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  • Question 1 - Painful erections along with deviation of the penis to one side when erect...

    Correct

    • Painful erections along with deviation of the penis to one side when erect are seen in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Peyronie’s disease

      Explanation:

      Peyronie’s disease leads to development of fibrous plaques in the penile soft tissue and occurs in 1% of men, most commonly affecting white males above 40 years age. It is a connective tissue disorder named after a French surgeon, François de la Peyronie who first described it. Symptoms include pain, hard lesions on the penis, abnormal curvature of erect penis, narrowing/shortening, painful sexual intercourse and in later stages, erectile dysfunction. 30% cases report fibrosis in other elastic tissues such as Dupuytren’s contractures of the hand. There is likely a genetic predisposition as increased incidence is noted among the male relatives of an affected individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25 year old woman is trapped for several hours after falling down...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old woman is trapped for several hours after falling down a slope while hiking in the winter. She is airlifted to the nearest hospital where she was found to be hypothermic with a core temperature of 29oC. What is the most effective method of raising core temperature?

      Your Answer: Instillation of warmed intra peritoneal fluid

      Explanation:

      Answer: Instillation of warmed intra peritoneal fluid

      Hypothermia describes a state in which the body’s mechanism for temperature regulation is overwhelmed in the face of a cold stressor. Hypothermia is classified as accidental or intentional, primary or secondary, and by the degree of hypothermia.
      Active central rewarming is the fastest and most invasive method of rewarming. It involves use of warm IV fluids, gastric lavage and peritoneal dialysis by warm fluids. Peritoneal dialysis can be safely done with crystalloid dialysate at 40 to 42°C and it raises the body temperature by 4 to 6°C/hour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The specialist registrar, while performing the repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm,...

    Correct

    • The specialist registrar, while performing the repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, decides not to re-implant the inferior mesenteric artery into the repaired abdominal aorta. She says that an anastomotic artery running along the border of the large intestine is good enough to supply blood to the territory of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which vessel is she referring to?

      Your Answer: Marginal

      Explanation:

      The marginal artery is a key anastomosis for the large intestine that runs around the border of the large intestine and is formed by the anastomosis of the branches of the ileocolic artery, right colic artery, middle colic artery, left colic artery and sigmoid artery. If a small artery is occluded, these branches allow blood to reach all segments of the colon.
      The arcades are anastomotic loops between the arteries that provide alternative pathways for blood flow. They are more prominent in the small intestine than the large intestine.
      Arteriae rectae are small branches that run from the marginal artery to reach the colon.
      The ileocolic artery is the branch of the superior mesenteric artery that supplies the caecum, appendix and terminal part of the ileum.
      The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45 year old man who complains of chronic post prandial, burning epigastric...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old man who complains of chronic post prandial, burning epigastric pain undergoes a gastrointestinal endoscopy. There is no apparent mass or haemorrhage and a biopsy is taken from the lower oesophageal mucosa just above the gastro-oesophageal junction. The results reveal the presence of columnar cells interspersed with goblet cells. Which change best explains the above mentioned histology?

      Your Answer: Metaplasia

      Explanation:

      Metaplasia is the transformation of one type of epithelium into another as a means to better cope with external stress on that epithelium. In this case metaplasia occurs due to the inflammation resulting from gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. Dysplasia is disordered cellular growth. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number but not cell type i.e. transformation. Carcinoma is characterized by cellular atypia. Ischaemia would result in necrosis with ulceration. Carcinoma insitu involves dysplastic atypical cells with the basement membrane intact and atrophy would mean a decrease in number of cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 59 year old man presents with septicaemia 48 hours after undergoing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 59 year old man presents with septicaemia 48 hours after undergoing a difficult colonoscopy to assess the extent of a caecal carcinoma. His abdomen is soft and non tender. Blood cultures grow gram positive cocci. Which of the following organisms is likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus bovis

      Explanation:

      Streptococcus bovis (S. bovis) bacteria are associated with colorectal cancer and adenoma. S. bovis is currently named S. gallolyticus. 25-80% of patients with S. bovis/gallolyticus bacteraemia have concomitant colorectal tumours. Colonic neoplasia may arise years after the presentation of bacteraemia or infectious endocarditis of S. bovis/gallolyticus. The presence of S. bovis/gallolyticus bacteraemia and/or endocarditis is also related to the presence of villous or tubular-villous adenomas in the large intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A young lady visited a doctor with complaints of fever and a dull,...

