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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presented to her GP with a grey, thin, creamy vaginal discharge.
Which of the following is the best verbal advice to give her?Your Answer: Yoghurt containing live bacteria may relieve symptoms
Correct Answer: Avoid perfumed soaps
Explanation:Bacterial Vaginosis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Diagnosis
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by an overgrowth of bacteria. It is important for patients to understand the symptoms, risk factors, and diagnosis of BV in order to properly manage and treat the condition.
Symptoms of BV include vaginal odor, increased vaginal discharge, vulvar irritation, and rarely, dysuria or dyspareunia. Risk factors for BV include recent antibiotic use, decreased estrogen production, presence of an intrauterine device, douching, and sexual activity that could lead to transmission.
Physical findings of BV include grey, thin, and homogeneous vaginal discharge that adheres to the vaginal mucosa, increased light reflex of the vaginal walls, and typically little or no evidence of inflammation. Diagnosis of BV is made through microscopic examination of the discharge, with demonstration of three of the following four Amsel criteria: clue cells on a saline smear, a pH >4.5, characteristic discharge, and a positive whiff test.
Patients with BV should be advised to wash only with hypoallergenic bar soaps or no soap at all, avoid liquid soaps, body washes, and perfumed soaps, and not to douche or use over-the-counter vaginal hygiene products. While studies have shown inconsistent results, some patients may find relief from symptoms by using yogurt containing live bacteria.
It is important to properly manage and treat BV, as long-standing or untreated cases may lead to more serious complications such as endometritis, salpingitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, or pregnancy complications. However, with proper care and attention, the prognosis for uncomplicated cases of BV is generally excellent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Correct
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A 7-month-old child has sensorineural deafness and a ventricular septal defect. Her mother gives a history of medication for acne, which was stopped when she realised she was pregnant.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause these defects?Your Answer: Isotretinoin
Explanation:Acne Medications: Risks and Benefits
Acne is a common skin condition that affects many people, and there are several medications available to treat it. However, each medication has its own risks and benefits that should be carefully considered before use. Here are some important things to know about the most commonly used acne medications:
Isotretinoin: This medication is highly effective against acne, but it is also highly teratogenic, meaning it can cause birth defects if taken by women during pregnancy or even a short time before conception. Women who take isotretinoin must use effective contraception before, during, and after treatment, and must be monitored closely for pregnancy. Each prescription is limited to a 30-day supply and must be dispensed within 7 days of the prescription date.
Cyproterone acetate: This medication is an antiandrogen and progestogen used to treat androgen-related conditions such as acne. Its most serious side effect is direct hepatic toxicity, but it is not known to be teratogenic.
Oxytetracycline and minocycline: These broad-spectrum tetracycline antibiotics are commonly used to treat acne, but they should be avoided during pregnancy due to potential effects on skeletal development. Minocycline has a broader spectrum than oxytetracycline, but both can cause gastrointestinal and photosensitive allergic reactions.
Clindamycin: This antibiotic can also be used to treat acne, but it can cause diarrhea and rare but serious side effects such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, it is safe for use during pregnancy.
In conclusion, while acne medications can be effective in treating the condition, it is important to carefully consider the risks and benefits of each medication before use, especially for women who are pregnant or may become pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man complains of recurring headaches. He experiences these headaches about 2-3 times per month. The headaches are severe and occur on the right side of his head. They are throbbing in nature and last for approximately 8-12 hours. During these episodes, he finds it difficult to continue working and prefers to rest in a dark room. Paracetamol has not been effective in relieving his symptoms. What medication should be prescribed to decrease the frequency of these headaches?
Your Answer: Zolmitriptan
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:For the acute treatment of migraine, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended. Prophylaxis options include topiramate or propranolol. In this case, the patient’s history is consistent with migraine and prophylaxis with propranolol or topiramate should be considered. Zolmitriptan is not indicated for prophylaxis, but rather for acute treatment of migraine.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with back pain that shoots down her right leg, which she experienced suddenly while picking up her child. During examination, she can only raise her right leg to 30 degrees due to shooting pains down her leg. There is reduced sensation on the dorsum of her right foot, especially around the big toe, and weak foot dorsiflexion. The ankle and knee reflexes seem intact, and a diagnosis of disc prolapse is suspected. Which nerve root is most likely affected?
Your Answer: S1
Correct Answer: L5
Explanation:The characteristics of a L5 lesion include the absence of dorsiflexion in the foot and a lack of sensation on the top of the foot.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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In the UK, what is the primary reason for irreversible blindness in individuals over the age of 65?
