incontinence may suggest normal pressure hydrocephalus, while myoclonic jerks may indicate Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Visual hallucinations may be a sign of delirium or Lewy body dementia. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these alternative diagnoses when evaluating patients with dementia symptoms. By identifying the specific type of dementia, appropriate treatment and management strategies can be implemented to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old male presents with persistent fatigue, myalgia, poor concentration and irritability following a flu like illness 18 months previously.
A diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is made.
What is the appropriate initial management of this patient?Your Answer: Antidepressants
Correct Answer: Psychoanalysis
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment of Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a debilitating condition that affects many individuals. To receive a diagnosis of CFS, a patient must have severe chronic fatigue lasting four months or longer (three months in children or young people) and have other medical conditions excluded by clinical diagnosis. Additionally, they must have four or more of the following symptoms: impaired memory or concentration, sore throat, tender lymph nodes, muscle pain, joint pain without swelling or redness, headaches, unrefreshing sleep, or post-exertional malaise lasting more than 24 hours.
For those with mild or moderate CFS, cognitive behavioral therapy and/or graded exercise therapy should be offered and provided to those who choose these approaches. These interventions have the clearest research evidence of benefit. Other treatment options have not been shown to be effective in treating CFS. It is important for individuals with CFS to work with their healthcare provider to find the best treatment plan for their specific needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes to his physician complaining of feeling off for the past few weeks. His girlfriend is with him and expresses concern that he hasn't been acting like himself. She thinks he may need to see a psychiatrist. The patient has no prior history of mental health issues. What symptom would be the most indicative of depression?
Your Answer: Flashbacks to childhood problems
Correct Answer: Early morning waking
Explanation:Depression often presents with early morning waking as a somatic symptom, which may occur before general insomnia. Anxiety is often associated with palpitations and nausea. Excessive gambling may indicate a gambling addiction or a hypomanic/manic disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder frequently involves flashbacks.
Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 25
Correct
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Which one of the following is not a key principle of the 2010 Mental Capacity Act?
Your Answer: A person's ability to make decisions must be reviewed on an annual basis
Explanation:The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.
To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.
When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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The five stages of change for addictive behaviours are Action, Contemplation, Maintenance, precontemplation, and Preparation. What is the correct rank order for these stages?
Your Answer: 42351
Correct Answer: 42513
Explanation:The Stages of Change: Understanding Behavioural Transformation
Behavioural change is a process that involves several stages. The precontemplation stage is characterized by a lack of awareness of the problem and no intention to change. In the contemplation stage, individuals acknowledge the problem and consider overcoming it but have not yet committed to taking action. The preparation stage involves intention and behavioural plans, with individuals intending to take action soon. The action stage is where individuals modify their behaviour, experiences, and environment to overcome their problems. The maintenance stage involves preventing relapse and consolidating gains attained during action. It is common for individuals to recycle through these stages several times before terminating the addiction. Understanding where a person is in relation to the stages of change can be helpful to doctors in promoting and supporting change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Nine therapists gather to discuss challenging clients in a casual setting. Each takes a turn to share their difficulties in working with the client. Afterwards, the group engages in a discussion about various aspects of the therapist-client relationship.
Which one of the following does this best describe?Your Answer: RCGP feedback model
Correct Answer: Balint group
Explanation:Balint Groups: A Patient-Centred Approach to Healthcare
Michael Balint, a Hungarian psychoanalyst and psychiatrist, played a significant role in shaping modern views on patient-centred healthcare. He believed that many presenting complaints had underlying psychological and emotional problems that needed to be explored to understand patients better. Balint coined the phrase ‘the doctor as a drug’, emphasizing the importance of the doctor-patient relationship in the healing process.
During the 1950s, Balint established small groups called ‘Balint Groups’ that allowed GPs to discuss their patients on an informal basis. These groups were similar to discussions held amongst GP Registrars during their half-day release. Balint’s ideas were published in the book ‘The doctor, his patient and the illness’.
Balint Groups provide a safe space for GPs to discuss their patients’ emotional and psychological needs, which can often be overlooked in a busy clinical setting. By exploring these areas, GPs can gain a deeper understanding of their patients and provide more effective care. Balint’s patient-centred approach to healthcare has had a significant impact on modern medicine and continues to be used today.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 28
Correct
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A patient in their early twenties reports experiencing auditory hallucinations of a simple and unstructured whistling tune, occurring when they are alone. How would you best describe this hallucination?
Your Answer: Elementary hallucinations
Explanation:There are various types of hallucinations, including elementary, reflex, autoscopic, first person auditory, and haptic. Elementary hallucinations are basic sounds like buzzing or whistling. Reflex hallucinations occur when a sensory stimulus in one modality triggers a hallucination in another. Autoscopic hallucinations involve seeing oneself in external space. First person auditory hallucinations involve hearing one’s own thoughts aloud. Haptic or tactile hallucinations involve feeling sensations like being touched, pricked, or pinched, and may include formication, which is the sensation of insects crawling on the skin and can be associated with long-term cocaine use or alcohol withdrawal.
Schizophrenia: Symptoms and Features
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by a range of symptoms. One of the most prominent classifications of these symptoms is Schneider’s first rank symptoms. These symptoms can be divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can include thought insertion, thought withdrawal, and thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or experiences that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions can involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.
Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that not all individuals with schizophrenia will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity of symptoms can vary from person to person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 29
Correct
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A 25-year-old teacher has come to see you because she has been feeling down for the past four weeks. She recently ended a long-term relationship and is struggling with the demands of her job. She shares that she still lives with her parents due to financial constraints and that she frequently argues with them and her younger sister. She expresses interest in taking non-addictive medication to improve her mood and seeing a psychotherapist to work through her issues. You administer a PHQ assessment questionnaire and calculate her score. According to the PHQ assessment, what is the recommended threshold score that indicates the need for active treatment with psychotherapy, medication, or a combination of both?
Your Answer: Score 9
Explanation:Recommended Questionnaires for Primary Care
The use of validated questionnaires in primary care can aid clinicians in assessing the severity of depression and guiding management. Three recommended questionnaires are PHQ-9, HADS, and BDI-II. It is important to familiarize oneself with the basic principles of each questionnaire in case of examination.
The PHQ-9 assessment is particularly useful in determining the severity of depression and the need for intervention. The maximum score is 27, with a score of 15 being the threshold for considering intervention. The higher the score, the greater the symptoms.
Based on the limited information provided in the patient’s history, it is unlikely that antidepressant treatment and psychotherapy referral would be necessary. However, the use of these questionnaires can provide a more comprehensive assessment and aid in the management of depression in primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 30
Correct
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A 27-year-old single mother comes to see you complaining of depression. She says that she is constantly tired, due to looking after her two young sons aged 4 and 6.
She feels constantly sad and tearful and has lost interest in watching her favourite television programmes. She is now losing weight and lying awake for most of the night worrying about her debts. She says that she feels like a worthless mother to her children and has recurrent thoughts of death.
You establish a diagnosis of depression, but what would be the usual minimum length of time that she would have to be experiencing core symptoms in order to reach a diagnosis?Your Answer: Six weeks
Explanation:Symptoms of Depression
This patient is displaying several symptoms of depression, which include a persistent feeling of sadness and loss of interest, weight loss, insomnia, feelings of worthlessness, and recurrent thoughts of death. The absence of family support and the responsibility of caring for two young children would also raise concern for any GP. It is important to note that symptoms must be present for at least two weeks to make a diagnosis of depression. It is essential not to confuse this with screening questions for depression, which may be used for patients with other medical conditions. These screening questions typically ask about symptoms of depression in the preceding four weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man admits to drinking 40-50 units of alcohol per week, sometimes more.
Which of the following would suggest a diagnosis of alcohol dependence?
Your Answer: Drinking alcohol early in the morning after waking
Correct Answer: Withdrawal symptoms
Explanation:Signs of Alcohol Dependence
The patient is consuming alcohol in excess of the recommended safe level and is likely to have at least two positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire, indicating potential alcohol dependence. Abnormal liver function tests may also be present. According to DSMV-IV criteria, at least three of the following must be present over the preceding 12 months to diagnose alcohol dependence: tolerance to alcohol, withdrawal symptoms, increased use, unsuccessful attempts to cut down, spending time obtaining or recovering from alcohol, giving up social/occupational/recreational pursuits, and continued use despite knowledge of potential harm. The need for an Eye-opener (CAGE) suggests dependence and withdrawal symptoms in the morning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing anxiety over the past 2 years. She reports feeling inadequate in social situations and worries about her career. Additionally, she experiences insomnia, difficulty concentrating, tenseness, and irritability. There are no other medical concerns, substance abuse, hallucinations, delusions, or psychomotor retardation. She appears well-groomed, doesn't express frustration, and denies suicidal ideation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Major depressive disorder
Correct Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder
Explanation:Understanding Generalised Anxiety Disorder and Adjustment Disorder
Generalised anxiety disorder is characterised by excessive anxiety that is difficult to control, along with restlessness, irritability, and sleep disturbances. Unlike adjustment disorder, the anxiety doesn’t appear to be related to a specific stressor or exclusively to social situations, and there is no evidence of specific obsessions or compulsions. Symptoms of generalised anxiety disorder are better accounted for than major depressive disorder. There is no mention of low mood or loss of enjoyment in this scenario.
Adjustment disorder, also known as exogenous, reactive, or situational depression, occurs when an individual is unable to adjust to a particular stress or major life event. People with this disorder typically have symptoms similar to those of depressed individuals, such as general loss of interest, feelings of hopelessness, and crying. Anxiety is a common feature of adjustment disorder. Unlike major depression, the disorder usually resolves once the individual is able to adapt to the situation.
Understanding Generalised Anxiety Disorder and Adjustment Disorder
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old male attends clinic with his daughter who reports that her father has become disinterested and withdrawn.
Which of the following would favour a diagnosis of dementia rather than depression?Your Answer: Eating too much or too little
Correct Answer: Self-reported concern of poor memory
Explanation:Differentiating between Alzheimer’s and Depression
Urinary incontinence is an uncommon symptom associated with depression, but it is more typical of dementia or normal pressure hydrocephalus. On the other hand, impaired memory and concern over memory deficits can be found in both depression and dementia. Therefore, it can be challenging to differentiate between Alzheimer’s and depression based on these symptoms alone. Mayo Clinic suggests that a combination of symptoms and medical tests can help differentiate between the two conditions. Proper diagnosis and treatment can improve the quality of life for individuals and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, was seen for a routine mental health review and ECG review. He reported no symptoms and was otherwise well. He is on regular oral haloperidol. He has had no changes to medications other than recently being treated for tonsillitis with clarithromycin.
Rate 66
Rhythm Sinus
PR interval 180 ms
QTc 505 ms
RR interval 1 s
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer: No follow up required
Correct Answer: Discuss with the on-call medical team for advice
Explanation:Risk of QT Prolongation with Clarithromycin and Haloperidol
Both clarithromycin and haloperidol have been associated with an increased risk of QT prolongation, which can lead to potentially life-threatening arrhythmias. If a patient’s QTc interval exceeds 500 ms, it is crucial to discuss the case with the on-call team immediately. The patient may require inpatient cardiac monitoring and consultation with psychiatry regarding their current antipsychotic medication. It is essential to monitor patients closely for signs of QT prolongation when prescribing these medications and to take appropriate measures to prevent adverse outcomes. Proper management of QT prolongation can help prevent serious cardiac events and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being evaluated by a surgeon. What are the two most effective questions to ask in order to screen for depression?
Your Answer: 'having poor concentration or indecisiveness' + 'having little interest or pleasure in doing things'
Correct Answer: 'feeling down, depressed or hopeless' + 'having little interest or pleasure in doing things'
Explanation:Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman is taking haloperidol and reports experiencing a sensation of restlessness and an incapacity to remain seated since commencing her medication.
What is the appropriate term for this adverse effect of the drug?Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Akathisia is a condition characterized by a feeling of restlessness and an uncontrollable urge to move, which can lead to difficulty staying still. Symptoms may include foot stamping, leg crossing and uncrossing, and pacing. It is important to distinguish akathisia from psychotic agitation, as increasing the antipsychotic dose can worsen symptoms. Akathisia can occur within the first two weeks of taking a neuroleptic drug or even after several months of treatment. It has been linked to suicidal behavior and aggression towards others.
Dystonic reaction is a reversible extrapyramidal effect that can occur immediately or after a few hours or days of taking a neuroleptic drug. It causes sustained muscle contractions that lead to abnormal postures or repetitive movements, which may resemble a tremor. Oculogyric crisis is a type of dystonic reaction characterized by prolonged involuntary upward deviation of the eyes.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic medications. It is characterized by fever, muscular rigidity, altered level of consciousness, and autonomic instability. It usually occurs shortly after starting neuroleptic treatment or after a dose increase.
Drug-induced Parkinsonism (DIP) is a condition that can be mistaken for Parkinson’s disease. It is the second most common cause of Parkinsonism in the elderly. Symptoms may persist even after stopping the medication. DIP can be caused by typical and atypical antipsychotics, gastrointestinal prokinetics, calcium channel blockers, and antiepileptic drugs.
Tardive dyskinesia is a condition characterized by involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. It occurs in patients who have been treated with long-term neuroleptic drugs. Symptoms may persist even after stopping the medication, but they usually disappear within three years in about 60% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her parents. They are concerned about uncharacteristic behaviour since she left home to attend university. They ask whether she could have developed schizophrenia.
Which of the following symptoms in this patient would be most concerning for schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Cognitive impairment
Correct Answer: Delusional perception
Explanation:Understanding Schneider’s First-Rank Symptoms in Schizophrenia
Schneider’s first-rank symptoms are a set of symptoms that are highly indicative of schizophrenia. These symptoms are rare in other psychotic illnesses, making them a key diagnostic tool for identifying schizophrenia. The first-rank symptoms include auditory hallucinations, such as hearing one’s own thoughts echoed or hearing voices referring to oneself in the third person. Other symptoms include thought removal, insertion, and interruption, thought broadcasting, somatic hallucinations, delusional perception, and feelings, thoughts, or actions being under external control.
In addition to the first-rank symptoms, there are also second-rank symptoms that can be present in schizophrenia. These include other disorders of perception, sudden delusional ideas, perplexity, low or euphoric mood changes, and feelings of emotional impoverishment. Schneider believed that even in the absence of first-rank symptoms, a diagnosis of schizophrenia could be made based on second-rank symptoms and a typical clinical appearance.
One unique symptom of schizophrenia is delusional perception, which occurs in two stages. First, the individual experiences a normal perception, such as seeing traffic lights turn red. Then, they interpret this perception in a delusional way, such as believing that the red traffic lights are a sign that they are the devil and someone is trying to kill them.
It’s important to note that cognitive impairment is a feature of dementia, not schizophrenia. Additionally, hyperactivity is more commonly associated with mania than schizophrenia. Understanding the specific symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly the first-rank symptoms, can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Which of the following options indicates more severe depression compared to mild depression, according to the DSM-IV criteria recommended by NICE for diagnosis and management?
Your Answer: Symptoms present for less than two weeks
Correct Answer: Personal or family history of depression
Explanation:Identifying Symptoms that Require Active Intervention in Primary Care
It is crucial to differentiate symptoms that require active intervention from those that favor general advice and monitoring in primary care. If there are five or more diagnostic symptoms, occasional suicidal thoughts, no apparent stress trigger, and symptoms present for more than two weeks, this indicates more severe disease. In such cases, active intervention is more likely to be necessary. On the other hand, the four incorrect options favor general advice and monitoring. Therefore, it is essential to identify the symptoms that require active intervention to provide appropriate care to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 39
Incorrect
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You encounter a 48-year-old man experiencing his first episode of depression, which appears to have been triggered by losing his job. He reports feeling significantly better after taking an antidepressant for six weeks and inquires about discontinuing it.
What is the suggested duration for continuing antidepressant medication to minimize the likelihood of relapse?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Recommended Duration of Treatment for Depression
According to NICE guidance, individuals who have experienced their first episode of depression should undergo six months of treatment to decrease the likelihood of relapse. However, for those who have recurrent depression, treatment is recommended for a longer period of two years. It is important to note that the duration of treatment may vary depending on the severity of the depression and the individual’s response to treatment. It is crucial for individuals to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate length of treatment for their specific needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.
The man experiences periods of 'highs', where he engages in impulsive behavior and sleeps very little. He denies ever having delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.
The man also has 'lows' where he experiences severe depression; he feels hopeless, loses interest in his usual activities and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder
Explanation:The woman’s symptoms of hypomania alternating with severe depression are indicative of type 2 bipolar disorder. There is no indication of an anxiety disorder in the question. While cyclothymia is characterized by mild symptoms of hypomania and depression lasting at least two years, the severity of the woman’s symptoms suggests type 2 bipolar disorder, even though the symptoms have only been present for one year. Major depressive disorder is not the correct diagnosis as there are also symptoms of hypomania present. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also not the correct answer as the symptoms of the ‘high’ periods are more consistent with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.
Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of restlessness and confusion that have been present for one day. Upon further examination, she is found to have an elevated heart rate and body temperature.
The patient has a history of depression and has been taking sertraline for several years without any changes in dosage or indications of overdose. However, her partner reports that she recently began taking a new medication prescribed by her general practitioner. It is suspected that this medication may have interacted with her regular medication.
Which medication is the most likely culprit for this interaction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zolmitriptan
Explanation:Patients who are taking a SSRI should not use triptans.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 42
Incorrect
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During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old man who has developed acute urinary retention on a background of 2 years of urinary hesitancy and poor stream. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and he tells you that his usual GP has recently started him on a new medication for neuropathic pain.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to have caused the urinary retention?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Urinary retention may be caused by tricyclic antidepressants, particularly Amitriptyline, due to its anticholinergic effects. This can result in symptoms such as tachycardia, dry mouth, mydriasis, and urinary retention. However, SSRIs like fluoxetine and SNRIs like venlafaxine are not typically associated with these side effects, with dry mouth and urinary retention being rare occurrences. Unlike Amitriptyline, Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, doesn’t have anticholinergic effects.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their side-effects and potential for toxicity in overdose. However, they are still widely used for the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. The common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of QT interval. When choosing a TCA, low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prevention of headaches. Lofepramine is preferred due to its lower incidence of toxicity in overdose, while amitriptyline and dosulepin are considered the most dangerous in overdose. The sedative effects of TCAs vary, with amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone being more sedative, while imipramine and nortriptyline are less sedative. Trazodone is technically a ‘tricyclic-related antidepressant’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman with a 25-year history of treatment with antipsychotic medications for schizophrenia complains of the onset of writhing tongue and finger movements.
Select from the list the single most likely cause.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Explanation:Understanding Tardive Dyskinesia and Differential Diagnosis
Tardive dyskinesia is a condition that can develop in patients who have been on long-term treatment with antipsychotic medications. It is characterized by choreoathetoid movements that typically start in the fingers and tongue before becoming more widespread. While Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease can also present with tremors and choreiform movements, they usually have an earlier onset than tardive dyskinesia. Parkinsonism, on the other hand, is characterized by resting tremors and bradykinesia, while akathisia is characterized by motor restlessness. It is important to note that antipsychotic medications can also cause Parkinson’s symptoms and akathisia. Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat tardive dyskinesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Which antidepressant is most likely to increase the risk of arrhythmia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Cardiotoxicity of Antidepressants
Both dosulepin and venlafaxine are not recommended for patients with a high risk of arrhythmia due to their potential cardiotoxicity. However, a recent BMJ editorial suggests that venlafaxine may not be less safe than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and that limiting its use based on cardiotoxicity alone may not be appropriate. Therefore, currently, dosulepin and all other tricyclic antidepressants are considered the most concerning in terms of cardiotoxicity. It is important to exercise caution when prescribing any antidepressant to patients with a history of cardiovascular disease or other risk factors. Proper monitoring and individualized treatment plans can help minimize the risk of adverse cardiac events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman develops rapid, pressured speech and insomnia for five consecutive nights. She says her energy levels are normal. She has had systemic lupus erythematosus for five years. For two weeks, she has been taking a large daily dose of prednisolone because of a flare-up of this condition. She has no previous personal or family history of psychiatric illness or cardiovascular disease, and she denies using illicit drugs or alcohol.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drug reaction
Explanation:Possible Causes of Psychosis in a Patient with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Psychosis is a rare but possible complication in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus. However, in the case of a patient presenting with symptoms of psychosis, the time frame of symptoms in relation to starting corticosteroids, the patient’s age, and the lack of previous history suggest corticosteroid-induced psychosis. Corticosteroids have been associated with various psychiatric reactions, ranging from psychotic reactions and behavioral disturbances to sleep disturbances and cognitive dysfunction. Symptoms usually appear within days to weeks of starting treatment, and most patients recover after a dose reduction or withdrawal of the medication, with some requiring antipsychotic medication. In adults, severe psychiatric reactions may occur in up to 5-6% of cases.
Other possible causes of psychosis, such as uraemia in end-stage renal failure or acute psychosis, are unlikely in this patient, as there is no history or other symptoms of renal failure, and the symptoms do not match those of acute psychosis. While systemic lupus erythematosus increases the risk of stroke, hypomania/mania after a stroke is rare, occurring in only about 1% of patients. Psychosis is also uncommon in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus, occurring in only 5% of cases at some point during the course of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a worsening of his mental health condition. Upon admission, the patient was diagnosed with a major depressive disorder accompanied by hallucinations.
Lately, the patient has been persistently expressing the belief that he is deceased. Consequently, he has ceased eating and is exhibiting signs of self-neglect. The patient has no known medical conditions other than his mental health problems.
What is the name of the syndrome that this patient is experiencing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome
Explanation:Cotard syndrome is a psychiatric disorder that is characterized by a person’s belief that they are dead or do not exist. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression or psychotic disorders and can lead to self-neglect and withdrawal from others. Treatment options include medication and electroconvulsive therapy.