    Correct

    • A young lady visited a doctor with complaints of fever and a dull, continuous pain in the right lumbar region for 6 days. On, enquiry, she recalled passing an increasing number of stools with occasional blood in last few months. Lower gastrointestinal endoscopic biopsy was taken 5 cm proximal to ileocaecal valve which showed transmural inflammation with several granulomas. Tissue section showed the absence of acid-fast bacillus. She denies any history of travel and her stool cultures were negative. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is a chronic, inflammatory disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract but is usually seen in the distal ileum and colon. It is transmural and symptoms include chronic diarrhoea, abdominal pain, fever, anorexia and weight loss. On examination, there is usually abdominal tenderness with a palpable mass or fullness seen occasionally. Rectal bleeding is uncommon (except in isolated colonic involvement) which manifests like ulcerative colitis. Differential diagnosis includes acute appendicitis or intestinal obstruction. 25%-33% patients also have perianal disease in the form of fissure or fistulas.
      Extra intestinal manifestations predominate in children, and include: arthritis, pyrexia, anaemia or growth retardation. Histologically, the disease shows crypt inflammation and abscesses initially, which progress to aphthoid ulcers. These eventually develop into longitudinal and transverse ulcers with interspersed mucosal oedema, leading to the characteristic ‘cobblestoned appearance’. Transmural involvement leads to lymphoedema and thickening of bowel wall and mesentery, leading to extension of mesenteric fat on the serosal surface of bowel and enlargement of mesenteric nodes. There can also be hypertrophy of the muscularis mucosae, fibrosis and stricture formation, which can cause bowel obstruction. Abscesses are common and the disease can also leas to development of fistulas with various other organs, anterior abdominal wall and adjacent muscles. Pathognomonic non-caseating granulomas are seen in 50% cases and they can occur in nodes, peritoneum, liver, and in all layers of the bowel wall. The clinical course does not depend on the presence of granulomas. There is sharp demarcation between the diseased and the normal bowel (skip areas).
      35% cases show only the ileal involvement, whereas in 45% cases, both the ileum and colon are involved with a predilection for right side of colon. 20% cases show only colonic involvement, often sparing the rectum (unlike ulcerative colitis). In occasional cases, there is jejunoileitis – involvement of the entire small bowel. The stomach, duodenum and oesophagus are rarely involved, although there has been microscopic evidence of disease involving the gastric antrum in younger patients. The affected small bowel segments show increased rick of cancer. Moreover, patients with colonic disease show a long-term risk of cancer similar to that seen in ulcerative colitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old woman complains of generalised swelling and particularly puffiness around the eyes...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman complains of generalised swelling and particularly puffiness around the eyes which is worst in the morning. Laboratory studies showed: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) = 30 mg/dl, Creatinine = 2. 8 mg/dl, Albumin = 2. 0 mg/dl, Alanine transaminase (ALT) = 25 U/l, Bilirubin = 1 mg/dl. Urine analysis shows 3+ albumin and no cells.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome is a disorder in which the glomeruli have been damaged, characterized by:
      – Proteinuria (>3.5 g per 1.73 m2 body surface area per day, or > 40 mg per square meter body surface area per hour in children)
      – Hypoalbuminemia (< 2,5 g/dl)
      – Hyperlipidaemia, and oedema (generalized anasarca).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a road traffic...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a road traffic accident. He has sustained a flail chest injury and is hypotensive on arrival at the hospital. Examination shows an elevated jugular venous pressure and auscultation of the heart reveals muffled heart sounds. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with a classical picture of cardiac tamponade, suggested by Beck’s triad: hypotension, raised jugular venous pressure (JVP), and muffled heart sounds.