Your Answer: Diabetic retinopathy
Correct Answer: Macular degeneration
Explanation:Common Eye Diseases and Conditions
Age-related macular degeneration, diabetic retinopathy, glaucoma, senile cataract, and corneal abrasion are some of the most common eye diseases and conditions that affect people worldwide.
Macular Degeneration
Macular degeneration is a leading cause of irreversible vision loss in developed countries. The non-exudative (dry) form of the disease is the most common, characterized by the presence of drusen in the macular region. Dry AMD progresses slowly over decades, while the exudative (wet) form can cause rapid central visual loss and distortion.
Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a complication of diabetes that can lead to blindness. It is the most common cause of new blindness in people aged 25-64 years globally. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy is rare within the first decade of a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus, but increases with disease duration.
Glaucoma
Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that damage the optic nerve and can cause specific visual field defects over time. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type, and it is described as a chronic, progressive, and irreversible optic neuropathy. Glaucoma is the second leading cause of irreversible blindness in developed countries.
Senile Cataract
Senile cataract is an age-related disease that causes gradual progressive thickening of the lens of the eye. It is the world’s leading cause of treatable blindness.
Corneal Abrasion
Corneal abrasion is a common eye injury that occurs due to a disruption in the integrity of the corneal epithelium or because of physical external forces. Most people recover fully from minor corneal abrasions, but deeper scratches can cause corneal infections, erosion, or scarring, leading to long-term vision problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman presents with lethargy and pruritus. She reports having a normal appetite and no weight loss. Upon examination, there is no clinical jaundice or organomegaly. The following blood test results are obtained:
- Hb: 12.8 g/dl
- Platelets: 188 * 109/l
- WBC: 6.7 * 109/l
- Na+: 140 mmol/l
- K+: 3.9 mmol/l
- Urea: 6.2 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 68 ”mol/l
- Bilirubin: 30 ”mol/l
- ALP: 231 u/l
- ALT: 38 u/l
- ÎłGT: 367 u/l
- Albumin: 39 g/l
What additional test is most likely to lead to a diagnosis?Your Answer: Ceruloplasmin
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder
Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.
This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.
The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with nausea and vomiting, with associated lethargy. He has mild asthma which is well controlled with a steroid inhaler but has no other medical history of note. He does not smoke but drinks up to 30 units of alcohol a week, mostly on the weekends.
Observations are as follows: Temperature is 37.2 oC, blood pressure is 108/68 mmHg, heart rate is 92 bpm and regular.
On examination, the patient appears to be clinically dehydrated, but there are no other abnormalities noted.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal Values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 145 g/l 135â175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.2 Ă 109/l 4.0â11.0 Ă 109/l
Urea 9.2 mmol/l 2.5â6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 178 ”mol/l
(bloods carried out one year
previously showed a creatinine
of 76) 50â120 ”mol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5â5.0 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 131 mmol/l 135â145 mmol/l
Which of the following is most suggestive of acute kidney injury rather than chronic renal failure?Your Answer: Raised parathyroid hormone levels
Correct Answer: Oliguria
Explanation:Understanding the Signs and Symptoms of Acute and Chronic Renal Failure
Renal failure can be difficult to diagnose, especially when there are no previous urea and electrolyte levels available for comparison. However, there are certain signs and symptoms that can indicate whether the condition is acute or chronic.
Acute renal failure may present with acute lethargy/fatigue, dehydration, shortness of breath, nausea and vomiting, oliguria, acute onset peripheral edema/edema of the face, confusion, seizures, and coma. On the other hand, chronic renal failure may manifest as anemia, pruritus, long-standing fatigue, weight loss, reduced appetite, and a history of underlying medical conditions such as diabetes or hypertension.
Oliguria, or reduced urine output, is a hallmark of renal failure and can be an early sign of acute renal injury. Nocturia, or increased urination at night, is often found in patients with chronic kidney disease. Peripheral neuropathy is likely to be present in patients with chronic renal failure due to an underlying history of diabetes. Raised parathyroid hormone levels are more commonly found in chronic renal failure, secondary to low calcium levels associated with the condition. Small kidneys are also seen in chronic renal failure, as long-standing conditions affecting the kidney can cause atrophy and reduce function, leading to progressive renal failure. The kidneys are more likely to be of normal size in acute injury.
In summary, understanding the signs and symptoms of acute and chronic renal failure can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the frequency of the cervical cancer screening program in England for women over 50 years old?
