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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman complains of unmanageable twitching and cramping in her legs. She has a medical history of heart failure and reports that her symptoms began a few days after starting a new medication prescribed by her cardiologist. As a result, you order routine blood tests that reveal hypokalaemia. Which medication is the probable culprit for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Lisinopril
Correct Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Individuals with heart failure and an ejection fraction of 40% or lower should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, unless there are contraindications or intolerance. This is supported by numerous clinical trials that have shown their efficacy in reducing hospital admissions and mortality rates. The dosage should be started low and gradually increased until the target dose or the highest tolerated dose is achieved, with regular monitoring of renal function and serum electrolytes.
Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Indications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This reduces the absorption of NaCl and increases the excretion of water and electrolytes, making them effective in treating conditions such as heart failure and resistant hypertension. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys.
As loop diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. This means that patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve a sufficient concentration within the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also effective in treating resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment.
However, loop diuretics can have adverse effects, including hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment (from dehydration and direct toxic effect), hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout.
In summary, loop diuretics are effective medications for treating heart failure and resistant hypertension, but their use should be carefully monitored due to potential adverse effects. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve therapeutic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is the recommended next step in managing the blood pressure of a 42 year old woman with a history of depression and a recent paracetamol overdose who has a manual blood pressure reading of 165/85 mmHg?
Your Answer: Start ramipril
Correct Answer: Offer ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
Explanation:The National Institute for Clinical Excellence updated its guideline for hypertension management in 2011, placing emphasis on the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm hypertension in individuals with elevated clinic readings. ABPM involves taking two measurements per hour during waking hours and using the average of at least 14 measurements to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension. Secondary causes of hypertension should be investigated in patients under 40 without traditional risk factors, those with other symptoms of secondary causes, and those with resistant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism is the most common cause of secondary hypertension, and a trial of spironolactone may be used for both therapeutic and diagnostic purposes. Drug treatment for essential hypertension involves ACE inhibitors for those under 55 and calcium channel blockers for those over 55 or of black African or Caribbean origin. Step 2 involves using both ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers, while step 3 adds a thiazide-like diuretic. Further diuretics, beta-blockers, or alpha blockers may be considered in step 4, with expert advice sought. For a more detailed explanation, refer to the provided link.
NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines aimed to classify hypertension into stages and recommend the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to accurately diagnose hypertension. This is important because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM allow for a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can prevent overdiagnosis.
NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms when considering a diagnosis of hypertension and repeating measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg between arms. If the blood pressure is >= 140/90 mmHg, NICE suggests offering ABPM or HBPM to confirm the diagnosis. If the blood pressure is >= 180/120 mmHg, referral for specialist assessment is recommended if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately.
ABPM involves taking at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours and using the average value of at least 14 measurements. If ABPM is not tolerated, HBPM should be offered. HBPM involves taking two consecutive measurements at least 1 minute apart, twice daily for at least 4 days, and using the average value of all remaining measurements.
Interpreting the results of ABPM/HBPM is important for determining treatment. If the average blood pressure is >= 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension), treatment may be considered for patients under 80 years of age with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. In 2019, NICE also recommended considering antihypertensive drug treatment for adults under 60 with stage 1 hypertension and an estimated 10-year risk below 10%. If the average blood pressure is >= 150/95 mmHg (stage 2 hypertension), drug treatment should be offered regardless of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of pain, redness, and blurring of vision in his left eye. Upon fundoscopy, a combination of white and red retinal lesions was observed, indicating chorioretinitis. What is the essential test that must be performed to determine the underlying cause of chorioretinitis in this patient?
Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Correct Answer: HIV test
Explanation:Performing an HIV test is crucial in patients with AIDS, as it is the primary diagnostic tool for identifying the underlying cause. While options 1, 2, and 3 may be necessary as baseline investigations in most patients, they are not sufficient for diagnosing the specific condition in this case.
Causes of Chorioretinitis
Chorioretinitis is a medical condition that affects the retina and choroid, which are the layers of tissue at the back of the eye. There are several causes of chorioretinitis, including syphilis, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It can cause chorioretinitis as part of its secondary stage. Cytomegalovirus is a common virus that can cause chorioretinitis in people with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection that can be contracted from contaminated food or water, and it can cause chorioretinitis in some cases.