      Cardiac tamponade is a clinical syndrome caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space, resulting in reduced ventricular filling and subsequent haemodynamic compromise. This condition is a medical emergency, the complications of which include pulmonary oedema, shock, and death.

      Patients with cardiac tamponade have a collection of three medical signs known as Beck’s triad. These are low arterial blood pressure, distended neck veins, and distant, muffled heart sounds. The diagnosis may be further supported by specific ECG changes, chest X-ray, or an ultrasound of the heart. If fluid increases slowly, the pericardial sac can expand to contain more than 2 L; however, if the increase is rapid, as little as 200 mL can result in tamponade.

      Management options may include pericardiocentesis, surgery to create a pericardial window, or a pericardiectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 34-year-old Asian male presents with cervical lymphadenopathy. The patient is suspected to...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old Asian male presents with cervical lymphadenopathy. The patient is suspected to have tuberculous lymphadenopathy. Excision biopsy of one of the nodes showed granulomatous inflammation. Which histopathologic feature is most likely consistent with the diagnosis of tuberculosis?

      Your Answer: Caseation necrosis

      Explanation:

      The granulomas of tuberculosis tend to contain necrosis (caseating tubercles), but non-necrotizing granulomas may also be present. Multinucleated giant cells with nuclei arranged like a horseshoe (Langhans giant cells) and foreign body giant cells are often present, but are not specific for tuberculosis. A definitive diagnosis of tuberculosis requires identification of the causative organism by microbiological cultures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Hormones of the anterior pituitary include which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Hormones of the anterior pituitary include which of the following?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis or pars distalis) synthesizes and secretes:
      1. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)
      2. LH (luteinizing hormone)
      3. Growth hormone
      4. Prolactin
      5. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
      6. TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone).
      The posterior pituitary gland (neurohypophysis) stores and secretes 2 hormones produced by the hypothalamus:
      1. ADH (antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin)
      2. Oxytocin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is most likely to be used in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is most likely to be used in colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer: CHOP

      Correct Answer: FOLFOX

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapy regimens are often identified by acronyms, identifying the agents used in the drug combination. However, the letters used are not consistent across regimens. FOLFOX is a chemotherapy regimen used for the treatment of colorectal cancer, made up of the following drugs: • FOL: fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil or 5-FU) • F: folinic acid (leucovorin) • OX: oxaliplatin (Eloxatin®).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old male falls on the back of his hand. On x-ray, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male falls on the back of his hand. On x-ray, he has a fractured distal radius demonstrating volar displacement of the fracture. What eponymous term is used to describe this?

      Your Answer: Colles'

      Correct Answer: Smith's

      Explanation:

      The Frykman classification of distal radial fractures is based on the AP appearance and encompasses the eponymous entities of Colles fracture, Smith fracture, Barton fracture, chauffeur fracture.

      Colles fractures are very common extra-articular fractures of the distal radius that occur as the result of a fall onto an outstretched hand. They consist of a fracture of the distal radial metaphyseal region with dorsal angulation and impaction, but without the involvement of the articular surface.
      Colles fractures are the most common type of distal radial fracture and are seen in all adult age groups and demographics. They are particularly common in patients with osteoporosis, and as such, they are most frequently seen in elderly women.

      Smith fractures, also known as Goyrand fractures in the French literature 3, are fractures of the distal radius with associated volar angulation of the distal fracture fragment(s). Classically, these fractures are extra-articular transverse fractures and can be thought of like a reverse Colles fracture.
      The term is sometimes used to describe intra-articular fractures with volar displacement (reverse Barton fracture) or juxta-articular fractures

      Barton fractures are fractures of the distal radius. It is also sometimes termed the dorsal type Barton fracture to distinguish it from the volar type or reverse Barton fracture.
      Barton fractures extend through the dorsal aspect to the articular surface but not to the volar aspect. Therefore, it is similar to a Colles fracture. There is usually associated with dorsal subluxation/dislocation of the radiocarpal joint.