Capgras syndrome is a delusion of misidentification where patients believe that a loved one has been replaced by an identical impostor. This condition is typically associated with schizophrenia, but it can also occur in patients with brain trauma or dementia.
Charles Bonnet syndrome is a visual disorder that causes patients with significant vision loss to experience vivid visual hallucinations. These hallucinations can be simple or complex, but patients are aware that they are not real and do not experience other types of hallucinations or delusions.
De Clérambault syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a rare delusional disorder where patients believe that someone is in love with them, even if that person is imaginary, deceased, or someone they have never met. Patients may perceive messages from their supposed admirer through everyday events, such as number plates or television messages.
Understanding Cotard Syndrome
Cotard syndrome is a mental illness that is characterized by the belief that one is either dead or doesn’t exist. This rare disorder is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is not necessary. This delusion can be challenging to treat and can result in significant problems for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman comes to your clinic accompanied by her husband, who reports that she has been exhibiting strange behavior for the past two weeks. She has planned a trip to Europe, bought a new car with a personal loan, and told her husband that she wants a divorce. She has been unable to sleep and is always out of the house. During your conversation with her, she insists that everything is fine and attempts to leave the room. When you prevent her from leaving, she tries to jump out of the window of your fourth-floor clinic room. You lock the door and call for security, and together you manage to calm her down and keep her in the room. You diagnose her with an acute manic episode. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Place her under Section 4 of the Mental Health Act and arrange emergency hospital admission
Explanation:In this emergency situation, Section 4 of the Mental Health Act can be utilized by GPs to issue a 72-hour assessment order for the patient’s detention. The patient’s nearest relative, her husband, can assist in completing the order or an AMHP can be involved.
Due to the patient’s behavior, waiting for the emergency psychiatry team or a section 2 to be implemented may result in an unacceptable delay. The patient’s attempt to jump out of the window poses a risk to herself. It is unlikely that arranging emergency hospital admission without detaining her under the mental health act would be appropriate as she lacks insight and is unlikely to engage in treatment. Emergency sedation should not be administered as she has calmed down and is not yet under a section.
Understanding Sectioning under the Mental Health Act
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse to be admitted voluntarily for mental health treatment. This process involves different sections, each with its own set of rules and regulations.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP, along with two doctors who have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is a 72-hour assessment order used in emergencies when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in the hospital for 72 hours, while Section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a, also known as Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order), can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety, while Section 136 allows the police to take someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to a Place of Safety for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
Understanding the different sections of the Mental Health Act can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the legal process of sectioning and ensure that they receive the necessary treatment and support for their mental health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man, with a history of alcohol addiction, visits a clinic after a motorcycle accident two weeks ago. He experiences flashbacks of the accident and becomes hyper-vigilant to loud noises when he passes by the road. He has not ridden his motorcycle since the accident. His alcohol test at the time of the accident was negative.
What is the most suitable initial treatment option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR)
Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.
The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to your afternoon clinic. She has been feeling off since losing her job 3 weeks ago. She is tearful during the consultation and reports having trouble sleeping, with early morning waking, a decreased appetite resulting in some weight loss, a decreased libido, and difficulty concentrating. She feels stuck in her current situation and is unsure if there is a way out. She occasionally has thoughts of how it might be better if I wasn't here and thinks about death, but these are fleeting and not associated with any specific thoughts or plans of suicide. When asked directly, she says she couldn't do that to her family. She tells you that her mother once took pills for nerves, but she can't remember anything else.
Choose the most appropriate treatment from the list.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Treatment Options for Moderate Depressive Episode
A woman is experiencing a moderate depressive episode, as evidenced by her low mood lasting for more than two weeks and the presence of a somatic syndrome. The most appropriate treatment option in this case is citalopram, a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor. However, some patients may experience a rise in anxiety and sleep disturbances during the initial titration, which can be managed by adding nocturnal sedation such as zopiclone for a short period.
Other treatment options include risperidone, an antipsychotic with mood-stabilizing properties, and valproate, which can be used as a mood-stabilizer but should be used with caution in women of childbearing age. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline have more side-effects than SSRIs and are not typically used as first-line treatment. Mirtazapine, another antidepressant, is usually only used when an SSRI has failed.
In conclusion, citalopram is the most appropriate treatment option for a moderate depressive episode, but it is important to monitor for potential side-effects and adjust the treatment plan accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 50
Incorrect
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As per the latest NICE guidelines on depression, which of the following interventions is not advised for individuals with subthreshold depressive symptoms or mild depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Behavioural couples therapy
Explanation:NICE’s recommendation for behavioural couples therapy is limited to patients with moderate or severe depression.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 51
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her son because of concerns about worsening confusion over the last two days. Her son has been staying with her as he is worried about her, and throughout the night, the patient was shouting out that she was seeing figures behind the curtains.
Which of the following features most suggests a diagnosis of delirium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Symptoms developing rapidly over a few hours or days
Explanation:Differentiating between Delirium and Dementia: Symptoms and Signs to Look Out For
Delirium and dementia are two conditions that can cause confusion, memory problems, and other cognitive impairments. However, there are some key differences in how these conditions present themselves. Here are some symptoms and signs to look out for when trying to differentiate between delirium and dementia:
Symptoms developing rapidly over a few hours or days: This is more consistent with delirium, which can cause confusion, hallucinations, and delusions to develop rapidly over a short period of time. Dementia, on the other hand, usually develops gradually over several months.
Gradual worsening of symptoms over months: If symptoms such as confusion, poor concentration, and memory problems have been getting worse over a period of months, this is more suggestive of dementia.
Improved mobility: Patients with delirium may suddenly have difficulty with tasks they could previously do easily, such as walking.
Low mood: A low mood is more suggestive of depression, which usually develops over several weeks or months. However, hypoactive delirium can be misdiagnosed as depression, so it’s important to consider this possibility in patients who become suddenly withdrawn, drowsy, and unable to stay focused when awake.
Patient’s ability to concentrate on reading her book club novel: Attention is usually reduced in delirium, but in the early stages of dementia, patients may still be able to concentrate on activities such as reading or watching television.
By paying attention to these symptoms and signs, healthcare professionals can better differentiate between delirium and dementia and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain. He is shivering and writhing in pain on the trolley. Despite previous investigations for abdominal pain, no cause has been found. The patient insists that he will harm himself unless he is given morphine for the pain. Which of the following best describes this behavior?
Hypochondrial disorder
4%
Conversion disorder
3%
Malingering
73%
Munchausen's syndrome
11%
Somatisation disorder
10%
Is it appropriate to label this patient as malingering, considering that he may be an opiate abuser experiencing withdrawal symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malingering
Explanation:Fabricating or inflating symptoms for financial benefit is known as malingering, such as an individual who feigns whiplash following a car accident in order to receive an insurance payout.
This can be challenging as the individual may be experiencing withdrawal symptoms from opioid abuse. Nevertheless, among the given choices, the most suitable term to describe the situation is malingering since the individual is intentionally reporting symptoms to obtain morphine.
Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry
In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A client is initiated on clozapine for treatment resistant schizophrenia. What is a known adverse effect of clozapine treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersalivation
Explanation:Clozapine therapy often leads to excessive salivation, which is a commonly observed side effect. However, this issue can be effectively managed with the use of hyoscine hydrobromide.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. His parents brought him to the doctor after noticing he was restricting his food intake and losing weight. What type of treatment is typically recommended for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Family based therapy
Explanation:The primary treatment for anorexia nervosa in children and adolescents is family therapy that specifically targets anorexia.
Anorexia nervosa is a prevalent mental health condition that primarily affects teenage and young-adult females. It is the most common reason for admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards. The disorder is characterized by a restriction of energy intake, leading to a significantly low body weight in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health. Patients with anorexia nervosa also experience an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though they are underweight. They may also have a distorted perception of their body weight or shape, which can affect their self-evaluation.
The diagnosis of anorexia nervosa is based on the DSM 5 criteria, which no longer specifically mention BMI and amenorrhoea. Instead, the criteria focus on the restriction of energy intake, fear of gaining weight, and disturbance in the way one’s body weight or shape is experienced.
The management of anorexia nervosa varies depending on the age of the patient. For adults, NICE recommends individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), or specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). In children and young people, NICE recommends ‘anorexia focused family therapy’ as the first-line treatment, followed by cognitive behavioural therapy as the second-line treatment.
Unfortunately, the prognosis for patients with anorexia nervosa remains poor, with up to 10% of patients eventually dying because of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is constantly in trouble at school. She will not sit still and be quiet or get on with her work. She is equally troublesome at home and her mother cannot take her anywhere. She wonders if she has attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Select from the list the single correct statement about ADHD.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Some impairment from symptoms must be evident in two or more settings
Explanation:Understanding ADHD: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Comorbidities
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that is more severe than what is typically observed in individuals at a comparable level of development. In the UK, ADHD affects between 2-5% of children, with boys being more commonly affected. Diagnosis is usually made in children aged 3-7 years, but it can also be recognized later in life.
To diagnose ADHD, symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity and/or inattention should be present. However, the ICD-10 classification requires all three problems of attention, hyperactivity, and impulsiveness to be present. About 70% of children with ADHD also have other conditions, such as learning difficulties, dyspraxia, Gilles de la Tourette syndrome, or tic disorder. Oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder is present in most children with ADHD, and depression and anxiety are common comorbidities.
While about 1 in 3 children with ADHD can grow out of their condition and not require any treatment when they are adults, the remainder either continue with ADHD or retain some symptoms and functional impairment. Therefore, early diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to improve outcomes for individuals with ADHD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old crystal healer who lives alone says she doesn't have a best friend and thinks that people judge her unfairly. She says that the power of crystals will cure leukaemia and sometimes feels that her life story appears in magazine stories.
Select from the list the single best description of her personality type.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizotypal
Explanation:Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Characteristics
Personality disorders are not easy to diagnose, but they can be seen as extreme versions of normal behavior that affect an individual’s social functioning. Psychotherapy and cognitive behavior therapy can be helpful, and medication may be used in some cases. These disorders can be grouped into three clusters: odd, dramatic, and anxious. The odd PDs include paranoid, schizotypal, and schizoid. The dramatic PDs include histrionic, borderline, narcissistic, and antisocial. The anxious PDs include dependent, obsessive-compulsive, and avoidant. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, and dangerous behavior. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by excessive attention-seeking behavior and a need for approval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has recently started taking amitriptyline for the management of depression, and you suspect he may be experiencing symptoms of the anticholinergic syndrome.
Choose the accurate statement regarding the anticholinergic syndrome.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hot, dry skin occurs
Explanation:Anticholinergic Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment
Anticholinergic syndrome is a condition that is commonly caused by certain medications such as tricyclic antidepressants, atropine, anti-parkinsonian drugs, antispasmodics, and H1-antihistamines. The symptoms of this syndrome include hot and dry skin, hypertension, tachycardia, dry mouth, urinary retention, dilated pupils, and agitated delirium.
In the past, physostigmine was recommended as a treatment for anticholinergic syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that it is ineffective and can even increase the risk of cardiac toxicity. Therefore, the recommended treatment now is supportive and symptomatic care. Once the medication causing the syndrome has been excreted, the symptoms usually subside.
It is important to be aware of the symptoms of anticholinergic syndrome and to seek medical attention if you suspect that you or someone you know may be experiencing it. With proper care and treatment, the condition can be managed effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A father brings his 14-year-old son to see you. The boy is a high achiever and is about to take his 'GCSEs'.
In recent months he has broken up with his girlfriend, has lost interest in his usual hobbies, and has lost a stone in weight so that his BMI is now 17. He cries frequently, struggles to focus on his school work, and is not interested in playing video games, one of his favourite pastimes.
His father feels he is depressed, and you are inclined to agree.
Which of the following symptoms would make you suspect this was more than a straightforward depression?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Feelings of guilt
Explanation:Anorexia Nervosa and Disproportionate Body Image Perception
Disproportionate perception of one’s body image, often characterized by the belief of being overweight, is a common feature of anorexia nervosa. This condition is often accompanied by symptoms of depression, but treating it with antidepressants alone may not yield significant improvement. It is important to consider alternative diagnoses, especially in age groups where depression is not prevalent.
In summary, anorexia nervosa is a serious condition that affects one’s perception of their body image. It is crucial to seek appropriate treatment and consider other potential diagnoses to ensure proper care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman is brought in by her husband. She has been refusing to leave her house for the past 4 months, citing her fear of contracting avian flu. Upon further questioning, she reveals that the large number of migratory birds she sees in her backyard is causing her distress. She explains that the sight of her husband's socks hanging on the clothesline in the garden triggered her anxiety. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute paranoid schizophrenia
Explanation:Schizophrenia: Symptoms and Features
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by a range of symptoms. One of the most prominent classifications of these symptoms is Schneider’s first rank symptoms. These symptoms can be divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can include thought insertion, thought withdrawal, and thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or experiences that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions can involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.
Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that not all individuals with schizophrenia will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity of symptoms can vary from person to person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother and she complains that she resists going to school because she wants to stay with her mother. She becomes terrified whenever her parents leave the house. During the day she worries that her family may never come back home.
What is the disorder most closely associated with these symptoms in adulthood?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Panic disorder
Explanation:The Relationship Between Childhood Separation Anxiety and Mental Disorders
Separation anxiety disorder is a condition characterized by excessive anxiety related to separation from an attachment figure, such as a mother. Studies have shown that this disorder is a strong risk factor for developing mental disorders, particularly panic disorder and depression, in people aged 19-30 years. However, there is no proven link between childhood separation anxiety and irritable bowel syndrome, obsessive-compulsive disorder, schizophrenia, or somatic symptom disorder. While negative childhood experiences may play a role in the development of some mental disorders, separation anxiety in childhood is not directly related to these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 61
Incorrect
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During a ward round consultation, the Psychiatrist was assessing a 12-year-old patient's current mental state. The patient's reply to most of the questions consisted of sentences which did not make any sense such as - 'painting pizza prince bus brush'. This is a good example of which of the following thought disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Word salad
Explanation:Disordered speech, such as word salad, neologisms, perseveration, and echolalia, is commonly linked to psychosis and mania.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 62
Incorrect
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You are conducting a diabetic annual review on a 63-year-old man with type 2 diabetes. As part of the review, you are checking for any indications of depression. NICE suggests using two questions to screen for depression in at-risk patients, such as those with chronic illnesses. What is one of the questions that should be asked as part of the evaluation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?
Explanation:Managing Chronic Medical Conditions in Primary Care
More and more patients with complex, chronic medical conditions are being managed in primary care, such as diabetes where some practices are initiating and managing patients on insulin and newer injectable treatments. However, with this greater workload comes the need for structured regular reviews. Part of reviewing a patient with a chronic medical problem is to consider the psychological impact of their disease and to elicit any depression or mood disorder that may be present.
To approach this scenario, NICE has provided a framework that advises asking two questions. If either question is answered with a ‘yes,’ further inquiry is needed into specific symptoms of depression. The two questions are: During the last month, have you been feeling down, depressed, or hopeless? During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?
By regularly reviewing patients with chronic medical conditions and considering their psychological well-being, primary care providers can provide comprehensive care and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old diabetic man is evaluated and found to be experiencing moderate depression. He is dealing with severe osteoarthritis and is waiting for a hip replacement. Despite declining CBT, he agrees with your suggestion that antidepressant medication may be beneficial. What is your top pick for an antidepressant for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Treatment Considerations for Depression in Patients with Chronic Physical Health Problems
Individuals with chronic physical health problems are at a higher risk of developing depression, with a two to three times greater likelihood than those in good health. This is particularly true for patients with complications of diabetes, such as retinopathy, chronic or end-stage renal disease, and painful peripheral neuropathy, as well as those with limited mobility and independence due to osteoarthritis and severe pain.
While cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a recommended high-intensity intervention for depression, some patients may decline this treatment option. In such cases, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first choice of antidepressant medication, with citalopram and sertraline being preferred options due to their lower propensity for drug interactions.
It is important to note that venlafaxine is more dangerous in overdose than other newer agents that are equally effective, and dosulepin should not be prescribed at all. Tricyclics are also associated with side effects such as blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation, and postural hypotension, which could potentially exacerbate existing health problems.
In addition to optimizing treatments for chronic diseases, healthcare providers should also consider any other medications the patient may be taking, such as aspirin or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for arthritis, which may require gastroprotection. Overall, a comprehensive and individualized approach to treatment is necessary for managing depression in patients with chronic physical health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient presents for a medication review. He has been diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder and was initially prescribed sertraline, but this was discontinued due to gastrointestinal side effects. He has since been taking venlafaxine for a week but has reported experiencing headaches and blurred vision. What is the most appropriate course of action to manage his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to pregabalin
Explanation:For generalised anxiety disorder, pregabalin is suggested as a third line treatment option. If the patient is unable to tolerate SSRIs and SNRIs, pregabalin can be considered as an alternative. However, amitriptyline is not recommended for this condition.
Dealing with anxiety and depression is a common issue, and initial treatments may not always be effective. It is important for healthcare professionals to be knowledgeable about second and third line treatments, which may be initiated by some GPs or prescribed after specialist advice. The GP is responsible for ongoing monitoring and safety, including being aware of potential drug interactions.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man has started citalopram because of moderate depression. He has no suicidal intent. He has now returned for review and says he doesn't feel any better.
NICE guidance recommends that if the person's depression shows no improvement with the first antidepressant, you should check that the drug has been taken regularly and in the prescribed dose.
What is the recommended time interval for this review?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 to 2 weeks
Explanation:Checking for Proper Medication Adherence in Treating Depression
According to NICE guidance, it is important to ensure that the prescribed antidepressant has been taken regularly and in the correct dosage if the person’s depression doesn’t improve within 2 to 4 weeks of starting the medication. This step is crucial in determining whether the lack of improvement is due to medication non-adherence or if a different treatment approach is needed. By checking for proper medication adherence, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients are receiving the full benefits of their prescribed treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for advice. He lost his wife to cancer and has been a widower for 6 months. The patient has a supportive family and is not clinically depressed, but he was very emotional after his wife's passing. He sometimes feels indifferent and down, but this has improved significantly over time. However, he has been hearing his late wife's voice on several occasions for the past 2 weeks. He also believed he saw her once while shopping with a friend, but he knows this is impossible.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure and safety-net
Explanation:It is possible for pseudo hallucinations to be a normal part of the grieving process. People who are grieving may experience hearing, seeing, or even smelling their deceased loved one. These occurrences are often associated with acute grief but can happen at any stage of bereavement. Therefore, the patient in question can be reassured.
Since there is no evidence of an organic cause for the patient’s symptoms, it would be inappropriate to arrange blood tests and urinalysis.
While antidepressants may be used to treat severe or atypical cases of grief, they are unlikely to provide significant benefits for a patient who is not clinically depressed. Additionally, they may cause harm due to their adverse effects.
The patient is fully aware of the situation and has insight into their condition. Therefore, there is no need for urgent involvement from a psychiatrist or for the patient to be sectioned under the Mental Health Act 1983.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations: A Controversial Topic in Mental Health
Pseudohallucinations are a type of false sensory perception that occur in the absence of external stimuli. Unlike hallucinations, the affected person is aware that they are experiencing a false perception. However, there is no clear definition of pseudohallucinations in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, leading to controversy among mental health specialists.
Some experts argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, ranging from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations. This approach can prevent misdiagnosis or mistreatment of symptoms. For example, hypnagogic hallucinations, which occur during the transition from wakefulness to sleep, are a common type of pseudohallucination that many people experience. These hallucinations are fleeting and can be either auditory or visual.
The relevance of pseudohallucinations in mental health practice is that patients may need reassurance that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness. Pseudohallucinations are also commonly experienced by people who are grieving, which can add to the confusion and distress of the grieving process.
In conclusion, while the definition and role of pseudohallucinations in mental health treatment remain controversial, it is important for mental health professionals to be aware of this phenomenon and provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who experience it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman is severely disabled by agoraphobia
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding agoraphobia.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commonly involves anticipatory anxiety
Explanation:Understanding Agoraphobia: The Fear of Open Spaces and Leaving Home
Agoraphobia is an irrational fear that affects up to one third of patients with panic disorders. It is characterized by a fear of open spaces and leaving home, especially those places from which escape may be difficult. Anxiety attacks are often triggered by provoking situations, and the anxiety experienced is disproportionate to the actual threat. Anticipatory anxiety is also common, with sufferers worrying about the anxiety itself and avoiding situations that may provoke it.
The onset of agoraphobia is bimodal, with peaks in the mid-20s and mid-30s. Prevalence rates of panic disorder suggest that it is a common disorder, affecting 1-5% of the population. Anxiety disorders are twice as common in females and more prevalent in deprived areas. There is also an association with mitral valve prolapse.
The treatments of choice for agoraphobia are self-help techniques and cognitive behavioural therapy, often in combination with antidepressant medication. Understanding agoraphobia and seeking appropriate treatment can help individuals overcome their fears and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 68
Incorrect
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Samantha, a 48-year-old woman, visits you for her annual medication review.
Samantha has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Her current medications include lisinopril 10 mg, hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg, and atorvastatin 40 mg. She has no known drug allergies.
During the review, Samantha expresses her concern about her persistent headaches and occasional dizziness. Upon further questioning, she reveals that she has been experiencing stress at work and difficulty sleeping due to worrying about her job security.
You diagnose mild anxiety and discuss starting an anxiolytic. Samantha agrees, and you prescribe lorazepam 0.5mg as needed.
