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  • Question 1 - A patient comes to your general practice with deteriorating shortness of breath and...

    Correct

    • A patient comes to your general practice with deteriorating shortness of breath and ankle swelling. You have been treating them for a few years for their congestive cardiac failure, which has been gradually worsening. Currently, the patient is at ease when resting, but standing up and walking a few steps cause their symptoms to appear. According to the New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification, what stage of heart failure are they in?

      Your Answer: III

      Explanation:

      Understanding NYHA Classification for Heart Failure Patients

      The NYHA classification system is used to assess the severity of heart failure symptoms in patients. Class I indicates no limitation of physical activity, while class IV indicates severe limitations and symptoms even at rest. This patient falls under class III, with marked limitation of physical activity but no symptoms at rest. It is important for healthcare professionals to understand and use this classification system to properly manage and treat heart failure patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      15.6
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  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance from a...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance from a music festival. It is a hot day and she had been standing in the crowd when she suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. She is now fully alert and gives a history of feeling dizzy and nauseated before the collapse. She tells you that she is healthy, plays tennis for her local club and is a keen runner. She has had no previous episodes of losing consciousness. Her father has recently had a heart attack aged 60 years. Her resting electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a corrected QT interval of 400 ms and a slightly prolonged PR interval but is otherwise normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vasovagal syncope

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Vasovagal Syncope

      Vasovagal syncope is a common cause of transient loss of consciousness. The hallmark of this condition is the three Ps – pallor, palpitations, and sweating. In patients with a history of vasovagal syncope, the ECG is typically normal. A prolonged PR interval may be seen in young athletes, but first-degree heart block rarely causes cardiac syncope. Ischemic heart disease is not a significant factor in this condition, and a family history of myocardial infarction is not relevant.

      If there are no features suggesting a more serious cause of transient loss of consciousness or a significant personal or family cardiac history, the patient can be discharged from the Emergency Department. However, they should be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any further episodes.

      Other conditions that may cause transient loss of consciousness include complete heart block, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, substance misuse, and long QT syndrome. However, in this case, the patient’s history and ECG are not suggestive of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea that has lasted for four days. He has been unable to keep down any fluids and is dehydrated, so he is started on an intravenous infusion. Upon investigation, his potassium level is found to be 2.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9). What ECG abnormality would you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Wide QRS complexes

      Correct Answer: S-T segment depression

      Explanation:

      Hypokalaemia and Hyperkalaemia

      Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. This can be caused by excess loss of potassium from the gastrointestinal or renal tract, decreased oral intake of potassium, alkalosis, or insulin excess. Additionally, hypokalaemia can be seen if blood is taken from an arm in which IV fluid is being run. The characteristic ECG changes associated with hypokalaemia include S-T segment depression, U-waves, inverted T waves, and prolonged P-R interval.

      On the other hand, hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. This can be caused by kidney failure, medications, or other medical conditions. The changes that may be seen with hyperkalaemia include tall, tented T-waves, wide QRS complexes, and small P waves.

      It is important to understand the causes and symptoms of both hypokalaemia and hyperkalaemia in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions. Regular monitoring of potassium levels and ECG changes can help in the management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17
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  • Question 4 - You are requested by a nurse to assess a 66-year-old woman on the...

    Correct

    • You are requested by a nurse to assess a 66-year-old woman on the Surgical Assessment Unit who is 1-day postoperative, having undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy procedure for cholecystitis. She has a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease. Blood tests taken earlier in the day revealed electrolyte imbalances with hyperkalaemia.
      Which of the following ECG changes is linked to hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      Electrocardiogram (ECG) Changes Associated with Hypo- and Hyperkalaemia