Your Answer: 20-49 years - 3-yearly screening; 50-69 years - 5-yearly screening
Correct Answer: 25-49 years - 3-yearly screening; 50-64 years - 5-yearly screening
Explanation:In England, cervical cancer screening is recommended every 3 years for women aged 25-49 and every 5 years for women aged 50-64.
Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK
Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect pre-malignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that around 15% of cervical adenocarcinomas are frequently undetected by screening.
The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification, and the NHS has now moved to an HPV first system. This means that a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. However, cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.
In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months post-partum, unless there are missed screenings or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.
It is recommended to take a cervical smear around mid-cycle, although there is limited evidence to support this advice. Overall, the UK’s cervical cancer screening program is an essential tool in preventing cervical cancer and promoting women’s health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the NHS Breast Cancer Screening Programme is accurate?
Your Answer: Women with a family history of cervical cancer should be offered more regular and/or earlier screening
Correct Answer: Women are screened every 3 years
Explanation:Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme. Mammograms are provided every three years, and women over 70 years are encouraged to make their own appointments. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually.
For those with familial breast cancer, NICE guidelines recommend referral if there is a family history of breast cancer with any of the following: diagnosis before age 40, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, sarcoma in a relative under 45 years, glioma or childhood adrenal cortical carcinomas, complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age, or paternal history of breast cancer with two or more relatives on the father’s side. Women at increased risk due to family history may be offered screening at a younger age. Referral to a breast clinic is recommended for those with a first-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer before age 40, a first-degree male relative with breast cancer, a first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer before age 50, two first-degree relatives or one first-degree and one second-degree relative with breast cancer, or a first- or second-degree relative with breast and ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A 6-month-old infant presents to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. The child has epicanthic folds and a single palmar crease. Genetic testing confirms an autosomal trisomy. What is the most frequent cardiac anomaly observed in infants with this disorder?
Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:Cardiac Abnormalities in Down Syndrome Patients
Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that often presents with physical characteristics such as epicanthic folds, single creases, and an autosomal trisomy. It is common for children with Down syndrome to have congenital heart disease, with 42% of the population affected. Of those, 23% have multiple cardiac abnormalities. The most prevalent cardiac abnormality, found in 37% of cases, is a complete atrioventricular septal defect. Ventricular septal defects are the second most common, affecting 30% of patients. Mitral valve disorders occur in up to 40% of Down syndrome patients, but mitral stenosis is less common. Atrial septal defects affect 15% of patients, while patent ductus arteriosus affects only 2%. Understanding the prevalence of these cardiac abnormalities in Down syndrome patients is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment after undergoing private health screening. The patient has been advised to seek medical attention regarding her thyroid function tests (TFTs).
TSH levels are at 9.2 mU/L and free thyroxine levels are at 14 pmol/L. Despite her age, the patient is currently in good health and shows no symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?Your Answer: Order a thyroid ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Repeat TFTs in a few months time
Explanation:According to the guidelines recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, this patient with subclinical hypothyroidism should be monitored at present based on both TSH and age criteria.
Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism
Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men, with a 2-5% chance per year. This risk is further increased if thyroid autoantibodies are present.
Not all patients with subclinical hypothyroidism require treatment, and guidelines have been produced by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS) to help determine when treatment is necessary. If the TSH level is above 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, levothyroxine may be offered. If the TSH level is between 5.5 – 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be considered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms of hypothyroidism. For older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients may simply have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.
In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and consideration of treatment options based on individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 12
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department at 37 weeks gestation with blurred vision and severe headache. She reports upper abdominal pain for the last few hours. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg and urinalysis shows proteinuria. While taking her medical history, she experiences a tonic-clonic seizure. What is the appropriate pharmacological treatment to stop this seizure?
Your Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulfate
Explanation:When a seizure is suspected to be caused by eclampsia, the recommended first-line treatment is intravenous magnesium sulfate, given as a loading dose followed by an infusion. In the case of convulsive status epilepticus, intravenous lorazepam is the preferred in-hospital treatment, with phenytoin as an alternative if lorazepam is ineffective. Glucose may be administered if hypoglycemia is a contributing factor. It is not appropriate to administer oral medications to a patient with a decreased level of consciousness. (Adapted from BMJ Best Practice – Pre-eclampsia)
Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment
Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.
In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the emergency department with fever, bilateral leg weakness, and back pain. The medical team suspects a spinal epidural abscess. What imaging test is necessary to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: MRI lumbar/sacral spine
Correct Answer: MRI whole spine
Explanation:When there is suspicion of a spinal epidural abscess, a complete MRI of the spine is necessary to detect any skip lesions.