What other step is important in managing Samantha's condition at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe lansoprazole
Explanation:When prescribing medication to a patient who is already taking an NSAID, such as aspirin, it is important to assess their risk for gastrointestinal bleeding. According to NICE guidelines, patients with 1-2 risk factors are considered moderate risk and should either be prescribed a COX-2 inhibitor alone or a PPI. One risk factor is taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), so in this case, the patient should be prescribed lansoprazole along with citalopram.
It is important to note that taking both citalopram and amitriptyline can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome. While co-codamol may be helpful for the patient’s back pain, it would be best to assess the pain before prescribing pain relief.
Gabapentin is not necessary in this situation, and Z drugs like zopiclone should not be the first choice for managing sleep difficulties associated with depression.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is brought to the General Practitioner by his daughter for a consultation. He has recently been diagnosed with Alzheimer disease, so she asks for more information on the condition and on any associated disorders.
Which of the following disorders is most likely also to be present in this patient because of his recent diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Common Co-Morbidities and Symptoms in Alzheimer Disease
Alzheimer disease is a complex disorder that can present with a variety of co-morbidities and symptoms. One of the most common co-morbidities is depression, which affects 30%-50% of patients. However, depression in Alzheimer patients differs from depression in cognitively intact elderly patients, as it often features motivational disturbances rather than mood symptoms.
Anxiety is also common in people with dementia, particularly in vascular dementia. Panic attacks can occur, but are not significantly more common. Alcohol abuse is another potential comorbidity, as alcohol is a known cause of dementia.
Hallucinations can occur in Alzheimer disease, but are more common in specific forms of dementia such as dementia with Lewy bodies and Parkinson’s disease dementia. Finally, obsessive-compulsive behaviours are more common in frontotemporal dementia, Huntington’s disease, and progressive supranuclear palsy.
Overall, understanding these co-morbidities and symptoms can aid in the differential diagnosis of Alzheimer disease and improve patient care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her carer. She lives in sheltered accommodation and has carers twice a day to help with washing, dressing and meal preparation. Typically, she enjoys crosswords and is able to mobilise around the house with the help of a walking stick. Over the past two days, she has become restless and agitated. When the carer arrived that morning, she had been very combative and refused to get dressed.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate intervention?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange admission to hospital for assessment, monitoring and treatment
Explanation:Managing Delirium in Hospitalized Patients
When a patient presents with delirium, it is important to take immediate action to ensure their safety and well-being. Admission to the hospital for assessment, monitoring, and treatment is typically necessary. The decision to admit should take into account the patient’s clinical and social situation, as well as the input of family members or caregivers. If the patient lacks capacity, decisions should be made in their best interests using the Mental Capacity Act 2005.
Once the patient has recovered from delirium, it is important to review them to ensure there are no underlying memory concerns that would warrant a referral to the Memory Clinic. Physical restraints, such as cot sides, should be avoided in patients with delirium. Instead, strategies to maintain safe mobility should be employed, such as encouraging walking or active range of motion exercises.
A computed tomography head may be indicated if there has been a recent head injury or a subdural hematoma is suspected, or if the patient may have underlying dementia. However, if an acute cause is suspected, the patient needs admission to the hospital. If dementia is suspected, then referral to the Memory Clinic once the patient has recovered from delirium is recommended.
Pharmacological measures are a last resort for severe agitation or psychosis that may be recommended by specialists. Short-term, low-dose haloperidol may be suggested, but benzodiazepines are not usually recommended. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage delirium in hospitalized patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man finds it difficult and is reluctant to have close friends as he fears rejection. He has a low self-esteem, feels inadequate and often becomes anxious in the presence of others. He has no hobbies and has been working in the same job since he left high school.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoidant personality disorder
Explanation:Understanding Personality Disorders: Avoidant Personality Disorder
Personality disorders are a group of mental health conditions that affect the way individuals think, feel, and behave. One such disorder is avoidant personality disorder, which is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation.
To be diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder, an individual must exhibit at least four of the following behaviors: avoiding occupational activities that involve interpersonal contact, reluctance to engage with people unless certain of being liked, showing restraint in intimate relationships due to fear of ridicule, preoccupation with criticism or rejection in social situations, inhibition in new interpersonal situations due to feelings of inadequacy, viewing oneself as socially inept or inferior, and reluctance to take personal risks or engage in new activities due to fear of embarrassment.
It is important to note that avoidant personality disorder is distinct from other personality disorders, such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and schizoid personality disorders. While individuals with antisocial personality disorder may disregard the feelings of others and act outside of social norms, those with borderline personality disorder may display significant instability in relationships and mood. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by dramatic and self-indulgent behavior, while schizoid personality disorder involves detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotions.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and behaviors associated with avoidant personality disorder can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 72
Incorrect
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You receive notification from your local hospital that a 23-year-old patient registered at your practice has passed away after jumping from the top floor of his apartment block. This patient was known to be suffering from depression and had spent some time at an inpatient mental health unit last year.
At what point in his history would it be necessary to refer this patient to the coroner?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Death by suicide
Explanation:If a person is suspected to have died by suicide, it is mandatory to report the death to the coroner. However, the death of a patient under 25 years of age doesn’t require referral to the coroner, while the death of a patient under 18 years of age must be reported to the coroner for safeguarding purposes. Similarly, death in a public place doesn’t necessitate referral to the coroner, and neither does death in a patient with a history of mental illness or previous treatment in an inpatient mental health unit. Nonetheless, deaths of individuals detained under the mental health act must be reported to the coroner.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia reports that thoughts are leaking out of his head and being read by others around him.
What is the correct term for this symptom?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thought broadcast
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Thought Experiences
There are various types of thought experiences that individuals may encounter. One of these is thought broadcast, where others can seemingly hear or read one’s thoughts as they are being broadcasted from the individual. On the other hand, thought insertion and withdrawal refer to the experience of having thoughts inserted into or taken out of one’s mind by an external force. In thought blocking, individuals may suddenly find themselves unable to continue speaking as their minds go blank. Meanwhile, thought echo involves hearing one’s own thoughts being spoken aloud after thinking them. Finally, auditory hallucinations refer to the perception of hearing sounds or voices without any external stimulus. Understanding these different types of thought experiences can help individuals better recognize and cope with them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man with known bipolar disorder is brought in by his mother because she has noticed that he has become drowsy over the past week and he has also been off balance, with diarrhoea and vomiting. He has a complicated past medical history including labile hypertension, bipolar disease and asthma and he is multi-medicated.
His oral medication list is:
- codeine
- lithium
- paracetamol
- quetiapine
- ramipril, and
- theophylline
He also takes inhalers for his asthma. His blood tests show elevated lithium levels of 1.5 mmol/L. Which of his medications is most likely to have interacted with the lithium, resulting in elevated levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Quetiapine
Explanation:Understanding Lithium Interactions
Lithium is a medication used to treat bipolar disorder, but it has a narrow therapeutic ratio, meaning that concentrations must be carefully monitored to avoid toxicity. Symptoms of lithium toxicity include tremors, ataxia, dysarthria, nystagmus, renal impairment, and convulsions. To prevent toxicity, routine lithium levels should be checked and maintained between 0.4-1 mmol/L.
When taking lithium, it is important to be aware of potential drug interactions that could increase the risk of toxicity. Paracetamol and codeine are not known to interact with lithium, but theophylline can reduce plasma concentration of lithium. Quetiapine, a medication used to treat schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, can increase extrapyramidal side effects when taken with lithium. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can reduce excretion of lithium, leading to increased plasma concentration.
Patients with bipolar disorder may also develop hypertension, so it is important to monitor for potential drug interactions that could result in lithium toxicity. By understanding these interactions, healthcare providers can ensure safe and effective treatment for patients taking lithium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 75
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old patient is presented to you by his spouse due to concerns about his hallucinations. The wife reports that he frequently sees cats wandering around the house despite never having a pet cat. Apart from this, he is in good health with no other complaints and doesn't appear to be bothered by the visions. He has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and cataracts and consumes around 20 units of alcohol per week.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Explanation:Individuals with Charles-Bonnet syndrome typically have full awareness of their condition despite experiencing ongoing and intricate visual or auditory hallucinations.
Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.
Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.
Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.
In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male is brought to clinic as his parents are concerned about changes in his behaviour.
Which of the following suggest a diagnosis of schizophrenia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Feelings of panic in buses and shops
Explanation:Symptoms of Schizophrenia, Anxiety Disorder, and Mania
Incongruity of affect is a symptom of schizophrenia where the emotion expressed is inappropriate to the circumstances. Although it is not considered a primary symptom, it is consistent with the diagnosis. Auditory hallucinations, particularly third person, are typical of schizophrenia, but clouding of consciousness is not. On the other hand, panic in crowds is indicative of an anxiety disorder, while grandiose ideations suggest mania. It is important to note that these symptoms may overlap and coexist in some cases, making it crucial to seek professional help for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man is a frequent attendee at his General Practice Surgery with health worries. He has a strong family history of ischaemic heart disease and is worried he may have heart disease although he has no symptoms of this, no risk factors and his QRisk2 score is 2.5%. He has consulted several doctors in the practice with this concern in the past 12 months.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Illness anxiety disorder
Explanation:Differentiating Illness Anxiety Disorder from Other Conditions
Illness anxiety disorder is a mental health condition characterized by excessive worry about having or acquiring a serious health condition. This preoccupation can lead to excessive health-seeking behavior or maladaptive avoidance techniques. It is important to differentiate illness anxiety disorder from other conditions with similar symptoms.
Somatic symptom disorder, for example, is a condition where the patient experiences distressing physical symptoms that cause persistent thoughts about the seriousness of the cause. However, the patient described in this case doesn’t have any physical symptoms.
Generalized anxiety disorder is another condition where excessive worry is present, but it is not specific to health concerns. In this case, the patient’s worries are focused solely on his own health.
Ischemic heart disease is unlikely as the patient has no symptoms or risk factors.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder is a condition where intrusive, recurrent thoughts and compulsive behaviors are present. However, there are no obsessions or compulsions described in this case.
Therefore, based on the patient’s symptoms and history, illness anxiety disorder is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman is concerned that she may not be able to take her final university examinations in three months' time because she experiences flustered, faint and dizzy spells during written examinations. She reports no symptoms at any other time, including when engaging in physical activity. Her resting ECG is normal and clinical examination doesn't reveal any abnormalities. What would be the best course of action in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange counselling, with relaxation training
Explanation:Understanding a Student’s Symptoms of Stress and Anxiety
The symptoms described by the student are typical of stress and anxiety, which are common experiences among students. It is important to reassure the student that these symptoms are not indicative of any organic disease. However, if the student is still concerned, a 24-hour ECG monitoring can be done to provide further reassurance.
It is not recommended to prescribe diazepam as it can impair the student’s exam performance. Fluoxetine may also not be the best option as it can increase feelings of anxiety. Instead, the student can be advised to practice relaxation techniques, such as deep breathing exercises or meditation, to help manage their stress and anxiety. It is also important to encourage the student to seek support from friends, family, or a mental health professional if needed. By understanding and addressing the student’s symptoms, they can better manage their stress and anxiety and perform well in their exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 79
Incorrect
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For which condition has St John's wort (Hypericum perforatum) been proven to be beneficial?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dysthymia
Explanation:St John’s Wort for Depression: Clinical Evidence and Considerations
There is clinical evidence to support the use of St John’s wort in treating mild to moderate depression and dysthymia. However, the active ingredient and mechanism of action are still unclear from the latest psychiatry evidence. Hyperforin is responsible for St John’s wort’s enzyme induction effect, but it is not yet shown to be directly active in lifting mood.
A Cochrane review of 29 clinical trials found that St John’s wort was superior to placebo for treating mild to moderate depression but not severe depression. However, most of the studies were from German-speaking countries, and some were small. There is also evidence for efficacy in Gram-negative infection and improving symptoms in Parkinson’s disease. However, there is no reference for its use in multiple sclerosis (MS).
It is important to note that the latest NICE guidance on depression advises against prescribing or advising St John’s wort due to the differing potencies of different formulations and potentially serious interactions with other medicines, such as anticonvulsants and the oral contraceptive pill. Therefore, it is crucial to ask patients if they are taking any herbal or natural remedies and dispel the myth that natural and safe are synonymous.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 80
Incorrect
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John is a 55-year-old man who is admitted to an inpatient psychiatric hospital under section 3. He has refused to eat or drink as he believes he is already dead and no longer needs sustenance. What is the name of the syndrome where a person thinks they are non-existent or deceased?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome
Explanation:Cotard syndrome is a condition where individuals believe that they are dead or do not exist, often associated with depression. Capgras syndrome, on the other hand, is a condition where individuals believe that their loved ones have been replaced by identical imposters. Couvade syndrome, also known as sympathetic pregnancy, affects fathers who experience physical symptoms similar to those of their pregnant partners. Finally, De Clerambault’s syndrome is a condition where individuals believe that a celebrity or another person is deeply in love with them, typically affecting females.
Understanding Cotard Syndrome
Cotard syndrome is a mental illness that is characterized by the belief that one is either dead or doesn’t exist. This rare disorder is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is not necessary. This delusion can be challenging to treat and can result in significant problems for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 81
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement about obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: OCD is commonly associated with anxiety and depression
Explanation:Understanding OCD: Symptoms, Comorbidities, and Treatment Options
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by intrusive thoughts and the compulsion to perform certain actions in response. Individuals with OCD may also be diagnosed with other conditions such as depression, anxiety disorders, eating disorders, Tourette syndrome, and personality disorders. OCD can also lead to panic attacks and suicidal tendencies, making it a serious concern. While sufferers recognize their obsessions and compulsions as irrational, they may still experience distress. OCD typically begins in early adulthood, but childhood onset is also common. The most effective treatment involves gradual exposure to environmental cues and response prevention, often combined with antidepressant therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male is admitted after taking an overdose.
Which single feature best suggests a high risk of future suicide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ingestion of alcohol with the overdose drug
Explanation:Factors indicating high risk of suicide
The effort to conceal an overdose suggests a serious intent to complete suicide, which is a significant factor indicating a high risk of suicide. However, previous history of overdoses doesn’t necessarily imply a more serious intent. Other factors that may suggest a more sinister intent include being male, elderly, and having a mental illness.
Protective factors, such as religious beliefs and social support, can reduce the risk of suicide. Additionally, being responsible for children is also a protective factor. However, when assessing a patient’s risk of suicide, it is important to focus on factors that suggest a high risk, rather than protective factors.
In conclusion, when presented with a patient who may be at risk of suicide, it is crucial to consider the effort to conceal an overdose and other factors such as age, gender, and mental health history. While protective factors such as social support and religious beliefs are important, they should not distract from the assessment of high-risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and dizziness in her arms and legs for the past three days. She has a medical history of chronic pain, depression, and schizophrenia. When you inquire about her medications and drug use, she seems hesitant to provide a clear response.
What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: SSRI discontinuation syndrome
Explanation:SSRI discontinuation syndrome can cause symptoms such as dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety when SSRIs are suddenly stopped or reduced. It is possible that the woman in question has decided to stop taking her antidepressants. On the other hand, alcohol withdrawal typically results in anxiety, tremors, and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare reaction that can occur with antipsychotic use and may cause fever, confusion, and muscle rigidity. Opiate withdrawal may cause anxiety, sweating, and gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhea and vomiting.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman comes to see you. She is 31 weeks pregnant and lives with her partner. The pregnancy has so far been uneventful.
She says that over the past few days she has started to feel anxious and tearful, and is finding it hard to concentrate. She is not sure if this is just 'normal' at this stage of pregnancy. She denies any disturbance of sleep or appetite, and her PHQ-9 score is only five. She has had no thoughts of self-harm.
Her parents, and her older sister have been treated for depression and she suffered a brief depressive episode in her early teens.
Which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Only women at high risk for postnatal depression, like this lady, need active monitoring of their mood in the postnatal period
Explanation:Managing Depression in Pregnancy and Postpartum
This patient has a history of depressive illness and is at high risk for developing a depressive episode during pregnancy or postpartum. While her current symptoms are common in later pregnancy, close monitoring is necessary to detect any changes that may require treatment. If treatment is necessary, SSRIs such as Sertraline are now considered safe for use during pregnancy.
Postpartum depression is a common concern, and all patients should be closely monitored by health visiting teams and community midwives. GPs should also have a low threshold for considering depression in mothers of young babies and should inquire about the mother’s mood at the six-week postnatal check. If a mother experiences tearfulness and difficulty sleeping at six weeks postpartum, this should be taken seriously, as the baby blues typically resolve by 10 days postpartum. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male patient who lives independently experiences recurrent episodes of enjoyable visual hallucinations without any impairment of consciousness or disorientation. He acknowledges that the hallucinations are not real. Apart from visual impairment, he is generally healthy.
What is the probable ophthalmic condition that he is suffering from?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:Patients with severe visual impairment often have coexisting CBS and may experience recurrent, persistent, or episodic visual or auditory hallucinations. The most prevalent ophthalmological condition linked to CBS is age-related macular degeneration, making it the correct answer.
While glaucoma, cataract, and other ophthalmic conditions can also cause CBS, they are less common than age-related macular degeneration.
It is crucial to understand that these hallucinations are a result of deteriorating eyesight and not indicative of an underlying psychiatric disorder.
Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.
Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.
Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.
In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with symptoms indicative of a first episode of psychosis. He is hesitant about being referred but acknowledges the need for treatment. What is the correct statement regarding prescribing for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start with a low oral dose and titrate upwards
Explanation:Antipsychotic Prescribing Guidelines for GPs: Consultation with Psychiatrists Recommended
Antipsychotic medication can be prescribed by GPs, but it is recommended that they consult with a psychiatrist before doing so. The drug of choice is an oral atypical antipsychotic, but prescribing doesn’t replace the need for a comprehensive multidisciplinary assessment in secondary care. A study among Irish GPs found that just over half reported prescribing antipsychotics for suspected schizophrenia, with positive symptoms being the most common reason. However, the majority always referred patients to psychiatric services. A low dose should be initiated and titrated up slowly to achieve optimum symptom control without side effects. If treatment fails, alternative atypical or low-potency first-generation antipsychotics can be considered. Recovery rates of 80% have been reported after a first episode of psychosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner accompanied by his wife, she reports that over the last 18 months she has noticed his memory decline and occasional disorientation in previously familiar environments. He has a particularly poor memory of recent events and his wife notices that he sometimes struggles with day-to-day activities such as making a cup of tea or getting dressed. He denies feeling low in mood, and his wife doesn't feel that his mood has changed recently. He scores 21/30 on the mini-mental state examination. His blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg and his heart rate is 80/min and regular. He has no history of heart disease and previous stroke.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Dementia: Differential Diagnosis for Memory Impairment
Memory impairment is a common symptom in older adults, and it can be caused by various conditions, including dementia. Dementia affects approximately 5% of people over 65 and 20% of individuals over 80. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia, accounting for around 60% of cases. However, other types of dementia should also be considered in the differential diagnosis.
Depression is an important differential diagnosis in an older person presenting with memory impairment. Apathy and disconnection with activities that the patient previously enjoyed are common symptoms of depression. Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is another condition that can cause memory impairment. However, MCI is characterized by memory impairment with preservation of other cognitive domains and intact activities of daily living.
Lewy-body dementia is a type of dementia that accounts for approximately 20% of cases. It usually presents with parkinsonism, fluctuating cognitive impairment, and visual hallucinations. Vascular dementia (vascular cognitive impairment) is another type of dementia caused by cerebrovascular disease. It is a progressive disease where deteriorations may be sudden or gradual but tend to progress in a stepwise manner.
In this case, the patient’s mini-mental state examination result supports the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease. The patient (or their relatives) commonly complains of difficulty with common activities of daily living and short-term memory loss. It is important to consider all possible causes of memory impairment to provide appropriate treatment and support for patients and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 88
Incorrect
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You are taking a history from a 21-year-old man. He reports difficulty sleeping at night due to concerns about abusing his special powers. He claims to be able to read other people's thoughts and sometimes feels he can control their hand movements. He believes this to be true because a passage in the Bible can be translated with a special code that dictates his powers. Additionally, he reports hearing voices talking about him.
What is the SINGLE CORRECT terminology for this type of delusion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusion of reference
Explanation:Understanding Delusions: False Beliefs and Their Types
Delusions are false beliefs that individuals hold onto despite evidence to the contrary. These beliefs are often maintained by altering other beliefs to keep their entire belief system consistent. There are several types of delusions, including delusions of reference, control, paranoia, replacement, and guilt.
Delusions of reference involve the belief that something innocent in the public domain holds a special meaning for the individual. Delusions of control consist of the belief that an external force is controlling the patient, often citing electricity or radio waves as the mediator. Paranoid delusions involve the belief that people or organizations are plotting to harm or harass the patient, while delusions of replacement occur when someone in the patient’s life has been replaced by an impostor. Delusions of guilt involve feeling guilty or remorseful for no valid reason.
Understanding the different types of delusions can help individuals recognize when someone they know may be experiencing them. It is important to seek professional help if someone is experiencing delusions, as they can be a symptom of a larger mental health issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment regarding her treatment. She visited two weeks ago and was diagnosed with moderate depression and a few symptoms of anxiety. You prescribed Citalopram 20 mg to treat her condition.
During the review, she reports feeling terrible. She experiences muscle twitches, tremors, and constant stomach gurgling. She used to feel sluggish and lethargic, but now she can't sit still and paces around the room. These symptoms worsened after a recent migraine attack.
Upon examination, she appears agitated, and her pulse is 90 bpm sinus rhythm with a BP of 160/90. Abdominal examination is unremarkable, and a brief neurological examination of the limbs is normal, except for brisk reflexes all around. Recent thyroid function tests, urea and electrolytes, and full blood count were normal.
