-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 25-year-old female student attends the blood transfusion service wishing to donate blood. She is currently well, has never had a serious illness and weighs 60 kg. About three months ago she spent the summer doing voluntary work in Nigeria. She also had her ears pierced three years ago and had a tattoo put on her left arm one year ago. She is not acceptable as a donor.
Which of the following is the reason for her rejection to donate blood in the UK?Your Answer: Recent travel to an endemic area
Explanation:Blood Donation Eligibility Criteria: Factors to Consider
When it comes to donating blood, there are several factors to consider to ensure the safety of both the donor and the recipient. Here are some examples:
Recent travel to an endemic area: If a person has recently traveled to a country with a high risk of infectious diseases, they may have to wait a certain period before donating blood. For instance, if someone has returned from Nigeria, they must wait at least six months before donating blood in the UK.
Underweight: A person must weigh at least 50 kg to donate blood. If they weigh less than that, they may not have enough blood volume to spare.
Body piercing: If someone has had a body piercing within the last 12 months, they should inform the staff before donating blood. They may have to wait for at least four months before donating.
Tattoo: Similarly, if someone has had a tattoo within the last 12 months, they should inform the staff before donating blood. They may have to wait for at least four months before donating.
Age: To donate blood, a person must be between 17 and 66 years old (or 70 if they have donated blood before). If they are over 70, they can still donate if they have donated blood in the last two years.
By considering these factors, blood donation centers can ensure that the blood they collect is safe and suitable for transfusion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 56-year-old woman collapses during a hypertension clinic. She is not breathing and a carotid pulse cannot be felt. What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to ventilation?
Your Answer: 30:02:00
Explanation:The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man with a history of moderate ulcerative colitis and taking mesalazine presents with a fever and sore throat for the past week. What is the primary investigation that needs to be done initially?
Your Answer: C-reactive protein
Correct Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:If a patient is taking aminosalicylates, they may experience various haematological adverse effects, such as agranulocytosis. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct a full blood count promptly if the patient presents with symptoms like fever, fatigue, bleeding gums, or a sore throat to rule out agranulocytosis. While C-reactive protein may be a part of the overall management plan, it is not the most critical initial investigation and is unlikely to alter the management plan. Similarly, while a throat swab may be necessary, it is not the most crucial initial investigation. The monospot test for glandular fever may be useful if glandular fever is suspected, but it is not the most important initial investigation.
Aminosalicylate drugs, such as 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA), are released in the colon and act locally as anti-inflammatories. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA, but many of its side-effects are due to the sulphapyridine component, including rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Other side-effects are common to 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, which is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side-effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, mesalazine is still associated with side-effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis. Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken by colonic bacteria.
It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with various haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis, and a full blood count (FBC) is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking them. Additionally, pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than in those taking sulfasalazine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 25-year-old man has a known psychiatric disorder. His condition causes him to have persecutory delusions and poor organisation of thoughts. He is easily distracted and struggles to maintain good eye contact during conversations. What is a factor that is linked to a negative prognosis in this disorder?
Your Answer: Low IQ
Explanation:Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognoses depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 42-year-old woman is seen in the rheumatology clinic after being diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis 6 months ago. She was initially started on methotrexate, however, was unable to tolerate its side effects. The consultant is considering starting the patient on hydroxychloroquine.
What should happen before the patient begins treatment?Your Answer: Examination by an ophthalmologist
Explanation:Patients who will be on long-term hydroxychloroquine treatment must now undergo an initial ophthalmologic examination. Recent studies indicate that hydroxychloroquine-induced retinopathy is more prevalent than previously believed. The latest guidelines from RCOphth (March 2018) recommend color retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula for patients who are expected to take the medication for more than five years. While it is recommended to conduct a complete blood count and assess renal and liver function when starting hydroxychloroquine, other options are unnecessary.
Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects
Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 28-year-old female comes to the clinic with a skin rash under her new bracelet. The possibility of a nickel allergy is being considered. What is the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Skin patch test
Explanation:Understanding Nickel Dermatitis
Nickel dermatitis is a type of allergic contact dermatitis that is commonly caused by exposure to nickel. This condition is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which means that it is caused by an immune response to a specific substance. In the case of nickel dermatitis, the immune system reacts to nickel, which is often found in jewelry such as watches.
To diagnose nickel dermatitis, a skin patch test is typically performed. This involves applying a small amount of nickel to the skin and monitoring the area for any signs of an allergic reaction. Symptoms of nickel dermatitis can include redness, itching, and swelling of the affected area.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
An 88-year-old woman visits her doctor with her daughter. She was diagnosed with Alzheimer's dementia two years ago and has recently moved in with her daughter for care. Lately, she has become increasingly isolated and has reported seeing animals in the house that are not actually there. She denies any other symptoms. All vital signs are normal and physical examination is unremarkable.