To accurately diagnose a spinal epidural abscess, a full spine MRI is essential. Neither plain x-rays nor CT scans can effectively identify the abscess. It is necessary to scan the entire spine, not just the suspected area, as there may be multiple separate abscesses that are not connected. The MRI should be requested and performed as soon as possible.
Understanding Spinal Epidural Abscess
A spinal epidural abscess (SEA) is a serious condition that occurs when pus collects in the spinal epidural space, which is the area surrounding the spinal cord. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent further damage to the spinal cord. SEA can be caused by bacteria that enters the spinal epidural space through contiguous spread from adjacent structures, haematogenous spread from concomitant infection, or direct infection. Patients with immunosuppression are at a higher risk of developing SEA. The most common causative micro-organism is Staphylococcus aureus. Symptoms of SEA include fever, back pain, and focal neurological deficits according to the segment of the cord affected.
To diagnose SEA, doctors may perform blood tests, blood cultures, and an infection screen. An MRI of the whole spine is necessary to identify the extent of the abscess. If the primary source of infection is not clear, further investigations may be required, such as echocardiography and dental x-rays. Treatment for SEA involves a long-term course of antibiotics, which may be refined based on culture results. Patients with large or compressive abscesses, significant or progressive neurological deficits, or those who are not responding to antibiotics alone may require surgical evacuation of the abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Correct
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As you review the blood results of a 65-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension, you notice that a HbA1c level was requested as part of the routine work-up. What HbA1c range would be indicative of prediabetes?
Your Answer: 42-47 mmol/mol (6.0-6.4%)
Explanation:Understanding Prediabetes and Impaired Glucose Regulation
Prediabetes is a term used to describe impaired glucose levels that are higher than normal but not yet high enough to be diagnosed as diabetes mellitus. This includes individuals with impaired fasting glucose (IFG) or impaired glucose tolerance (IGT). Diabetes UK estimates that around 1 in 7 adults in the UK have prediabetes, and many of them will eventually develop type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), putting them at risk of microvascular and macrovascular complications.
To identify patients with prediabetes, NICE recommends using a validated computer-based risk assessment tool for adults aged 40 and over, people of South Asian and Chinese descent aged 25-39, and adults with conditions that increase the risk of T2DM. Patients identified as high risk should have a blood sample taken, and a fasting plasma glucose of 6.1-6.9 mmol/l or an HbA1c level of 42-47 mmol/mol (6.0-6.4%) indicates high risk.
Lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, increased exercise, and changes in diet are recommended for managing prediabetes. NICE also recommends metformin for adults at high risk who are still progressing towards T2DM despite lifestyle changes.
There are two main types of impaired glucose regulation: impaired fasting glucose (IFG) and impaired glucose tolerance (IGT). IFG is due to hepatic insulin resistance, while IGT is due to muscle insulin resistance. Patients with IGT are more likely to develop T2DM and cardiovascular disease than those with IFG.
To rule out a diagnosis of diabetes, people with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person doesn’t have diabetes but does have IGT. It is important to understand prediabetes and impaired glucose regulation to prevent the progression to T2DM and its associated complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old-man comes to the emergency department with a 10-hour history of colicky abdominal pain, abdominal distension, constipation and an inability to pass flatus. He reports feeling nauseous but has not vomited.
What should not be done in the management of this patient?Your Answer: IV ondansetron
Correct Answer: IV metoclopramide
Explanation:Metoclopramide should be avoided in cases of bowel obstruction due to its prokinetic properties that can worsen the condition and even lead to perforation. Moclobemide, an antidepressant, may cause gastrointestinal upset but is not contraindicated in suspected bowel obstruction. Conservative management for bowel obstruction includes NG tube insertion, catheterization, and IV fluid resuscitation. Ondansetron, an antiemetic, can be useful in managing nausea. Opioid-based analgesia, such as pethidine and diamorphine, is effective in relieving obstruction-related pain despite its potential to reduce bowel motility. Intravenous fluids, such as Hartmann’s solution, are crucial in countering hypovolemia caused by fluid hypersecretion into the obstructed bowel lumen.
Metoclopramide is a medication that is commonly used to manage nausea. It works by blocking D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, which helps to alleviate feelings of sickness. In addition to its antiemetic properties, metoclopramide also has other uses, such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis caused by diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics to treat migraines, which can cause gastroparesis and slow the absorption of pain medication.