      Chauffeur fractures (also known as Hutchinson fractures or backfire fractures) are intra-articular fractures of the radial styloid process. The radial styloid is within the fracture fragment, although the fragment can vary markedly in size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 5-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department because of fever, erythema...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department because of fever, erythema and neck stiffness. The child is also hypotensive upon physical examination. Which is the most likely toxin responsible for this child's condition?

      Your Answer: Endotoxin

      Explanation:

       An endotoxin is part of the bacterial outer membrane, and it is not released until the bacterium is killed by the immune system. The body’s response to an endotoxin can involve severe inflammation. In general, the inflammation process is usually considered beneficial to the infected host, but if the reaction is severe enough, it can lead to sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 38-year-old woman undergoes a subtotal thyroidectomy. Five days postoperatively, the wound becomes...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman undergoes a subtotal thyroidectomy. Five days postoperatively, the wound becomes erythematous and purulent.Which of the following is most likely to be the causative agent?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Surgical site infection (SSI) by Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely cause in this scenario. In the UK from 2010–2011, 23% of wound infections were due to S. aureus. Infection with the other organisms, including Streptococcus pyogenes, are much rarer.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) comprise up to 20% of all healthcare-associated infections and at least 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result. SSIs may occur following a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. The organisms are mostly derived from the patient’s own body.

      SSIs are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
      Some preoperative measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
      1. Shaving the wound using a razor (disposable clipper preferred)
      2. Tissue hypoxia
      3. Delayed administration of prophylactic antibiotics in tourniquet surgery

      SSIs can be prevented by taking certain precautionary steps pre-, intra-, and postoperatively.

      1. Preoperatively:
      a. Do not remove body hair routinely
      b. If hair needs removal, use electrical clippers (razors increase the risk of infection)
      c. Antibiotic prophylaxis if:
      – placement of prosthesis or valve
      – clean-contaminated surgery
      – contaminated surgery

      2. Intraoperatively:
      a. Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
      b. Cover surgical site with dressing

      3. Postoperatively:
      a. Prevention of incisional infection by appropriate cleansing, skin care, and moisture management
      b.Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wound healing by secondary intention

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The circle of Willis is an arterial anastomosis in the base of the...

    Incorrect

    • The circle of Willis is an arterial anastomosis in the base of the brain and is one of the cerebrovascular safeguards in the brain. Where is the circle of Willis contained?

      Your Answer: Cisterna magna

      Correct Answer: Cisterna basalis

      Explanation:

      Cisterns refers to a system of intercommunicating pools formed by the subarachnoid space at the base of the brain and around the brainstem. Cisterna basalis/basal cistern (interpeduncular cistern) is found at the base of the brain between the two temporal lobes and it contains the arterial circle of Willis. The lumbar cistern is contained in the spinal canal while the foramen magna refers to the opening at the base of the skull though which the spinal cord enters into the skull.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - As per the Poiseuille-Hagen formula, doubling the diameter of a vessel will change...

    Incorrect

    • As per the Poiseuille-Hagen formula, doubling the diameter of a vessel will change the resistance of the vessel from 16 peripheral resistance units (PRU) to:

      Your Answer: 4 PRU

      Correct Answer: 1 PRU

      Explanation:

      Poiseuille-Hagen formula for flow in along narrow tube states that F = (PA– PB) × (Π/8) × (1/η) × (r4/l) where F = flow, PA– PB = pressure difference between the two ends of the tube, η = viscosity, r = radius of tube and L = length of tube. Also, flow is given by pressure difference divided by resistance. Hence, R = 8ηL ÷ Πr4. Hence, the resistance of the vessel changes in inverse proportion to the fourth power of the diameter. So, if the diameter of the vessel is increased to twice the original, it will lead to decrease in resistance to one-sixteenth its initial value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm? ...

    Correct

    • Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm?

      Your Answer: Perineal membrane

      Explanation:

      The urogenital fascia is mostly commonly referred to as the perineal membrane. This term refers to an anatomical fibrous membrane in the perineum. It is triangular in shape, and thus at times referred to as the triangular ligament. It is about 4 cm in depth. Its The perineal membrane’s apex is anterior and is separated from the arcuate pubic ligament by an oval opening for the passage of the deep dorsal vein of the penis. The lateral marginas of this triangular ligament are attached on either side to the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium, above the crus penis. Its base faces the rectum, and connects to the central tendinous point of the perineum. The pelvic fascia and Colle’s fascia is fused to the base of this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Increased resistance to flow of blood in cerebral vessels is most likely seen...