      Hypo- and hyperkalaemia can cause significant changes in the ECG. Hypokalaemia is associated with increased amplitude and width of the P wave, T wave flattening and inversion, ST-segment depression, and prominent U-waves. As hypokalaemia worsens, it can lead to frequent supraventricular ectopics and tachyarrhythmias, eventually resulting in life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. On the other hand, hyperkalaemia is associated with peaked T waves, widening of the QRS complex, decreased amplitude of the P wave, prolongation of the PR interval, and eventually ventricular tachycardia/ventricular fibrillation. Both hypo- and hyperkalaemia can cause prolongation of the PR interval, but only hyperkalaemia is associated with flattening of the P-wave. In hyperkalaemia, eventually ventricular tachycardia/ventricular fibrillation is seen, while AF can occur in hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine health check. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine health check. Upon physical examination, no abnormalities are found. However, laboratory test results reveal the following:
      - Serum glucose: 4.5 mmol/L
      - Haemoglobin A1c: 4.2% (22 mmol/mol)
      - Total cholesterol: 5.8 mmol/L
      - LDL cholesterol: 4.2 mmol/L
      - HDL cholesterol: 0.6 mmol/L

      Based on these results, what is the most likely mechanism for injury to the vascular endothelium in this patient?

      Your Answer: Collection of lipid in foam cells

      Explanation:

      Atherosclerosis and Related Conditions

      Atherosclerosis is a condition characterized by the accumulation of lipids in arterial walls, leading to the formation of atheromas. This process is often associated with hypercholesterolemia, where there is an increase in LDL cholesterol that can become oxidized and taken up by arterial wall LDL receptors. The oxidized LDL is then collected in macrophages, forming foam cells, which are precursors to atheromas. This process is exacerbated by hypertension, smoking, and diabetes, which can lead to the degradation of LDL to oxidized LDL and its uptake into arterial walls via scavenger receptors in macrophages.

      Diabetes mellitus with hyperglycemia is also associated with the accumulation of sorbitol in tissues that do not require insulin for glucose uptake. This accumulation can contribute to the development of atherosclerosis. However, neutrophilic inflammation, which is often the result of infection, is not related to atherosclerosis and is unusual in arteries. Additionally, atherosclerosis is not a neoplastic process, although mutations can result in neoplastic transformation.

      Overall, the process of atherogenesis is slow and does not involve significant inflammation or activation of complement. the underlying mechanisms of atherosclerosis and related conditions can help in the development of effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      88.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the visit, his blood pressure was measured at 110/90 mmHg and his carotid pulse was slow-rising. What is the most severe symptom that indicates a poor prognosis in aortic stenosis?

      Your Answer: Syncope

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Mortality Risk in Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a serious condition that can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion and potentially fatal outcomes. Here are some common symptoms and their associated mortality risks:

      – Syncope: This is a major concern and indicates the need for valve replacement, regardless of valve area.
      – Chest pain: While angina can occur due to reduced diastolic coronary perfusion time and increased left ventricular mass, it is not as significant as syncope in predicting mortality.
      – Cough: Aortic stenosis typically does not cause coughing.
      – Palpitations: Unless confirmed to be non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, palpitations do not increase mortality risk.
      – Orthostatic dizziness: Mild decreased cerebral perfusion can cause dizziness upon standing, but this symptom alone does not confer additional mortality risk.

      It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if they occur, as aortic stenosis can be a life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient in their 60s was diagnosed with disease of a heart valve...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s was diagnosed with disease of a heart valve located between the left ventricle and the ascending aorta. Which of the following is most likely to describe the cusps that comprise this heart valve?

      Your Answer: Right, left and anterior cusps

      Correct Answer: Right, left and posterior cusps

      Explanation:

      Different Cusps of Heart Valves

      The heart has four valves that regulate blood flow through the chambers. Each valve is composed of cusps, which are flaps that open and close to allow blood to pass through. Here are the different cusps of each heart valve:

      Aortic Valve: The aortic valve is made up of a right, left, and posterior cusp. It is located at the junction between the left ventricle and the ascending aorta.

      Mitral Valve: The mitral valve is usually the only bicuspid valve and is composed of anterior and posterior cusps. It is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle.