What is the probable cause of her current symptoms?Your Answer: Psychosis
Correct Answer: Delirium
Explanation:Cognitively impaired patients can experience delirium when placed in new surroundings. Even minor changes in environment can trigger delirium in individuals with dementia, leading to visual hallucinations. While community-acquired pneumonia and urinary tract infections are common causes of delirium in the elderly, they seem unlikely in this case as there are no other clues in the history or examination. Depression is a common differential for dementia in the elderly, but the acute onset of symptoms in this woman suggests delirium. It is important to note that symptoms of depression in the elderly can be non-specific. While psychosis could explain the visual hallucinations, the absence of other symptoms and the acute onset of the condition suggest delirium.
Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to hospital. It is more common in patients over the age of 65, those with a background of dementia, significant injury, frailty or multimorbidity, and those taking multiple medications. The condition is often triggered by a combination of factors, such as infection, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and underlying medical conditions.
The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but may include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep, and poor attention. Treatment involves identifying and addressing the underlying cause, modifying the patient’s environment, and using sedatives such as haloperidol or olanzapine. However, managing the condition can be challenging in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen Parkinsonian symptoms. In such cases, careful reduction of Parkinson medication may be helpful, and atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine and clozapine may be preferred for urgent treatment.
Overall, acute confusional state is a complex condition that requires careful management and individualized treatment. By addressing the underlying causes and providing appropriate sedation, healthcare professionals can help patients recover from this condition and improve their overall quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 30-year-old man visits his doctor's office with complaints of difficulty sleeping. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that he avoids social situations due to a fear of being judged, and experienced a panic attack with rapid heart rate and shortness of breath while at a movie theater a few weeks ago.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Social phobia
Explanation:Differentiating Social Phobia from Other Anxiety Disorders
Social phobia, also known as social anxiety disorder, is a type of anxiety disorder characterized by intense fear and anxiety in social situations, particularly when being scrutinized. It typically starts in adolescence and affects both men and women equally. Some individuals may have a specific fear of certain situations, while others may experience anxiety in most social situations outside of close family and friends. Low self-esteem is often associated with social phobia, and avoidance of feared situations is common. Treatment typically involves psychological interventions such as cognitive-behavioral therapy.
It is important to differentiate social phobia from other anxiety disorders. Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of severe anxiety that occur unpredictably and without an objective danger. Agoraphobia involves a fear of situations where escape to a safe place is difficult or impossible. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by non-specific and persistent anxiety, often accompanied by autonomic and motor overactivity. Depression may also be associated with anxiety, but typically involves early morning waking rather than difficulty falling asleep.
By understanding the specific features of social phobia and how it differs from other anxiety disorders, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate diagnosis and treatment for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
You are assessing a 55-year-old man who has been admitted with pneumonia. His medical history indicates that he consumes approximately 70-80 units of alcohol per week. Which medication would be the most suitable to administer to prevent the onset of alcohol withdrawal symptoms?
Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman visits her GP because she is worried about her ability to conceive. She has experienced three miscarriages in the past five years and has also had an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis. The GP orders various blood tests and suspects that one of them may show a positive result for a potential cause of her issues.
Which of the following antibody tests is the most likely to be positive? Choose only ONE option.Your Answer: Anti-phospholipid antibodies
Explanation:Autoimmune Antibodies and Their Associated Conditions
Autoimmune disorders are conditions in which the immune system mistakenly attacks the body’s own tissues. One way to diagnose autoimmune disorders is by testing for specific antibodies that are associated with certain conditions. Here are some common autoimmune antibodies and the conditions they are associated with:
1. Anti-phospholipid antibodies: These antibodies are linked to anti-phospholipid syndrome (APS), also known as Hughes’ syndrome. APS can cause blood clots and pregnancy-related complications.
2. Anti-endomysial antibodies: These antibodies are associated with coeliac disease, an autoimmune disorder that affects the small intestine.
3. Anti-histone antibodies: These antibodies are linked to drug-induced systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), another autoimmune disorder.
4. Anti-mitochondrial antibodies: These antibodies are associated with primary biliary cholangitis, autoimmune hepatitis, and idiopathic cirrhosis, all of which affect the liver.
5. Anti-nuclear antibodies: These antibodies are associated with several autoimmune disorders, including SLE, autoimmune hepatitis, Sjögren’s syndrome, systemic sclerosis, and rheumatoid arthritis.
Testing for these antibodies can help diagnose autoimmune disorders and guide treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)