Her medical history includes endometriosis and migraines. She takes co-codamol 8/500 tablets and Sumatriptan tablets as needed. She has also been taking St John's wort for the past three months. She used to drink two units of alcohol per week.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Withdraw the Citalopram completely
Explanation:Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a condition that is often overlooked in primary care. It occurs when there is an excessive amount of serotonergic activity in the body, which can be caused by the initiation of medication affecting serotonin activity or an interaction between medicines that affect serotonin activity. Patients who take medications such as codeine, triptans, and St. John’s wort are at a higher risk of developing serotonin syndrome when co-prescribed with an SSRI.
If a patient presents with symptoms of serotonin syndrome, it is important to withdraw the offending medicine, such as Citalopram. However, it is also important to consider other factors that may have contributed to the onset of symptoms, such as the use of a triptan for a migraine. Prescribing pizotifen or referring the patient for counseling may not alleviate their symptoms.
It is important to note that some authorities caution against the use of propranolol, as it can result in hypotension and mask the response to treatment by slowing the pulse. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms of serotonin syndrome, healthcare providers can better diagnose and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman is brought to see you by her son, who reports that the family is at their wit's end. She has always been prone to 'melancholy', but over the last few months has become excitable, spending large amounts of money on a television shopping channel and booking a number of expensive holidays for herself and her family. Although she seems to have boundless energy, her home is very untidy and she is irritable when criticized.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder
Explanation:Understanding Bipolar Disorder: Types, Prevalence, and Symptoms
Bipolar disorder, previously known as manic-depressive psychosis, is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating episodes of mania and depression. There are two types of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I and Bipolar II. Bipolar I is characterized by severe manic episodes that result in impaired functioning and frequent hospital admissions, interspersed with major depressive episodes. On the other hand, Bipolar II patients experience hypomanic episodes that are less severe than full mania and do not have psychotic symptoms.
Studies suggest that bipolar disorder has a lifelong prevalence rate of 2.4%. When hallucinations and delusions are present during the manic phase, it can be difficult to differentiate from schizophrenia. However, this patient’s age suggests that it is unlikely to be schizophrenia. Additionally, periods of melancholy suggest interspersed depressive episodes. There is no indication of cognitive dysfunction, and the recent marked change in behavior doesn’t suggest someone who is normally a bit high.
In conclusion, understanding the types, prevalence, and symptoms of bipolar disorder is crucial in identifying and treating this mental health condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes to your clinic with his sister. She is worried about him as he has been acting differently lately. Until about a year ago, he was doing well in his job and spent a lot of time with his friends. However, over the past 6 months, he has become increasingly withdrawn and appears to be depressed. He rarely leaves his apartment, preferring to stay inside all day. His sister has noticed that he has been smoking marijuana and has become increasingly suspicious of her. He has lost interest in his hobbies and his work performance has suffered. Their father is no longer in the picture, but she remembers him as being a very suspicious man who had difficulty trusting others.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prodromal schizophrenia
Explanation:Recognizing the Schizophrenia Prodrome and Differentiating it from Normal Teenage Behaviour
The early signs of schizophrenia, known as the prodrome, are often overlooked and misdiagnosed as typical teenage behaviour or depression. These symptoms include a loss of motivation and performance, increased withdrawal and preference for solitary activities, personality changes with heightened suspicion, poor sleep, and irritability. While not all individuals with these symptoms will develop schizophrenia, there is a higher risk. It is crucial to be vigilant in recognizing and managing the first episode of psychosis to ensure proper treatment and a better prognosis. On the other hand, normal teenage behaviour may involve aloofness, a desire for more independence, feeling misunderstood, rejecting parental affection, or appearing moody. Conduct disorder, characterized by oppositional and defiant behaviour and antisocial activities, and paranoid personality disorder, marked by pervasive distrust and suspicion, are distinct from the schizophrenia prodrome and require different approaches to treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents for follow-up of her depression. Despite taking citalopram 20 mg once daily for 4 months, she has not experienced any significant improvement in her symptoms. The decision is made to switch her medication to imipramine. What is the recommended approach for transitioning to imipramine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Period of cross-tapering of the two drugs
Explanation:Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants
When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.
Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old primiparous woman is brought to the General Practice surgery by her concerned partner. She delivered a healthy baby born seven days ago.
Within two days of delivery, she told her husband that she thought he was poisoning her food. She thinks someone is watching her and they want to take her baby away. She has heard voices telling her she doesn't deserve to have a family. She has not had a bath in six days.
Which is the most appropriate intervention?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to secondary Mental Health services for immediate assessment within four hours
Explanation:Management of Postnatal Psychosis
Postnatal psychosis is a serious mental health condition that requires urgent assessment and management. It is characterized by positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, as well as negative symptoms like emotional apathy and social withdrawal. The recommended treatment for postnatal psychosis is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), which can help manage depression and other symptoms. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) like sertraline are not typically used to treat postnatal psychosis. Midwives can provide additional support for women experiencing postnatal depression, but urgent referral to secondary mental health services is necessary for those with postnatal psychosis. Immediate assessment within four hours is recommended for those with severe symptoms, while urgent assessment within seven days is necessary for those with less severe symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl has not been attending school.
Select from the list of options the single feature that would suggest school refusal rather than truancy.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting on the way to school
Explanation:Understanding School Refusal: Symptoms, Causes, and Consequences
School refusal is a common problem affecting 1-5% of school-aged children, with similar rates in both boys and girls. It typically occurs in children aged 5, 6, 10, and 11, and may be triggered by stressful events at home or school, or after a holiday or illness. Symptoms include fear, panic, crying, temper tantrums, threats of self-harm, and somatic complaints such as dizziness, headaches, and nausea.
Short-term consequences of school refusal include poor academic performance, family difficulties, and problems with peer relationships. Long-term consequences may include academic underachievement, employment difficulties, and increased risk for psychiatric illness. Children with school refusal may suffer from significant emotional distress, particularly anxiety and depression.
School avoidance may serve different functions depending on the child, such as avoidance of specific fears, escape from aversive social situations, separation anxiety, or attention-seeking behaviors. It is important to address school refusal early on, as the longer the child stays out of school, the more difficult it is to return.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, causes, and consequences of school refusal can help parents and caregivers provide appropriate support and intervention for their child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man is diagnosed with schizophrenia.
Which one of the following predicts a poor prognosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Few or no episodes in the past
Explanation:Prognostic Indicators in Early Schizophrenia
A gradual onset of psychosis is a negative prognostic indicator in the early course of schizophrenia, according to a study published in Medscape. On the other hand, all other factors, such as age at onset and mode of onset, predict a good prognosis. It is important to identify these indicators early on in order to provide appropriate treatment and support for individuals with schizophrenia. By understanding these prognostic factors, healthcare professionals can work towards improving outcomes for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with weakness of his right arm - he cannot move the arm at all.
The weakness came on suddenly. He sees a neurologist but no neurological illness can be found. He is a soldier and has just returned from a tour of duty. He has no history of illness and has not missed a day off work for two years. The weakness has been present for nine days.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Diagnosis of a Soldier with Paralysis
The soldier in this case has a previously good sickness record but is now experiencing muscle paralysis. It is reasonable to assume that he has been exposed to considerable stress in the recent past. After seeing a neurologist, it can be concluded that there is no neurological disease present.
This situation is indicative of a conversion disorder, which is a psychological condition where physical symptoms cannot be explained by medical examination. Muscle paralysis is a common symptom of this disorder, and the signs do not support the symptoms. In fact, tone may seem to be increased due to simultaneous flexor and extensor contraction.
Given the soldier’s history and symptoms, it is unlikely that he is malingering. Instead, psychological factors are likely to be important in this case. Overall, the most likely diagnosis for this soldier is a conversion disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 97
Incorrect
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You see a 20-year-old male patient who is worried about his erections. He has been experiencing problems for the past 8 months. He is generally healthy with no medical history. He doesn't use any illegal drugs and is a non-smoker. He drinks occasionally on weekends. He lives with his parents and has recently started dating a girl from his university.
Which of the following history findings would indicate a psychogenic cause rather than an organic cause for his erectile dysfunction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The presence of self stimulated or morning erections
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is the inability to achieve and maintain an erection sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. It can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors, as well as certain medications.
Symptoms that suggest a psychogenic cause of ED include a sudden onset, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or morning erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, relationship problems or changes, major life events, and psychological issues.
Symptoms that suggest an organic cause of ED include a gradual onset, normal ejaculation, normal libido (except in hypogonadal men), a history of medical risk factors (such as cardiovascular, endocrine, or neurological conditions), pelvic or scrotal trauma, radiotherapy or surgery, current use of medications known to cause ED, smoking, high alcohol consumption, or use of recreational or bodybuilding drugs.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of paracetamol. He has taken around 30 tablets while alone at home and left a letter for his family. He was intoxicated but managed to call an ambulance after he had taken the tablets.
Which of the following features would most strongly suggest that there is an ongoing risk of suicide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The fact that he took precautions to avoid discovery
Explanation:Factors that Increase the Risk of Suicide After an Attempt
When assessing a patient who has attempted suicide, certain factors can indicate a higher risk of future attempts. These include planning and taking precautions to avoid discovery, not seeking help after the attempt, using a dangerous method, and leaving final acts such as making a will or leaving a note. While a family history of suicide is more common among those who complete suicide, it doesn’t increase the immediate risk of self-harm. Alcohol use can lower inhibitions and increase the risk of deliberate self-harm, but being intoxicated at the time of the attempt doesn’t necessarily mean a higher risk of future attempts. Stressful life events in the preceding months can predispose to depression and increase the likelihood of self-harm, but do not necessarily indicate a higher risk of future attempts. Finally, taking a large amount of a dangerous substance may increase the risk of harm, but doesn’t confer a higher ongoing risk of suicide after the initial attempt. Overall, a comprehensive assessment of the patient’s mental state and risk factors is necessary to determine the appropriate level of care and support.
Factors to Consider When Assessing the Risk of Suicide After an Attempt
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man and his wife have come to the clinic with concerns about a new treatment he has recently started. He has a lengthy history of severe and debilitating depression that has not responded well to treatment with various selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants. He was referred to specialist mental health services for further management.
His wife reports that he has been prescribed a new medication called 'phenelzine'. Unfortunately, she was unable to attend the psychiatry appointment with him. He informed her that the psychiatrist had advised him to avoid certain foods, but he cannot recall them and left the information leaflet he was given on the bus by mistake.
What is the best way to advise them?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should avoid citrus fruits and bananas
Explanation:Dietary Restrictions for Certain Medical Conditions
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are not commonly prescribed in general practice due to the risk of hypertensive crisis when combined with certain foods or medications. Patients taking MAOIs must avoid tyramine-containing foods and should not take tricyclic antidepressants. Haemodialysis patients are advised to limit their intake of potassium-rich foods such as citrus fruits and bananas. Those with gout should avoid purine-containing foods like offal and shellfish. Patients with coeliac disease must avoid gluten-containing foods like wheat, barley, rye, and sometimes oats. Individuals with oxalate renal stones should avoid oxalate-containing foods like spinach, rhubarb, nuts, and chocolate. By following these dietary restrictions, patients can better manage their medical conditions and avoid potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman presents to your morning clinic as an urgent addition. She is in tears and reports feeling very low. She has been experiencing poor sleep and loss of appetite.
In accordance with the NICE guidelines for depression in adults (CG90), which category of depression is recommended for active monitoring for up to two weeks?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mild depression
Explanation:Active Monitoring for Mild Depression
Active monitoring is a recommended approach for individuals who may recover without formal intervention, those with mild depression who do not want treatment, or those with subthreshold depressive symptoms who request an intervention. Practitioners should discuss the presenting problem(s) and any concerns the person may have about them, provide information about the nature and course of depression, and arrange a further assessment within two weeks. It is important to make contact if the person doesn’t attend follow-up appointments. This approach allows for a watchful waiting period, during which the individual’s symptoms can be monitored and evaluated for any changes or progression. By providing information and support, practitioners can help individuals make informed decisions about their mental health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old medical student presents to the emergency department accompanied by his friend, reporting a 24-hour history of aggressive behaviour, irritability, and hallucinations. The friend suspects that the patient has experienced a mental breakdown due to sleep deprivation from studying for exams. Laboratory tests reveal no evidence of drug use or infection. The patient is admitted to the hospital for observation and returns to his usual behaviour the following day.
What is the probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brief psychotic disorder
Explanation:The correct answer is brief psychotic disorder, which is a short-term condition characterized by the sudden onset of at least one positive psychotic symptom, such as delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or catatonic behavior. Unlike other disorders, brief psychotic disorder often resolves with a return to baseline functioning. Adjustment disorder, bipolar disorder, and schizoaffective disorder are not the correct answers as they have different symptoms and characteristics.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is prescribed lithium for his bipolar disorder. What is the appropriate time interval before his plasma lithium should be checked for the first time?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:Monitoring Lithium Treatment: Guidelines and Recommendations
Before starting lithium treatment, it is important to conduct several tests, including ECG, thyroid function tests, renal function tests, and U&Es. After starting treatment, the plasma level should be checked after 7 days and then every 7 days until the required level is reached. The blood sample should be taken 12 hours after the dose has been taken. Once stable, the level should be checked every 3 months for the first year and 3-6 monthly depending on risk thereafter.
In addition to monitoring lithium levels, it is also important to regularly check thyroid function, calcium, eGFR, and U&Es every 6 months. Normal lithium levels vary between different laboratories but are generally about 0.6 – 1.0 mmol/l.
Lithium toxicity can occur at levels above the normal range and usually consists of gastrointestinal (anorexia, nausea, diarrhea) and central nervous system effects (muscle weakness, drowsiness, ataxia, coarse tremor, muscle twitching). Therefore, serum levels should also be taken during any intercurrent illness as this can increase toxicity.
Overall, monitoring lithium treatment is crucial for ensuring patient safety and optimizing treatment outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presented with palpitations, breathlessness and chest pain, radiating to the left arm. These symptoms had started seven weeks ago, following the death of her father from a heart attack. Over the last decade, she had undergone investigations for abdominal pain, headaches, joint pains, and dyspareunia, but no significant cause was identified for these symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder
Explanation:Somatisation Disorder: A Likely Diagnosis
Somatisation disorder is a condition characterized by recurrent physical complaints such as pains, gastrointestinal, sexual, and pseudo-neurologic symptoms that persist over a period of years. Although the brief scenario doesn’t provide enough criteria to make a definitive diagnosis, the symptoms described suggest that somatisation disorder is the most likely answer.
To meet the diagnostic criteria for somatisation disorder, the patient’s physical complaints must not be intentionally induced and must result in medical attention or significant impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. Typically, the first symptoms appear in adolescence, and the full criteria are met by 30 years of age.
Among the other disorders, factitious disorder is the least likely, while the other three are possible but not as probable as somatisation. Overall, the scenario suggests that somatisation disorder should be considered as a potential diagnosis, and further evaluation is necessary to confirm or rule out this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 104
Incorrect
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The risk of developing bipolar disorder if one monozygotic twin is affected is approximately:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding the Epidemiology of Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. While the exact cause of schizophrenia is still unknown, research has identified several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing the condition. The most significant risk factor is having a family history of schizophrenia, which increases the relative risk by 7.5. For example, if a parent has schizophrenia, the risk of developing the condition is between 10-15%, while having a sibling with schizophrenia increases the risk to 10%. In contrast, individuals with no relatives with schizophrenia have a 1% risk of developing the condition.
Aside from family history, other risk factors for developing psychotic disorders include Black Caribbean ethnicity, migration, urban environment, and cannabis use. Black Caribbean ethnicity increases the relative risk by 5.4, while migration and urban environment increase the risk by 2.9 and 2.4, respectively. Cannabis use, which is a common recreational drug, increases the relative risk by 1.4.
Understanding the epidemiology of schizophrenia is crucial in identifying individuals who are at high risk of developing the condition. By identifying these individuals, healthcare professionals can provide early interventions and treatments that can help manage the symptoms of schizophrenia and improve the quality of life of affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female employee is brought to you by her worried supervisor. She has been exhibiting strange behavior lately and appears to be isolating herself.
Which of the following signs is the strongest indication of depression?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thought withdrawal
Explanation:Differentiating Schizophrenia and Psychosis from Other Mental Health Conditions
When it comes to mental health conditions, it’s important to differentiate between different disorders to ensure proper treatment. In the case of schizophrenia and psychosis, there are certain features that distinguish them from other conditions.
For example, hallucinations and delusions are common symptoms of both schizophrenia and psychosis, but they are not typically present in other disorders such as depression or anxiety. Additionally, disorganized speech and behavior are also more commonly associated with schizophrenia and psychosis.
By understanding these distinguishing features, mental health professionals can make more accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment plans for their patients. It’s important to seek professional help if you or a loved one is experiencing symptoms of schizophrenia or psychosis, as early intervention can greatly improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 106
Incorrect
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Among the following groups, which one is most likely to have the highest prevalence of depression in your practice population?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Separated females
Explanation:Prevalence of Depression in Different Groups
The prevalence rate of depression varies among different groups. According to research, separated males have the highest rate of depression, with 111 per 1000. This rate is even higher for those who are unemployed, homeless, or going through separation. Separated females have a lower rate of 56 per 1000.
Widowed males and females have rates of 70 and 46 respectively, while married men and women have the lowest rates of 17 and 14 respectively. Interestingly, unemployment affects men and women differently, with the rate increasing to 27 for men and 56 per 1000 for women. These findings highlight the importance of considering different demographic factors when assessing the prevalence of depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to morning surgery and says she thinks she has a recurrence of depression. She has all the same symptoms as during a previous bout. You want to assess the severity of her symptoms by using a questionnaire.
Which one of the following questionnaires is validated for use in primary care?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hamilton Depression Rating Scale
Explanation:Severity Categorisation in Depression Assessment Tools
The severity of depression is an important aspect to consider when assessing and treating patients. There are several depression assessment tools that categorise severity differently. The Patient Health Questionnaire 9 (PHQ-9) categorises severity as minimal, mild, moderate, moderately severe and severe. The Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS-D) categorises depression as normal, mild, moderate and severe. Lastly, the Beck Depression Inventory II categorises severity as minimal, mild, moderate and severe. It is important for healthcare professionals to understand the severity categorisation of each tool to accurately assess and treat patients with depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 108
Incorrect
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Among the given options, what is considered as the primary risk factor for the onset of depression? Please choose only one.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic physical illness
Explanation:Factors that Influence the Risk of Depression
Depression is a complex illness with various factors that can influence its development. These factors include genetic, biochemical, endocrine, neurophysiological, psychological, and social processes. Physical illnesses, especially chronic ones, can increase the risk of depression, which has led to the emphasis on physical and endocrine theories of causation. Neuroimaging has also reinforced the idea of depression as a disorder of brain structure and function, while psychological findings highlight the importance of cognitive and emotional processes. Intrauterine infections, particularly viral infections, have been linked to an increased risk of schizophrenia. On the other hand, high self-esteem is likely to be protective against depression. Women are more likely to experience depressive disorders than men, and not having a confiding relationship with another person is a risk factor. Therefore, marriage is often considered protective against depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 109
Incorrect
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An 81-year-old widow presents to you with complaints of recurrent pains throughout her body every morning, which often leave her bedridden for a few hours. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found, and there is no evidence of arthritis. Blood tests, including a full blood count, renal profile, liver function tests, ESR, and bone profile, have all been unremarkable. She reports having trouble sleeping since her husband passed away 2 years ago. What would be the most suitable treatment option for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Physical symptoms are a common manifestation of depression, especially in older patients who may not directly express their mood difficulties. Therefore, it is important to investigate a patient’s mood when they present with unexplained symptoms. Although regular paracetamol may have a placebo effect, it cannot address the underlying issue. Antipsychotics like haloperidol are not suitable in this scenario. Gabapentin is unlikely to be effective unless the patient has neuropathic pain. While zopiclone may improve sleep, it is not a long-term solution and cannot address the root cause of the problem.
Understanding Depression in Older Adults
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects people of all ages, including older adults. However, older patients are less likely to report feelings of depressed mood, which can make it difficult for healthcare professionals to identify and manage the condition. Instead, older adults may present with physical complaints, such as hypochondriasis, agitation, and insomnia.
To manage depression in older adults, healthcare professionals typically prescribe selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) as a first-line treatment. This is because the adverse side-effect profile of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) can be more problematic in older adults. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the unique challenges associated with managing depression in older adults and to work closely with patients to develop an individualized treatment plan that addresses their specific needs and concerns. By doing so, healthcare professionals can help older adults manage their depression and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an unrelenting itch. Despite undergoing a thorough examination, blood tests, and a consultation with a dermatologist, no underlying cause has been identified. The patient reveals that she strongly believes in a particular explanation for her symptom.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusional parasitosis
Explanation:Delusional parasitosis is the correct term for a patient who has a fixed, false belief that they are infested by bugs. This condition is characterized by persistent itching and the belief that there are insects crawling on or under the skin. Capgras delusion, Cotard’s syndrome, and De Clerambault’s syndrome are all different psychological conditions that are not related to delusional parasitosis.
Understanding Delusional Parasitosis
Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly seen, but it can be quite distressing for those who experience it. Essentially, it involves a person having a false belief that they are infested with some kind of bug or parasite, such as worms, mites, or bacteria. This belief is fixed and unshakeable, even in the face of evidence to the contrary.
It is important to note that delusional parasitosis can occur on its own, but it may also be a symptom of other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, many people with this condition are otherwise functional and able to carry out their daily activities. However, the belief can cause significant anxiety and distress, and may lead to behaviors such as excessive cleaning or avoidance of certain places or activities. Treatment for delusional parasitosis typically involves a combination of medication and therapy to address the underlying psychiatric condition and help the person manage their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male comes to his GP upon the request of his family. Upon consultation, he discloses that he thinks everyone can hear his thoughts, as if he is a broadcasting station, and that he hears voices making comments about his actions. The GP observes that he has a blunted affect, alogia, and avolition. Additionally, the patient repeats the final word of any inquiry directed towards him.