However, metoclopramide can have some adverse effects, such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. These side effects are particularly problematic in children and young adults. It is important to note that metoclopramide should not be used in cases of bowel obstruction, but it may be helpful in cases of paralytic ileus.
Although metoclopramide primarily works as a D2 receptor antagonist, its mechanism of action is quite complex. It also acts as a mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 receptor agonist. The antiemetic effects of metoclopramide are due to its D2 receptor antagonist activity in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, while its gastroprokinetic effects are mediated by both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. At higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist activity also comes into play.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presented with swelling in her feet and mentioned that she uses two pillows while sleeping. What is the most suitable initial investigation?
Your Answer: Plasma NT-proBNP
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Suspected Heart Failure
When a patient presents with symptoms of peripheral edema and orthopnea, heart failure is a likely diagnosis. To confirm this, NICE guidelines recommend using N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) as an initial investigation. A level below 400 ng/litre makes heart failure unlikely, while levels between 400 and 2,000 ng/litre require referral for specialist assessment within 6 weeks. Levels above 2,000 ng/litre require referral within 2 weeks. An echocardiogram should be performed to quantify ventricular function if the ECG and NT-proBNP are abnormal. Blood cultures can also be useful for detecting systemic infection or endocarditis. An exercise tolerance test is more appropriate for suspected coronary artery disease. Finally, rheumatoid factor is a non-specific test for autoimmune conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 17
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents to the Haematology Clinic with symptoms of bone pain and anaemia. The medical team suspects multiple myeloma (MM) and orders a set of blood tests, including a full blood count, urea, serum creatinine and electrolytes, serum calcium, albumin, serum protein electrophoresis, serum-free light-chain assay, and serum beta-2 microglobulin. The team also plans to perform an imaging investigation to look for osteolytic lesions. What initial scan should be ordered?
Your Answer: Whole-body low-dose CT (WBLD-CT)
Explanation:When investigating suspected multiple myeloma (MM), it is crucial to use whole-body low-dose CT (WBLD-CT) imaging. This method is more effective than traditional radiology in detecting lytic lesions and should be the first option if available. Lesions with a diameter of 5mm or more are considered positive. If WBLD-CT and MRI fail to show lesions with a strong clinical indication, an FDG-PET or FDG-PET-CT can be used to detect bone lesions. During treatment follow-up, an FDG-PET-CT can detect active lesions and provide prognostic information. While a skeletal survey (X-ray) is less sensitive than WBLD-CT, it can still be useful. If suspicion remains high for MM despite negative WBLD-CT or skeletal survey results, a whole-body MRI should be performed. This method can detect focal lesions and bone marrow infiltration and may also be of prognostic value in asymptomatic patients. The presence of focal lesions is a strong predictor of progression to symptomatic MM.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman comes in for her routine medical check-up before starting her new job as a soccer player. She reports feeling healthy and has no notable medical history in her family.
During the physical examination, her lungs sound clear and her heart has a normal rhythm. Her pulse rate is 62 beats per minute. However, her ECG reveals sinus rhythm with a prolonged PR interval of 215ms.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing her ECG results?Your Answer: No intervention needed
Explanation:First-degree heart block is a common occurrence in athletes and does not require any intervention. This patient’s ECG shows a prolonged PR interval, which is the defining characteristic of first-degree heart block. As it is a normal variant, there is no need for any referral or further investigations. The patient can continue to play football without any concerns.
Normal Variants in Athlete ECGs
Athletes may exhibit certain ECG changes that are considered normal variants. These include sinus bradycardia, junctional rhythm, first degree heart block, and Mobitz type 1 (Wenckebach phenomenon). Sinus bradycardia refers to a slower than normal heart rate originating from the sinus node, which is the natural pacemaker of the heart. Junctional rhythm occurs when the heart’s electrical impulses originate from the junction between the atria and ventricles, rather than the sinus node. First degree heart block is a delay in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles, resulting in a prolonged PR interval on the ECG. Mobitz type 1, also known as Wenckebach phenomenon, is a type of heart block where there is a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped. These ECG changes are considered normal in athletes and do not necessarily indicate any underlying cardiac pathology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old overweight woman comes to the clinic worried about a lump in her right breast. She was in a car accident as a passenger two weeks ago and suffered a minor neck injury while wearing her seat belt. During the examination, a sizable, hard lump with some skin discoloration is discovered.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Breast abscess
Correct Answer: Fat necrosis
Explanation:Fat necrosis is a condition where local fat undergoes saponification, resulting in a benign inflammatory process. It is becoming more common due to breast-conserving surgery and mammoplasty procedures. Trauma or nodular panniculitis are common causes, with trauma being the most frequent. It is more prevalent in women with large breasts and tends to occur in the subareolar and periareolar regions. The breast mass is usually firm, round, and painless, but there may be a single or multiple masses. It may be tender or painful in some cases, and the skin around the lump may be red, bruised, or dimpled. A biopsy may be necessary to differentiate it from breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm erythematous skin lesion on her upper arm after experiencing a high fever of 39ÂșC, headache, and vomiting for the past 48 hours. A skin biopsy revealed a beta-haemolytic group A streptococcal infection in the upper dermis. What is the most appropriate term to describe this condition?