    Incorrect

    • Increased resistance to flow of blood in cerebral vessels is most likely seen in:

      Your Answer: Reduction of pa(O2) to < 50 mmHg

      Correct Answer: Elevation in systemic arterial pressure from 100 to 130 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Constant cerebral blood flow is maintained by autoregulation in the brain, which causes an increase in local vascular resistance to offset an increase in blood pressure. There will be an increase in cerebral blood flow (and decrease in resistance to cerebral blood flow) with a decrease in arterial oxygen or an increase in arterial CO2. Similarly, a decrease in viscosity will also increase the blood flow. Due to increased brain metabolism and activity during a seizure, there will also be an increase in the cerebral blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 27-year old lady is shot in the chest. The bullet enters superior...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year old lady is shot in the chest. The bullet enters superior to the upper edge of the clavicle. She had difficulty in breathing which is interpreted by the A&E physician as a likely indicator of a collapsed lung. If that is the case, what portion of the pleura is most likely to have been punctured?

      Your Answer: Mediastinal pleura

      Correct Answer: Cupola

      Explanation:

      The cupola is part of the pleura that extends above the first rib into the root of the lung. Most likely to injured in a stab above the level of the clavicle.
      Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural sac.
      Pulmonary ligament: is a fold of pleura located below the root of the lung.
      Mediastinal pleura: part of the pleura that lines the mediastinal cavity.
      Hilar reflection is the part of the pleura where the visceral pleura of the lung reflects to become continuous with the parietal pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The cranial nerves of the brain provide motor and sensory innervation to the...

    Incorrect

    • The cranial nerves of the brain provide motor and sensory innervation to the structures of the head and neck. Which of the following cranial nerves provide only motor innervation?

      Your Answer: Oculomotor

      Correct Answer: Abducens

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain and the brain stem. They provide sensory, motor or both motor and sensory innervation. Here is a summary of the cranial nerves and their function:
      Olfactory – Purely sensory
      Optic – Sensory
      Oculomotor – Mainly motor
      Trochlear – Motor
      Trigeminal – Both sensory and motor
      Abducens – Mainly motor
      Facial – Both sensory and motor
      vestibulocochlear – Mostly sensory
      Glossopharyngeal – Both sensory and motor
      Vagus – Both sensory and motor
      Accessory – Mainly motor
      Hypoglossal – Mainly motor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An anatomy instructor is giving a demonstration of the right lung. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • An anatomy instructor is giving a demonstration of the right lung. Which of the statements about the right lung made by the demonstrator is correct?

      Your Answer: Its upper lobar bronchus lies behind and below the right pulmonary artery

      Correct Answer: Its upper lobar bronchus lies behind and above the right pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      The root of the lungs on both sides are similar in that the pulmonary veins are anterior and inferior while the bronchus is posterior. However, on the right side, the pulmonary arteries are anterior to the bronchus while on the left side the pulmonary arteries are superior to the bronchus. The lingual is only found on the left lung. The mediastinum is the space in the thorax between the two pleural sacs and does not contain any lung. The right lung, having three lobes, is slightly larger than the left lung. On both sides, the phrenic nerves passes in front of the root of the lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      66
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following malignancies is associated with the development of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic...

    Correct

    • Which of the following malignancies is associated with the development of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Lung cancer

      Explanation:

      Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome is a rare disorder of the neuromuscular junction. It can occur as a solitary diagnosis but it can also occur as a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung cancer, particularly small-cell histology. It can also be associated with other cancers such as lymphoma, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, T-cell leukaemia, non-small-cell lung cancer, prostate cancer and thymoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 29-year-old woman is due to undergo a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman is due to undergo a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following intra-abdominal pressures should typically be set on the gas insufflation system?