      Tricuspid Valve: The tricuspid valve has three cusps – anterior, posterior, and septal. It is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

      Pulmonary Valve: The pulmonary valve is made up of right, left, and anterior cusps. It is located at the junction between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.

      Understanding the different cusps of heart valves is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old man has been hospitalized with crushing chest pain. An ECG trace...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has been hospitalized with crushing chest pain. An ECG trace shows ischaemia of the inferior part of the heart. What is the term that best describes the artery or arterial branch that provides blood supply to the inferior aspect of the heart?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior interventricular branch

      Explanation:

      Coronary Artery Branches and Circulation Dominance

      The coronary artery is responsible for supplying blood to the heart muscles. It branches out into several smaller arteries, each with a specific area of the heart to supply. Here are some of the main branches of the coronary artery:

      1. Posterior Interventricular Branch: This branch supplies the inferior aspect of the heart, with ischaemic changes presenting in leads II, III and aVF. In 90% of the population, it arises as a branch of the right coronary artery, while in 10%, it arises as a branch of the left coronary artery.

      2. Circumflex Branch: This branch supplies the anterolateral area of the heart.

      3. Left Coronary Artery: This artery gives off two branches – the left anterior descending artery supplying the anteroseptal and anteroapical parts of the heart, and the circumflex artery supplying the anterolateral heart. In 10% of the population, the left coronary artery gives off a left anterior interventricular branch that supplies the inferior part of the heart.

      4. Marginal Branch: This branch is a branch of the right coronary artery supplying the right ventricle.

      5. Right Coronary Artery: This artery branches out into the marginal artery and, in 90% of the population, the posterior interventricular branch. These individuals are said to have a right dominant circulation.

      Understanding the different branches of the coronary artery and the circulation dominance can help in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath three weeks...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath three weeks after a myocardial infarction that was treated with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) for a proximal left anterior descending artery occlusion. On examination, he has a loud friction rub over the praecordium, bilateral pleural effusions on chest x-ray, and ST elevation on ECG. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dressler's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dressler’s Syndrome

      Dressler’s syndrome is a type of pericarditis that typically develops between two to six weeks after a person has experienced an anterior myocardial infarction or undergone heart surgery. This condition is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response to myocardial antigens. In simpler terms, the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the heart tissue, leading to inflammation of the pericardium, which is the sac that surrounds the heart.

      The symptoms of Dressler’s syndrome can vary from person to person, but they often include chest pain, fever, fatigue, and shortness of breath. In some cases, patients may also experience a cough, abdominal pain, or joint pain. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) to reduce inflammation and manage pain. In severe cases, corticosteroids may be prescribed to help suppress the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of worsening shortness of breath,...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of worsening shortness of breath, weakness, lethargy, and a recent episode of syncope after running to catch a bus. She has a history of atrial flutter and takes bisoprolol regularly. During the physical examination, you notice a high-pitched, diastolic decrescendo murmur that intensifies during inspiration. She also has moderate peripheral edema. A chest X-ray shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Diuretics, oxygen therapy, bosentan

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pulmonary Hypertension

      Pulmonary hypertension (PAH) is a condition that can cause shortness of breath, weakness, and tiredness. A high-pitched decrescendo murmur may indicate pulmonary regurgitation and PAH. Diuretics can help reduce the pressure on the right ventricle and remove excess fluid. Oxygen therapy can improve exercise tolerance, and bosentan can slow the progression of PAH by inhibiting vasoconstriction. Salbutamol and ipratropium inhalers are appropriate for COPD, but not for PAH. Salbutamol nebulizer and supplemental oxygen are appropriate for acute exacerbations of asthma or COPD, but not for PAH. Aortic valve replacement is not indicated for PAH. Antiplatelets may be helpful for reducing the risk of thrombosis. Increasing bisoprolol may be helpful for atrial flutter, but not for PAH. High-dose calcium-channel blockers may be used for PAH with right heart failure under senior supervision/consultation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      49.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (7/10) 70%
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