Your Answer: Erysipelas
Explanation:Erysipelas is mainly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, which belongs to the beta-haemolytic group A streptococci. The rash is a result of an endotoxin produced by the bacteria, rather than the bacteria itself. The absence of subcutaneous tissue involvement is a distinguishing feature of erysipelas.
Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections
Respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, skin infections, ear, nose, and throat infections, genital infections, and gastrointestinal infections are some of the most common infections that require antibiotic treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidelines for the appropriate use of antibiotics for these infections.
For respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis, community-acquired pneumonia, and hospital-acquired pneumonia, antibiotics such as amoxicillin, tetracycline, clarithromycin, co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, piperacillin with tazobactam, ceftazidime, or ciprofloxacin are recommended depending on the severity and type of infection.
For urinary tract infections, lower urinary tract infections can be treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis requires broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis can be treated with quinolone or trimethoprim.
Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, erysipelas, and animal or human bites require antibiotics such as topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, erythromycin, doxycycline, clarithromycin, or metronidazole depending on the severity and type of infection.
Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, otitis media, otitis externa, periapical or periodontal abscess, and acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis require antibiotics such as phenoxymethylpenicillin, amoxicillin, erythromycin, or flucloxacillin depending on the severity and type of infection.
Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, pelvic inflammatory disease, syphilis, and bacterial vaginosis require antibiotics such as intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline, azithromycin, ofloxacin, metronidazole, or benzathine benzylpenicillin depending on the severity and type of infection.
Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis require antibiotics such as oral vancomycin, oral fidaxomicin, clarithrom
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 21
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman returns from a holiday in Kenya with symptoms of foul-smelling loose stools, abdominal cramps and frequent flatulence. She has had the symptoms for five days when she presents to her General Practitioner for advice. A diagnosis of giardiasis is suspected.
What would be the most useful investigation to request for this patient?Your Answer: Send stool culture for microscopy and culture (MC+S)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Giardiasis: Which Ones Are Necessary?
Giardiasis is a common parasitic infection that can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and bloating. If a patient presents with these symptoms and has a history of recent foreign travel, giardiasis should be considered as a possible cause. Here are some diagnostic tests that may be ordered to confirm the diagnosis:
Stool Culture for Microscopy and Culture (MC+S)
This test is specific for detecting giardia and other potential parasitic causes of gastrointestinal symptoms. It involves sending three stool specimens 2-3 days apart to a laboratory for analysis.Colonoscopy
A colonoscopy is not necessary to diagnose giardiasis, as the patient’s symptoms and travel history are usually sufficient to suggest the diagnosis. A stool culture is a more appropriate test.Duodenal Biopsy
A duodenal biopsy is not necessary to diagnose giardiasis, as it is an invasive test that is typically reserved for investigating malabsorption, iron-deficiency anaemia, or neoplasia.Full Blood Count
A full blood count is not useful for diagnosing giardiasis, as it typically does not cause peripheral leukocytosis or eosinophilia.In summary, a stool culture for MC+S is the most appropriate test for diagnosing giardiasis in a patient with gastrointestinal symptoms and a history of recent foreign travel. Other tests, such as colonoscopy, duodenal biopsy, and full blood count, are not necessary for making the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 22
Correct
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A 26-month-old child has a short history of runny nose and fever. She is staying with her grandparents, who believe in sweating out a fever and wrap her up well under several blankets on the sofa between them. She suddenly cries out and then has a single grand mal seizure lasting two minutes, during which she is incontinent of urine. A couple of minutes after the episode she is completely well. Examination reveals no focal neurological signs. Development to date has been normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Febrile convulsion
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Seizures in Children: A Case Study
A child presents with a seizure following a fever. The differential diagnosis includes febrile convulsion, myoclonic epilepsy, bacterial meningitis, viral encephalitis, and generalised epilepsy syndrome. However, the absence of intracranial infection and other neurological features suggests that febrile convulsion is the most likely diagnosis. Febrile convulsions are common in children aged 3 months to 5 years and are associated with viral illnesses. They are generalised, last less than 15 minutes, and do not recur within 24 hours. Children with febrile seizures have no increased mortality risk but may have a slightly increased risk of epilepsy in later life. Other possible causes of seizures, such as breath-holding attacks or reflex anoxic seizures, should also be considered. Education on managing fevers and keeping the child comfortable during illnesses should be provided to the family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 23-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with a nodular rash over his shins, which was dusky blue in appearance at first but has now faded to a bruise-like appearance. His past history of note includes intermittent diarrhoea, occasionally with blood. There is no other past history of note. On examination, there is minor tenderness on the left side of his abdomen, and proctoscopy reveals moderate inflammation of the rectum. Blood testing reveals a raised C-reactive protein (CRP) level and normochromic/normocytic anaemia.
Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis (UC)
Explanation:Erythema Nodosum and its Association with Various Diseases
Erythema nodosum is a skin condition characterized by painful, red nodules on the legs. It can be associated with various underlying diseases. In patients with ulcerative colitis, erythema nodosum is a common extraintestinal manifestation, along with uveitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, ankylosing spondylitis, and pyoderma gangrenosum. However, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, and mycoplasma infection can also cause erythema nodosum. It is important to consider the patient’s clinical presentation and other symptoms to determine the underlying cause. In this case, the patient’s gastrointestinal symptoms suggest inflammatory bowel disease, specifically ulcerative colitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 24
Incorrect
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At her routine check-up, a 75 year old woman is discovered to have a serum sodium level of 128 mmol/L. Despite feeling fine and having no symptoms, which of the following medications could be responsible for her hyponatraemia?
Your Answer: Irbesartan
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Hyponatraemia, a condition where there is low sodium levels in the blood, can be caused by various drugs that either increase the production or enhance the effects of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Among these drugs, diuretics (especially thiazides), SSRIs, antipsychotics like haloperidol, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories, and carbamazepine are the most commonly implicated. SSRIs, in particular, can trigger the release of ADH, leading to hyponatraemia within the first few weeks of treatment. However, this condition usually resolves within two weeks of discontinuing the drug. The risk of developing hyponatraemia is higher in older patients and those taking diuretics concomitantly with SSRIs.
Understanding the Side-Effects and Interactions of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants that can have various side-effects and interactions with other medications. The most common side-effect of SSRIs is gastrointestinal symptoms, and patients taking these medications are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed if the patient is also taking a NSAID. Hyponatraemia, or low sodium levels, can also occur with SSRIs, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting treatment.
Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and citalopram has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram has been reduced for certain patient populations.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. It is important to review patients after starting antidepressant therapy and to gradually reduce the dose when stopping treatment to avoid discontinuation symptoms. These symptoms can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
In summary, understanding the potential side-effects and interactions of SSRIs is crucial for safe and effective treatment of depression and other mental health conditions. Patients should be closely monitored and counseled on the risks and benefits of these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Correct
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A 47-year-old obese man complains of fatigue and excessive thirst. What is the lowest HbA1c level that can confirm the diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer: 6.5% (48 mmol/mol)
Explanation:Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 26
Correct
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A 25-year-old female student attends the blood transfusion service wishing to donate blood. She is currently well, has never had a serious illness and weighs 60 kg. About three months ago she spent the summer doing voluntary work in Nigeria. She also had her ears pierced three years ago and had a tattoo put on her left arm one year ago. She is not acceptable as a donor.
Which of the following is the reason for her rejection to donate blood in the UK?Your Answer: Recent travel to an endemic area
Explanation:Blood Donation Eligibility Criteria: Factors to Consider
When it comes to donating blood, there are several factors to consider to ensure the safety of both the donor and the recipient. Here are some examples:
Recent travel to an endemic area: If a person has recently traveled to a country with a high risk of infectious diseases, they may have to wait a certain period before donating blood. For instance, if someone has returned from Nigeria, they must wait at least six months before donating blood in the UK.
Underweight: A person must weigh at least 50 kg to donate blood. If they weigh less than that, they may not have enough blood volume to spare.
Body piercing: If someone has had a body piercing within the last 12 months, they should inform the staff before donating blood. They may have to wait for at least four months before donating.