      Your Answer: 20 mmHg

      Correct Answer: 10 mmHg

      Explanation:

      A pressure of 10 mmHg should be set on the gas insufflation system.

      Laparoscopic surgery may be performed in a number of body cavities. In some areas, irrigation solutions are preferred. In the abdomen, however, insufflation with carbon dioxide gas is commonly used. The amount of gas delivered is adjusted to maintain a constant intra-abdominal pressure of 12–15 mmHg. Excessive intra-abdominal pressure may reduce venous return and lead to hypotension. Too little insufflation will risk obscuring the surgical view.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 23-year-old male presents with a persistent and unwanted erection that has been...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old male presents with a persistent and unwanted erection that has been present for the previous 7 hours. On examination, the penis is rigid and tender. Aspiration of blood from the corpus cavernosa shows dark blood. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer: Aspirate further blood from the corpus cavernosa in an attempt to decompress

      Explanation:

      Priapism is defined as a prolonged penile erection lasting for >4 h in the absence of sexual stimulation and remains despite orgasm.

      The classification of priapism is conventionally divided into three main groups. The commonest classification is into non‐ischaemic (high flow), ischaemic (low flow), and stuttering (recurrent) subtypes.

      The EAU guidelines refer to the subtypes as ischaemic (low flow, veno‐occlusive) and arterial (high flow, non‐ischaemic). Of these, ischaemic priapism is the commonest, with refractory cases at risk of smooth muscle necrosis in the corpus cavernosum leading to sequelae of corporal fibrosis and erectile dysfunction (ED).

      One of the key considerations in the management of priapism is the duration of the erection at presentation.
      The EAU guidelines do differentiate the periods such that the intervention varies accordingly, which is particularly important for prolonged episodes that are refractory to pharmacological interventions and allow a step‐wise intervention.

      Ischaemic priapism is a medical emergency as the progressive ischaemia within the cavernosal tissue is associated with time‐dependent changes in the corporal metabolic environment, which eventually leads to smooth muscle necrosis. As the duration of the penile erection becomes pathologically prolonged, as in the case of low‐flow priapism, the partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) progressively falls as the closed compartment prevents replenishment of stagnant blood with freshly oxygenated arterial blood.
      Investigations using corporal blood aspiration, that in itself can be a therapeutic intervention leading to partial or complete penile detumescence, helps to differentiate ischaemic from non‐ischaemic priapism subtypes based on the pO2, pCO2 and pH levels. The AUA guidelines state that typically the blood gas analysis would give a pO2 of <30 mmHg and pCO2 of >60 mmHg and a pH of <7.25 in ischaemic priapism, whereas non‐ischaemic blood gas analysis would show values similar to venous blood. Once the diagnosis of priapism has been made, the initial management involves corporal blood aspiration followed by instillation of α‐agonists directly into the corpus cavernosum.
      The EAU guidelines recommend several possible agents for intracavernosal injection, as well as oral terbutaline after intracavernosal injection.
      Phenylephrine – 200 μg every 3–5 min to a maximum of 1 mg within 1 h.
      Etilephrine – 2.5 mg diluted in 1–2 mL saline.
      Adrenaline – 2 mL of 1/100 000 solution given up to 5 times in a 20‐min period.
      Methylene blue – 50–100 mg intracavernosal injection followed by aspiration and compression.

      Shunt surgery allows diversion of blood from the corpus cavernosum into another area such as the corpus spongiosum (glans or urethra) or the venous system (saphenous vein). Both the EAU and AUA guidelines recommend surgical intervention using firstly distal shunts and then proximal shunts in cases where aspiration and instillation of pharmacological agents fails to achieve penile detumescence. The EAU guidelines recommend that distal shunts should be attempted before proximal shunts, although the specific technique is left to the individual surgeon’s preference. The EAU guidelines also define a time point (36 h) when shunt surgery is likely to be ineffective in maintaining long‐term erectile function and may serve to reduce pain only. This is an important consideration when contemplating early penile prosthesis placement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be...

    Incorrect

    • Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be unaffected?