What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Echolalia
Explanation:Understanding Thought Disorders
Thought disorders are a group of symptoms that affect a person’s ability to communicate and organize their thoughts. These disorders can be seen in various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. Here are some common types of thought disorders:
Circumstantiality is when a person provides excessive and unnecessary details when answering a question. However, they eventually return to the original point.
Tangentiality is when a person wanders off-topic and doesn’t return to the original point.
Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two words.
Clang associations are when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes.
Word salad is when a person speaks incoherently, stringing together real words into nonsensical sentences.
Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, where there are unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another.
Flight of ideas is a thought disorder seen in mania, where there are leaps from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them.
Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic.
Echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
Understanding these thought disorders can help individuals recognize when they or someone they know may be experiencing symptoms and seek appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with suicidal ideation after a fight with her partner. She has a history of relationship problems and frequently argues with loved ones. She denies experiencing any paranoid thoughts or unusual beliefs but reports hearing a voice in her head that describes her negative thoughts. Upon examination, you observe several superficial scars on her forearms. There is no evidence of delusions or abnormal speech.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The correct answer is borderline personality disorder, which is characterized by recurrent self-harm and intense interpersonal relationships that alternate between idealization and devaluation. Symptoms also include fluctuating mood and the possibility of paranoid thoughts and hallucinations.
Paranoid personality disorder is not the correct answer, as it primarily involves difficulty trusting others and interpreting situations as threatening. While some degree of paranoia is described in the patient, the other symptoms are more indicative of borderline personality disorder.
Schizoid personality disorder is also not the correct answer, as it involves difficulty forming close relationships and a preference for being alone. The patient in this scenario describes relationships with partners, friends, and family.
Schizophrenia is not the correct answer either, as it primarily involves delusions, auditory hallucinations, and disorders of thought perception.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old shopkeeper has returned to see you with depression. You have seen him on a number of occasions over the past 20 years with a moderate depression and you conclude that his symptoms have returned.
When he was first seen, as a student, he was given lofepramine, then dosulepin but responded poorly. This was switched to fluoxetine and he appeared to respond well and finished his medication six months later.
Then in his 30s he suffered from another bout of depression following the failure of a business venture. He was given fluoxetine and was treated successfully, stopping his therapy eight months later.
One month before your consultation, your primary care organisation advised that you should consider initiating treatment for newly diagnosed depressed patients with citalopram, due to cost benefits. Your choice is further enhanced by a recent meeting with a pharmaceutical representative who presents a convincing argument for treating patients with a new selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which is claimed to have greater efficacy than existing treatments.
What would be the most appropriate treatment for his current exacerbation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Choosing the Right Antidepressant
When it comes to treating depression, finding the right medication can be a challenge. However, if a patient has responded well to a particular drug in the past, it is recommended to consider that drug for a recurrent episode. In the case of this patient, he has responded well to fluoxetine but not to lofepramine or dosulepin. While it is possible that an alternative SSRI could work, such as citalopram or a new SSRI from a pharmaceutical representative, the best course of action is to consider the drug that has worked for him in the past. By doing so, the patient has a higher chance of responding positively to the medication and experiencing relief from their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman, who is a mature university student, has difficulty getting off to sleep and feels tired.
Select from the list the single most useful piece of advice.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Take regular daytime exercise
Explanation:Tips for Better Sleep: Understanding Sleep Hygiene
Sleep hygiene refers to a set of general guidelines that can help individuals achieve better quality sleep. One of the key recommendations is to avoid daytime naps, as they can disrupt the body’s natural sleep-wake cycle. Establishing a regular morning routine is also important, which involves waking up at the same time every day, even if an alarm clock is needed. To avoid constantly checking the time during periods of wakefulness, it may be helpful to place the clock under the bed.
Going to bed when feeling sleepy, rather than at a fixed time, is another important aspect of sleep hygiene. It’s also advisable to avoid mentally or physically demanding activities, such as studying, within 90 minutes of bedtime. Engaging in daytime exercise has been shown to improve sleep quality, reduce the time it takes to fall asleep, and increase the amount of time spent asleep.
Overall, sleep hygiene encompasses various aspects of sleep control, including homeostatic, adaptive, and circadian factors. It also provides guidance on how to avoid sleep deprivation and how to respond to unwanted awakenings during the night. By following these tips, individuals can improve their sleep habits and enjoy better overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 115
Incorrect
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The mother of a 27-year-old male who has been diagnosed with a personality disorder seeks your advice. She shares that her son has a history of getting into fights and has been arrested multiple times. During his teenage years, he would lie to obtain money, skip school, and say hurtful things to her without remorse. He has never been able to hold down a job and relies on his parents for financial support.
The mother is aware of her son's diagnosis but understands that you cannot discuss his case specifically. She asks if you can provide general information about the condition to help her understand better. She has always blamed herself for her son's behavior and hopes to gain some insight into his condition.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this individual?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antisocial personality disorder
Explanation:Patients with this condition often exhibit nonconformity to social norms, lack of remorse, deceitfulness, and irresponsibility. They may engage in unlawful behavior resulting in multiple arrests, get into fights due to aggressiveness, and be deceitful for personal gain. They may also disregard the safety of themselves and others and fail to support themselves financially. Despite their hurtful actions, they are unable to show remorse. Childhood problems such as truancy may be present, and their behavior can negatively impact family life. It is important to maintain confidentiality during the consultation.
Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a fear of social contact and relationships due to a fear of criticism, rejection, or embarrassment. Patients view themselves as inferior to others and are hesitant to engage unless they are certain of being liked.
Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and unstable relationships with others. Patients may experience feelings of emptiness, have a poor self-image, and engage in self-harm.
Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by an exaggerated sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and a sense of entitlement.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl is brought for review. She is typically healthy and hasn't had a doctor's appointment in over four years. Her parents have become increasingly worried about her behavior in the past few weeks. They report her staying up late at night, talking rapidly, and being very irritable. Yesterday she told her parents she was planning to take over the school assembly and give constructive criticism to her teachers in front of the other students. She feels many of her teachers are underperforming and need to be re-taught their subjects by her. She admits to trying cannabis once around eight months ago and has drank alcohol a few times in the past year, the last time being three weeks ago. Prior to her decline a few weeks ago, her parents describe her as a happy, well-adjusted, sociable young woman. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mania
Explanation:It is highly improbable for him to experience issues related to cannabis and alcohol as it has been a considerable amount of time since he last consumed these substances.
Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania
Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they are not the same. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are significant differences between them. Mania is a severe form of mood disorder that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant functional impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to self or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.
On the other hand, hypomania is a milder form of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It doesn’t impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. Hypomania doesn’t exhibit any psychotic symptoms. The length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.
Despite their differences, both hypomania and mania share some common symptoms. These include predominantly elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has just been released from the hospital following a heart attack. He has a history of depression and is currently experiencing low mood. What is the antidepressant with the most safety evidence for patients with recent unstable angina or myocardial infarction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Sertraline as the Treatment of Choice for CHD Patients
NICE guidance recommends sertraline as the treatment of choice for patients with coronary heart disease (CHD) due to its safety and efficacy. Sertraline has been found to be cost-effective in a study conducted by O’Connor and colleagues in a hospitalised population with acute coronary syndrome. Although limited to one study, this evidence supports the use of sertraline in this population. Additionally, the SPS recommends sertraline as the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) of choice for CHD patients due to its lower propensity for interactions and the availability of more data on its use in a population with pre-existing heart disease compared to other SSRIs. Overall, sertraline is a safe and effective treatment option for CHD patients with depression or anxiety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old teacher presents in a routine GP appointment feeling like everything is falling apart. Despite never taking a day off work, the patient is struggling to keep it together. The patient's spouse has noticed an increase in cleaning around the house, and the patient becomes easily irritated with others' inability to meet their personal standards. The patient has a history of perfectionism and avoids spending money on unnecessary items.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality
Explanation:Individuals who exhibit obsessive-compulsive personality traits tend to be inflexible when it comes to their principles, beliefs, and standards, and frequently exhibit hesitancy in delegating tasks to others.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 119
Incorrect
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You are seeing a teenage patient who has been diagnosed with PTSD.
He has previously been treated with sertraline but wants to stop because of a rash.
He has a review appointment with a psychiatrist in 3 months. Assuming any appropriate cross tapering and initiation, what alternative treatment could you prescribe instead?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Buspirone
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Drug Treatments for PTSD in Adults
The NICE guidance on the management of PTSD was updated in 2018, and there were a few changes from earlier guidance. One of the changes was regarding drug treatments for adults with PTSD. According to the latest NICE guidance NG116, benzodiazepines should not be offered as a drug treatment to prevent PTSD in adults. However, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, can be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if they have a preference for drug treatment. It is important to review this treatment regularly.
In addition, antipsychotics such as risperidone can be considered, along with psychological therapies, to manage symptoms for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if they have disabling symptoms and behaviors, such as severe hyperarousal or psychotic symptoms, and their symptoms have not responded to other drug or psychological treatments. It is important that antipsychotic treatment is started and reviewed regularly by a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A first time mother in her early 20s presents to the clinic with complaints of feeling exhausted, tearful without any reason, easily irritated, occasionally overjoyed, and sensitive to criticism 48 hours after giving birth.
What course of action would you recommend?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral for urgent psychiatric assessment
Explanation:Understanding postpartum Blues
postpartum blues are a common experience for 50-70% of women after giving birth. Symptoms typically resolve within 10-14 days, but it’s important for women to receive appropriate support from their GP, health visitor, and family during this time. If symptoms persist, urgent assessment is recommended according to NICE guidelines. Women who are at a higher risk of developing postpartum depression may have a history of psychiatric issues, lack supportive mechanisms, or have experienced stressful life events. It’s important to note that postpartum blues do not require medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with dry, eczematous hands. She reports being a very hygienic person, but since the onset of the covid-19 pandemic, she has been washing her hands excessively - up to 50 times a day. She is aware that this is causing her skin to become dry and irritated, but her attempts to reduce her hand washing have led to increased anxiety and a return to her previous routine. She works in a hospital and is worried about her colleagues noticing her frequent hand washing. Given her symptoms, what treatment options are available for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that affects 1 to 3% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of obsessions, which are unwanted intrusive thoughts, images, or urges, and compulsions, which are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform. These symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and distress.
Risk factors for OCD include a family history of the condition, age (with peak onset between 10-20 years), pregnancy/postnatal period, and a history of abuse, bullying, or neglect.
The management of OCD involves classifying the level of impairment as mild, moderate, or severe using the Y-BOCS scale. For mild impairment, low-intensity psychological treatments such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP) are recommended. If this is insufficient, a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) can be offered. For moderate impairment, a choice of either an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) is recommended, with clomipramine as an alternative first-line drug treatment to an SSRI if necessary. For severe impairment, referral to the secondary care mental health team for assessment is necessary, with combined treatment of an SSRI and CBT (including ERP) or clomipramine as an alternative while awaiting assessment.
ERP is a psychological method that involves exposing a patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. This helps them confront their anxiety, leading to the eventual extinction of the response. Treatment with an SSRI should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement. Compared to depression, the SSRI usually requires a higher dose and a longer duration of treatment (at least 12 weeks) for an initial response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is accompanied by his father who is concerned that his son may have anorexia nervosa.
Select from the list below the single option that is a feature of this condition.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amenorrhoea
Explanation:Understanding Anorexia Nervosa: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder characterized by a fear of weight gain, relentless dietary habits, and a distorted perception of body weight and shape. To diagnose anorexia nervosa, doctors rely on a patient’s medical history and physical symptoms, such as fatigue, loss of muscle mass, and growth impairment. While secondary amenorrhea (cessation of menstruation) was once considered essential for diagnosis, it is no longer required under the DSM-5 criteria. Instead, a patient’s weight must be below 85% of predicted, or a body mass index below 17.5 kg/m2. Binge eating may also be present, leading to purging behaviors and a cycle of guilt and binging. It is important to recognize the signs of anorexia nervosa and seek professional help for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient presents five days after abruptly discontinuing diazepam, which he had been taking for more than two years. He reports feeling generally unwell. What symptom would indicate a condition other than benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothermia
Explanation:Benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome doesn’t include hypothermia as a symptom.
Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which has an inhibitory effect on the brain. This makes them useful for a variety of purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and as anticonvulsants. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for short periods of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually, reducing the dose every few weeks. If patients withdraw too quickly, they may experience benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms including insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Other drugs, such as barbiturates, work in a similar way but have different effects on the duration or frequency of chloride channel opening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the General Practice Surgery by his father with a 3-month history of nocturnal enuresis. On examination, there is bruising on his inner thigh. On further questioning, his father is unable to explain why the boy has bruises and also mentions that teachers have raised concerns about inappropriate sexual behaviour towards classmates.
Which is the single most appropriate intervention?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contact the local children’s Social Care Team
Explanation:Appropriate Actions for Child Welfare Concerns
When dealing with concerns about a child’s welfare, it is important to take appropriate actions to ensure their safety and wellbeing. Here are some scenarios and the recommended actions:
Actions for Child Welfare Concerns
1. Contact the local children’s Social Care Team if there are unexplained bruises on a child’s inner thigh and inappropriate sexual behavior. This could indicate sexual abuse, and an urgent referral to Social Services is necessary.
2. Refer to the specialist Continence Service if a child has bladder and bowel problems that are not resolved by behavioral strategies. This service offers assessment, treatment, advice, and support.
3. Arrange a meeting with the child’s teacher to improve communication between all services. However, if there are concerns about sexual abuse, this will be handled by the police and Social Services.
4. Prescribe desmopressin for nocturnal enuresis only after addressing concerns about sexual abuse. Behavioral strategies are the first line of treatment for this condition.
5. Refer to the school nurse for support with nocturnal enuresis only after addressing concerns about sexual abuse. School nurses are specialists in improving the health and wellbeing of school-aged children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. Her spouse reports that she had a disagreement with their daughter, causing her to leave the house. Following this incident, she has been unable to speak. Physical examination of her chest and throat reveals no abnormalities. What is the most appropriate term to describe this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psychogenic aphonia
Explanation:Understanding Aphonia: The Inability to Speak
Aphonia is a medical condition that refers to the inability to speak. It can be caused by various factors, including recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, which can occur after a thyroidectomy. In this case, the nerve that controls the vocal cords is damaged, leading to difficulty in speaking.
Another cause of aphonia is psychogenic, which means that it is related to psychological factors. This can include anxiety, depression, or other mental health conditions that affect the ability to communicate verbally.
It is important to note that aphonia is different from mutism, which is the inability to speak due to a physical or neurological condition. In contrast, aphonia is typically a temporary condition that can be treated with appropriate medical or psychological interventions.
Overall, understanding aphonia is crucial for identifying and addressing the underlying causes of this condition. Whether it is related to a physical or psychological issue, seeking medical attention can help individuals regain their ability to speak and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman from Sierra Leone comes to your clinic and reveals that she underwent female genital mutilation (FGM) at the age of 16 and is still struggling with the trauma. She mentions that her three sisters also went through the same procedure but don't appear to be affected mentally. She feels embarrassed that she is the only one struggling while her sisters seem to be doing fine.
What would be the best course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to local safeguarding procedures and refer to mental health services
Explanation:If a female under 18 discloses that she has undergone genital mutilation, the mandatory reporting duty applies. However, in this case, the individual is over 18, so the duty doesn’t apply, and there is no need to involve the police.
Instead, it is important to follow local safeguarding procedures and refer the individual to mental health services. It is recommended to refer her to mental health services rather than suggesting she self-refer or seek private counseling, as she may be hesitant to do so on her own. It is crucial to provide support and resources to help her cope with her feelings and experiences.
If the individual chooses to involve the police, it is her decision to make.
Understanding Female Genital Mutilation
Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a practice that involves the partial or total removal of the external female genitalia or other forms of injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. This practice is classified into four types by the World Health Organization (WHO). Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while Type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male is admitted to the acute medical unit after a paracetamol overdose. He later admits to multiple episodes of impulsive self-harm and overdoses. He reports that his recent overdose was triggered by a fight with his mom and concerns that she will no longer want to see him. He describes long-standing feelings of emptiness and doesn't like the way he looks.
What is the most probable personality disorder underlying this behavior?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient described is borderline personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, fear of abandonment, and unstable self-image. Patients often experience feelings of emptiness and engage in self-harm. Childhood trauma or abuse is often associated with the development of this disorder.
Narcissistic personality disorder is not the correct diagnosis. This disorder is characterized by an exaggerated sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and entitlement.
Paranoid personality disorder is also not the correct diagnosis. Patients with this disorder are suspicious of others and may see hidden meanings in things or believe in conspiracy theories.
Dependent personality disorder is not the correct diagnosis either. Patients with this disorder struggle to make decisions and require reassurance and support from others. They fear being alone and cope best in relationships. However, there is no evidence of this in the patient described.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner because she is concerned about her weight, which is 56 kg. Her body mass index (BMI) is 18 kg/m2. She also reports prolonged fasts, sometimes not eating for a few days. She denies using laxatives or diuretics to help her lose weight. She is scared of putting on weight and has missed her last three periods. She has no known medical comorbidities.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Understanding Eating Disorders: Differential Diagnosis
Eating disorders are complex mental health conditions that can have serious physical and psychological consequences. When a patient presents with symptoms of an eating disorder, it is important to consider a range of differential diagnoses to ensure appropriate treatment. Here, we explore the key features of several eating disorders and related conditions, including anorexia nervosa, personality disorders, avoidant restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID), bulimia nervosa, and depression. By understanding the unique characteristics of each disorder, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide effective support for patients with eating disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 129
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately reflects the epidemiological risk factors for schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The lifetime risk of developing schizophrenia is 1%
Explanation:Schizophrenia: Prevalence, Onset, and Demographics
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that affects 1% of the global population. Although it can occur at any age, it typically starts in late adolescence or early adulthood, with rare cases before puberty. Men tend to develop schizophrenia earlier than women, and they are more likely to experience severe symptoms. Negative symptoms are also more common in men. The condition is more prevalent among migrants, people in lower social classes, and those living in urban areas. Some studies suggest that schizophrenia is more frequently diagnosed in black individuals than in white individuals, but this finding may be due to cultural biases or healthcare disparities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is currently receiving olanzapine depot injections to manage his psychotic symptoms. Prior to starting the treatment, his psychiatrist conducted a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. If the patient continues to take olanzapine in the long term, how frequently should these parameters be monitored?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annually
Explanation:Before starting a patient on antipsychotics and on an annual basis thereafter, it is recommended to conduct a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. Any other options presented in this scenario are incorrect. It is important to note that different antipsychotics may have varying monitoring requirements, and consulting the BNF is advised if unfamiliar with these drugs.
Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for his annual review; he has a diagnosis of schizophrenia and he has been stable on olanzapine for three years. He is otherwise fit and well and doesn't take any other medication. The initial screening investigations performed in secondary care were all normal before his medication was initiated.
Which of the following investigations should be included in an annual health check in primary care for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lipid profile
Explanation:Monitoring Health in Patients with Schizophrenia: Recommended Tests and Frequency
Patients with schizophrenia or other psychotic illnesses should undergo an annual health check in primary care to assess their mental and physical health. The following tests are recommended:
– Weight, pulse, and blood pressure measurements
– Full blood count, liver function tests, urea & electrolytes, lipid profile, HbA1c, and fasting glucose
– Prolactin level (annually for patients taking first-generation antipsychotics or risperidone, or if symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia are present)
– Electrocardiogram (ECG) before initiating olanzapine, and annually for patients taking haloperidol, pimozide, or sertindole, or if the patient had an abnormal ECG at initial screening or risk factors of developing a prolonged QTc interval
– Creatinine kinase (CK) only if the patient develops symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
– Thyroid function tests (TFTs) only if there are other indications to do so, such as known thyroid disease or symptoms to suggest co-existing hypo- or hyperthyroidism, except for patients taking lithium who must have their TFTs checked regularly.Regular monitoring is important as atypical antipsychotics can increase the risk of developing cardiovascular disease risk factors. However, not all tests need to be performed annually for all patients, and the frequency of testing may vary depending on the medication and individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man states he has special powers that allow him to know what other people are thinking. He also believes he is related to the Royal family. He has been overactive, elated in mood and not sleeping.
Select from the list the term that best describes his delusions.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grandiose delusions
Explanation:Understanding Delusions: Types and Associated Mental Illnesses
Delusions are false beliefs that persist despite evidence to the contrary and are not accepted by others in the person’s culture or subculture. There are various types of delusions, each associated with different mental illnesses.
Grandiose delusions are beliefs of exaggerated importance and are often seen in mania. Nihilistic delusions involve a persistent denial of the existence of things or everything, including oneself, and are common in schizophrenia. Delusions of guilt are found in depressive illnesses, while delusions of reference are seen in schizophrenia and mania.
Persecutory delusions involve the belief that the person or someone close to them is being mistreated or spied on, and are common in schizophrenia, depression, and organic mental states. Understanding the different types of delusions and their associated mental illnesses can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 133
Incorrect
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You receive a clinic letter from psychiatry regarding a 65-year-old patient who you referred with severe depression. The psychiatrist would like you to switch from fluoxetine to venlafaxine (a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor).
What is the most appropriate way to make this change?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cross-taper sertraline and imipramine
Explanation:Cross-tapering is recommended when switching from an SSRI to a TCA to avoid interactions and the risk of serotonin syndrome. Completing withdrawal of sertraline without introducing imipramine is not advised. Direct switch and waiting periods are not appropriate. Waiting 7 days is only necessary when switching from fluoxetine to a TCA.
Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants
When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.
Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 134
Incorrect
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What option indicates managing depression through monitoring and providing general guidance only?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No obvious trigger factors
Explanation:Managing Depression Symptoms
A patient experiencing symptoms of depression for less than two weeks or with intermittent symptoms can initially be managed through non-invasive methods. This approach is also suitable if there is a clear stressor or if the patient has good social support. However, if the patient has a family history of depression or has had suicidal thoughts, more active intervention may be necessary. It is important to carefully assess each patient’s individual situation and provide appropriate treatment to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has been taking with citalopram 40 mg daily for 6 weeks for moderately severe depression. She doesn't feel there has been much improvement. She has had suicidal thoughts but these have been only transient. She does have a history of a previous drug overdose. She has refused psychological treatments.
Select from the list the single most appropriate management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Managing Partial or No Response to Antidepressant Medication
When a patient shows partial or no response to antidepressant medication within 2-4 weeks, it is important to check for adherence to and side-effects from the drug. If these factors are not the issue, the doctor should consider increasing the dose. However, if the patient is already receiving the highest dose of a medication such as citalopram (40 mg daily), switching to an alternative antidepressant may be necessary. This could include another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor or a newer, better-tolerated antidepressant like mirtazapine, moclobemide, or reboxetine. It is important to consult guidance regarding switching, particularly in regards to washout times. Tricyclic antidepressants or venlafaxine should be avoided if there is a risk of overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 136
Incorrect
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You are caring for a 35-year-old woman who has been struggling with severe depression since a young age. Despite trying various antidepressants, she has not found relief. A consultant psychiatrist has now prescribed phenelzine, an MAOI. The patient has been informed about the dietary restrictions, but has come to you for more information. What foods can she safely consume while taking an MAOI?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fermented foods
Explanation:Potential Side Effects of Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are not commonly prescribed, which can lead to overlooking their potential side effects. One such side effect is the dangerous sympathetic pressor effect induced by eating foods containing tyramine. Tyramine is found in various foods, including mature cheese, meat, and alcoholic drinks. MAOIs also inhibit the metabolism of indirect-acting sympathomimetics found in many over-the-counter cough and decongestant medicines. Therefore, patients should consume fresh unfermented foods as a general rule. It is crucial to avoid stale or off foods, including game, and yeast extracts such as Marmite. Pickled herring and broad bean pods are also risky. This explanation highlights the main principles of foods to be avoided while taking MAOIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents after a severe panic attack when she was about to board a plane. She reports general uneasiness about travelling in any form of transport and has started avoiding it if possible. Six months earlier, she sustained minor injuries in a fatal plane crash. She has also become irritable and intolerant to noise, has been awoken by dreams about accidents and admits to being depressed.
Which of the following is the most suitable management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behaviour therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a condition that requires appropriate treatment. Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy is the recommended first-line treatment for those with severe symptoms or persistent symptoms beyond the first month after the event. This therapy includes exposure therapy, cognitive therapy, and stress management. Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing is an alternative therapy for prolonged symptoms. Antidepressants may be used as an adjunct to psychological therapy or if patients decline or fail to respond to psychological therapy.
Hypnotics such as temazepam may be considered for short-term use, but they are not first-line treatment for PTSD. Mirtazapine is a suitable second-line treatment if cognitive therapy is unsuitable or ineffective. Relaxation and non-directive therapy should not be routinely offered as they do not address traumatic memories.
For mild symptoms present for less than four weeks after the event, watchful waiting should be considered, with follow-up within one month. It is important to seek appropriate treatment for PTSD to improve symptoms and overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to the psychiatry team with complaints of hearing voices and experiencing persecutory delusions. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and blood tests reveal that his prolactin level is within normal range but at the higher end. The team diagnoses him with schizophrenia and recommends starting him on an atypical antipsychotic. Which atypical antipsychotic would be the best choice for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Aripiprazole is the preferred first-line medication for schizophrenia due to its tolerable side effect profile and ability to lower serum prolactin levels. This is particularly beneficial for patients with borderline-high prolactin levels, as other atypical antipsychotics can cause further elevation and associated symptoms such as hirsutism, galactorrhoea, and impotence.
Clozapine is another commonly used atypical antipsychotic, but is typically reserved for patients who have not responded adequately to two other antipsychotics. It may cause drowsiness, dizziness, dry mouth, restlessness, and headache, but doesn’t usually elevate prolactin levels.
Olanzapine should be used with caution in diabetic patients due to its potential for weight gain and elevated blood sugars. Aripiprazole may be a better choice for these patients.
Sertraline, on the other hand, is not used in the treatment of schizophrenia. It is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor indicated for depressive illnesses and obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled with fluoxetine, has started to suffer from anxiety, loss of interest and reduced appetite. She also complains of insomnia.
She claims that she is taking her medications regularly according to prescription. You conclude that her depression has not responded to treatment.
What will be the most appropriate management for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to another SSRI
Explanation:Treatment for Non-Responsive Depression
When a patient fails to respond to fluoxetine, which is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), it is recommended to switch to another SSRI first. If this doesn’t work, the NICE update on depression (2010) suggests trying a newer generation antidepressant that is better tolerated. It is important to find the right medication for each individual patient, as depression can have a significant impact on their quality of life. Therefore, healthcare professionals should closely monitor patients and adjust their treatment plan accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 140
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 44-year-old who undergoes regular blood tests for a health assessment. Her blood results reveal the following:
Na+ 125 mmol/l
K+ 4.3 mmol/l
Urea 5.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 60 µmol/l
She is currently taking the following medications: sertraline, carbimazole, amlodipine, metformin, aspirin. Which of her prescribed drugs is likely responsible for her low sodium levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Hyponatraemia is a known side effect of SSRIs, with sertraline being the specific medication associated with this condition. Other drugs that can cause low sodium levels include chlorpropramide, carbamazepine, tricyclic antidepressants, lithium, MDMA/ecstasy, tramadol, haloperidol, vincristine, desmopressin, and fluphenazine.
Side-Effects of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.
When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.
When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old nursing home resident, with advanced dementia, has become increasingly verbally disruptive at meal times, often shouting out incoherent phrases at staff and other residents. A general examination, urine dipstick and baseline blood tests were normal.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Restrain the patient at meal times in case of violent behaviour
Explanation:Managing Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia
With Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia (BPSD), it is crucial to identify and treat any reversible causes. However, in cases where there are no other symptoms and normal examination and investigations, empirical antibiotics should be avoided as they may lead to adverse clinical events such as Clostridium difficile. If conservative measures fail, it is advisable to seek advice from an elderly care physician who may recommend short-term use of medications such as haloperidol or lorazepam. It is important to note that restraining the patient during anticipated bad behaviour is not appropriate. By following these guidelines, we can effectively manage BPSD and improve the quality of life for patients with dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her current medication for depression. She is currently taking reboxetine but is experiencing over-energization and only sleeping for 4.5-5 hours per night. After discussing her options, you both agree that switching to sertraline may be the best course of action.
What advice would you give her regarding the switch to sertraline?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A washout period of two weeks between drugs is needed
Explanation:Switching from Reboxetine to Sertraline
When switching from reboxetine to sertraline, it is recommended to start sertraline immediately but gradually increase the dose as the reboxetine dose is reduced. It is important to note that reboxetine is metabolized by CYP3A4, which means that taking inhibitors such as macrolides and antifungals like fluconazole may increase its effects by raising plasma concentration. Therefore, caution should be exercised when taking these medications together. Proper management and monitoring of the switch from reboxetine to sertraline can help ensure a smooth transition and minimize potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 143
Incorrect
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You assess a patient who has been on citalopram for the last three years to manage depression. He has been stable for the past two years, and you both decide to discontinue the antidepressant. What is the appropriate method to taper off citalopram?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Withdraw gradually over the next 4 weeks
Explanation:Gradual Reduction of SSRI Dose
When discontinuing the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), it is recommended to gradually reduce the dose over a period of four weeks. This allows the body to adjust to the decreasing levels of the medication and can help prevent withdrawal symptoms. However, this gradual reduction may not be necessary for fluoxetine, as it has a longer half-life compared to other SSRIs. The longer half-life means that the medication stays in the body for a longer period of time, allowing for a slower decrease in levels even after the medication is stopped. It is still important to consult with a healthcare provider before stopping any medication and to follow their instructions for discontinuation. Proper management of medication discontinuation can help ensure a safe and effective transition off of SSRIs.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male presents with a 12 month history of deteriorating memory.
He has otherwise been well and takes no medication.
Which one of the following is most typical of frontal lobe dysfunction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to perform serial 7s
Explanation:Understanding Different Manifestations of Neurodegenerative Conditions
Frontal lobe dementia is a common neurodegenerative condition that typically affects individuals between the ages of 45 and 65. One way to test for frontal lobe dysfunction is to assess a patient’s ability to generate a list rapidly, such as naming animals in 60 seconds or words beginning with a specific letter.
Dyscalculia, on the other hand, is a manifestation of the dominant parietal lobe. This condition affects an individual’s ability to perform mathematical calculations and solve problems. Sensory inattention is another manifestation of parietal lobe dysfunction, which can cause an individual to ignore or neglect one side of their body or environment.
Visual field defects are also common manifestations of neurodegenerative conditions. Homonymous hemianopia, which is a loss of vision in one half of the visual field, is typically associated with occipital lobe dysfunction. Superior quadrantanopia, which is a loss of vision in one quarter of the visual field, is associated with temporal lobe dysfunction. Finally, inferior quadrantanopia, which is also a loss of vision in one quarter of the visual field, is associated with parietal lobe dysfunction. Understanding these different manifestations can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat neurodegenerative conditions more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 145
Incorrect
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If your daily activities take a long time to finish, which disorder could this question be most useful for screening?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Explanation:Identifying Comorbid OCD in Patients: Recommendations and Epidemiological Findings
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that doctors routinely consider the possibility of comorbid obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) in patients with symptoms of depression, anxiety, substance misuse, body dysmorphic disorder, eating disorders, or those attending dermatology clinics. To identify potential OCD, doctors are advised to ask patients a series of questions related to washing, checking, intrusive thoughts, time-consuming activities, and orderliness.
Epidemiological findings suggest that many patients with obsessional symptoms are initially referred to dermatologists, where their OCD may go undiagnosed. Somatic obsessions and washing compulsions are commonly reported symptoms, with acne being the most frequently reported disorder. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential for comorbid OCD in these patient populations and to screen for it accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old teacher is undergoing treatment for moderate depression with citalopram 20 mg daily. She initially sought help due to a recent break-up and stress at work caused by a difficult colleague. This is her first experience with depression and she has been taking medication for three months. She has a supportive family, including her parents and sister who live nearby.
At her last appointment one month ago, she reported still feeling sad when alone with her thoughts and not fully recovered. However, at her most recent appointment, she reported feeling like her usual self again. She has resolved the work issues with her colleague and is enjoying her social life with friends. She has also started practicing yoga and is interested in tapering off her medication.
Based on her current progress, when is the earliest appropriate time for her to consider tapering off her medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He can tail off in six months
Explanation:Duration of Antidepressant Treatment
This patient, a relatively young individual who has experienced a first episode of depression, has successfully recovered without any lingering issues that would indicate a high risk of recurrence. It is recommended that he continue taking his antidepressants for at least six more months. While there are situations where treatment may need to be extended, such as for older adults or those at a high risk of relapse, this patient is eager to reduce his medication. Therefore, six months is the earliest opportunity for reducing the dose.
It is common for patients to want to stop taking their medication once they feel better. However, it is important to remind them that depression can be a recurrent condition. Continuing treatment for the recommended period can help prevent relapse and will not result in addiction to the medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 147
Incorrect
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You receive a letter from the consultant psychiatrist about one of your elderly patients. The psychiatrist advises that the patient has bipolar disorder and should be started on lithium carbonate.
Assuming the patient is otherwise fit and well, which one of the following is correct in terms of monitoring when on lithium?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:To ensure safe use of lithium therapy, the BNF recommends regular monitoring of various parameters. This includes checking body-weight or BMI, serum electrolytes, eGFR, and thyroid function every 6 months. In particular, thyroid function should be monitored more frequently if there is any indication of deterioration. Similarly, renal function should be assessed at baseline and then every 6 months, with more frequent monitoring if there are any signs of decline or if the patient is taking medications such as ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, or diuretics that increase the risk of renal impairment.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.
Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.
Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has depression which has not responded to a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). You stop the MAOI and wish to prescribe a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).
How long should you wait before starting the SSRI?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 days
Explanation:Starting SSRI after MAOI
When switching from a MAOI to an SSRI, it is important to wait at least two weeks before starting the new medication. MAOIs can inhibit the enzymes responsible for breaking down certain neurotransmitters, such as noradrenaline and 5-hydroxytryptamine (5HT). This can lead to a buildup of these neurotransmitters in the body, which can cause severe drug reactions if an SSRI is started too soon. It may take up to two weeks for the enzymes to resume normal activity after stopping a MAOI, so it is important to wait until this wash-out period is over before starting an SSRI. This information is consistent with the guidelines provided by the British National Formulary (BNF) and is commonly tested on the Applied Knowledge Test (AKT) for medical professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity and impulsivity. There is no history of substance abuse, general medical problems, emotional stresses or depressive episodes. Mental status examination reveals a well-oriented woman with pressured speech and mood lability. A diagnosis of mania is made. Select from the list the possibility that she may experience a similar episode later on in life.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 90%
Explanation:Understanding Bipolar Disorder: Symptoms, Prognosis, and Long-Term Effects
Bipolar disorder is a mental illness that affects many individuals, typically first appearing in their third decade of life. The disorder is characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania, which can be followed by periods of depression. While recovery from an individual episode is possible, the long-term prognosis for those with bipolar disorder is often poorer than expected. Studies have shown that individuals with bipolar disorder can expect to experience an average of ten further episodes of mood disturbance over a 25-year period. As the number of episodes increases and individuals age, the time between episodes tends to shorten. It is important to understand that bipolar disorder is a chronic, lifelong illness that requires ongoing management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female presents with a 3-week history of low mood. On further questioning, she reveals that she witnessed a violent altercation outside her apartment complex when returning from work 4 weeks ago. She now has nightmares related to the incident and is avoiding leaving her apartment, which is causing her to miss work. She has no past medical history and is not on any medications. What would be your first-line management recommendation for this patient, given the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trauma focussed cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Acute Stress Disorder (ASD): Symptoms appear within 3 days to 4 weeks after the traumatic event. The condition lasts for a minimum of 3 days and a maximum of 4 weeks. If symptoms persist beyond 4 weeks, the diagnosis may be revised to PTSD.
For this patient with acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) is the recommended first-line management. This therapy involves a combination of exposure therapy and trauma-focused cognitive therapy, tailored to the patient’s age and development, and may involve parents or carers for children.
While eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) can be used as a management option for PTSD, it is not required in this case as the patient doesn’t have PTSD.
Risperidone, an antipsychotic, may be used in PTSD under mental health team supervision, but is not necessary for this patient with acute stress disorder.
If the patient prefers drug treatment, has significant comorbid depression, or cannot engage in psychological treatments, sertraline or venlafaxine, both antidepressants, may be started in primary care for PTSD. They can also be used as an adjunct to psychological treatments or when there has been a poor response to psychological treatments.
Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.
The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his sister. He has been convinced that aliens are monitoring his every move for 4 months, without any history of substance abuse. He claims to have heard their voices in his head and believes that they are planning to abduct him. His sister is worried that he might harm himself and reports that he has been talking about ways to escape from the aliens. When asked directly, the patient denies having suicidal thoughts but says he will do whatever it takes to avoid being taken by the aliens. He appears to have a blunted affect but is otherwise calm.
What is the percentage of patients with this diagnosis who complete suicide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10%
Explanation:It is common for individuals with schizophrenia to make statements about doing what it takes to avoid their perceived pursuers, such as taking a cyanide pill. However, these statements may not necessarily indicate overt suicidal plans or thoughts, but rather stem from delusions. Therefore, a comprehensive assessment of their mental state and other risk factors is necessary to accurately evaluate their level of risk for suicide.
The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 152
Incorrect
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For which patient would cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) be the most effective?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 12-year-old boy with autism
Explanation:Conditions that Benefit from Cognitive Behavioural Therapy
Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is an effective treatment for individuals experiencing depression, anxiety, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and post-traumatic stress disorder. However, it may not be as effective for those with borderline personality disorder, psychosis, bereavement, and schizophrenia.
It is important to note that CBT is not a one-size-fits-all approach and should be tailored to the individual’s specific needs. Understanding which conditions are most responsive to CBT can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about treatment options for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television. You suspect he may have schizophrenia.
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the treatment of schizophrenia.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine is indicated for treatment-resistant schizophrenia
Explanation:Antipsychotic Medication for Schizophrenia: Types, Side-Effects, and Treatment Options
Antipsychotic medication is commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly positive symptoms. However, they may not be as effective for negative symptoms. Newer or atypical antipsychotics, such as amisulpride, aripiprazole, clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone, and sertindole, are often preferred as they have a better balance between efficacy and side-effects.
First-generation antipsychotic drugs, also known as typical antipsychotics, primarily block dopamine D2 receptors in the brain, which can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms and elevated prolactin. Second-generation antipsychotic drugs, or atypical antipsychotics, act on a wider range of receptors and have more distinct clinical profiles. Both types of antipsychotics are effective in treating schizophrenia.
Early treatment is recommended to prevent further deterioration of brain functioning. In some cases, long-acting antipsychotic injections may be used to improve compliance. Benzodiazepines may also be used as a short-term adjunct therapy for behavior disturbances, insomnia, aggression, and agitation, although the evidence supporting this is limited.
Clozapine is indicated for patients with schizophrenia who are unresponsive to or intolerant of conventional antipsychotic drugs. It can only be prescribed by a specialist and requires at least two previous trials of antipsychotics, including one newer/atypical antipsychotic, at adequate dosages and treatment periods. However, it carries a risk of life-threatening neutropenia as a potential side-effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old male visits his GP 3 weeks after a car accident, worried about experiencing heightened anxiety, fatigue, and headaches. He had undergone a CT scan of his brain immediately after the incident, which showed no anomalies. After 6 months, his symptoms have disappeared. What was the probable cause of his initial symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Post-concussion syndrome
Explanation:Post-traumatic stress disorder typically has a delayed onset of symptoms and a protracted course.
Understanding Post-Concussion Syndrome
Post-concussion syndrome is a condition that can occur after a person experiences even a minor head injury. It is characterized by a range of symptoms that can persist for weeks or even months after the initial injury. The most common symptoms of post-concussion syndrome include headaches, fatigue, anxiety or depression, and dizziness.
Individuals who experience post-concussion syndrome may find that their symptoms interfere with their daily activities and quality of life. They may struggle to concentrate or remember things, and they may feel irritable or moody. In some cases, post-concussion syndrome can also cause sleep disturbances or sensitivity to light and noise.
While the exact cause of post-concussion syndrome is not fully understood, it is believed to be related to changes in brain function that occur after a head injury. Treatment for post-concussion syndrome may involve a combination of medications, therapy, and lifestyle changes to manage symptoms and promote healing. With proper care, many people with post-concussion syndrome are able to recover fully and return to their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 155
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with ongoing sleep issues due to tension in his relationship with his girlfriend. He expresses concerns that she may be spending time with her ex-boyfriend who works in the same office as her. He has had similar experiences in past relationships and feels as though he will never find the perfect partner, leading to mood swings and feelings of loneliness. He also admits to self-harming but denies any suicidal thoughts. Following a risk assessment, he is referred to psychiatry and diagnosed with borderline personality disorder.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this 28-year-old man with borderline personality disorder?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)
Explanation:Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) is an effective treatment for borderline personality disorder, as it is specifically designed to help individuals who experience intense emotions. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is not a targeted therapy for personality disorder patients and is more beneficial for those with depression or anxiety-related conditions. Exposure and response prevention therapy (ERP) is a treatment option for patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder, while eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy (EMDR) is a treatment option for patients with post-traumatic stress disorder.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female comes to see you with her mother. Her mother is concerned about her daughter's lack of self-confidence and lack of friends.
You talk with the daughter who tells you that she is worried about her weight and feels that she needs to lose weight to be more attractive. She feels that she needs to lose at least another 2 stones for her 'ideal' body weight. Her mother tells you that she is pre-occupied with her eating habits and this has been a persistent problem for a 'long time'. You weigh her and her body mass index is 23.
On clinical examination you note skin abrasions and some callous formation on the dorsum of her hands overlying the metacarpophalangeal joints and the presence of some dental erosion affecting the teeth.
What is the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Substance misuse
Explanation:Bulimia Nervosa: Characteristics and Physical Signs
Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by persistent preoccupation with eating, cravings for food that cannot be resisted, episodes of binge eating, and compensatory methods to counter the effects of food on body weight and shape. Unlike anorexia nervosa, body weight may be normal with bulimia. Physical signs of bulimia include arrhythmias, electrolyte abnormalities, upper GI erosions, ulcers, and dental erosions. Russell’s sign, skin abrasions, lacerations, and calluses overlying the dorsal aspect of the small joints of the hands, is a clinical sign caused by repetitive friction between the teeth and skin when sufferers use their fingers/hand to self-induce vomiting. Bulimia is often associated with other psychiatric comorbidities such as depression and alcohol/substance misuse. This behavior is not normal adolescent behavior as it is persistent and causing significant psychological symptoms and demonstrable physical signs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 157
Incorrect
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The brother of a 35-year-old woman visits your clinic with concerns about his sister's behavior. He reports that his sister has always had an inflated sense of self-importance and often expresses delusional thoughts about her potential for success as a lawyer, believing she is capable of becoming a partner at a top law firm. She doesn't seem to care about the impact her actions have on others and appears pleased when she talks about others' failures. He recalls that she behaved similarly when they were growing up and was unsympathetic towards him when he struggled with his studies due to a learning disability.