Sarcoidosis is a condition that causes inflammation in various parts of the body, including the eyes. It can lead to chorioretinitis in some cases. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs, but it can also spread to other parts of the body, including the eyes. It can cause chorioretinitis as a rare complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
Correct
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After hepatitis B immunisation, which serological marker indicates successful immunisation? Choose ONE option from the list provided.
Your Answer: Anti-HBs antibodies
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B Antibodies and Antigens
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. To diagnose and manage the disease, healthcare providers rely on various serologic tests that detect specific antibodies and antigens in the blood. Here are some key markers and their significance:
Anti-HBs antibodies: These antibodies are produced after a resolved infection or vaccination. They indicate immunity to hepatitis B.
HBs antigen: This antigen is present in the blood during an acute infection. Its detection confirms the diagnosis of hepatitis B.
Anti-HBe antibodies: These antibodies appear during recovery from acute hepatitis B or in inactive carriers. They suggest a lower risk of infectivity.
Anti-HBc antibodies: These antibodies are present in both acute and chronic hepatitis B. Their detection helps distinguish between recent and past infections.
HBe antigen: This antigen is a marker of high infectivity and viral replication. Its presence indicates a higher risk of transmission.
Understanding these markers can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage hepatitis B infections more effectively. It can also help individuals understand their immune status and make informed decisions about vaccination and prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presented to her GP with a 3-week history of fatigue, fever and muscle aches. A new murmur was detected in the mitral area.
Which of the following is the most suitable initial investigation?Your Answer: Blood culture
Explanation:Investigations for Infective Endocarditis: Choosing the Most Appropriate Initial Test
When a patient presents with fever and a new murmur, infective endocarditis is a likely diagnosis until proven otherwise. The most appropriate initial investigation is a blood culture, with three samples taken from different sites before starting antibiotics. Positive blood cultures are a major criterion for diagnosing infective endocarditis.
While other investigations may be useful in aiding diagnosis, they are not as specific as blood cultures. An ECG may show evidence of an aortic root abscess and its possible sequelae, such as AV block. A 24-hour ECG is helpful in diagnosing paroxysmal arrhythmias.
C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are non-specific markers that may be raised in infective endocarditis, but also in other conditions such as infection, malignancy, and pregnancy.
In summary, when suspecting infective endocarditis, the most appropriate initial investigation is a blood culture. Other investigations may be useful in aiding diagnosis, but are not as specific as blood cultures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 6
Correct
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A 21-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of increased thirst throughout the day and difficulty performing everyday tasks. He was recently treated for a UTI with ciprofloxacin. His father has a history of diabetes, but is unsure of the type. He drinks about 8 units of alcohol per week. Fasting plasma glucose is 17.1 mmol/L (3.9-5.6), ketone bodies are 0.4 mmol/L (< 0.6 mmol/L), and C-peptide level is 2.87 ng/mL (0.51-2.72). What is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Type 2 diabetes
Explanation:Distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes can be achieved through the measurement of C-peptide levels and diabetes-specific autoantibodies.
Diagnosis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically diagnosed through symptoms and signs that are similar to those seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), although the diagnosis may take longer. Symptoms of DKA include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and an acetone-smelling breath. To confirm a diagnosis, urine should be dipped for glucose and ketones, and fasting glucose and random glucose levels should be measured. C-peptide levels are typically low in patients with T1DM, and diabetes-specific autoantibodies can be useful in distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD), islet cell antibodies (ICA), insulin autoantibodies (IAA), and insulinoma-associated-2 autoantibodies (IA-2A) are commonly used.
The diagnostic criteria for T1DM include a fasting glucose level greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or a random glucose level greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l if the patient is symptomatic. If the patient is asymptomatic, the criteria must be demonstrated on two separate occasions. To distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes, age of onset, speed of onset, weight of the patient, and symptoms should be considered. NICE recommends further investigation for adults suspected of having T1DM if the clinical presentation includes atypical features. Conversely, for patients suspected of having type 2 diabetes, if they respond well to oral hypoglycaemic agents and are over the age of 40 years, further testing for T1DM may not be necessary.