      Your Answer: L4

      Correct Answer: S3

      Explanation:

      The inferior gluteal nerve arises from the dorsal divisions of the fifth lumbar and first and second sacral nerves. According to this fact any lesion at or below the S3 will not affect the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 64 year old man has been in ICU with ARDS for a...

    Correct

    • A 64 year old man has been in ICU with ARDS for a week following acute pancreatitis. He is being mechanically ventilated. Which of the following is the best option for maintenance of the patency of his airway?

      Your Answer: Tracheostomy

      Explanation:

      Tracheostomy is an operative procedure that creates a surgical airway in the cervical trachea. It is most often performed in patients who have had difficulty weaning off a ventilator, followed by those who have suffered trauma or a catastrophic neurologic insult. High-flow oxygen via tracheostomy may reduce the inspiratory effort and enhance tidal volume by delivering high-flow oxygen and facilitate weaning from prolonged mechanical ventilation in patients with restrictive pulmonary dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the...

    Correct

    • The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

      Explanation:

      Three main types of variations in the relations of the occipital artery and the hypoglossal nerve are found according to the level at which the nerve crosses the external carotid artery and the point of origin of the occipital artery. In Type I, the hypoglossal nerve crosses the external carotid artery inferior to the origin of the occipital artery; in Type II, the nerve crosses the external carotid artery at the level of origin of the occipital artery; and in Type III, it crosses superior to that level. In Type III the occipital artery makes a loop around the hypoglossal nerve and is in a position to pull and exert pressure on the nerve. This possibility should be taken into consideration in the diagnosis of peripheral paresis or paralysis of the tongue and during surgery in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Depression of the normal coagulation system and excessive bleeding after surgery can occur...

    Correct

    • Depression of the normal coagulation system and excessive bleeding after surgery can occur in which of the following medical conditions?

      Your Answer: Liver disease

      Explanation:

      As most of the coagulation factors are synthesized in the liver, liver diseases like hepatitis or cirrhosis will depress the coagulation system. Vitamin K deficiency can also decrease the production of vitamin K dependent coagulation factors VII, XI, X and prothrombin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - An alcoholic patient was found to have hypomagnesaemia on blood tests. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • An alcoholic patient was found to have hypomagnesaemia on blood tests. Which of the following clinical features will have prompted the doctor to check the serum magnesium level in this patient?

      Your Answer: Weakness

      Correct Answer: Seizures

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterised by a low level of magnesium in the blood. The normal range for serum magnesium level is 0.75-1.05 mmol/l. In hypomagnesaemia serum levels of magnesium are less than 0.75 mmol/l. The cardiovascular and nervous systems are the most commonly affected. Neuromuscular manifestations include symptoms like tremor, tetany, weakness, apathy, delirium, a positive Chvostek and Trousseau sign, nystagmus and seizures. Cardiovascular manifestations include electrocardiographic abnormalities and arrhythmias e.g. ventricular fibrillation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 14 year old boy is suspected of having CSF rhinorrhoea after sustaining...

    Correct

    • A 14 year old boy is suspected of having CSF rhinorrhoea after sustaining a basal skull fracture. Which laboratory test would be able to accurately detect the presence of CSF?

      Your Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assay

      Explanation:

      Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assay

      Beta-2-transferrin is a protein found only in CSF and perilymph. Since 1979, beta-2-transferrin has been used extensively by otolaryngologists in the diagnosis of CSF rhinorrhoea and skull-base cerebrospinal fluid fistulas. With sensitivity of 94% – 100%, and specificity of 98% – 100%, this assay has become the gold standard in detection of CSF leakage. CSF rhinorrhoea is characterized by clear or xanthochromic watery rhinorrhoea that may not become apparent until nasal packing is removed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      17.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Sciences (12/21) 57%
Pathology (6/8) 75%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (3/3) 100%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (5/7) 71%
Anatomy (3/8) 38%
Clinical Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Physiology (3/5) 60%
Generic Surgical Topics (1/2) 50%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Surgical Technique And Technology (0/1) 0%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Post-operative Management And Critical Care (1/1) 100%
Passmed