Which personality disorder is being described in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder
Explanation:Individuals with narcissistic personalities exhibit a lack of empathy, a sense of entitlement, and exploit others to fulfill their own needs. This behavior is indicative of narcissistic personality disorder. While the individual’s brother may not meet the criteria for a personality disorder, his behavior aligns with many of the features of narcissistic behavior. Narcissistic individuals have an inflated sense of self-importance and believe they possess unlimited abilities to succeed, become powerful, or appear attractive. They lack empathy and are willing to take advantage of others to achieve their own goals. These symptoms often manifest in childhood and persist into adulthood.
Antisocial personality disorder also involves a lack of empathy and guilt, as well as deceitful behavior to achieve personal goals. However, individuals with this disorder often disregard rules and laws, leading to criminal behavior and a propensity for violence. Therefore, the individual in the scenario is more likely to have narcissistic personality disorder.
Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a disinterest in sexual relationships, a preference for solitude, and a lack of close friendships. These individuals are indifferent to praise and recognition, making it an unlikely diagnosis for the individual’s brother.
Schizotypal personality disorder involves eccentric beliefs and behaviors, difficulty forming friendships, and paranoid or suspicious thoughts. This disorder doesn’t typically involve a lack of empathy or a sense of entitlement.
Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, feelings of emptiness, and recurrent self-harm attempts.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 158
Incorrect
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A client complains of feeling ill after abruptly discontinuing paroxetine. Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of discontinuation syndrome associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:SSRI discontinuation syndrome may manifest with gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and vomiting.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 159
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman requests medication from her General Practitioner as she has an overwhelming feeling of dread about her upcoming job interview. She becomes very anxious in situations where she is required to talk to people who are not very well known to her and usually tries to avoid such events. She is happily married and was very happy in her current job until she was made redundant.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Social phobia
Explanation:Differentiating Anxiety Disorders: A Brief Overview
Anxiety disorders are a group of mental health conditions that can cause significant distress and impairment in daily life. Here are some key differences between the most common anxiety disorders:
Social Phobia: This disorder is characterized by fear, worry, or embarrassment in social situations, leading to avoidance. Panic attacks are common, and symptoms are limited to social situations.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder: This disorder is characterized by excessive, uncontrollable worry that is disproportionate to the situation. Physical and psychological symptoms may be present, but the worry is not limited to specific triggers.
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder: This disorder is characterized by intrusive thoughts or images (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors or mental acts (compulsions) that are performed to alleviate anxiety. These symptoms are not present in the scenario described.
Panic Disorder: This disorder is characterized by sudden-onset acute anxiety symptoms, such as palpitations or hyperventilation. Panic attacks may occur without a specific trigger, but can also be triggered by specific situations.
Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder: This disorder develops after exposure to a traumatic event and is characterized by hyperarousal, dissociation, flashbacks, and nightmares. There is no history of trauma in the scenario described, ruling out PTSD as a diagnosis.
Understanding the differences between these anxiety disorders can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 160
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to you with a history of multiple recurrent and frequently changing symptoms that are 'functional' in nature (somatisation disorder).
Which of the following statements regarding her management is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be persuaded to understand that her symptoms are psychological
Explanation:Understanding Somatisation Disorder
Somatisation disorder is a complex condition that has been frequently asked about in previous examinations. It is important to note that knowledge of early childhood experiences is not necessary for diagnosis. However, depression is often found in individuals with somatisation disorder, making antidepressants a useful treatment option. In addition, involving relatives in the management of the disorder can be beneficial. It is important to approach management with empathy rather than persuasion. Understanding the complexities of somatisation disorder is crucial for effective treatment and management.
Spacing:
Somatisation disorder is a complex condition that has been frequently asked about in previous examinations. It is important to note that knowledge of early childhood experiences is not necessary for diagnosis. However, depression is often found in individuals with somatisation disorder, making antidepressants a useful treatment option.
In addition, involving relatives in the management of the disorder can be beneficial. It is important to approach management with empathy rather than persuasion. Understanding the complexities of somatisation disorder is crucial for effective treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old college student presents with insomnia, anxiety, and flashbacks. She experienced a traumatic event two weeks ago when a young man demanded her phone and purse while she was walking home from a party. She was alone and feared for her safety. Since then, she has been struggling with nightmares and flashbacks, which have disrupted her sleep. She has also been avoiding going out alone. Can you prescribe something to help her sleep?
Is this response appropriate for a patient who has experienced a traumatic event?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder
Explanation:Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within four weeks of a traumatic event. It is different from PTSD, which is diagnosed after four weeks have passed.
Although this scenario has the potential to develop into post-traumatic stress disorder, it is currently classified as acute stress disorder as it has only been two weeks since the event. It is important to monitor the patient’s progress and reassess in two weeks.
Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks and is often accompanied by agoraphobia. To be diagnosed with panic disorder, the individual must experience persisting anxiety about the recurrence of attacks for at least one month.
Depression is characterized by persistent low mood and/or loss of pleasure in most activities, along with a range of emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral symptoms.
Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive, pervasive, and uncontrollable worry, along with a range of somatic, cognitive, and behavioral symptoms that occur on a continuum of severity. To be diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder, the symptoms must be pervasive and persistent for longer than two weeks.
Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.
The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman returns home from the hospital after the birth of her first child. Over the next week she becomes increasingly irritable, feels low in mood and is very anxious that she is not taking good care of her baby.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Postpartum blues
Explanation:Postpartum Mental Health Conditions: Understanding the Differences
Postpartum mental health conditions can affect women after giving birth. It is important to understand the differences between these conditions to provide appropriate care and support.
Postpartum blues is a common and short-lived condition that occurs in the first week after delivery. Symptoms include irritability, crying, depression, and emotional lability. Reassurance and explanation are usually enough to resolve this condition.
Major depression is not suggested in the vignette and there is no indication of an ongoing depressive illness.
Generalised anxiety disorder requires symptoms to be present for at least six months, which is not the case in this scenario.
Postpartum depression is more persistent and debilitating than postpartum blues. It can interfere with the mother’s ability to care for herself or her child and typically develops over the first three months after delivery.
Postpartum psychosis has a dramatic onset within the first two weeks after delivery. Symptoms include restlessness, insomnia, irritability, rapidly shifting mood, and disorganized behavior. Delusional beliefs or auditory hallucinations may instruct the mother to harm herself or her infant.
Understanding the differences between these conditions can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for women experiencing postpartum mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old beauty therapist has come to see you because she is constantly arguing with her partner. They have been living together for the past six months. She says that the arguments are making her feel miserable and that her only enjoyment in life is her work and occasional nights out clubbing with her friends.
She says that her boyfriend resents her lifestyle and is very possessive of her time. She feels depressed when she arrives home and he is there, unless he is working a late shift or it is a night out with her friends. On examination, she appears physically fit, tanned, and smartly dressed. She talked about her partner's deficiencies for most of the consultation. Her past medical history includes a tonsillectomy and Chickenpox as a child. She is a non-smoker and visits the gym three times a week. A colleague advised her to visit you to help her with her problems.
What would be the most appropriate way to manage this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise her to take St John's wort
Explanation:Relationship Issues vs. Depression: Understanding the Difference
There is no clear indication of depression in this patient’s history. Despite experiencing disharmony in her relationship, she is still able to lead a normal life and enjoy most of it. Therefore, there is no need to prescribe antidepressants or refer her to a psychiatrist. Instead, offering support and guidance towards relationship counseling is the best course of action. It is important to understand the difference between relationship issues and depression, as they require different approaches to treatment. By addressing the root cause of the problem, the patient can work towards resolving her relationship issues and improving her overall well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 164
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old teacher is being evaluated after starting an antidepressant. She initially presented with various symptoms of depression and a PHQ-9 score of 18. She has experienced several significant life events leading up to her diagnosis.
She is married with a daughter in college, but has a strong support system from her family. You decided to initiate treatment with sertraline 50 mg, but she reports no improvement in her depression and your assessment agrees.
Despite the lack of effectiveness in her treatment thus far, she appears to be tolerating the medication without any adverse effects.
Based on NICE guidelines for depression treatment, at what point in her treatment would you consider increasing the dosage if she has not responded?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Six to eight weeks
Explanation:Treatment for Depression: Considerations for Medication Adjustment
When treating depression, it is important to monitor the patient’s response to medication. If there is no improvement within three to four weeks, it may be necessary to increase the dose or switch to a different antidepressant. However, if there is some improvement at four weeks, it is recommended to continue treatment for an additional two to four weeks before making any further changes.
In this particular case, the patient is tolerating the medication well and has support from her husband. Therefore, the focus should be on adjusting the medication. This recommendation is based on NICE guidance on Depression in adults (CG90) and is supported by other publications. By closely monitoring the patient’s response and making appropriate adjustments, healthcare providers can help improve outcomes for those struggling with depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 165
Incorrect
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An anxious mother brings her 15-year-old daughter to see you as she is worried that she may be depressed or using drugs, although she has no evidence of the latter. She had previously been happy and healthy and performing well at school, but recently has become withdrawn, has started failing at school and is often heard shouting in her bedroom, which she locks herself into most of the day. She has accused her parents of trying to harm her when they have encouraged her to come out.
Select from the list the most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute schizophrenia
Explanation:Early Intervention for Acute Schizophrenia and Substance Use
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of acute schizophrenia, including social withdrawal, declining academic performance, delusions of persecution, and hallucinations. Substance use is a common factor in the development of psychosis, with cocaine, amphetamines, cannabis, and alcohol use linked to a higher risk of developing schizophrenia. Research suggests that cannabis use, in particular, may contribute to the development of schizophrenia. However, signs of drug use typically precede the onset of thought disorders. To ensure the best possible outcome, this patient should be referred to an early intervention team for prompt diagnosis and treatment. Early intervention is crucial for managing acute schizophrenia and substance use disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A young man arrives at the emergency department after taking a paracetamol overdose following a recent break-up. He has entered into a new relationship but is struggling with frequent outbursts of anger. The patient has a history of childhood abuse and struggles with maintaining healthy relationships. He reports experiencing frequent mood swings between low and elevated states. The overdose was not premeditated and the patient has a history of similar incidents. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The young woman who overdosed on paracetamol after breaking up with her boyfriend is now in a new relationship that is plagued by her frequent angry outbursts, indicating borderline personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by rapidly changing intense emotions, difficulties in maintaining relationships, feelings of emptiness, fear of abandonment, impulsive behavior, and self-harm. Bipolar affective disorder is not the correct diagnosis as it involves periods of depression and mania, which are not reported in this case. Dependent personality disorder and histrionic personality disorder are also not applicable as they have different symptoms such as low confidence, difficulty making decisions without support, and a need for attention.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with her husband. They are concerned because she has become increasingly fixated on cleaning, which is interfering with her other responsibilities and straining their relationship.
She has installed a nail brush in the downstairs bathroom to scrub her skin after using the toilet and has prohibited guests from using any of the upstairs bathrooms. She also requires visitors to remove their shoes outside and has banned eating from any area outside the kitchen. Most recently, she has begun waking up at 5:30 am every day to clean.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Counselling
Explanation:Treating OCD with CBT and SSRIs
CBT and SSRIs are the main treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT involves challenging the ritualistic behavior of OCD through exposure and response prevention, which exposes the patient to stimuli that usually provoke their behavior and challenges their irrational thinking. On the other hand, SSRIs are the main pharmacological therapy for OCD. Counseling alone is not usually focused enough to provide significant impact on symptoms. A comprehensive treatment plan that includes CBT and SSRIs can help individuals with OCD manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is brought to the General Practitioner by his daughter, who is a Psychiatric Nurse, for a consultation. The daughter reports that she and other relatives have noticed a change in the patient’s behaviour and believes that he is experiencing ‘delirium, but certainly not dementia’.
Which of the following findings is most likely, assuming the daughter’s assessment of the patient is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Altered consciousness
Explanation:Distinguishing Delirium from Dementia: Key Differences to Note
When it comes to altered consciousness, delirium often causes wild fluctuations in consciousness level, while dementia typically only affects consciousness in severe cases. Additionally, delirium has an acute onset over hours to days, while dementia develops more gradually over months to years. Delirium is usually diagnosed within days of onset, while dementia is typically diagnosed 2-3 years after symptoms begin. Symptoms of delirium tend to fluctuate over the course of 24 hours, while dementia symptoms slowly worsen over time. Finally, while delirium can be reversible with early treatment of the underlying cause, dementia cannot be reversed, though treatment may slow its progression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old patient complains of nausea, headaches, and palpitations. He has been admitted multiple times in the past 2 years with similar symptoms, but no organic cause has been identified. What type of disorder is likely to be the cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder
Explanation:Somatisation refers to the manifestation of physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. On the other hand, hypochondria is a condition where a person constantly worries about having a serious illness, often believing that minor symptoms are signs of a life-threatening disease such as cancer.
Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry
In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man reports feeling anxious and worried most of the time. He denies depression and is not interested in psychological interventions. He requests medication to help him calm down. What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Treatment for Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is a chronic condition that requires long-term treatment. The recommended approach, according to NICE guidelines, is to start with low-intensity psychological interventions and then move on to high-intensity psychological interventions and/or drug therapy. The first choice of medication is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), with sertraline being suggested. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, another SSRI should be offered. Benzodiazepines should only be used as a short-term measure during a crisis, and buspirone should be used with caution. β blockers and antipsychotic medication are not effective. It is important to note that GAD worsens the prognosis for any other condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man with schizophrenia is prescribed a monthly zuclopenthixol depot injection in the community. He visits his General Practitioner two weeks after receiving the third dose, reporting an uncomfortable internal feeling of restlessness. He explains it as a strong urge to move and seems unable to stay still, which is causing him significant distress.
What is the side-effect of antipsychotic medications that the patient is experiencing? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Understanding Common Side Effects of Antipsychotic Medications
Antipsychotic medications are commonly used to treat a variety of mental health conditions, but they can also cause a range of side effects. It’s important for patients and healthcare providers to be aware of these potential side effects and how to manage them.
One common side effect is akathisia, which is severe restlessness that can occur within the first few months of treatment. This can be distressing for patients and increase the risk of suicide, but it typically responds to dose reduction.
Tardive dyskinesia is another potential side effect, which can present as abnormal movements such as sucking, chewing, and choreoathetosis. It’s more common in women and those with diffuse brain pathology, and only responds to cessation of medication in about 50% of cases.
Acute dystonia is a type of stiffness and rigidity that can occur shortly after taking antipsychotics, particularly phenothiazines and butyrophenones. It’s more common in young men.
Anticholinergic side effects can also occur with antipsychotics, including constipation, urinary retention, dry mouth, blurred vision, and cognitive impairment.
Finally, Parkinsonism can present as rigidity, tremors, stooped posture, and a shuffling gait. It may not appear for several months and can occasionally resolve on its own.
By understanding these potential side effects and how to manage them, patients and healthcare providers can work together to ensure the best possible outcomes for those taking antipsychotic medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about her mental health. She was involved in a serious car accident three months ago and has been avoiding driving ever since. She experiences flashbacks and nightmares and has become increasingly isolated and anxious. The doctor suspects post-traumatic stress disorder.
What is a diagnostic criterion for post-traumatic stress disorder?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoidance of people associated with the event
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnostic Criteria for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event that threatens physical integrity or life. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fifth edition (DSM-5), outlines the core diagnostic criteria for PTSD, which include recurrent intrusive symptoms such as memories, nightmares, and flashbacks. Additionally, individuals with PTSD may exhibit persistent avoidance of thoughts, feelings, or external factors associated with the traumatic event, as well as negative changes in mood or thoughts and changes in arousal or reactivity.
It is important to note that anxiety and depression often coexist with PTSD, but they are not diagnostic features. Similarly, substance abuse cannot be the primary cause of the disturbance in order for a PTSD diagnosis to be made. Recurrent early awakening, a symptom of dysthymia, is not part of the diagnostic criteria for PTSD.
Overall, understanding the diagnostic criteria for PTSD can help individuals and healthcare professionals identify and treat this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male presents to general practice for an annual general check-up. He has no particular complaints and on examination, no abnormalities were found.
You check the blood test results which were sent by the nurse prior to the appointment:
Na+ 132 mmol/l
K+ 3.5 mmol/l
Urea 4 mmol/l
Creatinine 90 µmol/l
You decide to review his medications.
Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused his electrolyte abnormality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:SSRIs like sertraline are linked to hyponatraemia, while aspirin and bisoprolol are not commonly associated with it. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with hyperkalaemia.
Side-Effects of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.
When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.
When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is seen at home 12 weeks after a successful first pregnancy. She is tearful, has lost her appetite and is very anxious about her infant’s health. There are no features of delirium. She has a history of illicit drug use but denies current use. Her older brother has depression. There are no features to suggest infection and there are no focal neurological signs.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: postpartum depression
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Mental Health: Depression, Psychosis, and Maternity Blues
Postpartum mental health can be a challenging experience for new mothers. Within the first year of pregnancy, postpartum depression can occur, which is similar to major depression at other times of life. However, postpartum psychosis is a severe mental illness that usually occurs suddenly within the first two weeks after delivery and is often associated with confusion and disorientation. While delusions of something being wrong with the baby are relatively common in postpartum psychosis, depression is also associated with anxiety about the baby.
On the other hand, maternity blues is relatively common and occurs within a few days of delivery. It consists of irritability and tearfulness without features of a major depressive episode. It is essential to understand the differences between these conditions to provide appropriate support and treatment for new mothers.
It is worth noting that there is no mention of schizophrenia in this woman’s history or any suggestion of current illicit drug use. By understanding the different types of postpartum mental health conditions, we can better support new mothers and ensure they receive the care they need.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 175
Incorrect
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You speak to the husband of a patient with depression who was recently discharged from a psychiatry ward after a suicide attempt. He was switched from sertraline to venlafaxine. His husband says his mood is okay but over the last 2 weeks, he became erratic and was not sleeping. He spoke fast about a 'handsome inheritance' he got but was gambling away their savings saying he was going to save the world. When confronted he became angry and accused him of trying to 'steal his energy'. You suspect he's developed mania and refer him to the crisis psychiatry team.
What do you anticipate will be the subsequent step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop venlafaxine and start risperidone
Explanation:The appropriate management for a patient who develops mania while taking an antidepressant is to stop the antidepressant and start antipsychotic therapy. In this case, the patient should stop taking venlafaxine and start taking risperidone. Antidepressants can trigger mania or hypomania as a side effect, particularly with SSRIs and TCAs, and venlafaxine has a particularly high risk. NICE guidance recommends stopping the antidepressant and offering an antipsychotic regardless of whether the antidepressant is stopped. The choice of antipsychotic should be one of haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, or risperidone. Cross-tapering the patient back to sertraline is not recommended, nor is cross-tapering to mirtazapine and adding sodium valproate modified-release. Prescribing a two-week course of oral clonazepam is also not recommended. Starting lithium is effective in manic and depressive relapse prevention in bipolar disorder, but it is not recommended as first-line for the management of acute mania in patients who are not already on antipsychotics.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.
Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 176
Incorrect
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You are contemplating prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant for a patient who has not shown improvement with two different selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Which of the following tricyclic antidepressants is the most hazardous in overdose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dosulepin
Explanation:It is recommended to avoid Dosulepin as it can be dangerous in case of overdose.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their side-effects and potential for toxicity in overdose. However, they are still widely used for the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. The common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of QT interval. When choosing a TCA, low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prevention of headaches. Lofepramine is preferred due to its lower incidence of toxicity in overdose, while amitriptyline and dosulepin are considered the most dangerous in overdose. The sedative effects of TCAs vary, with amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone being more sedative, while imipramine and nortriptyline are less sedative. Trazodone is technically a ‘tricyclic-related antidepressant’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has been drinking alcohol heavily for over 20 years but now needs to drink more to feel drunk as well as to avoid being irritable. He works as a bank manager and gave up driving 5 years ago at the insistence of his wife. There is no evidence of chronic liver disease on physical examination. Assessment of his mental state reveals episodes of low mood. He no longer goes out with friends.
Select from the list the single most correct diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol dependence
Explanation:Alcohol Dependence and Social Withdrawal: Understanding the Symptoms
Alcohol dependence is a syndrome characterized by withdrawal symptoms, tolerance, and loss of control over alcohol use. The CAGE questionnaire is a useful screening tool for alcohol-related disorders. Episodes of low mood may be related to alcohol dependence. Social withdrawal is a feature of various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia, personality disorders, autism spectrum disorders, depression, social anxiety disorder, and traumatic brain injury. Understanding the symptoms of alcohol dependence and social withdrawal can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is being discharged on lithium at a dose of 400 mg daily after a prolonged period of inpatient treatment. You receive a discharge summary requesting that you continue her blood monitoring in primary care as long term lithium treatment is planned.
What would be the most suitable monitoring regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measure renal function or thyroid function only if clinically indicated (for example, if intercurrent infection/dehydration or symptoms of hypothyroidism develop)
Explanation:Lithium Monitoring
Lithium is a medication with a narrow therapeutic index, which means that it requires close monitoring. The dosage is adjusted to achieve a serum lithium concentration of 0.4-1 mmol/L. Lithium toxicity can cause symptoms such as blurred vision, ataxia, coarse tremor, nystagmus, dysarthria, and gastrointestinal disturbance (vomiting and diarrhea). Severe toxicity can lead to convulsions, renal failure, and circulatory failure. Therefore, serum lithium levels should be measured every three months on stabilised regimens.