Example scenarios include a 15-year-old with weight loss and lethargy, a 38-year-old obese man with polyuria, a 52-year-old woman with polyuria and polydipsia, and a 59-year-old obese man with polyuria. The appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 7
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman is being evaluated one week after being diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis in her left leg. She has been administered low-molecular weight heparin for five days and has now been prescribed warfarin. The patient has a medical history of osteoporosis, breast cancer, type 2 diabetes, and depression. Which medication she is currently taking is most likely to have contributed to her increased risk of developing a deep vein thrombosis?
Your Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:Prior to initiating tamoxifen treatment, women should be informed about the elevated risk of VTE, which is one of the most significant side effects of the medication. Additionally, tamoxifen has been linked to an increased risk of endometrial cancer.
Venous Thromboembolism: Common Risk Factors
Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While there are many factors that can increase the risk of VTE, some are more common than others. These include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation. Other general risk factors include advancing age, obesity, family history of VTE, immobility, hospitalization, anaesthesia, and the use of central venous catheters. Underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and antiphospholipid syndrome can also increase the risk of VTE. Additionally, certain medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill, hormone replacement therapy, raloxifene, tamoxifen, and antipsychotics have been shown to be risk factors.
It is important to note that while these factors can increase the risk of VTE, around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is presenting with swelling of her hands and feet and an abnormally wide neck. Upon karyotyping, it is discovered that she has monosomy X and 45X. During physical examination, mild aortic stenosis is observed. What congenital condition is most likely linked to this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Differentiating Coarctation of the Aorta from Other Congenital Heart Diseases
Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart disease that can present in different forms and be associated with various genetic abnormalities. Preductal coarctation of the aorta, which is more common in Turner syndrome, is characterized by aortic stenosis proximal to the insertion of the ductus arteriosus. On the other hand, post-ductal coarctation is the adult type of the disease and is not associated with any genetic abnormalities. Patent ductus arteriosus, another congenital heart disease, is not associated with any genetic abnormalities. Tetralogy of Fallot, which is associated with di George syndrome, and transposition of the great vessels are also congenital heart diseases that can be differentiated from coarctation of the aorta. Understanding the different clinical features and associations of these diseases is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 9
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A 65-year-old man, who was recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation but has not yet started any anticoagulant medication, presents with new-onset weakness on the left side of his body. He is also experiencing difficulty speaking and has lost vision on the left side. He contacts emergency services and is transported to the hospital where he undergoes an urgent CT head and MR angiogram. The results confirm a proximal anterior circulation occlusive stroke that occurred approximately 3 hours ago.
What is the most definitive course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Arrange thrombectomy AND thrombolysis as soon as possible
Explanation:For patients with an acute ischaemic stroke who present within 4.5 hours, it is recommended to arrange both thrombolysis and thrombectomy as soon as possible. This is in line with NICE guidelines, which suggest offering both treatments to patients diagnosed with an acute proximal anterior circulation occlusive stroke confirmed on CT or MR angiogram. Thrombectomy alone can be offered up to 6 hours post-presentation. Giving a stat dose of aspirin is also part of the acute treatment of ischaemic stroke, but it is not a definitive treatment option. Starting apixaban for atrial fibrillation is not appropriate in the initial management of acute ischaemic stroke, as anticoagulant treatment is usually delayed for at least 2 weeks to reduce the risk of haemorrhagic transformation.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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A patient in their early 50s with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic heart failure (NYHA class II) presents for a check-up. Their diabetes is currently managed through diet, but their HbA1c has increased to 64 mmol/mol (8.0%). Which of the following medications should be avoided due to contraindication?
Your Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure
Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management of medications. Some medications can exacerbate heart failure and should be avoided. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil has a negative inotropic effect and should be used with caution. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids can also cause fluid retention and should be used with caution. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin easily outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect and should be avoided. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and to carefully consider their use in patients with heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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