Tattoo: Similarly, if someone has had a tattoo within the last 12 months, they should inform the staff before donating blood. They may have to wait for at least four months before donating.
Age: To donate blood, a person must be between 17 and 66 years old (or 70 if they have donated blood before). If they are over 70, they can still donate if they have donated blood in the last two years.
By considering these factors, blood donation centers can ensure that the blood they collect is safe and suitable for transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl with known sickle cell disease presents with pallor, back pain and a 6-cm tender, enlarged spleen. She is anaemic with a raised reticulocyte count, and is moderately jaundiced.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Splenic sequestration crisis
Explanation:Differentiating Sickle Cell Disease Complications: A Guide
Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects the shape of red blood cells, leading to a range of complications. Here is a guide to differentiating between some of the most common complications:
Splenic Sequestration Crisis: This occurs when sickled red blood cells become trapped in the spleen, leading to abdominal pain, splenomegaly, and signs of anemia. It is most common in children aged 5 months to 2 years and may be associated with infection. Treatment involves fluid resuscitation and transfusion, with splenectomy advised for recurrent cases.
Haemolytic Crisis: Chronic haemolysis is a feature of sickle cell disease, but worsening haemolysis may accompany acute deteriorations. This leads to a reduction in haemoglobin and an increase in unconjugated bilirubin. However, isolated haemolysis would not lead to abdominal pain and splenomegaly.
Aplastic Crisis: This is a temporary cessation of red blood cell production, often associated with parvovirus B19 infection. Patients present with fatigue, pallor, shortness of breath, and low reticulocyte counts.
Girdle Syndrome: This rare complication is characterised by an established ileus, with vomiting, distended abdomen, and absent bowel sounds. It is often associated with bilateral basal lung consolidation, but this patient does not exhibit these features.
Painful Crisis: This is the most common reason for hospital admission in sickle cell disease patients. It is characterised by recurrent attacks of acute severe pain, triggered by sickling and vaso-occlusion. Splenomegaly is not a feature of painful crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Correct
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Assuming that all of the patients have COPD, which one of the following is eligible for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)?
Your Answer: Non-smoker with PaO2 of 7.8kPa with secondary polycythaemia
Explanation:Assessing the Need for Oxygen Therapy in Patients with Respiratory Conditions
When assessing the need for oxygen therapy in patients with respiratory conditions, it is important to consider various factors. For instance, NICE recommends LTOT for patients with a PaO2 between 7.3 and 8.0 kPa when stable, if they have comorbidities such as secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension. Additionally, patients with very severe or severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, raised jugular venous pressure, and oxygen saturations â€92% when breathing air should also be assessed for oxygen therapy.
However, it is important to note that a non-smoker with a PaO2 of 8.2 kPa with pulmonary hypertension does not meet the criteria for oxygen therapy, while a non-smoker with FEV1 56% or a non-smoker with a PaO2 of 7.6 kPa and diabetes mellitus also do not meet the criteria for LTOT. On the other hand, a smoker with a PaO2 of 7.3 kPa may be considered for oxygen therapy, but it is important to ensure that the result has been checked twice and to warn the patient about the risks of smoking while on oxygen therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 29
Correct
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A 6-month-old infant is brought to his General Practitioner by his concerned mother. He has been crying after every feed for several weeks and regurgitating milk. He has also been failing to gain weight.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)
Explanation:The child’s symptoms suggest that they may have gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which is characterized by regurgitation of milk after feeds and crying due to abdominal pain. This can lead to failure to gain weight or even weight loss. Infantile colic is less likely as it would not cause these symptoms. Intussusception, a condition where part of the bowel invaginates into another, causing colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, and passing of redcurrant stools, requires immediate hospitalization. Pyloric stenosis, which presents with projectile vomiting, dehydration, and faltering growth, is less likely as the child does not have projectile vomiting. Volvulus, a complete twisting of an intestinal loop, could present with bilious vomiting, signs of shock, peritonitis, and blood per rectum, and typically occurs in the first year of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old homeless man is brought to the emergency department after being found unresponsive in a local park. Upon admission, his temperature is 30.2 ÂșC and an ECG reveals a broad complex polymorphic tachycardia. The patient is diagnosed with torsades de pointes. What is the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer: Amiodarone
Correct Answer: Magnesium sulphate
Explanation:Torsades de pointes can be treated with IV magnesium sulfate.
Torsades de Pointes: A Life-Threatening Condition
Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which can cause sudden death. There are several causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like antiarrhythmics, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other causes include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
The management of torsades de pointes involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate. This can help to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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