Renal failure and hypothyroidism are potential side effects of lithium use. As such, renal and thyroid function should be measured six monthly on stabilised regimens. Patients should be informed of the symptoms of hypothyroidism and advised to seek medical review if these symptoms develop. It is also important to note that lithium should be prescribed by brand rather than generically because different lithium preparations vary widely in their bioavailability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 179
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department with suicidal thoughts following the end of his relationship two weeks ago. He expresses fear of being alone as his partner had always made important decisions for him, as he feels incapable of making the right choices. He has attempted to find a new partner through online dating but has been unsuccessful despite going on several dates. He discloses that he has previously been diagnosed with a personality disorder. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dependent personality disorder
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient in the question is dependent personality disorder. This personality disorder is characterized by a need for excessive reassurance from others, a tendency to seek out relationships, and a reliance on others to make major life decisions. Patients with this disorder often struggle to take care of themselves and become anxious when left to do so. They cope best when in a relationship and will urgently seek out new relationships if one fails. They tend to passively comply with the wishes of others.
Borderline personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and intense but unstable relationships with others. While patients with borderline personality disorder may fear abandonment, they do not typically seek out excessive reassurance and are able to make life decisions.
Paranoid personality disorder is another incorrect answer. Patients with this disorder are often suspicious of others, reluctant to confide in friends and family, and may be unforgiving.
Finally, narcissistic personality disorder is also an incorrect answer. Patients with this disorder have an inflated sense of self-importance, lack empathy, and often feel entitled.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his wife passed away recently. He shares that he woke up this morning thinking she was lying next to him and heard her voice calling his name. He acknowledges that this is not feasible, but it has caused him considerable anguish. He is concerned that he might be losing his mind. He has no other significant psychiatric history.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudohallucination
Explanation:Pseudohallucinations, which are characterized by the patient’s awareness that the voice or feeling is coming from their own mind, are not indicative of psychosis or serious psychiatric conditions. This makes schizophrenia and other psychotic options less likely, and there are no signs of schizoid personality disorder in the patient. Pseudohallucinations are often observed in individuals who have experienced bereavement.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations: A Controversial Topic in Mental Health
Pseudohallucinations are a type of false sensory perception that occur in the absence of external stimuli. Unlike hallucinations, the affected person is aware that they are experiencing a false perception. However, there is no clear definition of pseudohallucinations in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, leading to controversy among mental health specialists.
Some experts argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, ranging from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations. This approach can prevent misdiagnosis or mistreatment of symptoms. For example, hypnagogic hallucinations, which occur during the transition from wakefulness to sleep, are a common type of pseudohallucination that many people experience. These hallucinations are fleeting and can be either auditory or visual.
The relevance of pseudohallucinations in mental health practice is that patients may need reassurance that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness. Pseudohallucinations are also commonly experienced by people who are grieving, which can add to the confusion and distress of the grieving process.
In conclusion, while the definition and role of pseudohallucinations in mental health treatment remain controversial, it is important for mental health professionals to be aware of this phenomenon and provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who experience it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman is brought to the practice by her mother who is extremely concerned.
For the past three months, she has been low in mood and over the last three weeks is increasingly withdrawn. She has stopped going to work and her evening fitness classes, has lost weight and has eaten nothing for two days. She is not sleeping and is unable to concentrate for any length of time. She had expressed feelings of guilt and hopelessness to her mother but is now barely speaking at all.
She is usually bright and cheerful. Her father has a history of severe depression. Her engagement was broken off about four months ago. She doesn't have any children.
How should this situation be managed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to a counsellor for CBT
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Severe Depression
This patient is experiencing severe depression, with probable psychomotor retardation and an inability to function normally. There is also a family history of severe depression, putting her at risk of harm through self-neglect. Primary care is not equipped to manage this situation adequately, and urgent assessment and probable inpatient treatment are necessary.
In cases where there is a risk to life, severe self-neglect, severe symptoms, or severe impairment, urgent referral is required. Taking the patient to the Emergency department may cause unnecessary delays, and the best course of action is to refer directly to psychiatry. By doing so, the patient can receive the specialist input needed for treatment and further management. It is crucial to act quickly in situations like this to ensure the patient’s safety and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a 3-week history of mild depression. He has recently been through a breakup and says he feels “lost and unmotivated”, although his friends have been supportive. He denies any thoughts of self-harm and reports that he is able to function throughout the day, but feels sad and that it “takes me longer to get things done than usual”.
What is the most suitable initial management for this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Mild Depression
When it comes to treating mild depression, antidepressants are not typically the first choice. Instead, cognitive behavioural therapy has the strongest evidence for effectiveness, although it may not be readily available in all areas. In some cases, psychodynamic therapy may be helpful, particularly if the root cause of distress is related to difficulties in interpersonal relationships. While selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have been shown to be effective for severe depression, their efficacy for mild-to-moderate depression is less clear. St John’s wort is not recommended due to uncertainty around appropriate dosing, variations in preparation, and potential interactions with other medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old lady comes to see you about her husband. He suffers with Alzheimer's dementia and she is finding it difficult to cope. She says that she doesn't drive and has had to resort to employing private carers to allow her time to do the shopping. She says that they are both in receipt of generous pensions but her sister has suggested that she applies for any benefits that are applicable.
What can you tell her about the Attendance Allowance (AA)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To qualify for Attendance Allowance patients must be State Pension age or over
Explanation:Attendance Allowance – A Guide for GPs
Attendance Allowance is a tax-free benefit that provides financial assistance to individuals who are State Pension age or older and have a disability that requires additional help with personal care. This benefit is not affected by income or employment status. To qualify, the individual must have required assistance for at least six months, unless they are terminally ill. There are two levels of Attendance Allowance – lower and higher.
As a GP, you may be asked to complete a statement at the end of the Attendance Allowance claim form by your patient. If the decision maker cannot determine benefit entitlement without further evidence, they may request that you complete a medical report based on your medical records and knowledge of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old teacher is brought in by her husband after she had a myocardial infarction (MI) six weeks ago. Despite her husband's encouragement, she continues to smoke and has become withdrawn since her illness. She refuses to take her prescribed statin due to concerns about side effects and a belief that her situation is hopeless. Prior to her MI, she enjoyed hiking and spending time with her grandchildren, but now spends most of her day in bed.
Her medical history includes a hysterectomy in her 40s and a diagnosis of anxiety in her 30s, for which she was prescribed sertraline. She stopped taking the medication after a few months due to side effects.
You decide to start treatment with an antidepressant and refer her to a local cardiac rehabilitation support group.
Which of the following antidepressants would be most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Antidepressant of Choice in Coronary Heart Disease
When treating a patient with a history of heart disease, it is important to consider the potential risks associated with certain antidepressants. While the patient in question was previously treated with lofepramine, the safest option for them would be sertraline. According to the British National Formulary (BNF), tricyclic antidepressants may pose a greater risk than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) to patients with a history of cardiac disease. Mirtazapine should also be used with caution in these patients. Although some sources suggest that the risks of venlafaxine may be overstated, sertraline remains the best choice for this patient. It is important to prioritize the patient’s safety and well-being when selecting an antidepressant for those with coronary heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 185
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her son for a review. She has a history of Parkinson disease, which was first diagnosed eight years ago.
Which of the following mental health problems the is most frequently associated with this patient's established diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Mental Health Abnormalities in Parkinson’s Disease: Understanding Depression and Other Disorders
Parkinson’s disease (PD) is not just a motor disorder, as more than 60% of patients experience one or more psychiatric symptoms. Depression is the most common, affecting approximately 45% of all patients with PD. Interestingly, depression doesn’t correlate with the stage of motor deficits and can reduce the quality of life independently of motor symptoms. Anxiety and depression may even be present many years before the appearance of motor symptoms.
Other mental health disorders associated with PD include psychosis, impulse-control disorders, mania, and sleep disturbances. Impulse control disorders are not associated with the frequency of depression, while mania is less frequently associated with PD than depression. Psychosis and mania are not as well associated with PD as depression. Sleep disturbances are also associated with PD, but depression is the most frequently associated condition.
The origins of these mental health disorders have been attributed to both the underlying pathophysiology of PD and the adverse effects of antiparkinsonian drugs. Additionally, dementia is common in PD, affecting 20-40% of patients with a 2-fold to 6-fold increased risk compared to control populations.
Overall, understanding the various mental health abnormalities associated with PD is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 186
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old lady presents to your clinic for a check-up after recently joining the practice. She visited a colleague two weeks ago for a painful right hip and was prescribed Diclofenac for possible osteoarthritis.
Her repeat prescriptions include Sertraline 50 mg OD, which she has been taking for three months and is very satisfied with the response, Metformin 500 mg BD, Ramipril 5 mg OD, and Simvastatin 40 mg OD. Her HbA1c level is 51 mmol/mol.
When reviewing her medication, what would be the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase her dose of Sertraline to 100mg OD
Explanation:Medication Management for an Elderly Patient with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
This elderly patient is currently taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and has recently had Diclofenac added as well. However, this combination puts her at a greatly increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. According to NICE guidance, gastroprotection should be added if patients are on aspirin or NSAIDs. Therefore, it is recommended that Diclofenac be stopped and alternative analgesia be considered.
The patient has a satisfactory response at her current dose of SSRI, which is the recommended dose for the elderly. Dose increases in this group should be undertaken with great caution, and there is no indication to do so in this patient.
Additionally, the patient has tight glycaemic control very close to the target of 48 mmol/mol for people with type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is advisable to monitor her HbA1c in three months and then six monthly thereafter if it remains stable.
While optimizing her Ramipril dose according to evidence is important, addressing the significant risk of bleeding on her current treatment should be the priority.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 187
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman reports that she regularly needs to check items. She will return repeatedly to check a door is locked or an iron unplugged or an oven switched off etc. She has even occasionally returned to the house after leaving to check things.
Select from the list the single most correct statement concerning obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) in this patient.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obsessions or compulsions must be a source of distress or interfere with functioning for the diagnosis to be made
Explanation:Understanding and Treating Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors. While many people may exhibit some obsessive or compulsive tendencies, the key to diagnosing OCD is whether it causes distress or interferes with daily functioning.
Cognitive behavioral therapy, specifically exposure and response prevention, is the first-line treatment for OCD. This type of therapy helps individuals confront their fears and learn to resist the urge to engage in compulsive behaviors. If a patient cannot participate in therapy or if it is not effective, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may be prescribed. Clomipramine is an alternative medication to SSRIs.
It is important to note that OCD can affect anyone, regardless of gender, and typically has an onset in adolescence or early adulthood. If you or someone you know is struggling with OCD, seeking professional help can lead to effective treatment and improved quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old gentleman with a history of depression comes to see you. Last month he was admitted to hospital after having taken a paracetamol overdose as a suicide attempt.
Which of the following factors suggests the greatest chance of his making another attempt on his life?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He consumed the paracetamol whilst inebriated
Explanation:Assessing Suicidal Intent: Factors to Consider
There are several factors to consider when assessing current and ongoing suicidal intent. Being unemployed and living alone may increase the risk, but they are not the strongest indicators of actual intent. Consuming a large quantity of alcohol at the same time may also complicate the risk assessment. To determine actual suicidal intent, it is important to inquire about the planning of the act, attempts made not to be discovered, the location of the attempt, the presence of a suicide note, and how the patient perceives the potential harm of their actions.
A suicide note indicates a serious attempt at suicide and suggests that considerable thought has gone into the attempt. However, notes are also common in parasuicides as a cry for help and are often not found in completed suicides. Visiting a solicitor to make a will in advance of the attempt demonstrates the highest likelihood of a subsequent attempt, as it shows considerable planning and forethought. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can better assess the level of suicidal intent and provide appropriate interventions to prevent future attempts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 189
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a potassium reading of 2.9 mmol/L. As there is no obvious cause, you schedule an in-depth assessment. During the history-taking, you discover that she experiences strong urges to consume large amounts of food and frequently engages in binge eating. She also admits to using laxatives but denies inducing vomiting. These episodes occur approximately three times per week, and her body mass index is 19.5 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:Diagnosis and Explanation of Bulimia Nervosa
The case history presented suggests that the patient is suffering from bulimia nervosa. This disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating, followed by compensatory behaviors such as purging or the use of laxatives. While anorexia is more common in teenagers, bulimia is often seen in older patients, typically in their 20s or beyond.
The patient’s urges to eat large amounts of food, frequent use of laxatives, and low potassium levels are all indicative of bulimia nervosa. It is important to note that this behavior is not a normal variant and requires medical attention. While the patient is only marginally underweight, a BMI of 20 kg/m2 is considered the lower limit of normal.
It is unlikely that the patient is experiencing refeeding syndrome, which is a rare condition typically associated with parenteral nutrition in a hospital setting. Enteral nutrition may also lead to refeeding syndrome after a prolonged period of starvation. However, this is not the case for the patient in question. Overall, a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa is the most appropriate for this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is a frequent attender with abdominal pain that has been extensively investigated and no cause found. He still finds the symptoms very distressing. They are the focus of his attention and he says they are restricting normal activities; he also fears he may have bowel cancer.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somatic symptom disorder
Explanation:Understanding Somatic Symptom Disorder and its Distinctions from Other Conditions
Somatic symptom disorder (SSD) is a condition characterized by distressing somatic symptoms and excessive thoughts, feelings, and behaviors related to those symptoms. These symptoms must persist for at least six months to be diagnosed with SSD. In contrast, illness anxiety disorder is a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness without significant somatic symptoms. Colon cancer is unlikely in this patient as extensive investigations have found no cause. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by anxiety about a variety of things, while this patient’s focus is on his abdominal pain and fears of bowel cancer. Irritable bowel syndrome causes abdominal pain, diarrhea, and constipation, but the patient’s symptoms and concerns are more consistent with somatic symptom disorder. Understanding the distinctions between these conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent epigastric pain for the past three months. He denies any weight loss, haematemesis, or melaena. On examination, there is tenderness in the epigastrium, but otherwise, the abdominal examination is unremarkable. The patient is currently taking Citalopram 20 mg, Lisinopril 20 mg OD, Aspirin 75 mg OD, and Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg. He recently had a painful knee and has been taking Ibuprofen at least three times a day. He has a history of severe depressive disorder, which has been effectively controlled on Citalopram for the past 9 months. What is the most appropriate initial management plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce his Ibuprofen and change his antidepressant
Explanation:Medication Review for Patient with Multiple Symptoms
This patient is experiencing symptoms that are likely caused by the combination of aspirin, ibuprofen, and citalopram. Co-prescribing NSAIDs and SSRIs can increase the risk of gastric bleeding, so it is important to alter the medication rather than refer for endoscopy. The patient should be closely monitored and may benefit from a PPI for gastroprotection.
Although citalopram may be contributing to the symptoms, it has been effective in managing the patient’s recurrent depressive episodes. Patients with a history of depression should remain on antidepressants for at least 2 years into remission.
To ensure the patient responds well to the altered medication, a review should be scheduled in two weeks. It may also be appropriate to check the patient’s Hb level for anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 192
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behavior. Her husband reports that the changes have occurred mostly in the past week and he has never seen this behavior before. He often wakes up to find her walking around the house and talking to people who are not there. During the consultation, the patient appears distracted and occasionally smiles and waves at the wall behind the doctor. There is no history of psychiatric illness in the patient or her family. The patient doesn't seem distressed and politely asks if she can leave as she believes the appointment is a waste of time.
The patient takes loratadine 10 mg once daily for hay-fever, salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma, and has recently started a combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception. She is also taking a course of prednisolone tablets following a recent exacerbation of her asthma.
Which medication is most likely responsible for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:When a person experiences sudden onset psychosis after taking corticosteroids, it is important to consider the possibility of steroid-induced psychosis. Although both the beclomethasone inhaler and prednisolone are corticosteroids, the higher dose of prednisolone makes it the more likely culprit for the patient’s symptoms.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old factory worker is brought in by her boyfriend. He says that she was suicidal when they argued after she accidentally scratched his car while parking.
There have been no recent major life events and there is no mention of any suicide attempt in her past medical history. She drinks six cans of beer over the weekend and is a former smoker.
In her free time, she enjoys singing karaoke at the local bar with her friends. She still lives with her parents, but she and her boyfriend are considering moving in together.
Which of the following is a risk factor for suicide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Employed
Explanation:Enquiring about Suicide Risk Factors in Depressed Patients
When speaking with patients who are experiencing depression, it is important to always ask about suicide. Even if depression is not explicitly mentioned, it is helpful to identify any potential risk factors for suicide in the patient’s history. One example of a risk factor listed in this case is the patient’s low socio-economic status. Other risk factors include advancing age, male gender, recent major life events, unemployment, living alone, previous suicide attempts, and concurrent mental disorders.
To identify high-risk patients, clinicians may use formal assessments such as the PATHOS self-harm assessment. This tool is used after an overdose attempt to identify patients who are at a higher risk for suicide. By enquiring about suicide risk factors and using appropriate assessments, clinicians can better identify and support patients who may be at risk for self-harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to you after being involved in a car accident 3 weeks ago. He reports experiencing flashbacks of the crash while watching car chase scenes on TV and has been avoiding such shows. He also mentions having trouble falling asleep and feeling more irritable than usual. However, his symptoms have not significantly impacted his work or relationships, and he is generally functioning well. What is the recommended next step in primary care management according to current NICE guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a period of watchful waiting, ensuring a follow-up appointment within 1 month
Explanation:If an individual is experiencing mild to moderate symptoms of PTSD for less than 4 weeks, it may be appropriate to suggest a period of watchful waiting, as per the current NICE guidelines. It is not recommended to use single session interventions that focus on the traumatic event, despite their common practice. Additionally, drug treatments should not be the first-line management for PTSD, whether used by general practitioners or specialist mental health professionals. There is no need for an urgent referral to the adult mental health team in this situation.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.
Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A patient with chronic depression in their 50s comes for advice about changing medication. They have been to the psychiatrist who wants to change them from their monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) to a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).
The patient cannot remember how long they were told to wait between stopping the MAOI and starting the SSRI.
What is the recommended time interval between stopping the MAOI and starting the SSRI?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:Recommended Interval Before Starting Antidepressants After Stopping MAOI
After stopping a MAOI, it is recommended to wait before starting most other antidepressants. The interval should be two weeks, except for imipramine or clomipramine, where the interval should be three weeks. This is important to avoid potential adverse reactions and interactions between the medications. It is crucial to follow the recommended interval to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the antidepressant treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man is prescribed a prolonged course of oral prednisolone for a flare-up of ulcerative colitis. What is the most commonly associated side effect of extended use of corticosteroids?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insomnia
Explanation:Long-term steroid use often leads to psychiatric issues.
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 197
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents due to a 6-month history of cognitive decline. On examination, the General Practitioner notices she has a resting tremor and shuffling gait.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Differentiating Lewy Body Dementia from Other Dementia-Related Disorders
Lewy body dementia (LBD) is a type of dementia that is often misdiagnosed due to its similarity to other dementia-related disorders. One key feature that sets LBD apart is the presence of Parkinsonian symptoms, such as tremors and rigidity. In fact, LBD is diagnosed when a patient develops symptoms of dementia either before or at the same time as Parkinsonian symptoms. Other characteristic features of LBD include fluctuations in cognition and alertness, visual hallucinations, hypersensitivity to neuroleptic medication, and repeated falls.
It is important to differentiate LBD from other disorders, such as Alzheimer’s disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, frontotemporal dementia, and Huntington’s disease. Alzheimer’s disease would not give you Parkinsonian symptoms, while Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rapidly progressing physical and cognitive decline that doesn’t feature Parkinsonian symptoms. Frontotemporal dementia would not give you Parkinsonian symptoms either, and typically presents with prominent changes in personality and social behavior. Huntington’s disease initially presents with chorea, personality changes, and neuropsychiatric symptoms, followed later by dementia, but doesn’t feature Parkinsonian symptoms. By understanding the unique features of LBD and how it differs from other disorders, healthcare professionals can provide more accurate diagnoses and appropriate treatment plans for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP with concerns about her interpersonal relationships at work and in her personal life. She reports that this has been an ongoing issue since her teenage years. The patient finds it challenging to collaborate with others and describes herself as a perfectionist. Additionally, others have described her as rigid. What personality disorder is indicated by these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for individuals who exhibit rigidity in their morals, ethics, and values and are hesitant to delegate work to others is obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals are often described as perfectionists who adhere to strict rules and have difficulty adapting to different ways of doing things. Avoidant personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, paranoid personality disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder are incorrect diagnoses as they present with different symptoms such as low self-esteem, unstable relationships, paranoia, and eccentric behavior.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old recently divorced woman has been a frequent consulter with different physical symptoms. You suspect she may be suffering from a generalised anxiety disorder (GAD).
Select from the list the problem that is least likely to be due to GAD.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eczematous rash
Explanation:The Relationship Between Generalized Anxiety Disorder and Eczematous Rash
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is not typically the direct cause of an eczematous rash, but it can exacerbate itching and scratching. Patients with GAD may experience a range of physical symptoms, including autonomic arousal symptoms like palpitations, sweating, shaking, and dry mouth. Chest and abdominal symptoms, such as choking, dyspnea, chest pain, nausea, and discomfort, are also common. Other symptoms may include dizziness, hot flashes, tingling, aches and pains, or a lump in the throat with difficulty swallowing (not true dysphagia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 200
Incorrect
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You are the on-call doctor for the afternoon clinic and have received an email from a consultant psychiatrist regarding a patient with bipolar disorder who is registered at your practice. The psychiatrist has just reviewed the patient and increased their lithium dose from 200 mg to 400 mg daily. The patient has already started taking the new dose. As the duty doctor, when should you schedule the next lithium level check for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 week after change
Explanation:Following a change in dosage, it is recommended to monitor lithium levels one week later and continue to do so on a weekly basis until the levels stabilize. Checking lithium levels three days after a dosage change may not provide accurate results as the medication may not have reached a steady state. However, it is crucial to not delay monitoring for more than a week as an increase in lithium dosage can increase the risk of toxicity. Neglecting to monitor lithium levels can be unsafe.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.
Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.
Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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